#help-26
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Wdym switch x
this
I just thought you could switch 2/3x=f(-3y+12)+6 by rearranging 
But the rearrange form is y=af though
A is 3/2
no?
you can't
Y
Wait ok
Let’s multiple by 6
So u got 4y right?
But if u divide by 4
U still get 3/2
are you trying to make f does equal to 0, right?
I try to isolate y
then switch variables too
I'm feeling sick tbh so might doing something wrong sorry
ill leave it to someone else
what is the problem?
i see. let me check
Ty
@spring tide Has your question been resolved?
How to got the m and n?
I am not sure
But I think there’s a equation
M/b+c,n-d/a
I think but I am not sure
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how do i find the geometric interpretation
Two parallel planes, not identical.
Other plane not parallel.
^that is the answer
the geometric interpretation is three planes that never meet or intersect
looking at line 1 and 3, its clear that the LHS have a multiple of 3/2 difference
but RHS not
does RHS not matter? only LHS matters
if line 1 and 3 LHS have a multiple but RHS not -> parallel not identical planes
if line 1 and 3 LHS have a multiple and RHS too -> parallel and identitical planes?
yes, line 3 is a factor of -3/2 from line 1
if the RHS of line 3 was also a -3/2 multiple of line 1, then they would be the same plane
the RHS matters, because that is the reason that plane 1 and plane 3 are parallel and never meet
ohhhh
while plane 2 is clearly independent of line 1 and 3 so it just intersects the parallel planes 1 and 3?
yes
ill show you the geometric interpretation as well
so just three planes that never have a common intersection
you're welcome!
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how do I do dis
have you learnt logarithms?
you'll need logarithms to find x here
r u sure?
another way is to change both sides to a base of 2
Ok lemme try
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idk how to start
@pearl fog Has your question been resolved?
Idk if that's the right start, but there is the property that the center of inscribed circle lies on angle bisectors
@pearl fog Has your question been resolved?
what is it
yeah this works
C_2AO = OAB_1
AB_1O = OB_1C_1
AB_2O = OB_2C_2
B_1C_1O = OC_1A
B_2C_2O = OC_2A
then i just wrote expressions for literally every angle in the picture, and the equality just fell out
Idk if there is a less verbose way
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Can someone explain to me why this was solved with the equation being linear in x?
Why cant it be linear in y? I have no clue
It can be I think
The correct answer is 1/y according to the answer keys
Idk why
Because both 1/y and 1/x is in the choices
but mathematically A and B both are like correct
maybe there could be some error in question
Oh wait i think the -y^2 violates linearity?
Like if y becomes the dependent variable it wont be linear anymore?
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starting with which sentence
if p is not prime
if P isn't prime, then it can be divided by some prime factor p_i. P = p_1 ... p_n + 1, so P - p_1...p_n = 1
if P is divisible by p_i, and p_i is in that list of primes, then P - p_1...p_n is divisible by p_i
but that would mean that equivalently, 1 is divisible by p_i
sorry still cant understand lol im kinda stupid. confused on this part.
P - p_1...p_n is divisible by some prime factor p_i, right?
yep
since P is divisible by some prime, based on P being composite, and p_i is a factor in that list
we dont know which 1 but its 1 in the list
P - p_1...p_n is equivalently 1
since P = p_1 ... p_n + 1
now if two numbers are equal, then if some number divides one then it must divide the other
since they are necessarily the same number
p_i is some prime dividing P - p_1...p_n
P - p_1...p_n is identically the number 1
and therefore p_i would have to divide 1
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FR tho 😭
Anyways, im guessing I use the distance formula somehow
Sqrt(a^2 + b^2) right?
Ah yeah nvm
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how do i get that equation?
Which equation?
the equation of the plane through those points
u eat a pie
One way would be to compute the cross product of two of the vectors in the plane (you have three points so many vectors to choose from), that'll give you the normal vector of the plane
ill give it a go.
There are lots of 0s so the algebra should be simple
wait you mean the cross products of the points?
That's a meaningless operation
If you label the vertices A, B, C for example, one possible vector is A-B
oh
uhhh so i did from (1,0,0) to (0,-2,0) and (1,0,0) to (0,0,16)
that would make the first vector <1, -2, 0> and the second (<1, 0, 16> right?
i did cross product and got <-2, -16, 2> :/
Second is slightly off, check your signs
Err wait, both seem off
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i do not comprehend
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I would like to know how the fraction can be expanded like that
a^p + b^p = a^p - (-b)^p
ohh is it just basically changing it to the difference of powers raised to p?
yep you recognize a difference of real numbers to the power of p
and then use x^p - y^p identity
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I am learning new things with advanced exams for my level so i would like to know what i need to know for the second and third question, what do i need to study that will help me to answer these questions
I managed to do the first one
Where did "w" come from in part A
@vivid saffron Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
Oh I see
Basically you can show that the distance from the center of a big circle to the nearest corner of the square is also "c"
idk if thats how you did A
exactly, i made like it
but if it is then you can make an isosceles right triangle with legs of length "a" and hypotenuse "c"
which means you can solve for c in terms of a
so substitute that into your original expression for the diagonal in part A
since the square has side length of 1, you can find what the diagonal actually equals
it is the question a) right?
when I wrote lowercase I meant the lengths in the picture
uppercase I meant the question letter
alright
and about the b) and c), what would i need to know to do these questions? I want to study the content needed for making this exam you know
I showed how to do b
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what do i add in the circled area
so
try using the given values and input them into that formula
replace the blank with x or some other constant, use the first set of data (shape number 1, number of matches 4) cuz itll be easier
oh ok
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Am I doing these correctly?
when it's not stated which side it's approaching from, it wants you to take into account both sides, right?
Idk, there is a value for f(-4) and f(4) in the first graph
I think it's just asking for the limit, not the value of f(-4) or f(4)
Yes
Ok, then it is from the two sides
And DNE or undefined are the answers given when you have two different y values being approached despite approaching the same x value?
Undefined is where it doenst approach a finite value, and DNE is for no limit, as some undefined approach Either +inf or -inf
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What is 808 days after august 15th 2022
!noans
The purpose of this server is to help you learn, not to hand out answers. Do not ask someone to give you the answer directly.
you can take 2x365 days out of that number as you'll get the same day just in a different year, and then it'll be easier to calculate the remaining days (hopefully there are no leap years though)
You'll get into 2024, so there will be a leap year
ah mb, we don't use that calendar
so make sure to take that extra day into account as well
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840x = pi mod 2pi. How many solutions are there given 0 <= x < 2pi?
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Phew, I’m trying to keep up with my professor’s simplification here and it is very confusing
I get lost after
Oops wait, there is a 2nd part, 1/3 can be ignored
His keep change flip here
-h/1+h * 1/h
Shouldn’t it be
-h/1+h * h/1
Because that is the true reciprocal
no bc on the bottom is h by itself which is h/1 so the reciprocal is 1/h
Okay..
mb for bad explanation
No it’s not you,
When I look at it I see keep (-h/1+h)
Multiply instead
If I could picture my confusion, I see h as 1/h | x /h because it’s on the denominator
@turbid sable but I’m confusing myself the further I think on something like this and should just Move on from my mistake
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Why sqrt(2) = 2a( sqrt(2) + 1 ) -> a = sqrt(2) / [ 2 ( sqrt(2) + 1 )]
divide both sides by 2(sqrt(2)+1)?
They just divide as 187 said
but how sqrt(2) / 2(sqrt(2)+1) turned into a
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.
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can somemone please tell me if im correct
My work is shown in this picture
These are the two questions
it looks like you calculated the surface area of a box and a cylinder and added them together, is that right?
Yes it's a composite object then I subtracted the overlap so I subtracted a pi r^2
So Im supposed to subtract 2 pi r^2
So I'm correct on the volumes?
i don't want to check your arithmetic :P but your method is right
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If the function has a local maximum end point that belongs to the x-axis, find the value of c, then find the equation of the tangent at its inflection point.
My only problem here is the y
Here y is supposed to equal c
So why is it positive
sorry if the translation isnt that clear
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I need to find the angle theta in the above diagram..
Given: AB = 10 and BC = 10
What i have tried..
- I find the hypotenuse AC using pythagorean theorem, which is 14.142
- I find the length of MC by dividing the AC by 2, Which is 7.071
- Now, i tried using tan inverse as i know MC(Opposite) and BC(adjacent), which came out 35.264 degrees..
But the answer is 45 degrees (after round-off).. IDK WHERE I Gone wrong..
Ping me.. While replying pls!
The angle B is a right angle
You don't need to calculate the length of the hypotenuse
Yeah.. Sorry not to mention earlier
why..
Because M is the midpoint of AC, while AB and BC are of equal length
Let's see if I can come up with some straightforward complete argument for it
The vague rationale is to try and justify that it's an isosceles triangle
It really isn't actually known unless you know the triangle is a right triangle
Ah
If they tell you B is a right angle, then it's clear
And to mention.. The AB will not always equal to BC.. The mentioned problem is one of the cases.. In other cases (i have several one).. the two of them will vary.. So.. i need to find the genreal algorithim
ok.. But.. WE need to find angle MBC!
It's 45
how.. sorry..
But I can see that from intuition, without any thought
I am trying to think of how to justify it properly with an algebraic argument
...
B is 90 degrees, you are told. The line BM is the bisector of the angle B, because AM and MC are of equal length
So MBC is 45 degrees
Oh.. Now it makes sense!
To see why BM is the bisector more clearly, note that MBC (triangle) and ABM (triangle) are congruent triangles
the whole construction is symmetric across the BM line
like, you can fold it over and it's the same
hm.. Yeah..
the reason your solution here doesn't work is because mc is not the "opposite" side of a triangle other than MBC, but BC is the hypotenuse (not adjacent side) of that MBC triangle
oh.. So.. BMC is 90 degrees?
Ok..So for the triangle MBC.. BC is hypotenuse.. but.. MC is adjacent or opposite..
Oh.. do MC is opposite in the triganle MBC as it is opposite to the angle theta?
Yeah
MC is indeed the opposite relative to theta
MB is adjacent
So.. I need to use sin inverse right..instead of tan inverse
Well, firstly you need to know that BMC is 90 degrees, and have to prove that 🙂
But assuming you do know it, then yes you could do sine inverse
😅 .. Ok.. We can assume..
I got the answer for this case.. But when AB is 20 and BC is 10.. I can't get the answer!
I tried using asin but it is out of domain..
I guess if I wanted to write a "clean" answer to this problem, I'd say something like this:
Because AB = BC and B = 90 degrees, we know this to be an isosceles triangle, so the line segment from the midpoint M of AC to the angle B is a bisector of B. Hence theta is 1/2 the angle of B, i.e., 45 degree.s
No trig needed
AB isn't 20
it's 10
This argument won't work if AB = 20
in the other case, it is 20
Try drawing the triangle, i have no tools at hand to draw with currently
Things will be clearer that way
yeah.. i know
AB is 20, in this case!
I can understand your above argument.. as you are proving that BM is an angle bisector, so we can conclude that angle theta is 45, right?
But in this scenario, where AB != BC, we can't use the formula AM/MC = AB/BC to prove that the line segemnt is an angle bisector.. So how can i use the trig to find the theta
Yeah
So in this case, you can fill in a bit with three pieces of information:
Use arctan to get A and C.
Use pythagorean identity to get the length of AM = MC.
that's just some extra data to work with to maybe make things easier
i can't get it.. sorry!
oh ok
so we can find the angles A and C
oh wait.. If we know the angle C.. we can calutlate theata as.. theta + C + M = 180!
where M is 90 degrees
am i correct?
Then you can get the length of MB using law of cosines
Yes
But you don't know CMB angle
M is 90 degress
ok sorry..!
This is the only way to do it I would think
ok then.. What can i do with the length MB?
Well, that's the magic
Once you have MB, you also have C, which is the opposite angle. And you have MC, the length which is opposite to the angle MBC!
So you can apply law of sines then.
MB/C = MC/MBC
So to solve MBC (theta), you just calculate MC*C/MB
ok sounds cool.. I will try using magic!
this should work even if you change the side lengths
it only relies on B being a 90 degree angle
Of what?
it's not a right triangle
oh.. So i use trig functions only in right triangle?
yes
np
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whats the point of this stpe
.close
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Since.. the traianlge ABC is right angle triangle.. we can conclude that A and C is 45 degrees each right?.. or not?
ABC is right angle and isosceles
thanks to that, you can conclude that angle A = angle C
only because AB = BC
and since angle B = 90°, and B + A + C = 180, you can conclude that A,C = 45°
Oh.. So not every right angle triangles has 90 + 45 + 45 = 180..?
no, but since its also isosceles it's true
But not when.. AB != BC right?
yes
in that case we only know that A + C = 90
but A and C can be e.g. 60 and 30 respectively
hm.. yeah making sense.. Thanks guys
btw BM = MC, so BMC is also isosceles
and thanks to that, you can conlude what theta is immidiately
BM = MC.. how>? @prisma mesa
do you know about triangle congruence?
Excuse me, could any of you explain to me what a limit value is?
Try looking at ABM and CBM
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yeah.. i gues..
what can you tell about these 2 triangles then?
nope
that's right
but what about their relation to each other?
are they congruent, similar or neither?
I just filled in the info we already know
why.. They have all three sides equal right?
they don't
BC is longer than BM and MC
and AB is longer than AM and BM
that's also true, but moreover, they are actually congruent
note that BC is same as AB, angle C is same as angle A and MC is same as AM
hence they are congruent by side - angle - side
similar != congurent? sorry.. i forgot about those..
similar can be scaled
the red shapes are both similar and congruent
the green shapes are only similar, but not congruent (since they have different size)
Oh.. Making sense.. Awesome bro..
so now that we know that BMC and ABM are congruent, we also know that all their corresponding angles and sides are equal
So by this how can you conlude that BM == MC?
meaning that e.g. angle CBM = angle ABM
cool!
But.. This doesn't add up!
is this a typo?
we actually won't need it, but it will be a conclusion of what we are gonna do now
im using a slightly different approach rn, because i think it will be easier for you to understand
okay so we know that the green angle is same as blue angle
ytes
and also that green + blue = 90°
hm\
what does this tell us about green and blue angles?
this is because they add up to the angle B, which we know is right
so they are 45 each
yeah..
so m is 90
oh.. You are proving that BMC is isosceles to conclude that BM == MC
hmm.. making sense
So.. is it one of the critiria of isosceles triangle that if two angles are equal then it is isosceles?.. Sorry.. To ask this silly one!
oh..
yes, either 2 sides or 2 angles must be equal
cool.. bro..
BUT.. This isn't gave me the solution of my actuall problem @prisma mesa
😅
what was the actual problem?
This is my problem
Where AB != BC
So.. We cannot use the isosceles triangle logic here!
yep!
one of the ways we can do it is by calculating MC and then using the triangle BMC to calculate theta
We can calculate the MC easily using pythagorean theorem then..
or by chance, do you know thalet's theorem?
oh no..
wait do you know thalet's theorem or not?
or.. i can learn it now..
*thales
wait..
Yeah.. I know it.. BPT
what about this one?
yeah..
ok bro..
hmm
and MB is just a radius of the circle
as is MC and AM
and all of them should be equal
ok...
but since BM = MC, we also know that angle MBC = angle MCB
isosceles criteria.,. cool
red and green are equal, because BMC is isosceles
so it actually suffices to find the red angle
and then we will get the green one immidiately
and finding the red angle is just simple trigonometry
do you know how to find the red angle?
Bro.. Since BM = MC.. BMC is isosceles.. SO it contains two equal angles... But we don't know which two among the three will be equal?
we do, if the red sides are equal, then the purple angles are equal
How you conclude that.. angle MBC = angle MCB? it can be.. angle BMC == angle BCM.. or other possibilites
the 2 equal angles are the ones that are between the base and one of the equal sides
oh.. oh.. Now i am making my fundamentals stronger.. Thank you So much bro.. You are awesome\
ok bro.. Give me some time to read the other details you gave in the diagram!
Then.. I need some more minutes pls
lol.. easy.. by using tan inverse!!
correct
cool bro.. But in exacatly where we include Thales theorem?
in here
without thales theorem, we wouldnt know that M is the center of the circle
drawing a circle?
we can draw a circumcircle for any triangle, but not in every triangle the center lies on the hypotenuse
that's specific to right triangles. And we know that thanks to thales theorem
and only thanks to the fact that M is the center, we were able to conclude that AM = BM = MC
bro.. It seems quite confusing.. Because Thales theorem just says that if a line drawn parrelle to a side of a truiangle and if that line intersects other two sides, then that line segment divides those two sides in the same ratio..
do you know the one with circle and right triangle
this image basically describes it
sorry.. i can't complety understand this one
ok.. So we know that in our case.,. AC is a diameter.. But how we conclude that M is the midpoint of the diamter!
Oh yeah.. sorry..
Now i am clear..
Again.. A Big thanks for your time bro @prisma mesa
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I need help with sketching and finding the x-intercepts with: y = 2 cos 3 (x − π/4) when the domain is [-π, 2π]
for x-intercept, put y=0 and solve for x
and for the graph, you can put of values of x and y separately and plot the graph, it will be tedious tho
idk what to do after
because of the brackets
it means cos 3 (x − π/4) =0
what ab the 2?
yeahh
idkk
π/2
x = π/2, 2π - π/2 ?
but from that you wont find the other intecepts,
lemme share the grap
okk
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=R1iGQXyjaAc&t=12s
i found this video, it might help
it is about sine function, but the basis is same
thank youu
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Can someone help me with this?
I don’t understand where did the sqrt2 / 2 came from in the first step
I did 1/2(1+i) but can’t move forward because sin theta = cos theta = 1
They’ve replaced 1 by sqrt2*(1/sqrt2)
Where 1/sqrt2 is cospi/4 & sinpi/4
why though
they do sqrt 2 / 2 though which is not equal to one
how did they find that value?
1/2 is already in the question. The value inside the bracket becomes (1/sqrt2 + i*1/sqrt2). For the bracket to become (1+i) they’ve multiplied by sqrt2
@south pasture Has your question been resolved?
@south pasture Has your question been resolved?
i dont get it where did the 1/ √2 came its not even in the question
<@&286206848099549185>
like
1/2(1+i) is what we have
not √2/2
also i think ur trying to say we did √2/2 to multiply it by the inside things and get 1/2 but like
√2/2(cos45+ i sin45)
and yes we do get 1/2 + 1/2 i but the thing is
1/2(1+i)
and cos 45 is not equal to 1.
shouldn't we be sure that we have this form?
well
any complex number a + bi can be expressed as r(cos(theta) + i*sin(theta)
where r is the length from the origin to that complex number as a point in the complex plane, which is sqrt(a^2 + b^2)
and theta is the angle of the line you draw to get to that point from the origin
so we got it since sqrt(1^2 + 1^2) = sqrt(2), and we divide it by 2 since we've multiplied by 1/2 at the start
but if you havent learned about the complex plane yet, we just multiply by sqrt2 / 2 to make sure it ends up equaling 1/2 + 1/2 i when you multiply it all out
heres a more visual explanation
@south pasture Has your question been resolved?
i learned about the complex plane but idk the 1/2(1+i) confuses me
I get it that we are trying to make it equal to 1/2 + i1/2 by doing sqrt 2 /2 ( cos 45 + i sin45 ) but i dont underdtand why we did 1/2(1+i) in the first place 🤷🏻
because it was 0.5+0.5i so we factored out the 0.5 and it became 0.5(1 +1i)
are you asking why we thought of doing the first place? if so i think its because it makes converting into the form r(costheta + isintheta) easier since youre working with the common 1 1 sqrt(2) right triangle
well actually now that i think about it a 0.5 0.5 sqrt(2)/2 triangle also isnt hard to derive, but some people prefer to do it the other way
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I’m stuck and don’t understand what to do
tried drawing AD and calling the midpoint of AD R. I found some similar triangles from this as NR is parallel to BC
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✅
is ABC a right triangle?
yeah, i've seen the original pictures. Are those the full instructions of the problem?
yes
try using reverse mid point theorem... draw a line parallel to AB from point N
So NP will be half the length of AB (by mid-point theorem)
I tried proving MP = NP
Then draw NT line parallel to MP... you will get a rhombus
Diagonal of rhombus bisect the angle at vertices...
@sour carbon Has your question been resolved?
Thank you so much
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alternatively; if the measurement of 1 is congruent to 4, then measure of angle 2 is congruent to angle 3?
What’s the question
this itself
If you keep the complement conditions, then yes.
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how should i go about solving this sequence
i would look at the terms of the series
it seems to be the sum $\sum_{n , = , 1}^{\infty} \frac{e^n}{n^3}$
eugene_krabs_has_cake
so for this sum to converge, these terms have to tend to 0
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The solution provided by the site, looks a bit strange
They use the definition of derivative
Bro
mb it didn't show in the thingy
It is okay
That equation only means that the limit of the function exists at x=0. It doesn`t even guarantee continuity at x=0, so certainly not differentiability.
For differentiability you want the derivatives to agree.
I see
I have to prove that h’(x) at x=0 is continuous
No
Not necessarily continuous. Actually, checking with the definition is probably better, but in this case the left and right handed limits will end up the same as the derivatives.
I think that if the limits are the same, then it is a bit stronger (having continuous derivative is good), but it works fine in practice.
It`s fine, yes.
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It is sufficient to show that the limits of f'(x) around 0 are the same, since we know it's differentiable everywhere away from 0 (it's a polynomial in those places).
The reason why you'd want to use the definition is that it's possible for f'(0) to be defined despite the limit of f'(x) about 0 is not.
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Can I get some help with this problem. I am struggling to remember what I am supposed to do.
Do you remember the conditions for a sequence to converge or diverge?
If not, look them up.
The conditions for it to converge or diverge? Like if it’s converging it eventually goes towards a number and if it diverges it goes to infinity?
Finite limit vs a limit that’s doesn’t exist/is infinite
Yeah
So let’s start with (a) - how would we start?
I don’t remember how to prove that it converges or diverges I can plug in numbers and see it converges but I don’t remember besides that.
Just set up the limit for now
Like Lim n-> infinite (1/n)^1/n
Civil Service Pigeon
Do you remember the trick where you rewrite using natural logs if you have stuff in the exponent?
I do not remember that
$a^b=e^{\ln(a^b)}=e^{b \ln(a)}$
Civil Service Pigeon
This is the main idea
If we apply that to this, what do we get?
e^((1/n)ln(1/n) )right?
Yeah
$\lim_{n \to \infty} e^{\frac{1}{n} \ln \frac{1}{n}}=e^{\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n} \ln \frac{1}{n}}$
Civil Service Pigeon
Any ideas now?
Would you be able to use a test there then?
What are you thinking of?
Am I thinking of the wrong thing here? I was thinking of like divergence tests like ratio test or something but that might be wrong for this.
Right just calculating a link right now
Sorry I’m mixing things up cause there is a bunch of different problems in here and some are like that.
As n got bigger and bigger there though it would approach 0 though meaning it would converge to 1 right…?
Yeah, the sequence converges to 1.
Would that be enough to prove it converges to 1?
Yeah, you showed the limit is 1
Ok thank you
So for these problems do I not need to do any convergence tests or anything like that?
Nah
So I can just simplify it like that and plug in numbers or solve the limit basically?
Do not plug in numbers
- It’s not rigorous even for continuous functions
- Sequences don’t have a discrete domain, so it’s gonna be even worse
Just calculate the limit like a normal person
Is the second point true?
I think the other two problems also converge to 1
Oh lol
I think I have those problems good then if they all converge to 1
Thank you
Could I also get some help with these ones then?
These I think actually use the divergence tests which was why I got it mixed up.
Just the limit test works here
Just the limit test works on the first one?
Yes
I will have to look the tests up again because it’s been a while but finding which test to use is a lot of it for me
Would I then use alternating series test for the second one?
That might work
Would there be another better option?
I’d use alternating too
Yeah alternating is pretty easy here
For the last one the integral test is the most suitable
Alright thank you.
For the alternating series test would I have to convert the function the the ( -1)^n form
What would that mean?
Sorry it’s been a while since I have done this I don’t quite remember what I have to do.
Wait we might be certified idiots - isn’t this the same as $$\sum^{\infty}_{n=1} \left(\frac{1}{4n}-\frac{1}{4n-2} \right)$$
Civil Service Pigeon
,w sum of 1/(4n) - 1/(4n-2) from n=1 to infty
,w sum of 1/n * cos(n*pi/2) from 1 to infty
@coarse tusk idt we cooked with alternating lol
For which question?
b
Write out the first few (nonzero) terms and it becomes obvious
A few more than that
Wait but even with those I don’t think they equal do they?
??
Cause like 1/8-1/6 does not equal 0
Or I mean -1/2 not 0
But still
Actually looking at it I think it is basically correct
@spice tundra Has your question been resolved?
Yeah you can use limit comparison at that point
But also how do you get to that equation from the first one?
Did you not confirm it yourself here
Yeah I did but then my brain was like wait actually idk
I was like it seems kinda right but also I just don’t know how to get to the equation.
Sorry I am struggling with brain rn been doing this stuff for the past few days straight and my brain doesn’t want to work right anymore 😂
Like would I be able to show any work as to how you could arrive at that equation or is it kinda just seeing relations?
Uh
Pair consecutive terms in the expansion
$\left(\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{2} \right)+\left(\frac{1}{8}-\frac{1}{6} \right)+\left(\frac{1}{12}-\frac{1}{10} \right)+\cdots$
Civil Service Pigeon
Ohhh wait I get it now actually
For some reason my brain did not like that that eqaution did not have the zeros from the series however the zeros don’t matter.
Ok that makes sense now.
Only other question. For integral test I just take the integral of function and if integral converges to a value and not infinity it converges correct?
But also would I even need to use integral test for the last one since ln of infinity is still infinity?
So function would end up being 1/infinity right?
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Could anyone help me solve this differential equation?
$x \cdot \frac{dy}{dx} + 2y = 1 - \frac{1}{x} \$
$\cdot \frac{dy}{dx} + \frac{2y}{x} = \frac{1}{x} - \frac{1}{x^2} \$
$\frac{dy}{dx} +\frac{1}{x}2y = \frac{1}{x} - \frac{1}{x^2} \$
$\frac{dy}{dx} + \frac{1}{x}y = \frac{1}{2} \cdot (\frac{1}{x} -\frac{1}{x^2}) \$
$\frac{d}{dx}(xy) = \int \frac{1}{2x} - \frac{1}{2x^2}dx \$
$\frac{d}{dx}(xy) = \int 2x^{-1} -2xdx = 2\ln x - x^2 \$
$xy = 2\ln x -x^2 \$
$y = \frac{2\ln x -x ^2}{x} + C$
Tomi
what is wrong with this? (hope didnt anything)
You didn't divide 1st term by 2
There's no need to divide tho
How did you get the 4th step?
@eager timber Has your question been resolved?
shouldnt the y be on its own?
4thstep is wrong
well its like the product rule so I end up with x and y
There's a little mistake I assume
should I just leave it as xy= the integral of whatever is there
there is no need of xy here
well since the integrating factor is x
I multiply that out
and after I take the integral of that side I end up with xy
if you are applying IF then there is no need to to have $\dv {xy}{x}$ in the LHS
convergence
then it should have been
$xy = \int \frac{1}{2x} - \frac{1}{2x^2}dx$
Tomi
$x(\frac{dy}{dx} \frac{1}{x}y)$
Tomi
here i end up with dy/dx(x) and y
that is the product rule with the derivative of x being 1
iintegrating factor is not x!
$e^{\int \frac{1}{x}}$
Tomi
$e^{\int \frac{2}{x}}$
convergence
here P(x) is 1/x right?
no P(x)=2/x
well it depends, if I calculuate P(x) at the beginning then yes, if I divide everything by 2 it is one over x
so I could calculate P(x) with 2 over x so I don't need to divide by 2.
no it doesnt the case you did is wrong
let me see what I got if p(x) is 2/x
$\frac{1}{2} \cdot\frac{dy}{dx} + \frac{1}{x}y = \frac{1}{2} \cdot (\frac{1}{x} -\frac{1}{x^2}) $
convergence
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this what you will get if you divide by 2
but now the term front of y is 1 over x, no?
well yes I forgot
to multiple
by 1 over 2
in the left term
LHS
yes so we cant apply the IF in this case
it should be in the form of
y'+yP(x)=Q(x) to apply IF
just realised by IF you mean "integrating factor"
so I should divide by 2 and then do the IF part
no need to do that just take P(x) =2/x makes your life easier
alr let me try this again and see what i get
yeah
$(2 \ln |x| (\frac{dy}{dx} + \frac{2y}{x} = \frac{1}{x} - \frac{1}{x^2})$
Tomi
so I just multiply through by that
yeah its wrong
if you are using IF then the eq will be in
$y*IF=\int Q(x)\cdot IF$
convergence
you gotta multiply each of the terms
well its the same thing with differnt notation mb
so i end up with
$\frac{xdy}{dx} + 2y = x - 1$
Tomi
is this correct then @thorny remnant
almost correct
x2y
its $\frac{x^2dy}{dx} + 2xy = x - 1$
convergence
now I just have to integrate both sides?
yeah
you should get
$\dv{x^2y}{x}=x-1$
then you know what to so
convergence
wait, how did you get this?
apply derivative rules on the LHS you will find that its the same thing
$$\frac{x^2dy}{dx} + 2xy =\dv{x^2y}{x}$$
convergence
what about the right handside?
multiply dx on both sides
for this
i totally lost this now
I got it until this point.
did you undersatnd this?
not exactly sure what you are trying to do there.
now you would need to take the integral of both sides after multiplying by IF and simplify it down to y = smt + c.
yk what ill show wim
$\frac{x^2dy}{dx} + 2xy =\dv{x^2y}{x}\
\dv{x^2y}{x}=x-1\
\dd{x^2y)=(x-1)\dd{x}\
\int \dd{x^2y)=\int (x-1)\dd{x}$
$\frac{x^2dy}{dx} + 2xy =\dv{x^2y}{x}$
convergence
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(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Tomi
how did you get \frac{dx^2y}{dx} from x - 1?
arent you supposed to take the integral what does that have to do with derivatives
i never got it from x-1
okay, so it relates to the first 2 terms in the LHS but can you tell me why its valid? like i dont know if ive seen derivatives written up like this before
do you kmow derivative rules?
ofc
this just confuses me, maybe im just being really stupid here or cant focus enough
do you know the derivative of the product of two functions?
yeah y'x + x'y
now let x=x^2 and y=y in that eq
ah get it
x = x^2 x' = 2x
y = y y' = dy/dx
yes
so it is just the derivative of x^2 multiplied by y with respect to dx
yes
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