#help-26
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It's alright
I have a lot of other problems to do, but i wont bother you anymore XD
thank you for the help!
i am applying for a scholarship, the math is hard
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yes
well depends on how much detail is expected for your class
I would
an extra line between the assumption coming from xn -> 2 and what you conclude wouldn't hurt as far as writing is concerned
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i need help with this
do you know definition of union of two sets
there is listing method and set builder notation
Can you show me an example of a union
impossible
idk man
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bro just spammed images
✅
<@&286206848099549185>
this last one is actually very slightly useful if you read the examples at the bottom
I saw the first example matches
Union of two sets is a set whose elements exist in either of those two sets
E.g. ${1}\cup{2}={1,2}$
SWR
Wouldn’t it be B then? Empty set
maybe you are confusing union with intersection
Please explain you're thinking on why you believe it would be the empty set
Do you understand this example?
venn diagram maybe can make u understand
Yeah
So can you do union of {1,2,3} and {5}?
No
It's {1,2,3,5}
You just take the elements from both sets, and combine them into one set
do u still need help
Yes I still can’t get the answer to the question I don’t know if I’m missing something
okay
Is it {1,7,9,1,5,7}
yes but the duplicates
almost
Fixed it
also, I think in listing method it should be sorted ascending
How do I know when I need to answer in the listing method
write the resulting set using listing method
resulting set of taking the union of those two sets
The answer would be {1,5,7,9} right?
,w Union[{1,7,9},{1,5,7}]
alright i understand now
great
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Question Let $f(x, y) = cos(y) +y^6 e^x sin(x^2)$ and find $f_{yyyyxyyyy}$. This will not take long if you use an appropriate theorem
Calc III Victim
now the only theorem I recall covering from the partial derivative was the clairaut theorem
but im not sure how that will help here
I honestly dont even understand clairaut theorem properly.
I solved this by finding the 4th derivative wrt to y and then wrt to x and then wrt to y 4 more times.
but how can this be simplified using the theorem
honestly I just broke it up into parts, knew that differentiating cos(y) 4 times gives back cos(y), and differentiating more than 6 times completely kills the y^6
oh but of course the cos(y) part dies after differentiating wrt x
right so at the end you get 0 right
and in that case you get (y^6)'''' * junk(x)
which dies after 3 more bouts of differentiating wrt y
yeah you get 0
but I just dont know how the theorem would have helped for this question.
idk lol
lmao
You can instead start with differentiating wrt x
Cause of the theorem
wait so I could have done f_{xyyyyyyyy} ?
Ye
damnnnn
That’s what the theorem lets ya do
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just wanted to confirm one more thing so the order doesnt matter right.
f_yyyyxyyyy = f_xyyyyyyyy = f_yyyyyyyyx right
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Yes (under the correct conditions)
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Hi I need help especially with part 1
This is not math
@cobalt helm Has your question been resolved?
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428 influencers were asked which platform they enjoy the most. 205 influencers said tik tok while 267 said instagram. if 120 said they enjoy tik tok but not instagram, what percent of influencers said the following? round to the nearest tenth of a percent. complete the corresponding venn diagram, label your sets, show work.
is this correct
i just need a simple yes or no cause im running out of time
basically everything is wrong
@cobalt berry Has your question been resolved?
U = 428
T = 205
I = 267
T - (T int I) = 120
a) Both means T int I
205 - (T int I) = 120
200 + 5 - 100 - 20 = T int I
T int I = 85
For %
85/428 = 0.1985
Nearest Tenth
0.2
Or 20 %
b) nor T nor I means
COMP(T uni I)
T uni I = T + I - (T int I)
T uni I = 205 + 267 - 85
T uni I = 387
Now,
COMP(T uni I) = U - (T uni I)
= 428 - 387 = 41
For %
41/428 = 0.0957
Nearest Tenth
0.1
Or 10 %
Note:
Int means intersection
Uni means union
COMP() means complement
@cobalt berry
can you do it visually, im not very good text wise
stop giving out answers
bro spawned in the whole fandom
um so basically the 205 applies to EVERYTHING in tiktok, not just the exclusive one
and then the 120 is exclusive to tiktok
Wat? I thought we should help ppl
!noans
Or concept
The purpose of this server is to help you learn, not to hand out answers. Do not ask someone to give you the answer directly.
Right
ok lets talk about this problem now
Yeah sure U go ahead
so when it says x influencers enjoy tiktok, thats the whole circle for tiktok
the phrasing for this problem is bad because it says "enjoy the most" but lets brush over that
i think he might be afk
no im here
uh huh
you good so far?
yes
cool
so in the part, "120 said they enjoy tiktok but not instagram", which area is that?
i.e. left, middle, right, or outside?
left
good
so we know the tiktok circle contains the sections left and middle
we know the value of left and left+middle
so we can find the value of middle
we are filling the venn diagram in section by section now
whats the value of middle?
85?
im making this as quick as i can while trying to make you understand the numbers
Same here eating doritos
yes or no?
yes
what did you get
remember (middle)+(right)=(people who enjoy instagram)
yes
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How do i dothis
do comparison test with 1/e^x
why doesnt 1/x work?
is this a pauls online note example?
you want to compare 1/(x+e^x) to 1/x instead of comparing it to 1/(e^x)?
yes
oh so we usually choose the one with mire weight to compare?
I thought choosing 1/x would be easier cause using the p-series would be easier to determine that that integral fiverges
@deep crow Has your question been resolved?
The integrand is smaller than 1/x for any x. Comparing it to 1/x won't help, because all you'll know is that the integral is smaller than the integral of 1/x, which even though it diverges could mean anything.
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thanks
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Hi, I'm stuck with a dumb determinant problem.
This is the problem. Let me first tel what I did, because I just can believe how utterly confused I am by this thing.
Do you know how to multiply matrices
Yes, that's not the part that's confusing me. Let me first explain. In the end it is surely a dumb mistake, but for now I don't get it.
Not problem findind det(AB), it is equal to 2530. No problem either with det(A), it is 46. Therefore, det(B) should be 55. The thing is that I'm probably applying this one method wrong for finding the determinant. It relies on this theorem that is in the book the problem is from:
And this is what I did. The thing is that for some reason there seems to be two possible ways to proceed from this point on. (1) I can multiply row 2 by -16 and add row 3: that leads to det(B)=-55, that's wrong. (2) I can mutiply row 2 by 16 and subtract row 3: that lead to det(B)=55, that's right.
My problem is that I don't get why one option gives a right answer, and the other doesn't.
That's basically it.
What are the matrices you get by doing these operations?
(1) (-16)R2+R3 => R3
(2) R3 - (16)R2 => R3
Is this what you mean?
(2) 16R2-R3 => R3
Or this is what you mean
yeah
Right
Yeah, I mean (1) (-16)R2+R3 => R3 and (2) 16R2-R3 => R3
I think subtracting rows is not allowed
In this case you have Multiplyed R3 with (-1)
So your det will be (-1)|A|
Are you following?
Yeah, I follow you.
Ohhh, I see. Thank you very much. I did not notice I was doing two row operations at once.
Yea yw
Thank you very much! ❤️ A silly mistake, haha.
Happens
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Yw
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Can anyone help me with physics? I need to know to determine the reaction force of R2 so i can solve for R3 and R1.
How? can you teach me
do u know what moments are?
Moments are a measure of rotation in a system
yes
Force * perpendicular distance to centre of rotation
Is this the formula? M=F x d?
Okay i will try to answer, Tell me if it's correct.
@plain mantle Has your question been resolved?
R1
Moment for 240lb
Distance from R1 = 8ft + 9ft = 17ft
Moment = 240lb x 17ft = 4080lb-ft > counterclockwise = positive
Moment for 960lb
Distance R1 = 3ft
Moment = 960 x 3ft = 2880lb-ft > counterclockwise = positive
How should i determine the reaction of R1
@plain mantle Has your question been resolved?
Help me pls
@plain mantle Has your question been resolved?
@plain mantle Has your question been resolved?
Equillibrium Static
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✅
There is a physics Discord as well: https://discord.gg/BYDez64V
@plain mantle Has your question been resolved?
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why does the ln2 not matter here?
why can it be simplified into an expression without ln2 i mean
it gets absorbed by the +C
C=c+ln2
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Is this correct?
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For the first one, whats confusing you
Do you not understand the translations visually? Whats up
idk why i am wrong, and the class never taught it
i did it in my head and it made sense/worked in my head
@solid fog is it option 2
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@hot flame Has your question been resolved?
tan(173 1/3) being about -0.117 is correct
think the key just made a mistake
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hello im doing calc one problem solving for integration there is this question that is confusing me im not gonna lie im stuck on it for like more than an hour so if some one can tell me what the hell is going on ill be gratefull im using solvely to help me but i think it confused me more than helped me
which part are you stuck on?
Part a
Do you know how to find the area of A
B should be simple since you can calculate it from the values on the graph
Ok so do we use integration to find c then subtract it from the whole thing and when you have Ab you will know what Aa is
Uh
Theres a simpler way
So you know how we can use integration with respect to x (which I will abbreviate as wrt) in order to find the area under the curve right
We can also integrate wrt y in order to find the area between the curve and the y-axis
So rewrite y = arcsin(x) in terms of y
take the inverse is what I would say
yep
sin(y) = x
then integrate that with your bounds of integration (Make sure to use y-values and not x)
So just one
Is this right I hope I didn’t waste your time lol sorry I’m just tired that’s why
Yk that just makes sense cause we just flipped it and finding the area under the curve from left like if y was the bottom
mhm
@sterile tangle I saw another answer where they solve it by finding the difference between the upper portion of the region of function and the upper portion of region B
yeah ig you could do that
but thats kind of what we did with the integration
you basically take the area of the entire thing above the grapth
then subtract the area of B above the graph to get A
@lunar maple Has your question been resolved?
@sterile tangle would you be able to explain it thanks
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im doing some previous IOQM papers
pls tell me how you do this
<@&286206848099549185>
damn
this server
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it was two minutes but ok
i didnt even have time to think about the problem
.reopen
✅
im impatient
Looks like a telescope
oh wait
uhh
you should write it as (k+1)^2-k^2
Jeez
but
oh this is basically 1/k^2 - 1/(k+1)^2
how will it help tho
bro
yes im slow
telescopic series the terms just cancel out
im impatient i told
idk that
you arent ioqm is a contest with difficult problems
uhh
it was in response to this
Then you can’t solve the question 🤭
bruh
i prolly know it
but dont know the naame
also if u want to annoy kids then annoy someone else
write out the first few terms in the form 1/k^2-1/(k+1)^2
ok one sec
see what happens
Annoy kids?
yeah youll see they cancel out and only the first and last term remain
not helping
lemme see
after which it should be easy
I would’ve helped if you didn’t act so entitled
so whats N?
great
i got
good
yeah
be patient next time please
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Need help with the question
I just can't solve 'to prove' questions in inequalities
is this for reals or integers?
it is true for all reals (edit: equality case matters oops)
missing an equality as well?
Yeah, if a = b then this is false
Do you understand why it's true intuitively/informally? (assuming a and b are different)
@sage sonnet Has your question been resolved?
No
Idk, this is the whole question
Is there a note somewhere that a and b are not equal?
well, let's assume it's an oversight and it was implied
I guess a and b are different
Let's rearrange a and b so that a < b. Does that make our job easier?
Ya
But there can also be the possibility that a>b
yea but in that case we can just swap a and b
the inequality is symmetric
so without loss of generality we can assume one is larger (or equal to) the other
what type of inequalities have you learned?
Ya
yea, here you can apply that
I would start by moving everything to one side so that there's a 0 on the other side
Factorize both side first
And simplify
Assume a>b wlog
I think it will work out
Can we use binomial expansion in this?
theres a way you could use completing the squares here but weve already got through this other solution
Idk what to to do after getting a zero on one side
I'm dumbo
So you got $a^4 + b^4 - a^3 b - ab^3 > 0$, right?
fix error
Ya
Are you familiar with solving an inequality where one side is a product and another one is zero? like $(x - 1)(x - 3) > 0$
fix error
bruh wavy curve method is for inferiors
it's not wrong to use any method
a^4+b^4 > a^3b+ab^3 is the same as (a^4+b^4)-(a^3b+ab^3)>0
after that they proceeded to factorize it
they factored out b^2 as it is a square, and then completed the square of what was left inside the last term
assuming that b is non-zero, this term will always be greater than 3/4
so the whole product will always be greater than 0
Take in 1 side and factorize
U cam also divide b4 on both side
Assume t as a/b
Then take 1 to left and t to right
@sage sonnet Has your question been resolved?
As soon as you get to $\left(a - b \right) \left(a^3 - b^3 \right)$, you are done. If $a > b$, then $a - b > 0$ and $a^3 - b^3 > 0$ so the product is positive. Similarly, if $a < b$, then $ a - b < 0$ and $ a^3 - b^3 < 0$, so multiplying two negatives will give you a positive.
PowerUp
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@visual rain Has your question been resolved?
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Yo guys I need help on how they rearranged the formula to turn it into tan^2a - 4tana + 3 = 0. Except that for me the original formula im using is y=xtan(a) - gx/2u^2Cos^2(a)
Since that’s what we were taught but I can’t rearrange it💀🙏
$\frac1{\cos^2\alpha}=\sec^2\alpha$
nameless individual
Omfg
Im so retarted
Ive been stuck on that for so long
The identities😭🙏
Tysm dude🙏
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@neon iron Has your question been resolved?
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!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
What properties should I use ?
1
You’ll need fermat’s little theorem
And knowledge about how to use modular arithmetic
$a^{23}\equiv a$ (mod 23)
Okay I will come back
kheerii
This is what fermat’s little theorem says, utilising the fact that 23 is prime
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Nikish is going to install five new game apps on her phone. She has shortlisted two word games, 5 quizzes and 16 saga games. Nikish wants to have at least one of each type of game. How many different selections of apps could Nimish possibly choose?
Is it compulsory that she have to install 5 games ? Or it can be less ?
can you elaborate?
i mean there's 2 cases
she has to install 5
you identify them
and then start adding
it's like a stupid problem, just a ton of calculations
well i still don't get it but i'll see what i can do
3S 1Q 1W
3Q 1W 1S
2S 2Q 1W
2W 2Q 1S
2S 2W 1Q
ah, i see what you mean
i'll try solving it now
that comes out to be 9080
which is the same as the markscheme
ty
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What's my error?
Calculate m + n + p
given that the remainder is 3x + 5 and the sum of coefficients of the quotient is 7
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how do I know if the distribution of X is normal or not?
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(cos20+isin20) ^5 / (cos30+isin30)^3
Can anyone tell me how to solve this problem by using only De Movier and Polar Form
Remember that (cos(x)+isin(x))^n = cos(xn)+isin(xn)
[cos5(20) + isin5(20)] / [cos3(30) + isin3(30)]
cos100 + isin100 / cos 90 + isin90
right?
yes
the easiest way is just to write the terms as polar coordinates
cos (90 + 10) + i sin (90 + 10 ) / 0 + i(1)
$e^{i\theta}:=\cos\theta+i\sin\theta$
kheerii
normal exponent rules work if you write it like this
Could be precalc tho and they don’t know that form
i have not read it yet
oh, weird
Divide the magnitudes and subtract the angle of the denominator from the angle of the numerator
hmmm
$\frac{\cos 100^\circ+i\sin 100^\circ}{\cos 90^\circ+i\sin 90^\circ}$
kheerii
ok
you got this far yes?
ya
$\frac1{\cos\theta+i\sin\theta}=\frac{\cos\theta-i\sin\theta}{(\cos\theta+i\sin\theta)(\cos\theta-i\sin\theta)}=...$
kheerii
?
multiply the numerator and denominator of 1/(cosx+isinx) by its complex conjugate
that's what I did here
ok
now simplify this, you'll see a nice identity
ok
and then you can use de moivre to solve the rest
but we already use it
ok
wait please
i am solving
what result you guys got
because my is not matching
got it thanks
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@slow bloom Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
What type of class is this for?
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I have some questions about the Sucessor function
$S(n) = n + 1$
Max-Cat
if so would $S( \aleph_0 ) = \omega$
Max-Cat
since omega is the number that comes after aleph null
I mean, $\aleph_0$ is the set cointaining all natural numbers
Max-Cat
woudn't it mean that $S(\aleph_0) \in \aleph_0$ ?
Max-Cat
There's a few things going in here
This definition only makes sense for natural numbers
(I'm sorry if its actually something basic)
You can't apply it to the set of natural numbers
Secondly both aleph0 and ω are, as sets, the same (I believe this is standard)
The distinction we make is in terms of understanding infinity
aleph0 is a cardinality, that is the size of a set, while ω is an ordinal which is a way to continue counting after infinity (someone else could probably explain this a little better)
So we count 1, 2, 3, 4, ... infinitely far, ω, ω+1, ω+2 etc.
so Aleph0 is the amount of numbers in N
omega times omega; omega^omega and so on
yes
I find it hard because any cardinal number can be used as an ordinal, "there are 3 apples; this one is the third apple"
Unfortunately for intuition yeah, when finite they coincide
yes
and you can't mention "the last apple" since the meaning of "aleph_0 apples" is that for any apple you choose there are still infinitely more!
really ordinals introduce a notion of order (hence the name? maybe?) where you are allowed to go infinitely far and still point to a 'infinity'th element, but cardinality is just about sets without this
regardless trying to apply S as 'adding one' you need to keep in mind what addition is supposed to mean here
because the definitions are different for cardinals and ordinals
yeah I see
Also why did you think ω was an element of aleph0?
.
I thought about numbers as sets, 1 = { o } ; 2 = { o ; o } ...
and S(n) as adding one more element to the set containing n elements.
If aleph0 was a set of infinitely many elements, adding one more would still make it infinite.
again, sorry if this painfully obvious
What is your definition of aleph_0 actually
That's all true
It's just I realised there's at least two used at least to introduce these ideas
In one case using $\in$ would be correct (I was just thinking of the other)
Edward II
could you explain me both? As to better understand what you're thinking?
What I was thinking, and I think this is the more common definition in set theory because it actually works the way we do it nowadays, is that cardinals are certain ordinals, in which case $\aleph_0=\omega={0,1,2,3,\dots}$ (i.e. the set of natural numbers) In this case, $S(\aleph_0)\in\aleph_0$ would be incorrect regardless of whether you say $S(\aleph_0)=\aleph_0$ or $S(\aleph_0)=\omega$ (as you originally did)
Edward II
The other way, which is the nicer way, is to say that a cardinal is a collection of sets that all have the same size
In which case $\aleph_0=\Big{{0,1,2,3,\dots}, \omega+1, {2,4,6,\dots}, \dots\Big}$
Edward II
And I suppose saying $S(\aleph_0)\in\aleph_0$ would probably still be wrong, but more based on misunderstanding and consistency with notation rather than saying 'the number after something infinite (whatever that means) is finite', which is what it would mean in the first definition
Edward II
so let me see if I got it
a number n is defined as a set containing all possible sets with n elements
I abused notation, because it's not actually a set, but that's on me for not explaining
$3 = \Big{{A, B, C}, {3, 1, 4,} \dots \Big}$
you need to use \{ to actually get them to show
annyways, you get the idea
yes (it's not a set which is why the other definition is also used)
N is the set containing all natural numbers, all diferent numbers that have diferent amounts of elements
since we can always put another element there is no limit to how big a number can get, therefore N is a set with infinitely many elements
in another way, it is impossible to point to the last element, with last meaning "no thing after"
I'm going to cut in here because I didn't actually explain this
please do
ω also has no last element
The reason we treat it differently is that ω+1 does, and is the same cardinality as ω
wait, I'll get there
I'll try to
the amount of diferent numbers in N is Aleph0, it is not the set cointaining all numbers, as that is N, but is the amount of numbers
it's not which elements, but how many elements, it's not a set of numbers, but a quantity
as the cardinal that it is, it can be represented as a set with Aleph0 elements
one element for each natural number
N = { 1, 2, 3, 4 ... }
A0 = { {1}, {2}, {3} ... }
am I right until here?
Maybe? I'm not entirely sure people who actually study this would be happy with A0 = { {1}, {2}, {3} ... }? I personally don't see anything wrong with that as long as you remember A0 is really something else, and that this choice of using elements {1}, {2}, ... was arbitrary
also 'not the set containing all numbers' is using this more intuitive (at least to me) definition, but that's fine
Now the stupid question that started this all: "what happens if we add more?"
How can we add another element?
after all, Aleph0 as no ending element that we can follow up with a new one
we could put it in the beggining tho
but it would mean that the new would be the first element, the first would become the second element
like, a wave, objects next to eachother pushing each other
this "wave" would go on forever
the infinity'th element would be pushed aside
that new place cannot be any number, as it would be before the inf'th elementh
this new place the inf'th got pushed to is omega
right? does this analogy make sense?
do you want me to try explaining my thoughts in another way?
I don't really get it
So we have A0= {1,2,3,4, ...} (say)
Then we add another element which I will label as ω for reasons
and have {1,2,3,4, ... ω}
Υοu're saying we could have instead done {ω, 1, 2,3, ...}
so 1 is now second, etc?
yes, and "omega" is 1 and so on
but then what does this mean?
The infitieth element was ω, there's no longer an infinitieth element to move
ok, let me try to explain it better (prob can't)
imagine we live in a flat never ending, plane
and we have a line of boxes, one next to the other
there are infinitely many, the line never stops, it just gets smaller and smaller into the horizon
if we add a new box to the beggining of the line and push the whole line of boxes, so that the new one stays in the place of the first, the first stays in place of the second and so on
what would happen to the box in the horizon?
in this example it stays where it is
there's no box right before it that gets moved to the horizon
any box you pick before it, there would be another box after it that's not at the horizon
(infinity is weird and confusing)
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Hi, I was solving a calc problem yesterday and I checked the solution today and am a bit confused, the question was to calculate the area above the cone and beneath the sphere for the first quadrant
The question was to solve for the volume V using a triple integral and spherical coordinats
so I thought:
$\theta \in[0,\pi/2]\
\phi \in [\pi/4 , \pi/2]\
r \in [0 , 2sin(\phi)]$
Mephisto
but in the solution phi goes from 0 to pi/4
and I don't understand why, considering we're looking for the volume above the cone, not beneath it
and r goes from 0 to 2cos(phi) instead of 2sin(phi)
ohhh is it becuase they defined phi differently?
<@&286206848099549185> can anyone confirm?
@dawn shell Has your question been resolved?
@dawn shell Has your question been resolved?
you mean the volume?
yeah sorry
you definitely don't want to use a triple integral unless there is something else you're not telling me like the fact that there is a scalar field
also does "beneath the sphere" mean inside the sphere?
yeah I should've been more clear
the volume enclosed by the sphere and the cone
above the cone
enclosed by the sphere and above the cone
yeah that's a better way to put it
the question explicitly stated to use a triple integral in spherical coordinats
I assume using flux is a better way of solving this?
why do we even need flux?
can you just send the original question please
it's in dutch lemme translate it really quickly
jezus
Let ( D \subset \mathbb{R}^3 ) be the region in the first octant ((x, y, z \geq 0)), lying above the cone ( z^2 = x^2 + y^2 ) and below the sphere ( x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 2z ). Denote by ( V ) the volume of ( D ).
(a) Write ( V ) as a triple integral in cylindrical coordinates.
(b) Write ( V ) as a triple integral in spherical coordinates.
(c) Calculate ( V ) using one of the above integrals.
Mephisto
tbh i have no idea why one would use spherical coordinates
it makes it a complete mess
I mean
not to mention triple integral when you only have three dimensions
you could just use cartesian and rotate it around the z axis
but it's one of the exam questions from previous years so I'm just making sure I can do it
flux only works on R^3 to R^3
I'll let someone else have a look because I am clearly missing something
I guess it is an inefficient way to solve this question
I'm guessing they just want to know you know how to use different coordinate systems and triple integrals
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hold on
I had this, with [pi/4 , pi/2] as bounds for phi and [0,2sin(phi)] for r
@dawn shell Has your question been resolved?
Triple integrals are standard for computing volumes, so it should look somewhat like that, yes.
Is that the solution you're having doubts about?
yeah so I had 2sin(phi) in the first integral
I mean third
and pi/4 to pi/2 for the second one
and I wasn't sure why, my hipothesis was that they defined phi in a different way
Phi is usually the angle from the z axis, not the angle made with the XY plane.
ohh alright, is this the norm?
I think so , yes
I usually take the angle with the xy-plane so z = rsin(phi)
Although TBf it will yield the same result provided the bounds are actually right
alright that's good to know
one more question I'd have
There is an extra question provided linked with further chapters
where you should be able to calculate this volume using flux
but I'm not sure what vector field I should use to start calculating that
I suppose you could try some vector field whose divergence is 1 everywhere (so that the dV integral calculates the volume)
But it seems more work to compute the flux on the surface
oh because we'd have to calculate the surface area of this volume first?
Yeah well it depends what it was asking exactly.
You could compute the flux using the volume, but you could also compute the volume using the flux. It depends which you're looking for
Yeah. But again you'd then have to compute the flux manually, which might turn out to be fine I haven't really looked into it
The vector field (x,y,z) might be simple enough
Divergence is 3, so you can divide the flux by 3 and get the desired volume
alright I'
I'll try that
hold on
if I'm working in spherical coordinates
do I just (r,theta,phi) ?
It doesn't matter since you'll be computing a double integral for the flux, not a triple one
ah okay
ohhh yeah that's right
the whole stokes theorem
alright, thanks for now, I'll try to compute everything on my own
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@neon iron Has your question been resolved?
@neon iron Has your question been resolved?
i mean does it have to be an integer or floating
you can take the binomial theorem formula and plug in 1/2 for n
computing the first few terms should be accurate enough
! is repeated multiplication
so like 3! = 3 * 2 * 1
thats true
you could just google square root algorithms
and see which one you like best
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Can I improve my skills here
@keen night Has your question been resolved?
It is a help server so ot depends what do you mean by improving
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When the question says X>-1, do I sub in the positive or negative square root of √(X+5) as U in the final line?
I dont understand what you mean by " positive or negztive sqrt"
Oh alright thx
No, that’s not the reason
Oh
The real substitution you’re doing here is $u=\sqrt{x+5}$
kheerii
If you chose $u=-\sqrt{x+5}$ then the $\sqrt{x+5}$ in the denominator would be replaced by -u and not u
kheerii
Which would make the whole thing work
You should write your substitutions explicitly like u=sqrt(x+5) so you don’t have confusions like this
Okok
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For how many values of the digit $A$ is it true that $63$ is divisible by $A$ and $273{,}1A2$ is divisible by $4$?
938c2cc0dcc05f2b68c4287040cfcf71
don't forget 1
prime factorization and 1 up to 9? because its a digit?
wrong to use prime here
combinations of primes too
this is all the factors of 63
you want the one digit factors of 63
sure
so A is 1 to 9 and div by 63
we need divisibility rules for 1 3 and 7 to match or
First recall the divisibility rule for 4
also for 9 because 63 is div by 3^2
The last two digits must be divisible by 4 for the whole number to be divisible by 4
fair
last two digits div 4 implies whole num is div 4
ok
hence
so check for A = 1, 3, 7, 9
can someone define div 3 and div 7 and div 9
can u define it
but like it's not needed here
if the sum of all digits of a number are divisible by 3 then the number itself is also divisible
yes
3 | 2+7+3+1+A+2
but you don't need it, we already have the prime factors from which you can construct all possible digits A that divide into 63
no
.
how
.
we are checking for divisibility by 4
4 | A2
yes
try them and done
how
273100 is divisible by 4
so all you need is the numbers for which A2 is divisible by 4 are (1, 3, 5, 7, 9)
and the numbers that satisfy 63 is divisible by A are (1, 3, 7, 9)
so the numbers that satisfy both would be 1, 3, 7, 9
substitute
can you divide 2 digit numbers by 4
100 is divisible by 4 so we can discard the rest
unsure
yes the rest of the number, it has been discarded and we are left with A2
divisible by 4 is twice divisible by 2
can you divide by 2
The divisibility rule for 2 states that any number with the last digit of 0, 2, 4, 6, or 8 will be divisible by 2. Simply put, any even number (numbers that end in 0, 2, 4, 6, or 8) is divisible by 2. If the number is not an even number, it is not divisible by two.
are we trolling
A needs to be even
wdym
i think this is all you need to understand
ion think u need divisibility rules and whatnot
273100 is divisible by 4
so all you need is the numbers for which A2 is divisible by 4 are (1, 3, 5, 7, 9)
and the numbers that satisfy 63 is divisible by A are (1, 3, 7, 9)
so the numbers that satisfy both would be 1, 3, 7, 9
you can't tell me that you don't know how to divide 2 digit numbers by 4 when you know limits
well, divisibility is not taught in calculus
so all you need is the numbers for which A2 is divisible by 4 are (1, 3, 5, 7, 9)
how did you find (1, 3, 5, 7, 9)
btw
You don’t have to accuse OP of trolling just because they don’t understand something…
division is 3rd grade I'm sorry
because you can substitute numbers in for A2 that would be divisible by 4, and the first value for A that this works for is 1, so 12, and the next is 3, so 32, and then 5, and so on and so forth so theres a pattern so (1, 3, 5, 7, 9)
Maybe they aren’t familiar with divisibility rules, maybe the A is tripping them up
