#help-23
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Zex
you find the two ns and subtract
ohk but does finding lower bound and upper bound follows approximation always?
or is there a direct method?
was thinking about what 2^50 means and if you look into n! all numbers with factor 2 add 1 to the exponent
i know a method but it’ll take a long time
4 adds even 1 more and 8 adds 2 more
and you find for what value n you have 50 factors of 2
you have to guess
check how many factors there is in an n!
i dont do this stuff though but i would approach it this way
it's okay take your time but let me know
my first try would be on 30
that also requires guesssing ...
not as much
just counting how many and its not many
like 30!=302928… skip the odd numbers
30 has 1 factor
28 has 2 factor
26 has 1 factor
…
sum them all up to check if it has 50 factors or not
there should be an efficient way to count how many 2s there are
50 for example has 25 2s, considering the multiples of 4 go up until 48, so 12 more 2s, considering multiples of 8 up until 48 again you have 6 more 2s
25 + 12 + 6 not quite 50
so n is bigger than 50
that is again the same method i believe, repititive division
yea
wait 16 and 32 too consider
yes
Okay I got it! This question follows identifying lower and upper bound and then simply subtracting it
find the lowest n where n! is divisible by 2^50
find the highest n where n! isn’t divisible by 3^40
those are the bounds
it’ll take some guessing no matter what
okay!
Thank you soooo much everyone! @rigid hazel @buoyant shadow @queen ingot @ebon mesa !!!!!
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The drawing below represents a model of the stained glass windows in a church that need to be restored. A special glass paint will be used, which costs R$80.00 per can and each can covers approximately 100 cm2 of area. The dark area in the figure is the part of the stained glass window that needs to be painted with the special paint. Considering R = 40 cm and r = 10 cm respectively as the radii of the largest and smallest circles, and that the inscribed triangle is equilateral and the inscribed hexagon is regular, the approximate amount that will be spent on the restoration of each stained glass window is:
pi = 3
sqrt(3) = 1,7
@ashen ruin Has your question been resolved?
find the triangle's side length
that will be the opportunity to use the given sqrt(3) value
to therefore get its area
u can use a certain special right triangle property
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Help
@lavish storm Has your question been resolved?
What does converse mean
i'd expect "convexe" to mean "convex"
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@lavish storm Has your question been resolved?
convexe in french
No clue where to start
💀💀💀💀
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How did this get simplified to secx
factor a sec x out the numerator
Oh tyy
@prime tundra Has your question been resolved?
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Hi everyone, I'm struggling to prove this inequality about markov chains. I think that it's quite basic but I cannot conclude for the life of me, is there something I'm missing? Many thanks in advance, here is my work.
@dusky raptor Has your question been resolved?
@dusky raptor Has your question been resolved?
any ideas ?
@dusky raptor Has your question been resolved?
Can also try in #advanced-probability
@dusky raptor Has your question been resolved?
@dusky raptor Has your question been resolved?
ƒ( wai ina teacup)= I don't know
this is just squeeze theorem
just consider \epsilon from both sides
$|x_n - L| \leq \epsilon$
BrandenXia
we have $L-\epsilon \leq x_n \leq L + \epsilon$
BrandenXia
and $L-\epsilon \leq z_n \leq L + \epsilon$
BrandenXia
so we have $L-\epsilon \leq x_n \leq y_n \leq z_n \leq L + \epsilon$
BrandenXia
which means $|y_n - L| \leq \epsilon$
BrandenXia
so the limit of y_n is L
Got it
Thanks
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hi
5c-7X=
explain yourself
HI
Are you a troll?
What's this?
@wind dagger Has your question been resolved?
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this is decision math, for question c my answer was originally 380 but when i looked at the actual answer it was 190 (which is what you get if you divide 380 by 2), why do we have to divide by 2?
for context Kn is a graph where n is the number of nodes and each node had to be connected to the other
curved connections
arcs is another word for edges
what
u are coounting the one egde as two
how
thats why the problem is arising
K4 for example
each node in K4 has a valency of 3
which means if you wanna find the total arcs of Kn its (n - 1) x n
see you are counting the shared egdes twice
while in reality it is one
yes but that will give you answer to the shared egdes
the correct solution is (n - 1) x n/2
i get it now
exactly
it all makes sense now
lol hope that helps
it did thank you bro
geez np : )
!close
you're smart for figuring that shit out
do you take decision math aswell
i dont actually
but
i solve International math olumpiad problems regularly
so my intuition is strong in that regard
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easy pizy
can u pls show it
try with Venn diagram
-(-p^q) = (pV-q)
and let the other be as it is
draw the venn diagram for (p V -q) ^ (p V q)
you will see it is simply p
is that boolean alzebra?
ik it can be done but
yes
computer?
yes
cause computer is pure maths..ff
in computer?
see the 12th law
it can be written as .... p V (-q ^ q)
lemme check qick
now see the last law .... (-q ^ q) ... can be written as False
now we have .... p V false
see the second law
yea...
?
yus
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i have a set of N points and a canvas height and width as an example case horizontal_lines = [[(0, 1311), (1920, 1311)]]
vertical_lines = [[(920, 0), (920, 1311)]] image_width=1920, image_height=2490 which forms a T and 3 rectangles. I am looking for the maths that get me from my inputs to the top_left and bottom_right coordinates of each of the 3 (or more or less) rectangles specefically i am guessing that there is some formula or wikipedia page with the answer?
@gusty pendant Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
The purpose of this server is to help you learn, not to hand out answers. Do not ask someone to give you the answer directly.
uh thats your question @topaz wagon since you asked it in your own channel could you delete it from here as i already had a question here
ok chill
@gusty pendant Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
@gusty pendant Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185> i have a set of N points and a canvas height and width as an example case horizontal_lines = [[(0, 1311), (1920, 1311)]]
vertical_lines = [[(920, 0), (920, 1311)]] image_width=1920, image_height=2490 which forms a T and 3 rectangles. I am looking for the maths that get me from my inputs to the top_left and bottom_right coordinates of each of the 3 (or more or less) rectangles specefically i am guessing that there is some formula or wikipedia page with the answer?
<@&286206848099549185>
@gusty pendant Has your question been resolved?
hrm
<@&286206848099549185>
i'm sorry but i do not understand this question at all. maybe a visual example would be helpful?
no guarantee that i'll be able to help tho, but i'll try
thanks
heres the image but if its still not clear i can try to explain better...
for some reason plot drew the thing upside down but yeah
been strugling with this for 2 days
you want to get the coordinates of these points right
no i only care about the top left and bottom right for each formed rectangle
some what yes
can the lines intersect and pass through each other
i am trying to create a data set of sewing patterns (since none exist) and the only viable source is a german book from 1957 updated with updates until 2024 i want to extract those patterns but they for some reason made like 3 patterns in a block instead of keeping them seperate
so i wrote code which identifys the lines that divide them
but now i need the rectangles so i can actually cut them out
yes there could be 4 rectangles
or there could be just a single line and 2 rectangles
my end goal is to take the patterns and put them through an ai system which will turn them in to mesh objects
ah okay
dressing the metaverse basically lol
i didnt do so well with maths as a kid but i did catch up a bit learned graph mathematics etc
i am assuming there should be something like Pythagoras a squared x b squared = c that just gives the answer
well at least i know it is tricky now and i wasnt just being dumb
i tried to solve it with shapely r omlette wolfram octave manifold cgal all with out success most often 3 rectangles are counted as 4
well in that case
first get the top left and bottom right corners of the picture (i assume you have that sorted out)
in case you have 3 or 4 pictures
you take each line that starts at 0 and goes to some coordinate that isn't on the border of the picture, let it be called c
that c must necessaly be in the middle of the picture and thus must be one of the corners
you match those coordinates up with the corners of the picture and figuring out whether it's a bottom right or a top left corner shouldn't be too hard
i had that idea worked somewhat with 2 lines
tried with 8 lines and it totally failed
oh so it can be 8?
but i might of missed something there
i thought it was max 4
yeah N horizontal and M vertical
no it's far from a universal solution
aw crap
i think 4 could be a sensible max i mean thats better than 0
can you show an example of that
but even then i tried that method with 3 lines and i could solve all but bottom_right which i knew was 1 of 2 values
yes moment
the ? was where i got stuck because we dont know if the line goes up in the top half or down so we cant know directly the bottom left with greater than a 50/50 probability
i thought there might be a way to solve that so then i tried increasing from 3 lines to 8 and thats when that idea went to a dead end for me but maybe i am missing something
sorry for my terrible hand writing hope you can read that ok
basically it says first rectangle will always be the canvas top left so we have it 0,image_height
last rectangle will always have a bottom right of image_width, 0
bottom_right will be maximum y coordinate of all horizontal lines
yeah
one observation i made was this
if you list the start and end coords of all lines and the 4 points of the canvas
the answer will always be a subset of that
this might be it
ive heard of set theory if that helps i know its a thing
if you make a list of all points like that and do a vertical and a horizontal "scan" of the picture i think you'll be able to get all the data you need
i read something about this approach
oh
(i think)
trying to think what it was called
yes sweep line algorithm or plane sweep algorithm
is this what you are talking about using ?
i think so, i literally just came up with this 💀
the beginning point of horizontal lines and the end point of vertical lines will always be a top left and the top left of the canvase will also that fast fills some of the data
also the bottom right corner will always be the last rectangles bottom right
given that we know the top left of all rectangles we also know how many rectangles are formed and thus we know how many bottom right values were searching for from the subset of the set (the unused coordinates)
maybe theres some elaborate way to take that first horizontal slice and consider IF the vertical line is in the top or bottom thus revealing which coord is the bottom right... the other one goes in the remaining slot
could that work?
that should be first full slice rather than limited to horizontal
Does that make sense?
it might work but i am a little too tired to comprehend this now, i'm going to bed.. i think you should close this channel now and ask again tomorrow because now at least you can rephrase the question differently
ok one final idea
if we guessed the rectangles could we do a reverse algo to get the lines
@gusty pendant Has your question been resolved?
@gusty pendant Has your question been resolved?
heres some relevent code im working on https://colab.research.google.com/drive/14M-cxGMUUODjInf779aI1AL-aLkiQ2_G?usp=sharing
R = \left{ \left( (x_1, y_1), (x_2, y_2) \right) \mid x_1 \leq x \leq x_2, , y_1 \leq y \leq y_2, , x_1 < x_2, , y_1 < y_2 \right}
does this solve it ?
@main mural
<@&286206848099549185>
i think if im right i need to do a mathmatical proof or something like that
guys anyone here to help ??
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@humble egret do you not see the channel clearly says help scatterp how do you expect to do mathmatics if you cant add that up lol
given an input of coordinates for lines is R the top left and bottom right cordinates of all formed rectangles using this: R = \left{ \left( (x_1, y_1), (x_2, y_2) \right) \mid x_1 \leq x \leq x_2, , y_1 \leq y \leq y_2, , x_1 < x_2, , y_1 < y_2 \right}
<@&286206848099549185>
$$R = \left{ \left( (x_1, y_1), (x_2, y_2) \right) \mid x_1 \leq x \leq x_2, , y_1 \leq y \leq y_2, , x_1 < x_2, , y_1 < y_2 \right}$$
woomy
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By definition, the left top corner of a rectangle LT = (x1,y1) has x coordinate smaller than any other x coordinate in the rectangle, and y coordinate bigger than any other y coordinate in the rectangle
Consider the following rectangle, where in red we have LT (Left Top), and in blue RB (Right Bottom).\
Clearly LT is as far left and high up you can go in the rectangle, meanwhile RB is as far right and bottom you can go, in the language of mathematics we would right:\
$LT = (x_1, y_1),\quad x_1 \leq x\quad y_1 \geq y\quad \forall x,y \in$ Rectangle\
And:\
$RB = (x_2,y_2),\quad x_2 \geq x\quad y_2 \leq y\quad \forall x,y \in$ Rectangle\
Combined we do in fact achieve the formula you are looking for, but this only works if you can know whether or not a certain point is in one rectangle or another:
$$R = ((x_1, y_1), (x_2, y_2)), x_1 \leq x \leq x_2, y_2 \leq y \leq y_1\quad \forall x,y \in \text{Rectangle}$$
Notice how we dont need to specify that $x_1 < x_2$ and $y_1 < y_2$ As this is already clear from the definition of $R$.
Worst case scenario your rectangle is 1 pixel wide/tall in that case $x_1 = x_2$ or $y_1 = y_2$.
Sorry! Made a mistake, corrected it now!
ok
woomy
But keep in mind that all of this works only if you know when a specific coordinate lies withing one rectangle or another
ok trying to umm keep up...
If i were to program this, i would first chose which coordinates i want to have as corners, and then draw the lines
so its not nessasary to identify the rectangle in all corners initially ?
Can I ask my doubt here.... Not sure where to ask
!help
To ask for mathematics help on this server, please open your own help channel or help thread. See #❓how-to-get-help for instructions.
What do you mean by identify? In general a rectangle is defined by its 2 opposite corners, as its enough to then create the rest of the rectangle with only this information
yes as you said define ..
Okay, so yes we only need 2 corners, the opposite ones, to identify a rectangle
oh i mean
given a canvas with N rectangles
the tl and br should be identified first for the corners of the canvas
Yes, although thats just (0,height) and (width, 0)
hmm one sec sorry i suck at explaining stuff... will draw on paint moment
Okay! No problem :)
i am saying that if i am correct its best to define by oposing corners the red areas first
then the remaining points from all points form the white areas where the area >1
oh yes, those are way easier as they have a corner in common as the canvas
what do you mean by >1?
so my original formula R = \left{ \left( (x_1, y_1), (x_2, y_2) \right) \mid x_1 \leq x \leq x_2, , y_1 \leq y \leq y_2, , x_1 < x_2, , y_1 < y_2 \right}
is this right ?
if i take the points marked blue ill get a rectangle of zero size thus the points go together in a diffrence descernable configuration
oh now I get it, would this be the formula?
$$R = \left { ((x_1, y_1), (x_2, y_2))\mid x_1 \leq x \leq x_2, y_2 \leq y \leq y_1, x_1 < x_2, y_1 < y_2 \right}$$
woomy
So R is the set containing the corners, i couldnt see the brackets before
yes
Yes, the corners being on the same line define a rectangle with 0 area, i.e. a line
yes so in that way i theorize that the definition of the white rectangles is discernable from the line coords
and thats more or less how i came up with the formula
but my maths is not good enough to know if its done correctly
wow
yeah umm i dont even know where those buttons are on a calculator
so not sure how i might do that
but isnt the next step a mathmatical proof ?
It really depends what you are trying to do
from the question you posed it seems like you are trying to program something
and for that I'm afraid I cannot help
yes sorry let me give the background
i have some book from 1957 which has sewing patterns trying to cut them based on identified cut points and stick in a database which ill then use to create 3d clothing for the metaverse
its 13000 patterns
The cut points being the corners or lines?
lines
and from the lines you want to find the corners
yeah to make the cuts
hmm so does the formula work for any amount of lines horizontal or vertical including edge cases like 0 horizontal or 0 horizontal and vertical lines ?
It seems like it, but I'm not sure i understand how the data is presented to you, could you give an example for a pattern in the book?
sure
moment
Width: 1921, Height: 2491
[(1920, 1311), (0, 1311)]
[((920, 1307), (920, 2490))]
huh
Rectangles formed by the lines:
Rectangle: ((0, 1307), (920, 2490))
Rectangle: ((920, 1307), (1920, 2490))
Rectangle: ((920, 1307), (1920, 1311))
<@&268886789983436800>
Okay so, you have pdf scans of pages in the book, and you are trying to seperate a page into other pages, based on the lines
well destinct patterns yes
the goal is too find the corner of these rectangles based on the coords of the lines, so you can create the other pages
yeah
is every page formatted this way? Or can one page be cut into more than 3 rectangles
there quite random
pages are from 1957 - 2024
the only constant is lines as seperators and those circles with numbers
which are an ID tag
i,e BL rectangle is pattern 154
to make my life worse theres images like the above one which have broken lines with data from the left image placed in the right image
but im ignoring that part for now
how about
Another idea is to take the rectangle
and look first at lines starting and ending at the end of a page
So here it would be in blue
Now, cut the page based on these lines
basically we would create from the canvas, 4 rectangles in this case
Now, the new lines (in red) start and end on the borders of the new canvas
all you have to do now, is cut the page again following the same algorithm
Does this make sense?
sorry well initially zero but im starting to see it now
if you have any questions feel free to ask
well it sort of comes back to same issue i cant cut a line
i can only cut a rectangle
so i would need to calculate potentially existing rectangle in the 4 corners
Why cant you cut a line through the canvas? What software are you using to do this
moment let me check
omg your right
i can cut by lines
so i thought it was only possible by rectangles
3 days of life ill never get back
lol happens to the best of us
i am kinda happy my maths checked out
Yea atleast you learnt something :)
well thanks for all the help hope you have a great new year
Goodluck creating clothes for the metaverse!
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@vernal girder can you stop react spamming on every message please
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Could someone tell me how they got that density function
seems like it just popped out of nowhere
It's... Not short
Geez, I haven't seen the Mellin transform in like forever
Yeah nevermind, that is some very crazy math right there
thanks, though!
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Is this correct?
Start = 0, end = pi/2
What I'm confused about is where to draw the 2nd cosecant curve that is in the bottom. Would it just be the midpoint of the period?
looks like you drew the csc curve just fine
the vertical asymptote would be in the middle of the period (sin = 0 in the middle of its period)
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Anyone help me with the quesrion
what da quesrion
whats the question though?
quesrion*
@waxen gale Has your question been resolved?
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When making the jump from Fourier series to complex Fourier series and then to Fourier transforms (I assume this is the order), where does the importance of complex variables come in? I mean like why do we need to start using cosx + isinx? What was wrong with just real sinusoids like in the regular Fourier series? And why can’t we use that same real approach in the Fourier transform? I get that eurlers formula decomposes into a real and imaginary cos and sin, but isinx isn’t the same as sinx, some new aspect is being added when we jump to the complex form.
I guess an equivalent question would follow as to why I can’t just say $$\int^{\infty}_{-\infty}(x(t)(cos(x) + sin(x))dx$$
Why can’t I say this is the Fourier transform
Nathan
Rather than $$\int^{\infty}_{-\infty}(x(t)(cos(x) + isin(x))dx$$
Nathan
What’s so special about the complex variable that changes the meaning of the Fourier transform and makes it different from the regular real Fourier series
The complex numbers are generally "richer" than the real numbers, and you gain a lot of power when using them
That being said, there's nothing special about i here.
Then why not use real stuff
Why is the transform the way it is
because it turns out to be useful
This is kind of "why do we call a dog a dog"
The transform is useful, and there's no real equivalent
its not like someone just came up with it and decided "lets teach this to all students for no reason"
Might be worth seeing the Laplace transform, which is another integral transform, but is entirely real
Also has useful properties, but is used in other places
if you have the usual real fourier series with its coefficients a_n,b_n, then you always have pairs of numbers
if you decided to do this, then you would have sums a_n+b_n (modulo details) from which you cannot recover a_n and b_n
however with the i in there you can recover them
hmm
thats not like "the reason" why its useful but it maybe gives an idea
of why C can be nicer than R
seen it
just begs the question
I still dont really get it
All im hearing is it is because it is
I dont know what youre getting at what do you mean
Its derivation seems random
why use complex exponents
why not stick to real sinusoids
Maybe the derivation is pretty random, bad book?
i dont have a book
youtube has taught me everything unfortunately
probably why this isnt making sense
you cant forget that lots of math things were discovered over a lot of years
the derivations that you see today are not how the things were discovered
sure
Complex exponents are not sinusoids. Sinusoids hold less information than complex exponents. That gain of information isn't to be ignored
sure, complex exponents hold exponents and sinusoids, i get that, laplace is generalized fourier blah blah, I get it, Im confused why we even go there at all, why not just say e^x(cos(x) + sin(x))
and what makes complex so useful
Well, you could! And there may be results for doing so.
how would one?
e^x(cos(x) + sin(x)) is not the same as e^(x)(cos(x) + isin(x))
everything
okay but what
We can use it! But it wouldn't be the same transform.
i dont get it
Like, are you uncertain why e^x(cos(x) + sin(x)) is not the same function as e^(x)(cos(x) + isin(x))?
thats part of it
theyre obviously different
I still dont really get what isin(x) is supposed to mean
other than the "spiral" in the real imaginary x plane
you do know that cosx+isinx runs around the unit circle as x increases, yes?
in that way it perfectly represents rotations and all that stuff
meanwhile cosx+sinx just kinda doesnt do it that quickly
wdym
like sure they are still somehow linked to a circle and stuff
but its just way less nice
well i mean we completely change the definition of a point in the complex plane its not really a fair comparison
you could have to compare (cos(x), sin(x)) to cos(x) + isin(x) because of the way stuff gets plotted
but now you have to introduce tuples
?
and whats easier to deal with, a single number or two numbers at the same time
a single number
aka cosx+isinx instead of (cosx, sinx)
Mind you, that is exactly the same, and that would be another Fourier transform
But your (cos(x), sin(x)) is just another way of writing cos(x) + isin(x)
That is complex
working in R^2 is just way more annoying than working in C
you can absolutely do it
but working in C is so much easier
So youre telling me the only difference is that one is neater
In terms of mathematical machinery, there is no difference
the fact that you have a multiplication in C is insane
one that feels "natural"
instead of weirdly writing it in R^2
what does the real fourier transform look like then
well integrate f(x) cosx or f(x) sinx
The transform you are suggesting is exactly the already existent complex fourier transform, just you aren't writing i
wdym
I dont really know what this means
The i is there, you just aren't writing it haha
okay but
one is in terms of cosx and sinx
the other in terms of cosx+isinx (or more easily, e^ix)
why $$\int{f(x)isin(x)}dx$$ instead of $$\int{f(x)sin(x)}dx$$
Nathan
since you can break it apart to that point
thats all it comes down to
thats literally the only difference
from the complex number a_n+ib_n you can recover a_n and b_n
how?
real part and imaginary part
The integral doesn't eat the i, to be very clear. The i is still there, but outside of the integral
and the same can be done in regular fourier series no?
recovering an bn that is
not if you are just adding the numbers
if you add 3+4=7, how can you tell that you didnt add 2+5
okay, sure, what does it mean?
what does it change by being there
meanwhile if you add 3+4i you can tell
I see it and it just kind of confuses me because it has no literal meaning
We're back to "cos(x) + isin(x) is not cos(x) + sin(x)"
okay sure but
we arent adding?
if you compute the integral of f(x)(cosx+sinx), you find out what a_n+b_n equals
you can derive a and b easily with trig identities and go back and forth between forms
so for example you find out it equals 7
yeah i get that
why
but what you actually wanted was to find out a_n and b_n individually
which you cant from this information
yeah
meanwhile, if you compute the integral f(x)(cosx+isinx) you get a_n+ib_n
so if you find out that this integral equals 3+4i, now you found both a_n and b_n
with just a single integral
This is a confusing thing to say. The i can't just be removed. It becomes a different expression.
okay why not just remove the i and not add them
Of course the i has meaning, it's an algebraic element
the i models that you are doing tuples. the cos and sin get treated differently
Yes but one that doesnt seem to make any difference?
just like in a tuple (cosx,sinx) you have a first and second element
if you are just adding cosx+sinx you are losing that information
3i + 4 is not the same as 3 + 4. The i matters
if all you care about are the coefficients does it really
3+4 tells me the same information
what information??
what am i losing
The fact that you can see two coefficients is proof the i matters haha
?
There's no two coefficents in the real version
sure but each integral will have its own value
That gets mixed into one coefficient
before adding them those real values are the coefficients
7 does not tell you the same information has two numbers (3,4)
just dont add
why add it
dont add it
split the integral
You got me for a while haha. No more bait for me
you get the same numbers
what?
Yes but just split the intgral
dont add them, the first term and the second term are your coefficients
but the beauty with complex numbers is that you dont have to
you can just integrate it as one
as f(x)e^ix
one thing
no I cant? to integrate that I have to break it apart and evaluate it
nah, depends hugely on what you are actually integrating
idk let f(x) be x^2
how is that any easier than me doing integration by parts for two terms
integrating x^2 e^ix is very easy
how?
well ibp like you said
the entire point of this is just it makes it quicker and easier
once for cos, once for sin
but like miles easier
cleaner and faster
so much easier
yes
okay
so for the complex fourier series
they mean the exact same thing
ones just obviously nicer looking
yes
eye opening stuff
so if i really wanted to
i could do the same thing for laplace
do only real stuff
you can always try and only work in the real world
it just turns out to be so much uglier
ok
so then
what about the linkage between the complex fourier series and the fourier transform
for the fourier series you always have e^inx
(or some other scaled version)
where n is an integer
now you just take all the values
is that it?
what about how one exists to approximate something while the other transforms to a frequency domain
in the series, the n means frequencies
i feel like one does a different thing
so its itself now a variable in the "frequency domain"
yes kinda
a discrete one
but you didnt really think about it that way
you thought about it more like an index or something
i see
then whats the difference between the discrete fourier transform and the fourier series??
so and depending on the value of n the integral f(x)e^inx has some different value
so you have a function which takes in the input n and outputs the value of that integral
and that function you call the fourier transform of f
and this output
what is its input?
frequency?
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I got until the very end but at the end I need to find
which is basically infinity - infinity
did I do something wrong
how am I gonna turn that value into infinity/infinity
ohh that makes a lot of sense
thank you
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is this correct?
yes it is indeed correct
why? there are intersections tho
wouldn't it be parallel if its inconsistent
but there are no intersections of 3 lines altogether
the solutions of the three-equation system is the set of all points that all 3 lines intersect at
the intersections you are talking about are merely the solutions of the subsystem of equations with only the relevant line equations
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how would the initial tension be stronger than mg?
the answer is B
but isnt the block of mass m held in place?
so the vertical components will be equal?
Correct. As will the horizontal components
Yes T1 has mg and some rightward force, so it must be more than mg alone
i'm not seeing how T2 is below mg tho
Okay
how woudl T2 be below mg tho?
this is it after the horizontal rope immediately cut
oh wait
wait why would T2 balance with mgcos(theta)
Ah they'd be equal and opposite by Newton's 3rd law
That's a very clever force diagram
yeah
You mean mg/cos theta or something
no
mg would be the hypoteneuse if im not mistaken
so it would be cos(theta) = ?/mg
mgcos(theta) = ?
I know this logic is iffy because there's technically no rope in the opposite direction
yeah
Immediately after
Yeah it has to do with this
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In my mind it's just easier to think that the particle would go up and to the right cause of inertia, as that's what happens when the left and downward force of the horizontal string is removrd
But since the original downwards force is mg, and you're reducing the vertical and the horizontal components of the tension
Yeah must be B
@zealous gate
oh okay
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Hello, new here. I've been going through Mendelson's Intro. to Math. Logic textbook and I am on problem 2.55c. "A wf φ is k-valid iff it is true for all interpretations that have a domain of k elements." and I'm supposed to prove that (k+1)-validity implies k-validity. I initially attempted trying to disprove it but I think I might be misunderstanding what is being said. My initial thought is - say φ says there are k+1 elements in the domain. Then φ is true for all interpretations in a domain of k+1 elements but not in a domain of k elements.
The full statement from the textbook is: "Let a wf φ be called k-valid if it is true for all interpretations that have a domain of k elements. Call φ precisely k-valid if it is k-valid but not (k+1)-valid. Show that (k+1)-validity implies k-validity and give an example of a wf that is precisely k-valid. (See Hilbert and Bernays (1934 § 4–5) and Wajsberg (1933).)"
I just realized there is no equality in the logic (first order logic without equality) so perhaps no wf can express this..?
Wait sorry, I just realized this channel is for preundergrads.
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These channels are usually for more specific questions, so if you got any specific questions you need help with, we gotchu
Also, the first msg you type when you make this channel is pinned, so usually most people put their questions there
Just a lil fyi
you can type .close if you do not need help anymore
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Need help with this question pls
Ive tried getting y = ln(x+1/2) then subbing into the bottom equation but im just confused i cant lie
I'd probably substitute the second equation into the first one instead
just solve for 2y from the second equation right
instead of y
Ok thanks ill try
(This would work too btw, you would just have to apply exp on both sides and it would have few extra steps)
I feel like you did way too many substitutions there
confused on this step
and in the end, the substitutions "cancelled" each otehr
why can you put e2y over e like that
that's an exponent rule
specifically the quotient rule
a^(m-n) = a^m / a^n
e^(2y - 1) = e^2y / e^1
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When your doing this do, which domain do you use, do you use the domain of the inverse function (x-1)^2 + 1 or the domain of the function showed?
the domain of the first one
@mild jolt Has your question been resolved?
why
bcz the inverse exists only on the domain of the first function
otherwise it is not defined
ofc the function has to be bijective
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The tangent to the curve x=2sint y=2+cos2t at the point (2,1) meets the x axis at P and y axis at Q.Find the distance PQ
show your work and where you are stuck
I found dy/dx=-sint .I don't know how to continue from there
let's say we have y=x², how would you find the tangent to the function there at x=2?
I would differentiate the curve to get 2x and substitute for x to get 4 as the gradient
So I have x as 2 and y as 4 and gradient as 4 so I can substitute in y=mx+c to get y=4x-4
yes
very good
so, what we need is:
- the slope at (2,1)
then, we find the equation of the line with the point we have
i just realised, your derivative isn't quite right
let's do it together
Ok
$\dv{y}{x}=\frac{-2\sin(2t)}{2\cos(t)}$
pixel
right?
the 2 in the numerator appears because of the chain rule
,,=\frac{-\sin(2t)}{\cos(t)}
pixel
Yes
,,=\frac{-2\sin(t)\cos(t)}{\cos(t)}
Then I tried to simplify it by expanding sin2t
pixel
pixel
Oh yes
we have the point (2,1), but to find the slope we need a value of t, how do you think we could find what that value of t is?
Substitute for x in x=2sin t but I'm not sure if we would get the same value if we used y=2+cos2t
pixel
oh wait
i mixed it up
its (2,1)
so we should use 2 for x
,,2\sin(t)=2\\sin(t)=1\t=\frac{\pi}{2}+2\pi n
pixel
Am getting t as 90⁰ which is pi/2 I don't get the +2 π n part
the 2pi part is there because sine is periodic, but it doesn't matter in this case
,,1=2+\cos(2t)\-1=\cos(2t)\2t=\pi\t=\frac{\pi}{2}
pixel
so we see that it doesn't matter whether we use x or y
you get twice as many solutions for y
I tried y and I'm getting multiple values of t
but you can only take the solutions that satisfy both equations
Okay
we could have also used $2\frac{1}{2}\pi$ but $\frac{\pi}{2}$ is easier
pixel
now that we have a value of t, can you complete the problem?
Let me work it out, help me to verify it
How did u get the 2.5 π
I'm getting (3 sqrt 2) is that right
for the slope you mean?
use n=1 for pi/2 + 2npi but doesn't really matter right now
No as distance PQ
Thank you😭
np also thanks to the other guy
yeah
There's another one I haven't been able to do too
Can I ask it
thx
So I was able to find dy/dx but the second derivative is quite challenging
yeah
we have a fraction as first derivative
so what differentiation rule do you think we need to use?
Quotient rule
very good
can you show what you did, then i will help you find the mistake or help you on the step you're stuck on
Ok
I don't know how to go about simplifying that to get the desired second derivative
uhh i'm not really familiar with your way of computing it i just realised i don't actually know how to calculate second derivatives (i didn't learn this in school yet)
so id recommend asking it in another channel (thats exactly why the rule for making a new channel exists)
@zealous glen
@zealous glen Has your question been resolved?
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$\int \frac{1}{1+e^x},dx$
can i solve this by subbing $x=\ln u$?
109105116
dx = 1/u du ?
yea
i got this $\int \frac{1}{u(1+u)} dx$
109105116
du
du*
yea
and then plugging back e^x
to get
$\ln \left\lvert\frac{e^x}{e^x+1}\right\rvert+C$
109105116
Ah yeah cuz du = e^x dx
is that right? how do i differentiate it to check
You would need 1/2
i forgot to add the extra e^x term
$\ln \left\lvert\frac{e^x}{e^x(e^x+1)}\right\rvert+C$
109105116
No
You have
from this
1/u+u² du
i used partial fraction
No need
how to integarte this
du = e^x dx
So you have that
e^x/(e^x+e^2x) dx
But
Yeah never mind
What did you get with partial ?
$\int \frac{1}{u(1+u)} du = \int \frac{1}{u} , du - \int \frac{1}{u+1} , du$
with an integral
du*
Indeed
109105116
which is $ \ln |u| - \ln |u+1| $ right?
oh that's right i just differentiated it to check
thanks @fathom adder
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Can I get some help on 9
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
Dunno how to set up the integral
I’m assuming the bounds are 0 to pi/2 when looking at it graphically but it evaluates to zero
Then I tried 0 to pi/4 and multiplying it by two and just got the wrong answer
With the second method you'll only need one of the two equations
Can you show your work?
Probably put them in the wrong order cause of the negative but it doesn’t matter
Wdym
Oh you're doing 0 to pi/2 here
Yea
I think you need to break it up
How come
Draw a radius
?
A ray from the origin
Okay
I don’t see what you mean
OK get rid of one of the circles
Yeah