#help-23
1 messages · Page 332 of 1
dats good
the advanced maths 2u integrals are soo boring
even the 4u integrals are pretty easy in itself
what are those
i would say most 4u integrals are easy unless they are towards last question
Do jee integrals
recursive series might get some ppl but it depends
4u integrals used to be hardb ut they toned down the diffculty quite a bitn ow
calculus isn't really the 'flavour' of current 4u examiner
yeah true
the only hard 4u ones are the recurrence relation ones
even in 3u where they tell you what substitution to make, i feel like that takes away all the fun
do u know all of ur definite integral stuff
i can solve definites yeah
like wdym exactly
all the geometric tricks
shifting graphs
flipping it
think its called kings rule or something
Yes
ya
i can do a bit but my trig is clapped so im not fluent in those trig tricks
have u done improper integrals yet
@split fulcrum , try this integral
have u gone through partial fraction btw?
or not up to there yet
im just curious what textbook u using
Please don't say Stewart
yes
ill probably finish trig sub by later today
and then move onto improper
okok
daniel J velleman a rigorous first course in calculus
hmm ok
also this might be slightly controversial
dont care too much about 'rigour' as long as u understand the concepts
it doesn't really mean much in the learning process for u at the moment (at least not worth the time) and i think its better taught with actual professors
Nice
somethings are just really difficult to self-teach
oh im skipping the stupid epsilon delta crap
im not going near it
what does f:(0,1) mean
🤣
I disagree, getting used to rigor earlier , makes stuff easier later
You're missing out on a lot
ill learn it properly in uni
its actually pretty easy
The domain is (0,1)
oh alrr
theres a short bprp vid over btw if u want
each to their own i suppose. It is a hump u have to get over eventually but i think rigour is easier to grasp once u have sufficient other mathematical knowledge built up
i just dont think it makes sense to focus rigour in highschool math
Yeah, so water beam should do book of proof first
the only thing i can prove is sqrt2 is irrational 
Prove that sqrt(2) exists 🫵
every number exists - QED
question left as an exercise for the marker

but on a more serious note
Close , the completeness axiom along with supremums helps
i havent touched polar coords and parametrics like ever before but thats covered in my book so i wonder if ill have a hard time with that
uhhh
its not hard dw
should be fine i think
make sure u learn ur complex numbers tho
apparently a lot of ppl avoid it until the end
of their bridging courses or whatever
polar coords are pretty easy to visualize and grasp
na i dont need a bridging course mainly cuz ive got most things covered
plus my friend took one of those for math cuz he didnt do ext
tbh order of topics i would recommend u to learn is
calc (whatever u are doign rn)
then basic proofs + logic (learn logic, quite important)
then vector
then complex numbers
he said it was pre useless
uni maths eventually goes through them anyways
ye
i dont think proofs and logic is a part of the math course ill take
i believe its jsut calculus + linear algebra
so ill probably go thru vectors and complex numbers next?
proofs and logic will be part of maths just by nature of what the maths studied at uni entails
theres a lot of proof exercises
but this definitely
go through 2d 3d vectors + complex numbers
Linear algebra has a ton of proofs
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Trying to solve the latest question
Don't bother with the french
Everything above the latest question is given
And the latest question is asking to prove that their is a P that verifies the condition
Not sure how to start even
221 c'est égal à 13 fois 17, donc d'après le lemme des restes chinois, $10^p$ congru à 18 mod 221 est équivalent à dire que $10^p$ est congru à 18 mod 13 et $10^p$ est congru à 18 mod 17
TimourX
tu décompose ton equation en un système d'équations plus simples
Je ne comprende pas , lemme des restes chinois?
ah mince, tu connais pas ce théorème ?
ah oui j'avais pas lu ce qu'il y avait au dessus
Non je ne le connais pas , mais je peut l'explorer
Donc tu veux trouver p tel que 10^p = 5 mod 13 et 10^p = 1 mod 17
T'as fait le 3b ou pas ?
Pourquoi?
Faut être plus clair dans ce cas
Je veux faire la dernier question
Et qu'est-ce qui bloque avec la 3a donc ?
Ok mais t’en es à quelle question là, je pige rien à ce que tu recherches
I want to solve 3,c
Ok oui
Je me dis que la réponse à la b doit aider pas mal oui
On est pas en examen là, t’as tout le temps du monde pour bosser ta question, je vois pas l’intérêt de skip une question dans ce contexte
avoir du sens
Donc je peut faire la multiplication ICI?
et je doit utilise la division Euclidien pour que je trouve "p"
Oui tout l’intérêt du theoreme des restes, c’est que tu peux un calcul avec un gros modulo (228) par deux calculs sur des modulos plus simples (13 et 17)
Oui pour arriver à passer des équations du type 10^p = ??? vers p = ???
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limit x tends to 1+ of (arctan(x)ln(ln(x)))/tan(pi*x/2) =??
solve without lhopital
$\lim_{x \to 1^{+}} \frac{\arctan(x) ln(ln(x))}{ \tan{\frac{ \pi x}{2}}}$
ƒ( wai ina teacup)= I don't know
this?
@vapid cypress Has your question been resolved?
ln(lnx)=ln(x-1)?
idk what O is
I don't think there's any way without LH
its a taylor expansion of ln(x) around x = 1 i think, the first two terms
since op said no lhopital allowed...
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Compute the limit in the sense of distributions of the sequence ( (T_n) ), where ( T_N = e^{n^2} \delta_n ), and ( \delta_n ) is the Dirac delta concentrated at ( n ).
jandro0103
Hint ?
@split moss Has your question been resolved?
@split moss Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
here's a hint: while the concentration point of the dirac distributions grows bigger, the functions they're evaluated on keep the same compact support...
jandro0103
<@&286206848099549185>
The same argument proves that delta is also the zero distribution
But then T_n -> 0 right?
<@&286206848099549185>
<@&286206848099549185>
@split moss Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
<@&286206848099549185>
How can i help you?
Read above
<@&286206848099549185>
@split moss Has your question been resolved?
That's a lot of helper pings
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Just plug N to the right side of equation 4
equation 4?
In your image
@near tendon Has your question been resolved?
im ngl i still dont get it
how would it give the same equation they ask for
Do the algebra and find out
And find dN/dt
@near tendon Has your question been resolved?
How does subing n change it
Change what
Like how does my equation go from this with n instead of t
To the one they ask for
Do this
N=(stuff)
Plug in stuff for N in the right side
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someone help with C-8
im not sure if im allowed to ask these questions here
Phew!
i would think it's (A) v (but maybe v²?)
like it doesn't matter what happens in the frame of the plate
it's relative to me
but that's "exerted by the jet"
very confusing
0 is not an option
in the direction of the jet?
i think i got the answer
lmao
jet water = roh * a * v^2
and we have to use relative velocity
so it was just a formula based question
this is very interesting
bruh
nah not really
so it's d?
its just a formula based question
yea
u can also conserve energy
Energy will be 1/2m(v-V)^2
so that gives the answer
ok
wait
i forgot abt the pressure energy
but presusre energy is constant
so doesn't matter
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ok it's too hard, i've no clue
Why not ask in PhoDs?
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whats this
Is it c
no
momentum of?
Nah i got the answer
it was formula based
but u can also get it through energy conservation
idk about momentum conservation tho
ig the momentum isn't conserved
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Good day and Merry Christmas 🎄
I’m currently writing a mathematical research paper but I don’t know what format or what kind of structure that I need to follow. I already have the proofs of my work but I don’t have the paper. What format do I need to follow that is commonly used by modern mathematicians? Thank you in advance!
I know how to use LaTeX with Overleaf but I don’t know the format.
Uhhh I’m confused, what does that mean? 🤣
you can look on the website arxiv and see some papers
and try to copy that
abstract, introduction, then the general stuff of the paper, maybe conclusion, references
Oh cool! Tysm!
What kind of paper do they use? A4?
Nvm they have a detailed guidelines. Anyways, thank you!
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Am i getting trolled
i can't see the ibp
ibp gives $$\int{x^2\sin{(\ln x)} \mathrm dx = \frac{x^3}{3}\sin{(\ln x)} - \int{\frac{x^3 \cos{(\ln x)}}{3x}} \mathrm dx$$
f
this gets the answer
u = x^2, dv = sin(lnx)
Pro_Hecker
Frosty
ibp gives $$\int{x^2\sin{(\ln x)} \mathrm dx = \frac{x^3}{3}\sin{(\ln x)} - \int{\frac{x^3 \cos{(\ln x)}}{3x}} \mathrm dx$$
```Compilation error:```! Missing } inserted.
<inserted text>
}
l.49 ...{\frac{x^3 \cos{(\ln x)}}{3x}} \mathrm dx$
$
I've inserted something that you may have forgotten.
(See the <inserted text> above.)
With luck, this will get me unwedged. But if you
really didn't forget anything, try typing `2' now; then
my insertion and my current dilemma will both disappear.```
you need to do IBP 3 times
the first time is like i said here
you should have an integral of cos(lnx)
here, take u = 1 and dv = cos(lnx)
perform ibp 2 times and see
so ibp first time then u sub
im not sure im seeing how to directly integrate sin(lnx)
is u = x^3 and dv = sin(lnx)/x acceptable
?
yes that is acceptable
and then ibp $-x^3\cos(\ln x)-\int-3x^2\cos(\ln x)$ again should give the answer right
Frosty
You have to use ibp again
yeah
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@spiral saddle Has your question been resolved?
,w {{0,-2,1},{1,0,-1},{0,1,-1}}^(-1) * {{1,3,-1},{-2,1,0},{0,1,2}} * {{1},{1},{1}}
like
this is nonsense
which change of basis matrix do I need to multiply to get the right answer
can someone help me please
<@&286206848099549185>
it means
f(b1) = (1,-2,0)_(B')
f(b2) = (3,1,1)_(B')
f(b3) = (-1,0,2)_(B')
where B = {b1,b2,b3}={v1,v2,v3}
it means f is applied to basis vectors in B and the image of f under each basis vector of B is expressed in coordinates B'
by image I mean the result of the linear transformation
$f(\vec{v_1}) = \begin{pmatrix} 1 \ -2 \ 0 \end{pmatrix}_{\text{B'}}$
yeah and b1 = v1
Katharine
ok
yeah 
so if you apply the basis transformation from B' to B
you get f(v_1) in basis B
right?
which you can then use
you mean M_(B'B)(f)?
how is P defined
Katharine
$[v]{B} = P{B' \rightarrow B} [v]_{B'}$
Katharine
where in our case
I agree with this
$[v]{B'} = \begin{pmatrix} 1 \ -2 \ 0 \end{pmatrix}{B'}$
Katharine
yes we need to put P in terms of what we have
well you have both bases
still dunno what it is
so you can construct P
like it could mean a projective linear transformation or it could mean a matrix change of basis with respect to the identity linear transformation or it could mean a matrix change of basis with respect to f
like there is a projector operator called P aswell
wrt f or Id
you have the coordinate vectors in the bases
Defined by this
If you have $\begin{pmatrix} 1 \ 0 \ 0 \end{pmatrix}_{B'}$
Katharine
then using the transformation matrix you know it is
$\begin{pmatrix} 1 \ 1 \ 0 \end{pmatrix}_{B}$
Katharine
if i am not mistaken
P i need to know if its a change of basis matrix with respect to identity linear transformation or f
it's not wrt f
if you prolly mean it as a regular change of basis matrix with respect to anything then its with respect to identity operator
how do I find this matrix P that changes coordinates from B' to B
$\begin{pmatrix} 1 \ 1 \ 0 \end{pmatrix}{B} = \begin{pmatrix} . & . & . \ . & . & . \ . & . & . \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} 1 \ 0 \ 0 \end{pmatrix}{B'}$
Katharine
B'={v1+v2,-v1+v3,v3}
B={v1,v2,v3}
if basis B was made using v_1, v_2, and v_3 and basis B' was made using w_1, w_2, and w_3 we would not be able to do this
You might be able to use this $f(\vec{v_1}) = \begin{pmatrix} 1 \ -2 \ 0 \end{pmatrix}{\text{B'}} \ f(\vec{v_2}) = \begin{pmatrix} 3 \ 1 \ 1 \end{pmatrix}{\text{B'}} \ f(\vec{v_3}) = \begin{pmatrix} -1 \ 0 \ 2 \end{pmatrix}_{\text{B'}}$
in that you know what a coordinate vector means in terms of v_i
a coordinate vector in B'
if that makes sense
but i'm not sure how to do the composition without the change of basis in between
as i'm guessing M_BB'(g) is defined similarly
$f(\vec{v_1}) = \begin{pmatrix} 1 \ -2 \ 0 \end{pmatrix}{\text{B'}} \ f(\vec{v_2}) = \begin{pmatrix} 3 \ 1 \ 1 \end{pmatrix}{\text{B'}} \ f(\vec{v_3}) = \begin{pmatrix} -1 \ 0 \ 2 \end{pmatrix}{\text{B'}}$ and $\$
$g(\vec{v_1}) = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 1 \ 0 \end{pmatrix}{\text{B'}} \ g(\vec{v_2}) = \begin{pmatrix} -2 \ 0 \ 1 \end{pmatrix}{\text{B'}} \ g(\vec{v_3}) = \begin{pmatrix} 1 \ -1 \ -1 \end{pmatrix}{\text{B'}}$
Katharine
so in order to have $g(f(\vec{v_1})) = \begin{pmatrix} ? \ ? \ ? \end{pmatrix}_{\text{B'}}$
Katharine
you need something inbetween
so let's continue by writing out P
$\begin{pmatrix} 1 \ 1 \ 0 \end{pmatrix}{B} = \begin{pmatrix} . & . & . \ . & . & . \ . & . & . \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} 1 \ 0 \ 0 \end{pmatrix}{B'} \ \begin{pmatrix} -1 \ 0 \ 1 \end{pmatrix}{B} = \begin{pmatrix} . & . & . \ . & . & . \ . & . & . \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 1 \ 0 \end{pmatrix}{B'} \ \begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 0 \ 1 \end{pmatrix}{B} = \begin{pmatrix} . & . & . \ . & . & . \ . & . & . \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 0 \ 1 \end{pmatrix}{B'}$
Katharine
matrix multiplication
yeah
When we apply that matrix to the output of f
of M(f)
we can then apply M(g) to it
and again apply it
and the first component should then be the multiple of v_1
so it will be
$P_{B' \rightarrow B} M_{BB'}(g) P_{B' \rightarrow B} M_{BB'}(f) (\vec{v_1} + \vec{v_2} + \vec{v_3})$
Katharine
And as a result we should get a coordinate vector in the B basis
with the entries being the multiples of v_1, v_2, and v_3
,, P_{B' \to B} = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & -1 & 0 \ 1 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 1 & 1 \end{bmatrix}
938c2cc0dcc05f2b68c4287040cfcf71
we need to multiply all this matrices together
yes
also, v1+v2+v3 is (1,1,1)_B
yes
apply it to that vector
and you will get the answer
i think
i'm never entirely sure about basis transformations
but if i am correct then this will give you the answer
,w {{1,-1,0},{1,0,0},{0,1,1}} * {{0,-2,1},{1,0,-1},{0,1,-1}} * {{1,-1,0},{1,0,0},{0,1,1}} * {{1,3,-1},{-2,1,0},{0,1,2}} * {{1},{1},{1}}
I was hoping it was correct
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just a quick question when calculating limits, if i come across 0/0+ is that indeterminate or +infinity??
like does 0 count as a real number in the whole anything divided by 0+ or 0- is + or - infinity
this is the limit im calculating and i do know that it is infinity
x+1 in the first line**
if you have something that's outright 0,
e.g 0/x
the limit will be 0 when taking the limit
yeah but in this case its 0/0+ so would that be any diff
the limit is infinity so i just am not sure if this is the right way to get to it
hmm so i would be allowed to just write +infinity right after that
no
if both the numerator and denominator approach 0, you'd have an indeterminate form and more work is required
yeah but this is limit from the right and the denominator approaches 0 from the right so how would that work
usually if the denominator approaches 0 from the right or left it is +/- infinity but in this case numerator is also 0
indeterminate. any 0/0 is indeterminate
as mentioned above, it depends. the specifics are important (there's a distinction between approaches 0 and is 0)
yeah thank you!! i kind of messed up some sign stuff and couldn't figure out how to factor it but turns out its kinda easy
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how do i integrate tan-1(x)/x from 1/2 to 2? tried by parts but dosent seem to work
i don't think that has an elementary antiderivative
but it has bounds right?
i was thinking of using kings, but that dosent seem to help
Try t = 1/x substitution
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are dx and integrals of trigonometric functions a rotation anticlockwise and clockwise respectively? like in this graph?
You could say that. Sure
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There is a connection here between this and Euler's formula
Which is pretty interesting and enlightening if you aren't aware
@lethal walrus ^
i am not aware no, whats the connection?
So e^(iθ) = cos(θ) + i sin(θ)
So Re(e^(iθ)) = cos(θ)
If you apply d/dx to this it's like multiplying by i
So you get i cos(θ) + i^2 sin(θ) whose real part is -sin(θ)
We can relate multiplication by i with a 90° rotation in the complex plane
Hence your circle presentation is more on the nose than you imagined.
ay thats cool
If you exchange cos and sin and just place it on a complex plane and rotate this around voila
why dont they explain it like this in the first place lol, its pretty interesting thanks
i still have to study complex numbers better but i more or less understand
Well, it's one of those things where simply presenting it up front might be a little difficult to explain.
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when ur sketching fields eg from let's say R to R^3
how can u differentiate when it's a vector field or when u get a surface?
cz in my eyes both take an input and output a vector but vector fields when sketched will show only vectors whereas surfaces will be like actual 3d structures
so im a bit confused where to make the distinction
@exotic charm Has your question been resolved?
a vector field would be something like a function R^3 to R^3 (you take each point in 3D space as an input and show an arrow as output)
a function from R to R^3 would usually be visualized as a curve in R^3 (which shows all outputs of the function for a given set of inputs)
and a surface would be a function R^2 to R^3 (again only showing the outputs)
but
in this qu it's not from R^3 ?
ik it says it's a vector field but i wanna know like how u would determine it without it saying it
here they are interpreting it as a function from (R,φ,z) but which only changes based on the first coordinate
alternatively you can view it as a function which depends on (x,y,z) but rewritten into a different coordinate system
@exotic charm Has your question been resolved?
but surfaces are normally given as
a subset of R^2 to R^3 for instance
or is it only a vector field when it's R^3 to R^3
you can interpret the same formula for different things potentially. so in this case we have a vector field because we are interpreting it as a function R^3 to R^3 even though the formula it uses only depends on one coordinate
that makes sense
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hi gang
can someone check my proof please 🙏🏻
𝔸dωn𝓲²s
you need an actual example of such a group
I gave one I thought
the "for example" doesn't read well at all; just present the example
however, it's not immediately clear how + is defined in this set G (you're calling it D too?)
Why, if G is cyclic with order 163 then there exists such group, right?
this doesn't make sense syntactically
why not just take Z_163
D is a subset of integers
addition works like in Z
why give it two names though?
then it doesn't work. what's 81+1?

this is actually the best?
The proof is just a single example of said group.
There is, of course, a cyclic group of any order
cyclic groups of fixed order are unique up to iso, so you could say Z_163 is the only one
I figure the book you're using should state that so I'm not sure how much more you could add
This math looks intimidating
Group theory is fun af
My favorite isomorphism joined 🥰
I just wanted to see what real mathematician would do for math
That is complicated and igtg
What is group theory
well 163 being prime doesn't really affect the proof, but it does imply that there's only one group of order 163 up to iso
A group is a "symmetry" of an object.
For example, there's a bunch of ways you can take a square, pick it up, flip it around, and put it back down the way it was. There's a group that represents this.
Groups get a neat algebraic structure, studying them can be fun.
ahh
so if all groups of prime order are cyclic. and if any two cyclic groups of the same order are isomorphic, then there's only one group of each prime order
That sounds super interesting if I were a math student I definitely would take it
can you give an example for Z_2
yes sorry
why so small though?
😭 I just wanna understand how to construct okkk
you don't have to prove it
there's only two bijections between the two anyway
where does 0 go, where does 1 go
0 goes to 1
1 to 2?
how?
you can prove it
let G, H be groups with p : G -> H a group hom. show that p(e_G) = e_H
e_G id in G, e_H id in H
in fact, homomorphisms are meant to do this anyway; they're meant to preserve all the structure (multiplication, identities, and inverses)
it just so happens that every function between groups that preserves the multiplication bit implies preservation of id's and inverses
Define $\Phi : \mathbb{Z}_2 \to \mathbb{Z}_3^$ with $a+b \mapsto ab, : a,b \in \mathbb{Z}_2 \$
Then [ \Phi(a+b) = ab = (a\cdot 1)(b\cdot 1) = \Phi(a+0)\Phi(b+0) = \Phi(a)\Phi(b) \quad \forall a,b \in \mathbb{Z}2. ]
But this already assumes that $0 \mapts to 1$ or rather $id{\mathbb{Z}2} \mapsto id{\mathbb{Z}_3^}.$
monoids are groups without inverses, and a monoid homomorphism actually needs to be defined around mapping ids to ids
sorry, this isn't well-defined
0 isn't in Z_3*
I like using Cayley tables for the small groups
You have to play them like a Sudoku. Try making a 2×2 sudoku, you don't get any choices on how you fill it in. There's only one group with two elements
Oh but you're asking about all prime groups, mb
Define $\Phi : \mathbb{Z}_2 \to \mathbb{Z}_3^$ with $a+b \mapsto ab, : a,b \in \mathbb{Z}_2 \$
Then [ \Phi(a+b) = ab = (a\cdot 1)(b\cdot 1) = \Phi(a+0)\Phi(b+0) = \Phi(a)\Phi(b) \quad \forall a,b \in \mathbb{Z}2. ]
But this already assumes that $0 \mapsto 1$ or rather $\iota\delta{\mathbb{Z}2} \mapsto \iota\delta{\mathbb{Z}_3^}.$
same thing, phi(0+0)=0 is not in Z_3*
The definition is flawed argh
but also, in defining phi around sending sums to sums, you need to verify that it produces a well-defined function
i'm a little confused why you're defining phi by a+b maps to ab
normally you would define it by phi(a) = something
consider a mapping Z_2 -> Z_2 defined the same way. then 0+0 = 1+1 = 0, but 0*0 = 0 != 1 = 1*1
In my script there is this def.
(G, theta_1) and (H, theta_2)
Phi(a theta_1 b) = Phi(a) theta_2 Phi(b)
You're trying to come up with a clever way to make this mapping happen, but all you need to do is say where each element goes
for all a,b in G
yea i know
i jsut wanted to generalize it
you mean, finding all the isomorphisms between two groups?
Like Z_m isomorph to Z_(m+1)*
hm
actually thats false
counterexample?
we saw an example of a multiplicative group earlier that had the klein 4 group as a subgroup
so that group isn't isomorphic to any Z_m
because Z_m is always cyclic
I just wanted to show (Z_2, +) ~= (Z_3*, *) is indeed an isomorphism using by showing first there is an homomorphism
so to define phi you only need to define phi(0) and phi(1)
in such small cases, coloring the cells of the two operation tables suffices
so phi(a) = a+1?
ok
phi(a+b) = phi(a)*phi(b)
it's a little wacky because you kinda need to view each of the elements as entries of Z (1 who?)
but it seems alright, just funny
it gets confusing with all the operations flying around
to be more precise you can just say
phi(0)=1
phi(1)=2
yeah because addition in Z2 compared to Z3 is very different
the "a+1" is very specific about treating a as simultaneously an entry in Z2 as well as Z3
i mean you're really taking addition from neither {Z2, +} nor from {Z3, *}
you're taking it from Z i guess
right
this is one of the confusions i have about group theory 
I am actually having trouble lmao
have to think carefully about the operations
I dont think it works 
Define $\Phi : \mathbb{Z}_2 \to \mathbb{Z}_3^*$ with $u \mapsto u+1\$
Then [ \Phi(a+b) = (a+b)+1 = ab+a+b+1-ab = ab+a+b+1 = (a+1)(b+1) = \Phi(a)\Phi(b) \quad \forall a,b \in \mathbb{Z}_2. ]
𝔸dωn𝓲²s
It's wrong btw
I can't believe MATH
such simple sets so hard to find a proper function
there's nothing wrong with saying phi maps 0 to 1 and 1 to 2
then checking all four combinations
but when I had (Z_2 x R_(>0)) ~= R\{0} it was so simple to say (z,r) |-> zr
or three if you trust they're both abelian
you can also define your function inductively
yeah actually I just noticed you killed a poor innocent -ab
haha i was working from both sides
but just doesnt work, maybe you cant find one and you have to go all combinations
@fathom jewel Has your question been resolved?
I AM SEXY
W
Define $\Phi : \mathbb{Z}_2 \to \mathbb{Z}_3^*$ with $u \mapsto 2^u. \$
Then [ \Phi(a+b) =2^{a+b} = 2^a \cdot 2^b = \Phi(a)\Phi(b) \quad \forall a,b \in \mathbb{Z}_2. ]
𝔸dωn𝓲²s
show that Phi is well-defined
so it is a finite surjection and hence..? Also, show that Phi is well-defined
this wouldn't produce a valid mapping in any other context
Z_3 -> Z_4* for instance
Sir all that is left is to do what I said (and fill in the ...)
I really don't think that there's a lot of insight you could get from describing your function this way
why not
it's too small
the groups are too small rather
you could just draw their operation tables
and color the cells that are friends via a mapping
squint so you can't see the symbols, and the colors match
ye i just wanted to find a function and show that way there exists a homomorphism between Z_2 and Z_3*
if you could first prove that any group of prime order is cyclic, then it is easy to prove that any two groups of the same prime order are isomorphic by sending the generator of one group to the generator of the other
even if it's ridiculous
hmm okay
I did this in a "lesson" once to show that two instances of K4 (rectangle symmetries & 2-switch light panel) were isomorphic
it quickly and pictorially shows operation preservation for every combination of elements mashed together, plus bijectivity
you can handle it with cases
Let $\abs{G} = p \in \mathbb{P}$ and $a \in G$ such that $a \neq e.\$
Then $[a] \leq G.$ The Theorem of Lagrange implies that $\abs{a} \mid \abs{G}.\$
Since $\abs{G}$ is prime it implies $\abs{a} = 1$ or $\abs{a} = \abs{G}$ but $a\neq e.\$
Thus $\abs{a} = \abs{G} = p$ implies $[a] = G.$
𝔸dωn𝓲²s
$\phi(0+0)=\phi(0)=1=1\cdot 1=\phi(0)\phi(0)$\
$\phi(0+1)=\phi(1)=2=1\cdot 2 = \phi(0)\phi(1)$\
$\phi(1+1)=\phi(0)=1=2\cdot 2 = \phi(1)\phi(1)$
Axe
yea but i didnt want cases lol i was interested into finding a generic function and it worked out even if it's for some ludicrous lol
Or what do you think
About this
idk, have you really thought about what it means when a=b=1?
what operation does the dot represent?
Multiplication
in Z or in Z*_3 ?
Z*_3
Doesnt this resemble 2^x
so implicit here is that 2^(1+1) = 2^0 = 1 = 2*2
or something like that
for the case a=b=1
Hi
yeah that's how i got from 2^(1+1) to 2^(0)
do we have power laws for addition mod 2 and multiplication in Z*_3 ?
if so then i think your proof works
...sleep?
This is keeping me awake 

Let a,b in Z_2 then 2^a2^b = 2^(a+b).2^0 * 2^0 = 1 * 1 = 2^(0+0) = 2^0 = 1
2^0 * 2^1 = 1 * 2 = 2^(0+1) = 2^1 = 2
2^1* 2^1 = 2* 2 = 4 = 1 mod 3
= 2^(1+1) = 4 = 1 mod 3
Seems to work
Right
is this ruckus about whether or not the power law holds in Z3*?
and like, is it a fluke that it works for these operations, or will this line of thinking help you with bigger additive and multiplicative groups
i guess
This homomorphism will not be helpful for bigger groups
yet the power law does hold
It works for this purpose
indeed
Austinnnn
i guess i'm just trying to understand if this makes sense
cause i'd rather just treat it with cases
Homomorphism
?
it's an argument that phi is a homomorphism
Yes
which part are you having trouble with?
😭
Everybody saying this is stupid
how is this step justified
.
2^(a+b) = 2^a * 2^b
I think a proof of the power law would go like the quotient map f: Z-> Z/nZ is a ring homomorphism, so since power law equations hold on the left they hold on the right
2^0 * 2^0 = 1 * 1 = 2^(0+0) = 2^0 = 1
2^0 * 2^1 = 1 * 2 = 2^(0+1) = 2^1 = 2
2^1* 2^1 = 2* 2 = 4 = 1 mod 3
= 2^(1+1) = 2^0 mod 2 = 1
I am done
I think I will ask tomorrow Denascite
Still thanks for the help ❤️
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hi
Statistics. so i was calculating for XLB or the lower class boundary
i'm finding 6th decile.
i
53-56
57-60
f
5
4
cf
5
9
(all respectively)
with n = 50.
I was diving 50/10 then it resulted 5. so the question is what would be my cfb?
wait no, what would be my xlb and by cfb then?
is my XLB 56.5 or 52.5?
if my XLB is 52.5, then I have cfb = 0
if my XLB is 56.5, then my cfb would be 5.
so which is which?
this is not an assignment or test. i'm creating my own reviewer all about the lessons of statistics
can someone help me please
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It (A,B) is a point on y= 2^x then which of the following points is on y= 2^(x+2)
Seems soo
Its 8B , A
wait
Somehow
Yeah? I think
so for x = A, y = 4B
He didnt mention anything about that anyways
What quadratic
Wheres the quadratic
exponential function always has 1 y for 1 x
so 4B is supposed to be the only y for x = A
So your book answer is indeed wrong, I think
What if the function is y=2^x+3
No i mean- i might be seeing the question wrong 😭
Lol
I see
So like wth
I asked chatgpt
what 2 and 3 looks like in arabic
ChatGPT said:
ChatGPT
In Arabic, the numbers 2 and 3 are written as:
2: ٢
3: ٣
These are the Arabic numerals used in the Arabic-speaking world, which are different from the standard Western digits.
Not same at all, focus on letter
Ik my language xd anyways so if y=2^x+3 wouldnt tbat worj
Work
Like it would be y=8b
- 3 on exponent or bottom?
Exponent
It says (8B , A) tho
Well it is not a three and the question is wrong
there r 2 possibility: either the answer is wrong or the question has misprinting
es
Np
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does this proof for proving limit law seem ok
im tryna prove that lim (fx + gx) = lim fx + lm gx
there is a way to do this using limit definition, but i tried to prove using continuity
lemme know if this seems right
emm
lemme find my analysis textbook
This is the prove given in Analysis I from Terence Tao
Hope this helps
To prove the limit laws for sequence, just consider two Cauchy Sequence, and take epsilon/2 for each
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thank you
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!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
2
can you share work
I tried simplifying it but Im not getting close
yes it's not in English so might take a second to translate it
hi guys
Btw welcome to mathcord @dreamy snow and @rocky island
can anyone send me properties of logarithms like very basic
thank you
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Rip
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rewrite tanx as sinx/cosx
did that
wait ill get back
did you do u sub then
Did multiplying both sides by cos x help
oh wait lemme try that
i dont see how that helps
just do this first
i assume you should have something like
$\int\frac{\sin x}{\cos x-\cos^2x}\dd x$
for which you can simply do u = cosx
I don't understand that honestly
do you know what is u-substitution?
but dividing by cos x worked
I don't study in English so I'm not sure
what language are you native in
Arabic
u sub is simple
just let u=cosx and rewrite your integral
also if you differentiate both sides you get du=-sinxdx
isolate dx so that dx=du/-sinx
O ya i didn't see that
then plug that in to the integral as well
why would you do that
until you have everything in terms of u in the integral
to rewrite dx?
what does 1 over cos mean in English again
gotta start learning maths in English Arabic isn't helping
that's just a needless step, you can immediately spot sinxdx = -du
yeah the same thing
same thing, but still a needless step 
sec?
sometimes its not as easy to see as in this integral
thats why i always do it as a seperate step
yes that's it
separate
yeah
its abs
Is absolute value
Arabic is written from right to left so I mixed this up
doesn't matter, its inside absolute value here
not really
cuz that took too long to figure out
unless you can see the result
thats the beauty of integrals
you just throw random stuff at it and pray it works
no systematic way to solve them
beauty indeed
kinda like geometry
I just finished the derivative applications
are they a lot easier than integrals or am I still not used to this
differentiation is definitely easier
Differentiation is like expanding in algebra but integration is like factorising
One is tedious but doable and the other is impossible if you can't see it
yes that's it, there's always something small that I just gotta figure out
Fr
I mean its fun but getting stuck like that on an exam isn't gonna feel good 😭
I think I shouldnt be chatting in a help channel so thank you guys for helping me
really welcoming too I appreciate that
Is ok im bad at calc 😭
I don't think many people can say they're good at it😭
true
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,rotate
can you see why AF=AD, DB=BE and so on
Yes
mark them x, y and z
I did
now what is 2x+2y+2z
Ye
now what is just x+y+z
15
what is x+y?
15-z
yeah
np
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find the number of possible values for the natural number n such that $2^{50}$ is a factor of $n!$ but $n!$ is not a multiple of $3^{40}$ ?
darn i'm hearthstoning
wait 12 minutes
i mean playing the game
not commuting home
i think the first condition gives you a lower bound for n, and the second condition gives an upper bound
?

