#help-23
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think about it this way
if u just did dual-enrollment instead
you'd need like 12+ APs
school doesnt offer dual enrollment
to match the credits
unfortunate
mm
exactly but what im saying is obviously the dog inside you
is capable
and the other dog is chasing his tail
yk what I mean?
So touch that one dog
but leave the other
ok ill take ap calculus bc
🗣️🗣️🗣️
u motivated me
Mashallah
inshallah we get a 6 on the exam
calculus sounds like an easy word so
literally
it's easy bro
trust
if when u were a toddler
I showed u 2+2=4
you'd cry like a baby
myfunction = function()
print("Calculus")
end
that's what this is
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how should i do this? do i write down a parametrization of a torus then write maps to that onto two circles?
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Hello, I would like ask about this question that I have been stuck on.
use the binomial expansion of (a+b)^n where a = 1 and b = -x/2
the coefficient of x² in the expansion would be (n choose 2) / 2²
dunno
I got it wrong. The second coefficient should be +-1
I get it now
I only have to equal x/2^(n+1) =9
if n = 18
Using combinatorics.
Krish
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forget that i said 18 idk if thats right or not
Equalling the equation with 9 gives me n = 0.
n = 0 is 1
Have you written the binomial expansion in the form similar to what lenny suggested?
Yes
so what is the term when k = 2?
nC2 = (1^n-2) (-x/2^n+2)
I also have to multiply with 2n, right?
But you kinda made a mistake there
the term is nC2 * (-x/2)^2 * 1 ^ (n-2)
it shouldnt have equal sign
I understand.
So, what is the coefficient there? (Just remove the x from the expression)
-1/2
No no no
the whole term
it has many more constants other than simple -1/2
coefficiet is all of them together
-1/2 ^ n+2
coefficient is everything in a term except for the variable x
theres one more
also what you wrote is wrong
nC2 * (-x/2)^2 * 1 ^ (n-2)
so
The coefficient is:
nC2 * (-1/2)^2 * 1^(n-2)
and that whole is given as 9
yes I understand now. Is nC2 equal to 2n?
you should get a quadratic in n
@lost flare Has your question been resolved?
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I have no idea how to solve equations with factorials.
<@&286206848099549185>
You mean factors? Like middle term break?
you dont end up with factorials. Like I said, the equation reduces to quadratic in n
But, the combinatorial expansion contains factorials.
Yes and factorials like n! become n * (n-1) * (n-2) * ....
I see.
so the numerator and denominator both have factorials which cancel out most of the terms
So, we can cross off (n-2)!.
yes
So, how much of the terms are cancelled out between (n!) and (N-2!)
write out the products in both
this is wrong
So, all that would be left is n and n-1
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Why did they make f(x) as x^T x, and why ▿f=2x
its like the vector variant of x²
why?
x^T*x = x1² + ... + xn²
Wow ! I'm not familiar with this form
sry i messed up a bit xd
its just the inner product of x with itself
I understand the process of calculating this vector, but I don't understand why it's in an addition form
Because it's hard to relate this addition form to x^2 in 1D->1D case
because it behaves like a quadratic function
f(2x) = 4f(x)
in general f(ax) = a²f(x)
you can look up quadratic forms
I know quadratic forms are just like this :
if you calculate the product normally like you would do for any matrix youd find this sum
third isnt a quadratic form
Wait. We can write ∂(x² + y² +... + z²)/∂x = ∂(x²)/∂x + ∂(y²)/∂x +... + ∂(z²)/∂x ?
well yeah
If it's ND to ND, then how can we write expression for f(x)
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a + b + 2c = 15. Find number of positive integral solutions. How do i approach this using permutations and combinations, if not for the coeffecient of c being 2, i could've solved it by "distribution of alike objects" concept pretty easily but now with the tweak in the question im left clueless somehow, any help would be appreciated !
Hint: How many solutions (a,b) are there for a given c?
Hint 2: ||Sum this over all possible c||
right ! thanks, i didnt think of that at all. much appreciated
got the answer right, again, thanks for the help 🫡
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Sure, however depending on the level you are in you might be expected to guess a whole number exponent and then optimize the coefficient via least squares
You could use the python method polyfit for that for example
actually i dont know the least squares method
ah
is that a library?
it is in numpy
so do i just pass the points in it as an argument?
and make sure to use np.array for the inputs
btw
maybe its nicer if you can fit a square root
But I am just guessing
Maybe they want you to vary the power
lol
Just try the results in desmos
so i should put 0.5 as the degree?
Yeah+
just try it
instead of (1,2),(2,3)
(1,2) and (2,3)
Ohh wait
shitty example
I meant
Instead of ((8,9),(6,7),(3,5)) make (8,6,3) and (9,7,5)
i did
those are x and y
i made that tuple separately
the x and y basically store that only
can you show me how it looks in desmos?
try m,d = np.polyfit(...)
it just returns 1 coefficient
that np.polyfit outputs only 1 coefficient, that is 42.16666667
so like how could that m, d work since there is only one value in the array that the function returns
@dry wolf
take log ig?
it may not work because x^0.4 is not a polynomial I would suggest using scipy.optimize.curve_fit
they don't want polynomial as an answer tho
they just want a power function
for this u have to define a function f(x, a): return ax^0.4
u cannot use np.polyfit if you dont have a polynomial
curve_fit(f, x, y)
yea exactly thats what i was thinking. i dont know about polyfit but the doc says its for polynomials
Wdym
thats the scipy library you mentioned above right
a^N?
Ok
that could be better yea
N=k*A^b
take log both sides
log(N)=log(k)+b.log(A)
take log N as y
log A as x
log k as c
so y=bx+c
then fit a linear model to the points (log(A),log(N)) for vals of b and c
c4^a=5
c40^a=9
10^a=9/5
a=log_10(9/5)
c=5/4^log_10(9/5)
Does that solve it?
N=k.(291)^b
N=3.10*A^0.308
its coming approx 18 species
ig this is good enough
yupp
3.51*A^0.255 I'm getting
so you basically put the log of the points in a linear model?
ahh so then i have to just put the values of m and c of the resulting linear model in that power function
Desmos has an approximation feature
Put you're X and Y coordinates in lists
Then type
Y~cX^a
And it'll find some values
@balmy sky Has your question been resolved?
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hello, i found this passage on a book which i dont understand. can somebody please help?
"Since real numbers are uncountable, then there must exist real numbers that are not algebraic. In fact, almost all real numbers are not algebraic (trascendental."
the fact that real numbers are uncountable implies that the real numbers are an extension of the rational numbers
Not necessarily, no
though sqrt(2) is a real number but not trascendental
It just means that no surjective function from rational to real exists
yes, or more generally that there is no biijective function between R and N, right?
To say the reals are an extension of the rationals is another thing
Surjective is more precise, but sure
Anyway, what is your question exactly
i dont understand why if real numbers are uncountable then there must exist real numbers that are not algebraic
as you said, if real numbers are uncountable then there is no surjective function from the rationals to the reals
hence the irrational numbers like sqrt(2) and pi are the numbers that make the real numbers uncountable
but unlike pi which is trascendental, sqrt(2) is algebraic
that's what i don't understand
the algebraic numbers are also countable, so you need to have 'more' reals than algebraic numbers
Given any real u can't find a natural number that maps to it. But given a real that is algebraic, u can
Ish
you might think of them as being in between rationals and reals, but the same size as rationals
It makes intuitive sense doesn't it
so if we consider the set X = rationals + algebraic irrationals (sqrt(2), golden ratio, etc)
but trascendental numbers like pi and e are not in X, then X is countable?
it turns out that yes
now that makes sense
how do we prove this formally? the cantor diagonal argument shows that the reals are uncountable but it doesn't distinguish between the algebraic irrationals and the trascendental irrationals
there's only countably many polynomials with integer coefficients, and each has finitely many roots, so the set of algebraic numbers is also countable
okay so
just saying that algebraic numbers are countable and the real numbers are uncountable is enough to prove that the trascendentals are uncountable?
yes
because otherwise they're countable, and the union of two countable sets is also countable which contradicts the reals (union of algebraic and transendental) being uncountable
oohh okay makes very much sense
thanks very much! 🙂
all clear now
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im not sure how to analyze this
when you approach from the left the function is continuous
but when you approach from the right at x =3 the f(x) is 0
so the function isnt continuous at 3?
Well first off, to the left of x=2, you have just a line, which we know is continuous.
To the right, we have a parabola. Also continuous.
So the only place something bad could happen is at x=2.
huh
but when x =2 the top equation is -14
and the bottom is -11
OH wait so visually the graph looks like this?
as x approaches 2 from the left the f(x) approahces -14 but from the right it approaches -11
is my understanding correct?
Yes. That means that the limit at x=2 does not exist.
Since a function is continuous at a point a if its limit about that point is equal to f(a), well the limit has to exist in the first place, so in this case f is not continuous at 2.
so if c = 2 and f(c) = 2 the point is continuous @ 2?
so the graph would look like this but there wouldnt be a hole at c
We want that $\lim_{x\to 2} f(x) = f(2)$. That implies three things :\
Azyrashacorki
- the limit on the left exists
- f(2) is defined
- they are equal
If any of those fail, then f is not continuous at x=2.
So yes it would look like the graph.
Essentially,
- ensures that both sides of the function approach the same value. This prevents, like in this case, that both parts are completely disconnected.
- ensures that there is no hole there
- ensures that f doesn't just have a point sticking out
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Hello I have a question
@thick turret Has your question been resolved?
i think it’s just to cancel the “d/dx” out on the left
basically whenever you have something like this where you want to solve for F(x):
Ryan
you can first rewrite the formula using t’s instead of x’s:
d/dt (F(t)) = f(t)
[sorry i accidentally deleted the typeset message]
then integrate both sides with respect to t, from t=0 to t=x
Ryan
which also can be written like this, just using F'(t) notation:
Ryan
and then you can apply the fundamental theorem of calculus to the left-hand side:
Ryan
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all of those steps, the whole point is to just solve for F(x). and as you can see here we have F(x) on the left-hand side, just with a -F(0) attached to it
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Okay, can I give an example and try to make sense from that
So we just integrate from 0 to x?
first rewrite the x's as t's
Okay, as a dummy variable
yes
@thick turret Has your question been resolved?
smartest kid in the cosmos
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have to apply rolles theorem,dk how tho
it sounds pretty strange as the degree of the polynomial is odd so it must have a least one real root (lim p(x)=+- infty as x goes to +-infinity )
it just seems falso to me (so you cannot solve it) and I would ask to a professor (or who gave it to you) some explanations
oh
maybe it says that you cannot have every root of the polynomial to be real
oh yah
that would make sense
ps:this question is supposed to be from application of derivatives
so my obv guess when i see related to roots is rolles theorem
ok...
lets say you have 5 real root
then between these root you have 4 root for the first derivative
yah
the between these roots you have 3 root for the second derivative
the between these roots you have 2 root for the thirth derivative
third
but we know all of them cant be real
so maybe you just have to compute 3th derivative and find that cannot have 2 root becouse of the inequality you are assuming
wait ill try
so you get a contraddiction if you assume that every root is real
3th derivative is $60x^2-24a_0x+18a$
everg
oh so D will be less than 0 since not all roots are real
yes i got the answer
actually D<0 as the third derivative can t have double roots as (what I have written before)
gg
tysm
np 😄
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uhh how do i factor t^4 - 625
hello
u know 625 = ?^4
yes 5
t^4 - 5^4
!original
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do you remember any identity like a^2 - b^2
so i do (t^2)^2 and 25^
25^2
then just t^2(t-5)(t+5)?
a = t b = 5
t^2
b=5^2
nice
(a-b)(a+b)
(t-5)(t+5)
isn't a = t^2 and b = 5^2
so i have t/t^2(t+5)
well i just wanted to make sure i factored it right
what will you get if you put those values in (a-b)(a+b)
a = t^2 and b = 5^2
well thats why i took out ^2
so id have a = t and not t^2
oh right
(t^2+25)(t^2-25)
(t+5)(t-5)(t+5)(t-5)
a^2 + b^2 ≠ (a-b)(a+b)
shit i thought it went both ways
no no
Algebraic identity is an equation that is always true regardless of the values assigned to the variables. Learn two variable and three variable identities along with factorizing identities in algebra.
you can look up the identities and their proofs here
would help you from getting confused ig?
okay i was wondering what exactly i had to look up
np there are some good resources on khan academy too
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Let f(x,y) has second-order partial derivative, satisfing 3( \frac{\partial^2 f}{\partial x^2} - \frac{\partial^2}{\partial x \partial y} +k \frac{\partial^2 f}{\partial y^2} = 0 ). Find the values of ( k ) and ( \alpha ) such that the above equation can be transformed under the transformation ( u = x + 4y ) and ( v = 3x + \alpha y ) (where ( k ) and ( \alpha ) are constants) to an equation that contains only terms with ( \frac{\partial^2}{\partial u \partial v} )
riyobi
@modern bloom Has your question been resolved?
@modern bloom Has your question been resolved?
chain rule is the way to go
Could you elaborate a bit
ill show you how to transform the first term only
you do the two other terms
and then plug them in the diff eq
just the chain rule over and over
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so if you moved the sec^2 term to the left then multiplied by cos^2 on both sides
what would you get
mhm
what’s tan*cos^2
mhm
yup
what is the double angle identity for sinx
do you remember
sin2x=2sinxcosx
you can show this from the angle sum identity of sinx
by 2
yes
you’re welcome
use ".close"
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There is something confusing me
howcome L1 is regular but L3 isnt (ik its not finite but L1 isnt either?)
pumping lemma
My profs comment on this was "For the first one it doest matter how many 0s and 1s there are as long as 0 appear ebfore 1 but for the third one we care about the amount"
I see but I thought if its not finite thn it cant be regular
and L1 doesnt seem bounded
m and n
the space of all words is regular for any alphabet
well, a language is regular if there is a finite automaton that accepts the language
oh true but there was this comment tripping me out where my prof said that regular languages cant count so finite is okay and infinite isnt
A finite language is regular, but not all regular languages are finite.
Alr that makes more sense
so there are some infinite cases aswell
that are regular
bet I get it now
why part 2?
you should probably internalize the pumping lemma if you want to know more about how to show that some languages are not regular
did you fail
nah calc III in my uni is divided into 2 courses
mvc and vector calc
ahh
that actually gives a condition on when infinite languages are regular (read: tells you a case when they are definitely NOT regular)
so if they asked me like "Is this regular or not" I should always start with the pumping lemma proof ?
and see if I end with a contradiction or not
instead of checker whether its possible to produce a finite automaton
checking
coz I feel like that would take more time
well, you should internalize a general pattern for languages, you just have to see a bunch of languages and say "yeah i can prove this one is regular" "yeah this one is not regular by the pigeonhole principle" "yeah this one is not regular by the pumping lemma" etc
you just need a bunch of examples
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For more intuition, the idea is that for 1, you just have to construct an automaton that accepts a bunch of 0s and then a bunch of 1s.
For 3. the automaton would need some "memory" to know how many 0s you put in the first place to write the exact same amount of 1s after. But finite automata can't do that, you need an extra structure for that called a pushdown automaton.
This is formalized by the pumping lemma as smay suggests.
As you get more comfortable with them through examples, you can usually make an educated guess at whether or not the language is regular.
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can anyone please help me with how this simplification works?
1->2 is combining fraction
2->3 is factor
so how does 2 -> 3 work>
factor $x_{n-1} - 2x_{n}$
Calc III Victim (Pt. 2)
$$x_{n-1}-2x_n+\frac{-1(x_{n-1}-2x_n)}{x_{n-1}x_n}$$
$$x_{n-1}-2x_n-\frac{(x_{n-1}-2x_n)}{x_{n-1}x_n}$$
$$(x_{n-1}-2x_n)+(-\frac{(x_{n-1}-2x_n)}{x_{n-1}x_n})$$
Skill_Issue
@velvet lark Has your question been resolved?
then why did it become a multiplication on step 3?
when it is still a addition/subtraction problem at step 2
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Can someone explain this? There's a difference with the placement of the green dot in each graph
is there any other context to what the piecewise function is?
either way I think the answer should be A as B looks like it isnt even a function as there are two outputs at x=0
isn't a function 1 to 1 tho? cuz inverse functions are and they need restricting the domain to get a function
functions dont have to be one to one but it does need to be one to one to have an inverse
I'm confused
its kind of hard to see in the picture, but graph A is the function following the red curve, but then it jumps at x=2 to the blue line
the green dot is saying that the value at exactly x=2 is 6
unless theres a hole in the red curve on graph b at x=0 that i cant see from the picture
since the green dot is also at x=0, graph b is saying that the function is equal to 0 and also 6 at x=0
(which is not possible for a function)
ooohh
does it still count as a function if it lies in a same value? like in the Graph A x=2
do you mean if the green dot in A was at y=4?
no, I meant the dots blue, green and red lies in a same value of x axis
ohh
if they are on the same value, then it isnt a function, but usually what people do is indicate things with a filled in dot / open dot
oopsd i forgot to label it just imagine that vertical line is x=2 for instance
this is saying that the function is the red line all the way until x=2, but not including x=2
at exactly x=2 it swaps to the blue line, so its never overlapping ontop of each other
in graph A, it would have to be something like this to be a valid function
so exactly at x=2 its the green dot, and before and after its the red/blue
if the dots were filled in above, then it would mean at x=2 there would be 3 values
ooohhhh
basically the dots filled in/not juist tells you if it includes that point/not
oohh so the dots that are filled are included and the dots that aren't filled is excluded
yep
thats why i was thinking there could be a dot i cant see in the picture for graph B at x=0, since then it would be a valid function
usually in piecewise functions, you could have a function defined to be for instance x^2 for values of x < 0, and then 2x for values x >= 0
you have to pay attention to the inequalities used and whether or not they are strict or not to tell which dots should be closed/open
so in this example it should look like this:
actually this wasnt really a good example since they happen to be the same value at x=0 anyways lol
but you get the idea
yea im kind of confused too since the question doesnt seem to actually give you a piecewise function to match
it only shows graphs
graph B right?
i think graph A is tryna show discontinuity
with a green dot in the middle
but i could be wrong
lol sorry i shouldn't pitch in
is there a hole in graph B at x=0?
then the answer is A then
the question is sort of weirdly worded then, they are more of asking which one is a valid piecewise
precisely
okay, so it's not a valid function if a dot lies in x=0?
yep
well because theres two dots at x=0
one from the green dot and one from the red line
oohhh
last question bro
I'm really confused in piecewise function
how do you solve this
ok, so you can think of f(x) as being broken up into 3 functions
and it uses the different functions based on what values of x you are putting in
the first line says that for all inputs less than 2, its using the function x^2
so for f(-2), this would be using x^2, and it would become (-2)^2 = 4
np, glad it was helpful
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How do I check if this series converges or diverges
I think I need to use a comparison test but I can’t figure out the bounds
I tried using a divergence test but got a 0 so that doesn’t work
@chilly valve how do i calculate standard deviation
??
standard deviation non calc
theres a formula. please use a different channel
ok im new which one?
the ones that are free
you can choose a b sufficiently large enough s.t. bn>2n+log(19n)
note that log(19n)=log(19)+log(n)
i think i can put down 3n
good choice :3
actually make that 10n
now note in the denominator the largest power
mhm
(you can also remember that you have log(x) < x always
)
thats true
so if you have purely sum n/n^1.5 what series does this simplify to
1/sqrt(n)
yes
okay, so this is sort of what we want to compare it to.
so we actually want to find a series we can compare it to with a smaller value
yep
0 <an<bn
the one we got is bn?
and trying to get a good an that we can evaluate?
ignore my reasoning from before. We want to find bn<2n+log(19n)
this bn is clear
you can just keep it as 2n :3
or n
don't matter
our goal is to find a sequence b_n s.t. b_n < a_n for all n
So far like this?
All good
yes
I think we need to get rid of the 4n and 15cos
So that we get either a geometric or harmonic p series
Once things cancel
now, for the denominator, we want something larger in it.
it does, but there's a nicer sort of way to do it
we want 2n/() to be less than our original fraction, yes?, so we want the denominator to have a power atleast equal to or GREATER than nsqrt(n)
whats a nice power that's greater than nsqrt(n)?
2
ah I see
Wouldn’t we have to be careful though
If we chose 3, that’ll give 2n/n^3 so p=2
And that converges
well its obvious that a divergent series will eventually take a value greater than a convergent series
That’s true
we want to find a divergent series that's sequence we are summing over always less than the original sequence, because this allows us to say, 'hey, since this sequence that's always smaller we're summing over goes to infinity, that MUST mean the bigger one does too!'
does that make sense?
I should say that the +4x and such makes it a bit more complicated
Evaluate 2n/n^2 and say that it diverges since p=1. After that I’ll say that since this diverges and it’s smaller, then my original one has to also diverge
Yep
so you may need to add a shift. or simply shift the sum over
It’s a very ugly series
Everything else in the lectures was very simple
I might use a graph online to help out with that
what is the maximum value 15cos^2(x) will take?
15
Yep
5x
8x would be better, then could have (x+4)^2=x^2+8x+16
Result:
2.9444389791664
in all honesty, you simply need to show there's a cutoff point somewhere where your smaller series is always in lower value than your original series
I see
in other words, there's only a finite number of values where original series < new series
Yep
Also one more question
I can use a divergence test for this one right
I take the limit of cos(…) and move the limit inside
Lim(fraction)=0 since that’s a standard limit and cos(0)=1=/=0
yes
oh if you can use limit comparison test rather than purely comparison it would also help tremendously
for the one we were doing
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Am I correct?
@woven axle looks right
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how did we figure out that its divergent out of whats in the red box?
If the limit of an doesent go to 0 the serie diverges
That what is saying in the red box
I don't know if understood your question
@pine wren Has your question been resolved?
but cant a serie be convergent towards a number lets say 2, so it can converge where its not = 0
also sorry for the late reply
also, how did we figure out only from that that it is not = 0?
But the limit of the an is different then the result of the serie
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because 1^n = infinity?
They use a famous limit result
how is it different if it goes towards a number? I know its not exactly the number te limit goes towards but we simplify it so that it is, no?
Limit (1 +1/n) ^ n = e
If a serie goes towards a number , its necessary that the limit of the general term goes to 0
But that Alone doesent garantee that the serie converges
Cause i will give you an example
whats a general term? like f(x)?
ok
For example
If you have 2 + 1/n
General term an = 2 + 1/n
Do you think the series of this converges or diverges?
When "n" gets very very large
2 + 1/n goes to 2 right ?
diverges because 1/n is divergent
but without knowing that 1/n diverges I would guess that lim n->inf 1/n = 0 so the lim of 2 + 1/n would be = 2 and there for it would be convergent
Its 2
You are right
So when gets very large
Like n = 10000000 and above that
Its like you are summing 2
Forever
So it diverges
wait so serie 1/n isnt divergent? because our teacher wrote dow that its a harmonical serie and that it diverges
1/n is
Cause
An goes to 0 its not the only condition
But if it doesent go
You know it diverges
oh sorry tought you ment that its convergent
ok
The limit as you said goes to 2
So when n is bigger
Its like summing infinite times 2
So you will get infinity
but still im confused since wouldnt 1/10000 and going towards infnity be = 0?
You are confused about the limit of 1/n ?
i know its divergent because our teacher wrote it down but I dont get the logic because this is my current logic in my head, or is this for limit of 1/n and not for the serie?
am I confusing the limit of 1/n for the serie of 1/n?
or are they the same?
Now i am a little bit confused i am sorry i am not that good at English
But from my understanding
You are asking
If there is any difference
Between the limit of the general term an ( in this case 1/n ) and the number that the serie with an converges too
wait I also have a language barrier since im from slovenia, is a serie this?
With a general term it is yes
In front of that symbol put a general term like 1/n , n+4/n and you have a serie
oh because n can be something else thats why you say with a general term?
or do you mean an when you say general term?
oh ok
I understand, ok
Let me go to my computer wait a sec
then yes this is what bothers me, since in my mind they are the same thing
thank you for trying to help me so far I appreciate it
Ok first of all do you understand what that symbol means ?
yes, for an = 1/n it would be 1/1 + 1/2 + 1/3 ... + 1/n
not exactly the definition but simplified, yes
1/100 = 0.01
yes
Its not a big number
thats why I am confused since doesnt the limit go towards a 0
oh sorry I meant n is a big number
To 0
or goes towards one
but an goes to 0
yes
n goes towards infinity and an goes towards 0
Yes
ok
As you see from the first
so whats the difference then?
Terms of the serie
1/1
- 1/2 + 1/3
Already that is different then 0
One thing is the limit of general expression
ok fair but doesnt the symbol for the serie say it goes towards infinity?
this one
One thing is what the general term aproaches other is what the sum of that general term aproachesr
n goes towards Infinity
1/n the general term no
That only means you are summing infinite terms
You are using the general term infinite times
1/1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 ... + 1/Infinity
but doesnt this symbol of an mean that its = 1/1 + 1/2 + ... + 1/n, emphasis on + ... + 1/n
so we are summing it an infinite number of times
OHHHHHH
ok
I get it
Yessss
Exacly
ok I understand the difference now
but I still dont understand this
how we directly knew that its not = 0
but thats for an not an^-1
since for b) we want to know if the serie an^(-1) is konvergent
Goes to e
Ok
No
or e^infinity, since -n^2-1 goes towards infinity
oh god Im confused again
wouldnt that mean that this is = 0?
how though, what I sent last is from b) from my original question
But they got a different thing
for a) you mean?
yes
You should get e
I will try to do it
Did you found the mistake?
the under part of the division
I can try to do it
I cant take it into 2 parts, thats the problem
only the upper part of the division
An^-1 its just e
yea true
But you can do it for training
ok I understand now, thank you very much for the help, do you have a paypal?
come on for a coffee
Np you can add me if you want
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Through which concrete, easy as he says, division process does he derive the infinite series from the first expression?
infinite geometric series i assume
he, in fact, specifies that in the paragraph below
so heisst diese Reihe eine geometrische Reihe
I know. But how do I divide and what to reach the series? Not with mere knowledge, but real calculation.
$\frac{a}{\alpha + \beta z} = \frac{a/\alpha}{1 + \frac{\beta z}{\alpha}} = \frac{a/\alpha}{1 - \left( - \frac{\beta z}{\alpha} \right)} = \ \frac{a}{\alpha} \cdot \left( 1 + \left(\frac{- \beta z}{\alpha}\right)^1 + \left(\frac{- \beta z}{\alpha}\right)^2 + \left(\frac{- \beta z}{\alpha}\right)^3 + \cdots \right)$
artemetra
Oh
woah thank you: so he divides by alpha?
then you do a trick with the minus, but how does 1/-(-1beta*z/alpha) get me (1+….) meaning: how do you get it on top?
Why am I allowed to devide by alpha, am I not changing the whole equation therewith? So you just divide by alpha to get 1/1-q and then use your knowledge that this structure resembles a geometric series? But that is not what Euler does, because he says through iterative division he derives at the series.
pretty much
i don't know how Euler derives the geometric series
Thank you anyways. He says it is apparent how through iterative division you derive from the first expression at the second..xD I do not see it either.

