#help-23
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Sin could be 1/6 in Q1 and Q2 right?
So I should be looking for 4 solutions
I tried doing pi - arcsin(1/6) to get the other angle that sin could be 1/6 in Q2
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can you help me to understand how can i apply chain rule here
$(x-2)^2$
odokawa
xd
Do u still need help
i dont know man
people here are too verbose
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How do you achieve the odd permutations for the symmetry group of a tetrahedron? I have the 6 transpositions as single reflections through planes, but how do you achieve the remaining 6 that are the 4-cycles?
@trim jackal Has your question been resolved?
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I don't even know where to start
i made 4a into 2a and then used double angle + compound angle but im left with something really ugly 💀
$\frac{1+\cos\left(4a\right)}{\sin\left(4a\right)}\to\frac{2\cos^{2}\left(2a\right)}{2\sin\left(2a\right)\cos\left(2a\right)}$
Combustion
keep using double angle identities until you get to "a"
also cancel the 2cos(2a)
also if you're wondering how i got it to a single fraction
it's just $\frac{1}{\sin\left(4a\right)}+\frac{\cos\left(4a\right)}{\sin\left(4a\right)}$
Combustion
howd u get the next part?
is that just an identity or smth??
cos(2x) = 2cos^2(x)-1
yeah
add 1 to both sides
bro i cannt see it
cos(2x)+1 =2cos^2(x)
💀 im special
i mean like you can just sub in cos(4x)=2cos^2(2x)-1 and the ones will cancel
wait dont u also ahve to mulyiplt the 1 by
2
❓
oh wait mb its just multiplying the angle by 2
@forest gust do i just use double angle from now?
yeah
yeah and cos(2x)
so im left with cos (2x) / sin (2x)
yep
bro again how'd u see that lmao
i fully expanded it 💀
🤷♂️
you're smart too
also
a good thing to do when there's sec/csc/tan/cot is turning everything into cos/sin, it works a good amount of time
sometimes it doesn't work sometimes it does
you'll probably know when it will and when it won't
bro not as cracked as u
u just saw it like that
even with the perfect squares thing
you'll be even better lol
no lmao
don't know i'm not american
don't know what that is
oh alright well the highest maths u can take for ur yr 12 ig
@forest gust idk how to approach this
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hi, why is this not correct
$\int \frac {\cos\frac{\pi}{x}}{x^2} dx$
dx
Ye

That's the q?
yes ig
take u = pi/x
Lorentz
yeah i get du = pi * -1/x^2 dx right
then i just substitute inside the current equation
where did -1/pi come from
Why the -pi within the integral
my du is - pi * 1/x^2
right
Bettim
Yeah
now it makes sense ig
so my current equation is cos u dx right i havent subbed du in
There's dx/x^2
ohh i got it confused
before subbing it you wouldhave /x^2 in denom
That becomes -du/pi
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I don't get the solution for part a? I know wronkskian is just a 3x3 matrix here since it's 3rd order DE, so W = det(insert 3x3 matrix), but i'm confused with how part a equation was derived for each of these two cases
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chain rule
that's not e^x^2 that's e^(2x)
first try to differentiate e^(2x)
it's just off by a constant so you just need to divide
since d/dx e^(2x) = 2e^(2x), integral of e^(2x)= e^(2x)/2
$e^{2x}$
WhereWolf(ping if needed)
e^x times e^x is e^(2x)
no
say we have 2^3 times 2^3
do you get 2^6 or 2^9
you add the exponents
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Hello
if you have your model parameters from part a, just extrapolate and find where it predicts the area is zero
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So I have the double integral: $\int^{2}{0} \int^{\sqrt{16-x^2}}{x*\sqrt{3}} e^{x^2 + y^2} dy dx$
how do I rewrite this integral using polar coordinates?
alani
I got $\int^{\pi/2}_{\pi/3} \int^4_0 e^{r^2} * r dr d\theta$ and solved it to get $\pi/6 ({(e^{16} - 1)}/{2})$ though this is my first time doing polar coordinates on my own, so I'm not sure of the answer. Can someone check?
alani
Did you draw a picture of the domain being integrated over
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hello
@signal cove Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
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(1, 0, 0, 1) dot (1, 0, 0, 1) is 2
similarly (2, 1, 0, 0) dot (0, 1, 0, 0) = 1
and (2, 1, 0, 0) dot (1, 0, 0, 1) = 2
i mean why are they dividing it by 2
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yo
a straight line intersects the x-axis at the point (2,0). The graduation on the x- and y-axis is equal and the angle between the x-axis and the line is 45 degrees. Determine the equation of another line, which passes through the point (4,0) and is parallel to the first line.
from this info, what's the slope of the line?
which line
the line through (2, 0)
The graduation on the x- and y-axis is equal
The angle between the x-axis and the line is 45 degrees.
like from this, if x changes by 1 unit, y changes by 1 unit
if x changes by 2 units, y changes by 2 units
and so on
yes
so what must be the slope of the line?
1
but we don’t know this
we do
cause it's 45 degrees
45 degrees is a right-angled isoceles triangle
it's like this
but flip it so it goes diagonally up
45 is half of 90
so it's half of a square
wait let me send a pic
okok
if there was a 90 degree distance between the x axis and rhe line
i have to take half of that?
who’s to say that 45 degrees means a slope of 1
you can draw it out
with a compass and ruler you can bisect the right angle
into 2 equal parts
yes
alrighty
that's easier actually
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general term of associated sequence is 1/3n
and it's limit is 0
so the series might be convergent
Is there anyone here thats good with SPSS in quantitative math ? 🙂
aha because we will have inside brakets harmonic series ?
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help?
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Regarding Koch's curve
@lone arch Has your question been resolved?
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Koch_snowflake
did you follow their proof
The Koch snowflake (also known as the Koch curve, Koch star, or Koch island) is a fractal curve and one of the earliest fractals to have been described. It is based on the Koch curve, which appeared in a 1904 paper titled "On a Continuous Curve Without Tangents, Constructible from Elementary Geometry" by the Swedish mathematician Helge von Koch....
No, I made my own, as above
But it seems it doesn't agree with wikipedia
where does wikipedia say it's sqrt(3)/20
also which koch curve? the triangle?
German Wikipedia has that
With a = 1, we have sqrt(3)/20
Yes, the triangle
read the paragraphs after that
2 sqrt(3) / 5 agrees with the english for a=1=s
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I'm familiar with being able to split up the summations, however how do i get from that step to the next
the only thing thats coming to mind is the n(n+1)/2
wait i brain farted, theres a different for ^2 and ^3
my bad
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given these 2 integrals
how do i find the distance from 2 to 5
like i know what i need i just dont know how to do it
you mean integral from 2 to 5?
well, use fundamental theorem, rewrite integral in terms of antiderivative, that may help
i.e. F(2)-F(-1)=9
@turbid path a visual approach is pretty good
so if we only want that region from 2 to 5, what operation can we do with the areas
i thought it was something like that so you just area of the lower integral from the area of the larger one
i mean that makes sense now that i think abt it
yes exactly
its just the smaller area subtracted from the total area
that what the picture was hinting at
yup
np
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ok for this one
when applying linearity to b
you get integral from -1 to 5 (2x)dx and the same but (2)dx now i dont have anything that helps me solve for those values
so im not sure what to do here..
@turbid path Has your question been resolved?
Why should the 2x + 2 matter in this case?
Can't you just solve the integral as normal?
Utilising this fact
@turbid path
hey
yeah thats what i did
im just not sure how do i get a value from integral -1 to 5 of lets say bx dx
where bx is 2x
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I'm curious if anyone has any thoughts for how to approach $$\text{Re} \qty( \frac{1}{i\pi} \int _0 ^\infty e^{i x \cosh (i+s)} \dd s ) = 0$$
jan Niku
this is from an asymptotics book, so I think techniques like that are on the table, but I'm not really certain what to apply here
it does seem like the integral should become really oscillatory for big s, but is that enough to provide that we could just use a small neighborhood right of i
@rough storm its not super clean, i was trying that
$\cosh (i+s) = \cosh i \cosh s + \sinh i \sinh s$
jan Niku
ye
its not super clear
or is it
wait
yea im not sure here since now we have this product
its less clear what to do with the integrand
It doesn't look like the phase is ever stationary
and laplace is obviously out
does this mean you need steepest descent?
or is there some nicer way of finding the real/imag parts of an integral like this
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Uh x = 0 or is that cheating?
I just turned it into a regular integral by using Eulers formula and looking only at the real part
(Imaginary part blows up tho)
But holy moly this integral is probably not possible to solve
Guess you're supposed to turn it into a residue integral somehow
This shid can not be turned into a residue integral cuz it got no poles
Man its been a while since I've dealt with complex integrals
Wait..
Nope sorry no clue
yea thats kind of my issue
i have no idea what other path youd want to use
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i understood everything but where did the -1/9 go and how did it become -1
-1/9 is from completing the square
9 * (-1/9)
Then it is multiplied by 9
only 1/9 got multiplied by 9
and not the (x-1/3)^2
why?
It has been multiplied though.
ohhhhh
There's a 9 in front of it
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Let ABC be a triangle, M N and P distinct points of the vertices of the triangle, belonging respectively to (BC), (CA), (AB)
We assume in this question that the lines (AM) and (BN) and (CP) are parallel
show that: MB/MC × NC/NA × PA/PB = 1
i need urgent help with this problem pls :<
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@bleak harbor Has your question been resolved?
Do you have a sketch of this? Difficult to picture.
Also I understand "distinct from" but not "distinct of".
Is that my problem?
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this is what my math final exam will cover
Partial fractions
Spring problems
Binomial Series
Find foci and vertices of ellipse hyperbola or parabola
Arc length for rectangle, polar, parametric equations
Integration by parts
Series tests, limit test, p series
Find first and second derivatives for parametric equations and polar, or slope and line at a point
Find area between two curves, area with polar, and area with parametric
Integration by triangle and trig identities.
Volume with shells and washers.
Integrals with infinity as upper bound or an asymptote
Limit that uses power series
my teacher is letting us make a formula / notes sheet to bring to the exam, and my weak point is integrals
anyone know which formulas or integrals i should have written down
i am sure i need to memorize trig integrals
for
Integration by triangle and trig identities.

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I need help w math
There’s no problem shown
You don’t see the pic?
I do, but what do u wanna do with those numbers and shapes
Solve what is what I’m asking
oh idk
Just cuz there’s numbers and letters doesn’t mean there’s anything to solve
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Question: How many ways can I select 3 pencils from 6 different pencils?
if we choose the 1st pencil, then 2nd, then 3rd, that would be the same as choosing the 2nd, 3rd, then 1st
i choose pencils 1, 2, and 3 in order
i choose pencils 3, 1, 2 in order
they’re the same 3 pencils and so you’re overcounting
this is the main distinction between permutations and combinations
yeah i understand the difference now
this doesnt matter the order and permutations does
but i dont understand how they solved it too
for each possibility you are overcounting by a factor of 6; for example, if I want to choose pencils 1,2,3 I can choose it in 6 ways:
1,2,3
1,3,2
2,1,3
2,3,1
3,1,2
3,2,1
each possibility is counted 6 times, so we must divide by 6
how do you know its a factor of 6
huh
is it always factor of 6
because when we choose 3, there are 3! ways to arrange it
oh
yeah
should i just memorise this formula n!/k!(n-k)!
it works for all the combination problems of this type right
you should 100% memorize that, it is super important
but make sure that you know why it works as well
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sorry to ping you my last thing timed out. I need to figure out the matrix which implements these but it seems impossible due to the fact there are contradictions
<@&286206848099549185>
@plain hedge Has your question been resolved?
it too late for the mods
guess I will have to just accept that this will get a 50 or below
should have prepared better
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how do i tell if i should use 1 sample z test or 2 sample z test
(pls help i have exam tmrw)
iirc it really just depends on how you are considering your samples/populations
like in a 2 sample z test scenario youre going to be comparing 2 populations that are both real i guess
and in a 1 sample one of the will be hypothetical
thats not exactly how the test is structured
but its one way to think of it
so 1 sample is checking if it is true
the hypothesiszed value
well one sample would be like
"do cats that live around my house weigh less than 5kg"
and in two sample is like
"Do cats that live around my house weigh more than cats that live around my cousins house?"
here you have a hypothetical, perfect second sample, do you see what i mean?
here both populations have uncertainty
good luck
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ty
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i got the system of equations
a+8b−3c=21
−8a−c+by=−23+5y
−3a+6b−6c=−18
but i dont know what to do from there
i used a matrix a;b;c and multiplied that by A
you could try moving the variables based terms on one side and leaving the constants on the otherside
then sovle using guassian elimination
but I would try to check that cuz I could be wrong
oh nvm
I didnt see that by
yeah i feel like the method im doing so far is working but im not sure where to go from here
actually it might be possible it you treat the y like an ordinary number
when ever you end up with a variable in the coefficients in a augment matrix you will at some point have to choose an arbitary variable and see if it works
okay thanks
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I'm trying to solve this simple limit but I don't know where to go from here
I know the answer is 1/2, but I don't know how you would get there from this
try multiplying the numerator and denominator by 1/x
or simply dividing num and denom by x
le'hospital
or use l'hop if you're allowed to
though i'd assume otherwise since it's a very simple problem if you use it
oh yeah, l'hopital's rule works very well
forgot about that
but im a bit confused on why you would multiply the numerator and denominator by 1/x
i've never heard of that strategy
when the limit goes to infinity doing that
then terms become constant/infinity
which is 0
except for x/x and 2x/x
which become 1 and 2 respectively
giving lim (1+1/x)/2 as x->inf
and 1/inf=0
so answer is 1/2
the strategy can work for certain problems where l'hop can't solve it (cases where the derivatives start looping)
divide numerator and denominator by the highest degree in the denominator (if the highest degree of the fraction is in the numerator then limit is infinity)
lhopital kinda overkill for this 1 
online im seeing that 1 + (1/x) is the "highest denominator power" or "biggest power common" but i dont know what that means
ive never heard of such a concept
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how to solve using product rule? i am completely lost
either use implicit differentiation or apply chain rule to e^ln(f(x))
what would t hat look like
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|x-4|<1
$\implies -1<x-4<1 \to 3<x<5$
Joshii
Still technically true since -3<3, but perhaps it was a typo. Hard to know with certainty without seeing whole problem
is there a reason why that could be useful?
Hard to say without seeing the whole problem
just proving the limit
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Hey guys, need someone's help completing this please.
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i first used sin opp/hyp to get angle CDB
and this chapter is all about radians
so 90 degrees is pi/2 radians
i got angle z 0.92
and since 180 radian = pi
0.92-pi=2.214
so angle W=2.214
and by using the equation for arc length=angle times radius
i multiplied 2.214 by 5
and got 11.071
am i correct?
but is the way i calculated the arc length correct?
and then i calculate length AC by using pythagoras theorm
and add arc lenth with AC
180⁰ is pi radians you mean?
yes
The steps are right yeah
ok thanks
i have exam tmrw and i lost the answer sheet for this worksheet 😭
thanks alot for the help
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thxx
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im supposed to calculate this. brought it down to 48cos20/sqrt(3)+1 but idk what to do next
is it impossible to simplify after that?
Could you show your solution once?
sin55*sin35 = 1/2(cos20 - cos90) = 1/2cos20 on top it beomes 48cos20. below sin50+sin110 = 2sin80cos30. the sin80s cancel out
maybe theres some other way of doing it im missing
Right, so it's
$\frac{48\cos{20}}{1+2\cos{30}}$
2cos30
Mb
Lorentz
Hmm
maybe its impossible to go forward from there but the question is to "calculate" it
Ig you could substitute the values now
Coz it would be (48cos20)/ (1+sqrt3), like you said
If you want the exact value then I don't see a way apart from finding the values of cos 20 and sqrt 3
makes sense, maybe the question was meant to be to just simplify
Or that yeah
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Exercice 2: Question 9.ii)
Prove (Un) is increasing and (Vn) is decreasing
@dry sierra
Do you have the table of variations of f ready?
(I don't know what the function is, but my guess is: f changes sign on both [0,1] and [1,+oo])
It does hold on
E.g. if it has a min at x=1 and has f(x)->+oo
We have f' and it's related to g(x)
Like: $$f(0)>0, f(1)<1,f(x)\tendsto{x\to+\oo}\ell>0$$
Matplotlib
what the heck is this
And f is strictly decreasing on [0,1] and strictly increasing on [1,+oo[
Is that the case?
Then it's just a case of "use the intermediate value theorem" twice
Une sur ]0;1] et une sur [1;+oo[
Why?
TVI ne marche que pour les intervalles fermés
Wait, it's f(x)=n you're trying to solve, not f(x)=0. But that should work the same. What is the table of variations of f?
Or ici on a ]0;1] et [1;+oo[
It's what you said
I just proved it using bijections
Si $$f(x)\tendsto{x\to0^+}-\oo\text{ et }f(x)\tendsto{x\to1^-}+\oo,$$
alors tu peux aussi utiliser le TVI pour dire qu'il existe $x\in]0,1[$ tel que $f(x)=\text{[ce que tu veux]}$
2 restrictions and proved that they're bijective
Matplotlib
Il faut avoir f(0) et f(1)
Non ; regarde les limites que j'ai imposé à f
Tu peux essayer de démontrer ce fait en utilisant le TVI
On utilise pas de limites pour le T.V.I
Je ne comprends pas cette notation
Matplotlib
Montre-moi le tableau de variations de f que tu as obtenu
J'ai déjà montré ces deux solutions grâce à la bijection
Ok att
@dry sierra
Donc c'est exactement ce que je te disais
J'ai déjà montré l'existence des deux suites
Mec le problème c'est la monotonie
DES SUITES
La question d'après
"Mec", sois plus clair la prochaine fois, et montre un peu plus d'efforts
I was clear
???
La monotonie de u_n et de v_n vient de la monotonie de f
On me dit de monter que Un est croissante mais je trouve qu'elle est décroissante
Mais je pense que l'énoncé est faux, je crois que u_n est __dé__croissante et v_n est décroissante
Exactement
Ou bien ton tableau de variations est faux et f(x)->-oo et pas +oo quand x->0 ?
Donc l'énoncé est faux 😭
C'est pas logique
,w plot f(x)=log(x)/(x-1)+log(x)/2
Non, c'est bien l'énoncé qui est faux
c'est pas log c'est ln
Log c'est Ln pour un anglophone (mais comme tu es francophone tu ne le sais pas !)
Pourquoi est-ce comme ça
et puis bon même si c'était un log avec une base différente ça changerait rien au résultat
J'ai toujours pas fait le cours de log_a
Ok c'est bon, je termine la série mtn
@dry sierra je te montre ma méthode d'abord
En fait, si tu avais réfléchi un peu plus et regardé la question iv), tu aurais vu que v_n ne peut pas être décroissante
De même pour Vn
Bah pourquoi? La suite Vn peut décroître vers e^n
Aaaaah, des belles feuilles Seyes comme on ne trouve qu'en France ! (bref, pardon)
Si v_n>e^n, alors la limite de v_n ne peut être que +oo, et il n'y a pas de suite décroissante de limite +oo
C'est correct sinon
CHUI PAS FRANÇAIS
Vrai
Ok c'est bon merci. La série était facile!!
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How can the uniqueness of the solution f(x) = 1 - x be proven? I observed that f(x) = f(x + 1) + 1 numerically during my experimentation, but I couldn’t prove it using the conditions in the question. I’m guessing that if I could prove this, that would in turn prove that f(x) = 1 - x is the only solution, but I’m not sure. I saw induction being suggested online for such a problem, but I can’t really understand how that would prove uniqueness. Thanks in advance! :)
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@unreal jewel Has your question been resolved?
i think induction is the way to go
but we do induction on |n| instead of n
let me type out what i think should lead to the solution and you'll know what i mean
put x=0 in the second equation to get f(0)=1
apply f on both sides to get f(f(0))=f(1)
but f(f(0))=0
so, f(1)=0
this also gives f(-1)=-2
now, f(0)=1=1-0, f(1)=0=1-1, f(-1)=-2=-1-1
so the base case of |n|=1 and |n|=0 is done
assume that f(k)=1-k for all integer k satisfying 1<|k|<=n
we want to show that if |k|=n+1, then also, we have f(k)=1-k
let f(n+1)=y
then, f(y)=n+1 and f(-y)=1-n
apply f to get -y=f(1-n)
hence y=-f(1-n)
but, |1-n|<n and hence f(1-n)=n
so, we get y=-n
hence, f(n+1)=-n
from the second equation we get f(-n-1)=2+n, as expected
this kills it
the key idea is to use induction on the modulus of the input instead of the input itself
but that is not a bad thing to try given that integers are involved and not just natural numbers
what i have proven is that if such a function were to exist it must be f(n)=1-n
you still have to show that f(n)=1-n works
this is easy to do
@unreal jewel
yeah i managed to show that f(n) = 1 - n works
the trouble i was having was proving that that was the ONLY possiblility
i'll read through this now wait
yes
maybe it's just because i'm tired but i don't understand why you brought the absolute value into this
becauuse induction is exclusive to N
a well ordered set
we cant directly use induction on integers
but the absolute value of an integer is always a natural number (with the exception of 0)
my idea was to do induction on the positive integers and then do induction on the negative ones (by doing stuff with -n and -n -1. would that work too?
i am not sure because in my solution i needed the negative and positive vallues between -n and n to be true at the same time
that's also another reason i brought the modulus in
i needed the statement to be true for 1-n as well for induction to work
this is not a natural number if n is a natural number
thats why i brought in the modulus
the modulus is just a fancy way to say "let the statement be true for all integers between -n and n, where n is a natural number"
this is now in the domain of induction, because it is a statement concerned with natural numbers (not integers)
that's not to say your approach of doing positive and negative wont work tho
this approach is likely not to work because the second equation in the question deals with both positive and negative values at the same time
and we need the second equation because f(x)=1-x is not the only involution (function whose inverse is itself) on Z
but how does this prove that such a function MUST be f(n) = 1 - n
this is just showing that f(n) = 1 - n satisfies the conditions, no?
nope; i have shown that f(n) must be 1-n for all n
so no other function can exist
forget about integers for a sec
i have basically shown that f(n) is something
then f(n+1) must also be that something but with n+1 subbed in
but if a function is defined as f(n) = n - 1, then obviously when you plug in n + 1 it's gonna be the same thing
i'm sorry that i'm completely missing this lol
no it's alright; it's a subtle thing
im thinking about how best to convince you
you agree that f(1) and f(0) and f(-1) satisfy f(n)=1-n right
f(1) as defined by the conditions in the question?
yes
yes
now what i have shown is that if -1,0, and 1 satisfy f(n)=1-n then -2 and 2 must satisfy that as welll
then using -2,-1,0,1, and 2 i show that -3 and 3 satisfy that as well
and so on
so for every integer x, f(x)=1-x
in other words, the value of f(3) is uniquely determined by the values of f(2),f(1),f(0),f(-1), and f(-2)
and it is uniquely determined to be 1-3
if there were some other distinct function (say g) satisfying this condition then there must be some integer k such that g(k)=/=1-k
but i have shown that that cannot happen
what is the source of this question?
do you have access to the official solution
so you can get an idea for the kind of proof they are looking for
unfortunately not
it's a qualfiication test for the irish maths olympiad
ah i see
think about other functional equations you have solved using induction
ah okay, i think my soruce of confusion is that i wasn't sure when you were talking about f(x) = 1 - x and when you were talking about f(x) as defined in the question
none 🗿
i see
functional equations is my weakest "section"
the sketch of my solution is that i first showed -1,0, and 1 satisfy f(x)=1-x for f being the function as defined in the q
then i assumed the same happens for -n,-(n-1),...-1,0,1,...,n-1, and n
using this i showed the same happens for n+1 and -(n+1)
i concluded with f(x)=1-x for all integers x
how did you do q1?
my first instinct is to consider all the ways we can get x-y=4 with x and y being whole numbers less than or equal to 8
we can do 4-0, 5-1, etc
and then count the number of scoreboards for each
so you showed that f(x) = 1 - x satisfies these conditions
no?
no it is subtle but we showed that if such a function were to exist then it must ONLY be f(x)=1-x
think about it for a sec
see the statement "i concluded with f(x)=1-x for all integers"
there is ONLY ONE function f such that f(0)=1, f(1)=0, f(-1)=-2, f(2)=-1, f(-2)=3, ...
im sorry but i dont know how to explain it properly
but im confident that my approach proves uniqueness as well
nah it's okay
ive seen this exact approach used for many other functional equations
i'm probably just too tired to think aboutg it properly lol
yeah prolly
what are some of the resources?
AOPS is really the only one i've been recommended
im indian so ive got books written by indian authors
the chapter on functional equations in the book "challenge and thrill of pre college mathematics" is excellent
if you want a more comprehensive resource
is there an ebook version of that?
try "functional equations" by venkatachala
there should be
one of the earliest questions in that chapter uses induction in a very similar way to what i did and it proves uniqueness as well
one sec let me get that book out and find that exact question
@unreal jewel on page 638 of my edition of the book we are given this question:
Q. Find all functions f:N->N such that f(2)=2, f(mn)=f(m)f(n) for all m,n and f(m)<f(n) whenever m<n
they then find the value of f(1) to be 1 using f(mn)=f(m)f(n)
then they assume f(1)=1, f(2)=2, f(3)=3, ... , f(2k)=2k for some natural number k
they then show that f(2k+2)=f(2)f(k+1)=2k+2 (from induction hypothesis)
actually i had a question about this notation that might clear up my confusion
this forces f(2k+1) to be 2k+1 as the third condition gives 2k<f(2k+1)<2k+2
if you say f: N -> N, does that mean EVERY natural number must be some output of an input?
no no
i just mean that the function is defined for all natural numbers
and that the outpiut is always natural
it can be the case that some natural number is not an output at all
for example, f:N->N given by f(n)=n+1
that's why with my question i wasn't sure if there could be some other function that doesn't go through all the natural numbers as an output
1 is not an output
(im taking 0 to not be a natural number btw)
okay one more question that i think might help em to understand this better
yes
if the original question was from N to N, would the solution be the same just without the modulus?
because if i can understand that it'll be easier to understand the full soluition
oh yeah lol
but suppose there were some other question from N to N
then modulius would never come in
modulus*
yes i get that
i'll read over your soltuon tomorrow probably when my head is clear. thanks for your help and patience, i really appreciate it :)
and good luck with your essay
i never thought to use induction on the modulus of the input before
they're all very unique compared to other questions imo
it's a powerful idea tho
yes
i love functional equations
i have a relatively easy one that you may wanna try
you want it?
(hint: this one uses induction too)
yeah sure
can i add you and ask about it then after i give it a go?
(which probably won't be today lol)
epic
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how do i simplify square roots along with how do i do it with the numbers in the front aswell
example?
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
i dont have exacts but
Where do you see this then
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Not sure what im missing
@woeful kite Has your question been resolved?
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this is such a basic integral but i just get get a non zero answer
i understand the integration by parts set up
and i understand how the integral of cos(two pi x /a) ends up being zero in the bottom line
but i cant get the left part of the bottom line to not be zero
is that the a coefficient of the fourier series?
yeah sorry professors handwriting lol
no it's not. here specifically, it's the length dimension between two rigid walls containing a particle
this is literally just a freshman level calc II integration by parts
and i keep fucking it up
what's the point of calculating the integral?
do you want it to be equal to zero, or do you want to find a value for a, for example?
i do not want it to be equal to zero
and that's true for every a that's different than 0, then
the context behind this particular integral is im trying to find the x uncertainty for a particle between to walls
ok
first step
for cos argument
cos( two pi) = one
cos(0) =
one
one minus one is 0
thats the part im fucking up
OH
ahahaa
because there's a fucking zero in front of it
YEAH ahahah
np, you did all the work
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I would like help, I am not sure how to turn it into a power series
,calc 9*15
Result:
135
(9x+135-135)/(x+15)
Hm, how did you get that?
My idea was to try to turn it into a geometric serieis by mutiplying both sides by 1/x
do you see how writing it like this helps though?
Let me try iit out rq
$\frac{9(x+15)-135}{x+15}$
Moosey
$\frac{9(x+15)}{x+15}-\frac{135}{x+15}$
Moosey
no the (x+15) cancels on the 9
Now it's in the form ohh
so its just 9- (135/x+15)
i do not want to disturb but maybe this way:
$\frac{9x}{x+15}=9x\cdot \frac{1}{15+x}=\frac{9x}{15}\cdot \frac{1}{1-\left( -\frac{x}{15} \right)}=\\\frac{9x}{15}\cdot \sum_{n=0}^{\infty }\left( -\frac{x}{15} \right)^{n}=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty }9\left( -1 \right)^{n}\frac{x^{n+1}}{15^{n+1}}\\\text{ }\text{ }\text{ for }\text{ }\left| \frac{x}{15}\right|<1\Leftrightarrow x\in \left( -15,15 \right)$
Joanna Angel
Hm, I never thought of that method
Question though, why wasn't the 1 in the numerator divided by 15
that is based
on what you wanted
geoemtric series
i hope oyu can see it at once
rememebr every such simpel rational function
we always
transform
to form to sue geoemtric series
that is knwon trick
and now, you only need to compare with the right side of yoru task from your test
Okay, I just want to know why the one in the numerator for the 3rd step wasn't also divided by 15
I thought what happened in the denominator had to happen in the numerator also
Did you move it so that it would be 9x times 1/15?
Oh yes I understand now
such simple calculations are never written
Okay that makes sense, thank you
yvw 🙂
So for the 1st 5 terms, I assume I would just start at 0 for the power series
yes but you also need to observe waht your instruvtor wrote in test
the form of the right side
he wrote this:
$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty }c_{n}x^{n}$
Joanna Angel
that would be a maclauren series right?
yes if center = 0, then itis Maclaurin
its ok
minus must be inside of parenthesis, you agree ?
Yes
(-1)^n
so not -1/15^n?
Okay