#help-23
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hmm
I also got same
my ans or book?
chalo koi na
btw kya tum ye kisi aur se puch k bta skte ho plz
Bro
tum to In ho tum smj hi sakoge ki yr real life tutions vale kitne bekar honge mere and scholl to rehne do
How you got cosinverse?
where?
pic bhejna
achaa
ty
1 thing more wont ake much time
bhai yr domain range k waqt aap kya approach rakhte ho
mujhe boht difficult lgta hai
any tips plz
question to ma particularly ni keh rha but mujhe overall sochne ma difficult lagte hai
ye mtlb hai mera
half cycle jise kehte hai?
ok
Half cycle waicle nhi pata bro
Kaha?
vaise yr aapko koi self study book ya online free course pta math ka
is serveer pe
Khan academy
Best
It's very basic
But you should have patience
.close
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hey, im really confused on this question:
Ive done this so far:
sin^-1(42/78)
then
90 - ANS but it seems to be wrong?
Can anyone help?
heres my work, sry if its messy, i was bored:
The smiley face is the owl, the sad face is the mouse
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Please help
I keep getting D as the answer
The way I solved it was picking numbers
Were you able to find combinations of numbers that disprove a, b and c?
So for the 5 numbers I picked
They gave 1 and 10
So I picked 2, 3, 4
So the mean would be 4
m=4
And then I just plugged in each x value
And every value when plugged into x was less than 5 except 10
10-4=6
Not sure if this is wrong
Well I'm not entirely sure what do they mean by range
So for your numbers the range would be 6-0= 6
As the greatest deviation is 6 and smallest 0
That doesn't disprove a)
As 1 is the smallest ans 10 the greatest value
1<m<10
Hmmm why are you subtracting by 0
The smallest deviation is 4-4=0
Confused
As 4 is the mean and 4 is one of the values
6 is the greatest deviation from the mean for given values
10-4
And 0 is the smallest deviation for given values 4-4
So the range is 6
Which is greater than 5
So it doesn't disprove a)
Lets take these numbers: 1 2 4 9 10
Ok
Now m=5.2
How about 1
5.2 - 1 = 4.2
Ok
So deviation for x = 10 is still greater
Got it
And the smallest deviation is for x=4
Yes
b) is disproven with your numbers where the range was 6 which is greater than 5
Both examples disprove c)
So d) is correct
Maybe by range they mean something else
Yeah maybe
For our interpretation of range we found an example where range can be less than 5
Can you help me with that second question
I'll figure out the first one and ask about what they mean about range
Have you tried to do this one?
I would do it by rewriting a50 in terms of a49, then a49 in terms of a48 and so on until you get to a representation of a50 in terms of a46
Then put those those values for quant. A and quant. B into an inequasion
Would A be: a49+49
Yes
Try to rewrite this a49 in terms of a48
You're going the wrong way
a50 = a49 + 49 =
a48 + 48 + 49 =
a47 + 47 + 48 + 49 =
a46 + 46 + 47 + 48 + 49
So finally a50 = a46 + 190
Which means the two quantities are equal
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The circle contains point M(2,1) and it touches both coordinate axis.
Find the equation of the circle.
I need help, starting point, ideas how to solve. A tip.
I have a point M, point A(0,y) and point B(x, 0)
distance MC = r
distance CA = r
distance CB = r
3 equations, but 5 unknowns
Think about the center of the circle
Finding the equation is knowing where the center is
Yeah, no problem, I need to find center and radius, putting equation is easy when I find these two
Let's call the points A(0, a) and B(b, 0) to avoid any possible confusion
Your equation of the circle is (x-u)²+(y-v)² = r²
It's true for A:
(-u)² + (a-v)² = r²
But also for B and M
Also, the radius becomes more obvious once you plot the circle in your head: the distance between M and y-axis is very limited
(Because you know it touches x-axis too, so it can't be too far up)
You're necessarily in a case of symmetry
radius is basically b
Yeah, and in fact, a too
then a and b are equal
yeah... visually some things do become more obvious, you are right
Do you see how C(1, 1) is the only point at distance 1 of A, B and M ?
If you try to change that, because A and B are on the axis, you don't touch M
When the circle has to touch the two axis it makes sense that A and M have same y coordinate
Because of how M is positionned
got it... but how do I tackle this problem algebraically?
I think I have 6 equations, and 5 unknowns now.. huh.. one more than enough 👀
You can also check the equation for M
(2-u)²+(1-v)² = r²
4-2u+u² + 1-2v+v² = r²
If you sub that for A and B you should get that a = 1
Another way to see it's obvious is geometrically, because it's really supposed to be obvious on a drawing than a = b
And it helps a lot
i am not sure what you mean? sub A and B where👀
Sorry, I mean since r² has then 3 expressions
You can equate them
But since a = b obviously, doesn't leave too much choice for r and a = b
You can also use equations of lines if you're willing to
C is on the perpendicular bisector of every pair of {A, B, M}
There really is a lot of ways to do it as the conditions are very restrictive
how do I equate 3 equations?
I know how to do that with 2.
Should I equate 1st and 2nd, and 2nd and 3rd?
(1st and 3rd would be another option), right..
(2-u)²+(1-v)² = r²
(b-u)²+(0-v)² = r²
(0-u)²+(a-v)² = r²
so (2-u)²+(1-v)² = (b-u)²+(0-v)² = (0-u)²+(a-v)²
I think that's what bothers me...
We wrote 3 equations, and we have 5 unknowns (a, b, u, v, r)
how is this solvable?
One of the reasons is geometric, a = b
hmm.. that leaves us with 4 unknowns, still unsolvable
so b² - 2bu + u² + v² = u² + a² - 2av + v²
so b² - 2bu = a² - 2av
but since a = b, u = v
and in fact, it was geometry again, we could deduce geometrically that since axis are orthogonal, C has necessarily the same x and y coordinates
the other keypoint is that a = b = u = v is very obvious too, u isn't equal to v for nothing
what if we have 3 points M(x1, x2), A(x3, a), B(b, x4), that belong to a circle and where a, b are unknowns.
A more general example
I assume we would start with these equations
yeah, and that would be a pain, a long system
in this case it doesn't necessarily touch the axis once and only once
so it's clearly not as restrictive and the equation will be x1, 2... dependant
would it be solvable? Since we have more unknowns than equations
3 non-aligned points are always concyclic
So there exists a circle that is a solution
And in such a case it's the only one because you can draw the perpendicular bisector of each segment
So yeah it would be solvable, there would be only one possibility for a and b
(it means you can always draw a circle going through 3 points that are not on a same straight line)
The problem is when you have a number of points different than 3
In case this number is 2, there isn't a unique solution
And in case this number is > 3, a solution doesn't always exist
(Still depends on x1, x2, x3, x4, note that if A, B, M are aligned, it's a problem)
I actually can imagine that visually, but putting it all together algebraically is a bit difficult
The easiest algebra for this is to be ok with the use of some analytical geometry.
You have 3 points A, B, M. If there are on a same straight line: no circle is going through all of them.
If they aren't, there is one (and only one):
Let's call the center C. Since C is at same distance of A, B, M, C belongs to the perpendicular bisectors of [AM] and [BM]. These perpendicular bisectors have equations you can write, so you can find the point where they cross which is necessarily C.
Once you know C, you know the equation of the circle.
Note that it doesn't determine the location of A and B, as they could be on either side of the circle and it wouldn't be relevant.
Your equation would in fact depends on a and b for obvious reasons.
(Since contrary to what happens in your exercise, they wouldn't necessarily be the same)
In your exercise, it's obvious C has positive and equal coordinates for "perpendicular reasons" since the circle touches each axis only once, axis are tangents
And now, the information about M fixes this unique coordinate to know
Which is obv the radius too bc same perpendicularity reason
@fair hound
Appreciate your help!
I guess I'll need more exercise for this topic.
Thanks again!
@lean otter Has your question been resolved?
@lean otter I'm sorry, after reading again, I think the exercise itself is wrong...
C(1, 1) works as I said, but C(5, 5) seems to work too
there are two solutions
yeah: here is why
Once you get that a = b, it follows that a = b = r
So C(r, r)
But then, r is not necessarily 1 as
(2-r)²+(1-r)² = r²
r²-4r+4 + r² -2r + 1 = r²
r² - 6r + 5 = 0
(r-5)(r-1) = 0
The trick is that as I said above, A and B are not fixed and the equation is a and b dependant
And in your exercice, this dependancy doesn't give a unique solution but two, as there is a symmetry about where M is on the circle
So even in the case of your exercise, we still doesn't have enough restrictions on a and b: the equation depends on if they are 1 or 5
could we say that the solution is both, two circles
they both satisfy given conditions
it gives two equations that work
(x-1)²+(y-1)² = 1
and (x-5)²+(y-5)² = 25 are both valid
Your exercise has two solutions
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Hello, how to show that $2^{n} - 1$ is a prime number only when n is prime
lilisworld
n>=2
What have you tried?
Try factoring it
reasoning by absurd suppose $2^{n} - 1$ is a prime number and n not prime will have easily a contradiction
it is not generally helpful to just tell people what to do in mathematics
Can be helpful sometimes
clint00
i would argue it is never helpful
But yeah, that is just the problem statement
easily?
a contradiction if u reasoning by absurd or if u have some arithmétic result
i tried by absurd but it just didnt lead me anywhere
because i think they're something missing in my reasoning
what was your reasoning?
the problem is that i don't know how to translate: "2^n - 1" is prime into arithmetics
if u suppose n not a prime number then u can write n=ab with pcgd(a,b) not 1
so you're asking me to use gcd properties?
pcgd?
GCD
definitely wrong
example?
xd sorry im french we write pcgd
you claim it's never helpful, so the onus is on you to prove so
if i assume 2^(ab) - 1 is prime
then where is the contraiction
is that that obvious?
y
In my experience, mathematics problems are usually designed to push people to understand material. The way that they achieve this is by discomfort, which forces one to put the pieces into place over time, from there they don't move too easily. Ideas have a tendency not to fix in the brain without this experience. I would be interested to hear in which scenario you think this isn't true.
enlighten me
Ah yes proof by anecdote. Very rigorous
If you have a better method of explaining, just do it rather than put kaynex down.
I wasnt even referring to kaynex in the first place. This is a subject of genuine debate, I'm not sure why you feel the need to respond like this. There is a reason that no textbooks, for example, provide solutions and authors explicitly request that such manuals not be produced.
where is the obvious?
And yet you claim it's never helpful. Direct contradiction
anyway it didnt work for me sooo
I said I would argue that it is never helpful. That is my opinion on it.
Your arguments are now opinions?
I don't think I want to keep up the childishness. If you disagree with me, thats fine.
Anyway, keep them to yourself unless you're actively helping the helpee. All you did was interrupt Kaynex unnecessarily and accomplished nothing
ok sometimes it work but here it doesnt work so i still need help
Sorry I overtook your channel for the discussion.
u have to proof "$2^{n} - 1$ prime then n prime" btw so let's put n=ab then $2^{n}-1$ divisible by $2^{b}-1$ and $2^{a}-1$ so u have 2 choices : $2^{a}-1=2^{n}-1$ and $2^{b}-1=1$ or $2^{b}-1=2^{n}-1$ and $2^{a}-1=1$ so what u can conclude ?
clint00
if n=ab, then 2^b - 1 and 2^a - 1 divide 2^n - 1?
yep u can proof it it's just a Euclidean division
a=n or n=b?
That's actually really cool, I didn't know this
another proof by contrapositive if you want I hope more clear ^^ : u can put n=ab and write $2^{ab} – 1 = (2^{a} – 1) (2^{a (b-1)} + … + 1)$.Thus, we expressed $2^{n} - 1$ as the product of two integers greater than 1, which means it is not prime
clint00
it means that 2^(ab) - 1 can't be prime because 2^a - 1 and the other one devide it anyway and a and b is supposed to be different from n
u have a=n and b=1 or b=n and a=1
yeah but how did you write this
$2^{ab}=2^{(a)b}$
clint00
yes but wasnt the fact that 2^a - 1 and b divide it enough?
yeah that's enough. but here's a question, why doesn't that argument work for prime n?
y and ?
ok so we proved that it doesnt work for n non prime
if $2^{n}-1$ divisible by $2^{b}-1$ and $2^{a}-1$ u don't have another choice $2^{a}-1=2^{n}-1$ and $2^{b}-1=1$ or $2^{b}-1=2^{n}-1$ and $2^{a}-1=1$
clint00
lol no it's not a contradiction a=n and b=1 or b=n and a=1 mean directly that n is prime ^^
ok now it's clearer
cool than
this proof is better honestly by contrapositive but if u don't have the factorisation the other works
but how do you even come up with that factorisation
$a^{n} - b^{n}$
clint00
bc u can write $1=1^{n}$
clint00
Xd
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$a^n - b^n = (a - b) \sum_{k=1}^{n} a^{n-k} b^{k-1}$
clint00
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Anyone knows how I could get rid of the -4/5 without a calculator?
So I could fuse the first fraction with the second
where did it come from
Invert the expression to cancel out the negative.
do what he siad
That will add more fractions, ill try though
honestly i think you just leave the fractional exponent
i dont think you can simplify that 5th root
I didnt do what he asked to do
(a/b)^-1 = b/a
u mean -6/5?
Wdym
there are 2 terms there
one with 4/5 exponent and one with 6/5 exponent
you can join those
then alright sure
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for part c I got the answer (7+√21)/2 which the mark scheme says is right but I rlly can't even understand the part d. which says a = (7+✓21)/2 is the answer. can someone explain a little pls
If $g(x) = x$, then $g^{-1}(g(x)) = g^{-1}(x)$, and therefore $x = g^{-1}(x)$, so you have $x = g(x) = g^{-1}(x)$
all matrices are invertible
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Really confused on this problem
Please don't occupy multiple help channels.
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I'm working with projections in a Hilbert space $\frak{H}$. We define $P_Mf$ to be the projection of $f \in \frak{H}$ onto the subspace $M \subset \frak{H}$. \
\
They say "$M$ must be closed because $M = {f \in \frak{H} \vert f = P_Mf}$."\
\
I understand this definition of $M$, but I don't get how that implies $M$ is closed. Is it because it's defined by an equality ?
burnpink
Intuitively strict inequalities define open sets, whereas equalities and nonstrict inequalities define closed sets. Can this be made more rigorous?
you can rewrite that as
[
M = \set {f \in \mathfrak H \where (1 - P_M) f = 0} = \ker (1 - P_M) = (1 - P_M)^{-1}(\set 0)
]
and then $P_M : \mathfrak H \to \mathfrak H$ is continuous so that $1 - P_M : \mathfrak H \to \mathfrak H$ is continuous
so the inverse image of 0 is closed
this assumes that you actually get a continuous projection ig
which might not be the case if you try to project onto a subspace that isnt closed
yeah in my notes they assumed P_M to be continuous

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you too 
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hey, can anyone help me understand how to find the first two x values that work for this equation?
i know i can get 74/-197 = cos(pix/15)
oops i inputted the first question wrong
and first 2 as in first two values that work greater than 0
<@&286206848099549185>
@pale hamlet Has your question been resolved?
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i have a problem... i don't think i know subtracting
3306
-1938
6 - 8, you need to borrow. you can't take from 0 so you take from 3 and 3 becomes 2. 0 - 3 you need to borrow again. where did i go wrong here
this is how i learnt it:
since i know even the first 3 isnt safe
cut it and put a 2 above it
yep i did that
then cut the next 3 and put 12 over it
now cut the 0 and put 9
and 16 instead of the 6
im skiiping a step everytime but i thinkk u understand where it comes from right?
ohhh i think i know what you're talking about
let me try it
okay nvm i don't lol. why does 0 become 9
and not 10
it becomes 10 first when you borrow from the 3
then it becomes 9 when you borrow from it
Oh
so what i did was i did 10 -> 0
that's where i messed up
and not 10 - 9
ty
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Hello!
I am trying to solve this system of linear congruences
I have done so via row reduction by turning it into the matrix
4 1 5
1 3 4 (mod 11)
But I end up with
1 3 4
0 0 0
I'm not sure what this means, y is then a free variable? Is this possible within systems of congruences?
Also, what does this mean for x?
I'd recommend doing it with the x and y symbols for this one to see what that means
I've done so like this, but then both variables are cancelled out, so I don't really have anything to work with
Though the equation is still valid
yep the equations are equivalent! so yeah it's underconstrained
Cool! So just to confirm, it's similar to having a free variable in linear algebra, so y can take on any value and the system will still hold? Regardless of it being modulo 11?
well... it's one dimension of freedom
x and y are still related
but there are 11 solutions
in linear there would be infinite but we only have 11 elements in our field
Oh I see, then I must plug values into x to solve for the 11 solutions, right?
Hayley
Got it!! Thank you so much 🙂
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Im not sure how to do this question
google maximum area of rectangle inscribed in a circle
okay thanks
no don't
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how do u find q16a the surface area bit? i somehow managed to do all of them besides getting that bit wrong
What did you get?
uhh sorry it looks rlly wrong but the closest i gotten was SA= 2h^2+ 2000h/root2 +2000h 😅
the front triangle with h, i got the diagonal side to equal h/root2, and the base length (is that what u call it im not too sure) as 2h
The diagonal side should be sqrt(2)*h, not h/sqrt(2)
oh-
hey
oh rlly?
can you help me
not the entire surface area of the triangle prism?
ok thanks
Exactly, not the entire surface, just the top
how do would yk that
Because the ''surface area'' of the water can be interpreted as the area for the top, but I get what you wanted to do
The question should have been more clear about it
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I just can't find a sequence for this
Nvm
1-(1/2+1/4+1/6+1/8...
the denominator is easy but I can't think of something that doesn't effect the numerator and effects the 2 to become a 3
Sorry forgot to add that it requested n=1 at the beginning
what is n
like this
i think it is asking for the value at infinity
I've got that the denominator is 2^n but didn't get what the numerator could be
do you know what the basel problem is?
its not a power of 2
no it's asking for the sequence term
as in what comes after this
sorry im not very good at english can you explain what its asking, also this sum is solved by the basel problem, do you know what that it?
my bad I read it wrong it's 2n
I've wrote the n weirdly in my notebook
(2n-1)/2n?
oh yeah that's right
(a_n)^pos infty_n=1, a_n=that
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\(\left(a_n\right)_{n\in\mathbb N_1},\quad a_n=\frac{2n-1}{2n}\)
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I didn't understand this question
p is a prime. Lets say p = a^2+b^2, what are the possible remainders when p is divided by 4?
@wraith prism Has your question been resolved?
you've either misunderstood what riptechno asked you or confused yourself.
@wraith prism forget about the "prime" thing for a moment.
what remainders can a square give when divided by 4?
@wraith prism Has your question been resolved?
Square of any number?
square of an integer.
2?
give me an integer n such that n^2 ≡ 2 (mod 4).
@wraith prism
please do not wait until the bot pings you again
it's a bit annoying to have to do that
Opps. I rechecked
Accidentally divided 4/2
So I found only 0,1 as remainder
@quasi bison
5 was extraneous
but yes, ok
so a square can only ever give 0 or 1 as remainder
what remainders are possible for the sum of two squares?
Let me check again
Can I add the remainder of it?
It gives only 1,2
As remainder
Ohh so option 4 correct
Thanks ann
0, 1 and 2.
but 0 is impossible for any prime to have, and 2 is only possible for the number 2 itself.
0 how?
0 + 0 = 0
I took 25+9 =34
Which gives 2 remainder
But 0 is not prime number
0 is impossible for any prime to have
let me repeat myself more explicitly
the possible remainders mod 4 of the sum of two squares (without regard to it being prime or not) are 0, 1 and 2.
when you also require said sum to be prime, 0 stops being an option,
and 2 is an option only as the number 2 itself.
What does it mean?
the only prime number that is congruent to 2 mod 4 is the number 2.
there are no others.
For prime yes
i think there is some miscommunication here
or you are reading things into my words that i am NOT saying
I didn't understand 4th option
you don't understand what option 4 says?
it says "p = 2, or p ≡ 1 (mod 4)"
i.e.
p is congruent to 1 mod 4, or p just is 2.
Sum of prime number squares/4 will gives 1 or 2 only
Right?
I understand now in terms of mod
incorrect.
the sum of two squares can give remainders 0, 1 or 2 mod 4.
the sum of two squares can give remainders 0, 1 or 2 mod 4.
if this sum is also prime, it can only give remainders 1 and 2.
Correct?
no
What is wrong with it😪?
If the sum is not prime which also gives remainder 2
25+9 =34÷4 =2
now your notation is bad too
you cannot use / to refer to the remainder of a division
it's a string of words with no coherence to it.
i cannot correct it except by offering my own wording
which i did twice
I don't know why my statement is wrong
It's okay we can move next question
I read the question again yes it says the sum of two squares and the sum is prime
X=3mod(9), x=7mod13 how to solve it?@quasi bison i have solved it but I would like to know once again from you sorry for tagging you
would have been much better if you closed this channel and opened a new one.
anyway, chinese remainder theorem
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Would like to ask if these are correct this is just free practice btw
Hello
Are these right
This was done yesterday
Just sent it in
Today
Anyone out there
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can you send the entire question
this is entire question
"from example above"
but example above is a video
i have taken the picture from the video
wait
based on what i have shown, am i wrong?
could you please check first 1-2 minutes if the picture i have sent is not clear
the product of the slopes should be -1
yes
slope is y/x, is it not?
so negative reciprocal would be -x/y
so 2* -x/y
yes, correct
here
its the same
$-\frac{x}{2y}=-\frac12\cdot\frac xy$
Toby
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Hi
I'm having a slight issue figuring out what should the variance and deviation be for this problem
`Simulate each game a million times and print out the wins and losses, assuming each bet was for $1.
- Simulate 1000000 plays of the first game: You win if you get one six in four rolls of one dice, and the round stops.
Given a payout of $1 when a win is hit calculate the:
● Mean
● Variance
● Standard deviation
For each game's payouts.`
I know mean would be the number of payouts (i.e. wins) divided by 1_000_000
But then I'm not too sure what the variance formula should look like.
From what I've googled, I need take a value, and subtract it from the mean.
But does this mean I need to record each number of the dice thrown in one round that's not a 6?
@proper maple Has your question been resolved?
you can also use the other formula for variance E[X^2] - E[X]^2
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kinglacto
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Hello again
I'm stuck on 'b'
So I basically have to prove this function is bijection
Well the first case is clearly bijective
In second case i proved that it is injective but not surjective...
It clearly means that second case is not bijective, doesn't that make the whole function non bijective....
Like
When I was proving cardinality of integers and natural numbers are equal... I proved for both case that the function are both surjective and injective ... that's how the whole function became bijective
Isn’t the codomain just naturals tho
Of the main question, yes
What was your approach to finding a q that works for 108
Maybe you could prove surjective by constructing values for a genetic x in naturals
For the second case??
For the whole thing?
Alr
If there exists a set q for all natural numbers x then the function is surjective, doesn’t matter where q lies in the cases tbh
And since you proved injective for both cases
You’re done
Soo we know that f is injective
Yes
For both cases
Yes
So you could think about it as the range generated by f is a subset of Naturals
Which means all we need to prove is that the range generated by f is also a superset (I.e surjective)
So if we can find a correct q for any x in naturals, then the range generated by f is a superset of naturals (I.e covers all natural numbers)
Does that help?
So, basically if I've a positive 'q' that means I can get a natural number from the last two cases depending upon what my 'q' is
I get a unique natural number for all q > 0, q € Q
Well that’s to be proven by you
If that's it then, the range of the function will be equal to co domain...that means it's surjective
Alr then
Yeah
Any hints on how can i do so??
Proof by contradiction
Assume that 2 different qs can get you to the same value
And then show that those 2 qs must be the same
I.e only exist one unique prime factorisation
What's qs??
So basically, f(q1)=f(q2) the I've to prove q1=q2
Yeh
The surjective stuff comes trivially
Yeah
But you’ve shown that all q in natural don’t mix and all q not in natural don’t mix
But show that no q in first case hits any values that are also hit by a q in the second case
You mean, I've to show that I don't get 1 as an output in the second case??
Oh thats fine then
Yup same strategy
Use the fact that prime factorisation is unique
BasuDev
kinda
we're not sure that the order is the same or anything
but left side and right side must include the same values
so x_1 must equal x_2
dunno if it was mentioned here but you've got the wrong slashes here

you want \setminus for a backslash, not forward slash
Ohk
also wait you're like
required to show f is bijective
without a specific requirement of separately showing inj and surj
right
because i think it may be easier to simply construct the inverse...?
that wouldnt automatically prove bijective, still need to show injective anyways
e.g saying this inverse must be unique for reasons x,y,z
??
no?
constructing an inverse is enough, which of course involves also verifying that it is an inverse
you know that if an inverse exists then it is unique
unless you want to reprove that every time too
Alr alr we've that the function is injective and we've to show its bijective
*surjective
let n ∈ N \ {1}, decompose n into prime factors, see which ones have even exponents and which have odd exponents...
normally just show that for all natural numbers there exist a q that returns that natural number
but there is a trick here
the domain is rational numbers which is the same size as natural numbers, and you know that f is injective so it should cover natural numbers
no, just because a function is injective and its domain and codomain are both countable does not by itself mean f is surjective automatically
sorry, i thought it would be (is it true if domain is uncountable and codomain is countable)
2=2
3=3
4=2²
5=5
6=3×2
7=7
8=2³
.....
that... is not really what i had in mind there
do you want the smartass answer or the helpful answer?
.
you want a general inverse, dont technically prove anything if you cant cover all cases
so think about how to go from some natural number to a q in domain, the step you used for f(q) = 108 should give you a hint
we proved that for every q>0, q€Q there's a unique natural number....
and our last two case gives us a natural number.. our Co domain is natural number and our range is also natural number doesn't that basically proves our function is surjective
thats what i said here, but its not super rigorous
infinity gets weird
Alr alr
I can do prime factorisation
yeah!!
BasuDev
well theres probably a few ways but imma give the one i found
if we have a natural number thats also a squared number
Yes
Alr we can
otherwise we can use case 3
Ye
if our natural number x is prime, then we let q = x/1
OK...
if our natural number x isnt prime, then we need to find the p_1^2{r_1} * ... * p_n^2{r_n} * q_1 ^2{s_1-1} ... q_n^2{s_n-1}
such that x = p_1^2{r_1} * ... * p_n^2{r_n} * q_1 ^2{s_1-1} ... q_n^2{s_n-1}
which is just an argument saying that x isnt prime so there exist these numbers kind of
Your saying that for evry x>0 there's a number
Alr alr I gotta go now, I'll do the surjective part at night
@olive tide
Thanks for the help though I appreciate the time you have given
ThNks
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feels like a printing thing
it may have blended in with a grid line
you don't "calculate" it at all
all you can say is it must lie between Q1 and Q3 but beyond that you cannot say anything
dunno what you mean by "exactly between"
it lies between them, NOT necessarily halfway between them
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Ye
@lean otter
@lean otter Has your question been resolved?
it was referring to basudev
anyway
why not simply multiply both sides by (33+m)?
well i mean like
it becomes "the same as" crossmultiplying if you insist on writing 3 as 3/1 and then writing the multiplication by 1 on the right explicitly
which i find a bit silly
it's just an ordinary multiplication of both sides by the same thing
also if you want to improve your factorization skills then that ought to include knowing when an expression is not factorable
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I keep getting quantity A is greater
For a put 6 for a and 3 for b and then 3/9 gives a remainder of 3 which is greater than 1
And when I plug in another number I get A as the greater value
Am I correct?
@green flare Has your question been resolved?
Quantity A is a?
Yes
So you can have a = 18, b = 1 and b =9*0+ 1 => r = 1. We have a/r = 18 and b/1 = 1
Hmmm
We can have a = 9 and b = 1000.
a/r will be less than b/1
1000 = 999+1
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I should calculate the real fourrier series for f(x) = cos^nx. And based of the formular I came here. But i dont know how to really solve this. Can someone help me of starting solving these?
I struggle with the cos^nx function
Not if n is even
are you not allowed to refer to complex stuff at all
bc if you could do that it would greatly simplify your life actually
Of note is that cos^n is always even, so you can get away with integrating from 0 to pi instead. Doing this for a generic n without complex numbers is a little beyond me 😛
I am allowed to. I was thinking about it, but never done it before, we've been just introduced to it
let z = e^ix then cos(x) = (z + z^-1)/2
expand that with binomial
you basically get the entire fourier series for free
this sounds hard and easy at the same time. I'll try, thanks
Am i plugging this in my integral then?
@quasi bison
okay well, i dont know how to actually solve this with complex numbers
works out to
1/16 (z^4 + z^-4 + 4z^2 + 4z^-2 + 6)
= 1/8 cos(4x) + 1/2 cos(2x) + 3/8
some tinkering skipped over
but that's the general idea
you just get it directly as a linear combination of cosines
(You can also shove it in your integral and solve, it'll just be a little tedious, but the antiderivative of any power of z is trivial (and what you get is a linear combination of powers of z, that compliments the linearity of the integral well))
Okay well, I think I get the idea and the handiness of using the complex numbers here. But is that already my solution? Like just forming an series of that and I am done?
yes
This feels too easy ngl
((What Ann did is to notice that you already have a linear combination of cosines when you expand cos^4(x), so no need to go through the integrals to do the projections))
(((Afterall the idea of a fourier series is to deconstruct into a linear combination of sines and cosines))) 😄
Ye idk, i never did this before really, so I had no clue "when im done" with the series
If you want the a_0 a_k and b_k for any n I can imagine the skipped over some tinkering might get a bit hairy? idk I didn't try it on paper
hmm idk but quite happy to have an quite smart solution to this
@nimble hinge Has your question been resolved?
Okay, sorry for asking again, but this is what i got this now. But I want to go back to the cosine form, right?
Because I feel like I am doing something wrong here, or not coming to a clean solution.
@quasi bison
$$z = e^{ix}$$ $$cos(x) = \frac{z + z^{-1}}{2}$$ $$cos(nx) = \frac{z^n + z^{-n}}{2}$$
z^{-n}
learath2
One day I'll learn how to use latex properly 
Ah okay, thanks a lot
It is a little dicey to see that you can always pair a z^n with a z^-n when expanding
Ah, I did not remember the formular below. It's not that hard as soon as you have it. I turned the last part to
cos((n-k)x) now. Is that right?
so something like this
I still don't have pen and paper, but it kinda looks wrong, I'd expect (n-2k), the range of the sum being halved since we are pairing the terms, and an issue about even and odd n causing one extra term
Ye it is indeed wrong, I made a mistake
but i dont know how to solve this. this -k is annoying
Let me give it a go
Please note that the solution needs to be real
I got something like $$\frac{1}{2^n} \sum_{k = 0}^{\frac{n - 1}{2}} \binom{n}{k} cos(\binom{n}{k}x)$$
learath2
I'm not completely sure about it, kinda rushed through it and then suddenly don't feel like looking more into it anymore
For odd n btw
I only did n=3 so I can visualize it. There should be another simplification there but I'm not in the vibe to math anymore
Oh oof. Lemme see
For even ones you'll end up with a lone term in the middle, I don't remember how to get rid of it, you'll have to come up with something
Oh those (nCk) above the zs are wrong
They should be 2k - n and -2k + n
and you get a 2k+n in the cos instead
Ah, the lone term ends up being a z^0 by symmetry, so it's just constant
No more looking at this, I'll go sleep, gn
Thank you a lot, I will also need some time to look at it now, haha
Honestly, I feel like all of this is not the correct way. When I plug this in wolfram alpha it does not fit.
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how do you know which x term to make the subject to get a converging sequence?
is it trial and error or is there a method to know which x term to make the subject to achieve a converging iterative sequence
wouldnt you just go with newton raphson?
Hi
hi
