#help-19
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Dym DM and EN intersect at K lies on AB
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can some1 explain this
i mean yea they showed it but like
are u supposed to just guess that n is an exponent for the denominator?
bruh you do you get a_n = inf
thats what i thought
Yep
wait where was the counter example
you claim that the explicit formula for the nth term in the sequence is infinity..
they tell us that for n = 0 it’s 3, not infinity
anyways
how did you get it right the second time?

ok so is there a particular part of this argument you don’t follow?
this is also just straight up the form for a geometric sequence
I mean its saying a_n = an-1 / 8
So i was assuming what it was asking me to do is apply infinity to where n is
but then it said that was a nogo and i was lost
because then its a_0 = 3
so we get 3= a_n-1 / 8
which would be like 24/8
so the nth term was like 25
but then i googled it
and it said nuh uh
so idk how to do it
no. they gave a recursive definition for the nth term (one which depends on one or more of the previous terms)
they are asking for a formula strictly in terms of n
what?
the formula doesn't apply for n = 0
you can find a_1 using a_0
a_1 = a_0/8 = 3/8
i literally defined it
did you see what i said in the parentheses
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Is there a relationship between Narayana numbers and Bernoulli numbers?
@ruby prairie Has your question been resolved?
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how do i find the dx/dt of this problem?
i got this
i sort of remeber of the equation would look like this
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Can you show the original question?
this is the question gng
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
ohh
Oops, not this one
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
okay
Prove that PA²+PC²=PB²+PD²
this is what we have to prove
i can prove that if only i probed that angle APC=angle BPD=90⁰
proved*
which im not able to
not surprising, its false.
er
You named vertices wrong
the diagram isnt even bro
i js drew it js incase
Anyway, you're right that if you can prove that those are right angles, then the statemmetn follows
the only issue is that they are clearly not right angles
so you'll have to figure out a different approach
yeah that is what bothers me
you can try using coordinates
if you can use that
B = (0, 0), C = (x, 0), A = (0, y), D = (x, y)
i also dont think ABC is a traingle
erm
it indeed isnt
we're supposed to use pythagoras theorem
i see, then there is the second approach
uhh
Yeah this way it is really easy
i dont see a right triangle tho
i have not been taught that
now there are lots of right triangles
yea
take use of those triangles
gotta name the constructions?
try expressing PA^2 + PC^2 and PB^2 + PD^2
sure, you can label the points on those sides
alright so
and make sure to use the right labelling of vertices
here its wrong again
okay
it shoudl work both ways
this is fine and its easy enough
now you just have to put the pieces together
u're like 1min away
yeah, try rewriting PA^2 + PC^2 = PB^2 + PD^2 using what u have now
u know what PA is, you know what PC is, u know what PB is, you know what PD is
yeah
oh these kind of qs, are you a 10th grader by any chance
so use these equalities and do the substitution
so
9th
i see
PA²+PB²=AG²+2GP²+GB²
and
PC²+PD²=CH²+2PH²+DH²
yeah, but u need PA^2 + PC^2 and PB^2 + PD^2
yeah, and u wanna prove that those 2 quantities are equal
yeahh
can u see what it simplifies to if you put them equal?
some stuff will prolly cancel
you know what, draw the diagram and actually highlight (with e.g. red color) every length present in PA^2 + PC^2
then do the same with PB^2 + PD^2 with a different color
so like highlight AG, GP, CH, PH red and GP, GB, PH, DH blue
yeah but
i dont think we had to draw perpendiculars..
ill still draw the diagram as u wish but i dont think its what we have to do
its not entirely necessary, but it helps
the alternative would be expressing AP as AG^2 + AH^2
yeah
anyway, can you see why the sum of blue lengths squared will be the same as the sum of red lengths squared?
what lengths look equal?
HC=GD
bc
AR IS PARALLEL TO GH
and
BH IS parallel to AG
and all the angles are 90 in them
so its a rectangle
yep
so AG^2 = BH^2, PG^2 = PG^2, PH^2 = PH^2, CH^2 = DG^2and so their sum is equal
theyre js same
yeah
and summing equal things will result in equal sums
this one is not necessarily true
oh you meant GP = GP, then its fine
yeah, then its fine
now you can just sum those equalities
yes, but remember what it was
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we've shown that the right sides here are equal, so the left sides muse be equal too
so PA^2 + PC^2 = PB^2 + PD^2 and that concludes the proof
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This is a question and part of its solution
I dont really understand the proof here
I understand why they took the (X\Y) v (Y\X) ^ (Y\Z) v (Z\Y) bit
But I dont get the steps after that
the steps labeled 1 and 2
There are two cases here right
In plain English X and Y are related if they both contain 3 or neither contains 3
Do you get that from the definition of the relation?
I thought it was if one of them doesnt contain 3
No
Assume only X has 3 and Y doesn't
Then X - Y will have three
So they will not be related
3 cannot be in the union of their differences
this is obviously gonna happen if neither has three
but they can also both have three and then the differences, X - Y and Y - X will not have three
remember how i told you to rephrase the stmt of the relation itself "X R Y <=> 3 belongs to both X and Y or neither X nor Y"
thats what is being used in the proof
OK I think this makes sense
So they're saying for the first bit that its in X and Y therefore it has to be in Y and Z
OK I get it
and then its the same reasoning in part 2
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no problem!
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hey
can anyone help me idk how to draw this
like i get stuck during the ebaring of a from the mast is 160
also theres another queston that idk how to draw its
three towens A B C are positiojned relative to each other as follow:
Town B is 68km from A on a bearing of 225
Town C is on a bearing of 135 from A
Town C is on a bearing of 090 from B
how do i draw theese stuff help
what does your drawing look like at the moment?
a triangle
but when i want to draw the bearing of a from the mast 160 its like more than 180 cause like a is on the bottom left of the mast
Try put A on the right hand side :)
oh
try draw your bearings for A and B then draw your points
looks right!
what about the other question pls
this
What does your diagram for that one look like atm?
It should be a triangle- yes
is it like this?
how do i find distance bc
ok
do you see the right angle in the triangle?
yes
try to use trig functions again
but i only have 1 side and 1 angle
180-135
yeah exactly
Yep
no worries
.close
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who needs help w math i gotchu

If you want to help, wait for people to post and claim their own personal channel.
And provide your input there.
For how this server works and guidelines, please read up on #rules and #❓how-to-get-help .
i can go on the available ones and open my own one from there?
no, if you're purely helping others, you shouldn't be opening channels
oh im sorry im new here
people who want help, get a personal channel dedicated to them for the duration
ive joined like 5 mions ago
You need help or want to help...
i want to help
wait why don't he have green leaf
so like i mentioned, if you're new read up on the links
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which implies how you should be providing help (e.g. don't give answers / fully worked solutions directly)
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@mystic saffron
@mystic saffron Has your question been resolved?
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x ∈ N
Ahhhh ok
and N, presumably, starts at 1
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i need to solve
I have this
Bring the similar terms on one side
simplify x and constants first
and then square again
its prob a q from quadratic
So 2x +4 =4rootx-2
No
shouldnt it be 2x-4?
Yes
ok ill jsut square
yeah
$2x -4 =4\sqrt{x-2}$
easier is 2x - 4 = 4 sqrt(x - 2)
this what you got?
now you can square
Fionna The Unemployed
then just t=x-2
south
Oh I meant that
oh thats smart

Then what would you consider x as?
Show your work
what
show the calculations
i just squared 2x-4
oh
Nah just show what you did
i did in my head
Do it on a paper
It is
Yup remember to do that on both sides
what
Its not 16-square root of x-2,right?
@merry birch Has your question been resolved?
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Calculate. Present the result in algebraic form. i did this problem on my own but i'm missing a minus in the result and i have no clue why it's supposed to be there...
how about if you write this as $(-3)^6 \cdot (1 + i)^6$?
south
like, what steps did you do exactly
cool, so $(1 + i)^6 = (\sqrt{2})^6 (\cos(6 \cdot \pi/4) + i \sin(6 \cdot \pi/4))$ right?
south
hope you don't mind my writing 🙏 , similar but yeah
there's 5/4pi
and as for the rest i can belive you can read just fine
This is correct, yes
second parentheses is 1 so technically the answer is just (3sqrt{2})^6
but
in the answears there's a minus
double check what sin(6pi/4) is again
or sin(15pi/2), same thing
says it's -1 but why do i need to know the value of sin what about cos and i
ah, didn't you already observe that cos(15pi/2) = 0?
No, it doesn't disappear 🤔
$(3 \sqrt 2)^6 (0 - 1i)$
south
yeahh but i can't multiply them because the first one is to the power of 6
what would i need to do next
the answer is $-(3 \sqrt2)^6 i$ and it's fine to leave it in that form
south
if you say so then sure. Thank you guys so much for help ❤️
no worries!
(you can check yourself on Wolfram Alpha, Symbolab, or Desmos complex mode)
or if you have a handheld calculator that supports complex numbers, that too
sure!
if you trust me
have a nice day
you too! if you're done type .close
.close
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hello, i need help to calculate an integral, which is the integral from 0 to pi, of e^x*cos(x)
idk how to use latex so i cant write it properly
sorry the * disapeared
e^(x*cos(x)) or e^x times cos(x)
2nd one
you dont need to know that then
u = cos(x) , v= e^x
but i'd get something i cant primitivate too
false
if i get e^x * sin(x)
$\int_0^\pi e^x\cos(x)\di x$
and that's something familiar to you isn't it
𝙸𝚗𝚏𝚒𝚗𝚒𝚞𝚖³
it's - the integral i had in the first place??
yes
ig i'll try like that but im not sure of what im about to do lmao
but thanks yeah i didnt see the method
you should let 𝑢 = cos(𝑥) and 𝑑𝑣 = 𝑒ˣ.
do you know the integration by parts formula?
I have already told him that.
Sorry. Didn’t see the message.
No worries:)
you wrote 𝑣 though. I got confused about that a bit.
(e^x)' = e^x so it doesnt matter whether dv = e^x dx or v = e^x, does it?
Oh. Yeah you’re right
.close
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@thin dagger Has your question been resolved?
diagonal
its saying that all the elements lower than a11
can be divided by the diagonal
so we wrote d as in diagonal
@thin dagger Has your question been resolved?
I think d is supposed to be the a_ij of minimal length from the previous paragraph?
but then how are they getting the 0 there if they need a11 specifically
I would guess they're just using d = a11 but stating it that way for nicer further use
@thin dagger Has your question been resolved?
@thin dagger Has your question been resolved?
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very random, question source is from me
since Lim ( f(x)^2 ) = ( Lim f(x) ) ^2 - as x approaches some value
shouldnt that mean that Lim ( 1/f(x) ) = ( Lim f(x) ) ^-1
its true given lim f exists and is nonzero
ur claim is true as long as u include my stipulations
(no, you're fine, I was about to mention what @blazing shuttle just said now
)
oh i was talking about server rules 😭
hmmm feels a bit like cheating but sure
Nah you're all good, you aren't in trouble 
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np
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Can I have some help please?
where are you stuck
Well everythiing, I don't understand what's going on in the question.
you can ping me btw.
what the?
well
if you have some function
${f(x)\over P(x)Q(x)}$ where P and Q are polynomials and you’re trying to split the ratio, you should search for something like ${g(x)\over P(x)} + {r(x)\over Q(x)}$
Médicis
therefore you need to search some functions $g, r$ such that $P(x)r(x) + Q(x)g(x) = f(x)$
Médicis
So you’re saying we just split the fraction into two pieces like magic?
What even is g(x) and r(x)? are those just random letters or?
random letters yes
So they’re just placeholders? But, how do we know what numbers or stuff to put there?
specifically theyre placeholder polynomials
$g(x)$ and $r(x)$ are names of two polynomials for which [\frac{f(x)}{P(x)Q(x)}=\frac{g(x)}{P(x)}+\frac{r(x)}{Q(x)}]
Flip
in this case, f(x) = x^3, P(x) = x^2+1, and Q(x) = x^2+4
So g(x) and r(x) aren’t just numbers, they’re whole polynomials? How many letters can a polynomial even have? I feel like I need a diagram or something lol.
also, Why does splitting it like that even help?
one letter is enough
well, it tends to help because the polynomials g and r are actually of degree 1 or less
typically one letter represents the polynomial and one letter represents the independent variable, if theres only one variable
it's worth doing because goldtrain doesn't know about it
whats the original question
okay
.
Just one letter?? seriously? So like g(x) = x or something? and that’s enough??
for the name g? sure
I tried substituting $x^2 + 1$ by $u^2$, which makes it slightly easier
Médicis
j’ai le même tableau 
that's an x^3 at the top
très bon goût
yes
Dead end? so we’re going in circles here? What question are we even answering?
to split the integral in two
Ah, vous parlez francais?
oui
oui
@marsh lichen have you studied number theory at all
Interessant, Mr. Le chat.
I can draw a parallel if you have
ah, désolé, je ce vois
number theory? I don’t think i’ve really done that. Does it help with x^3 on top of fractions?
no but it helps understand why partial fraction decomposition works
Draw a parallel? like a picture or like a math connection??
math connection
Also, can someone remind me which integral we’re actually splitting? i think i got lost somewhere between partial fractions and u-substitution.
So number theory just explains why the magic works?
okay I think it is the actual proper method
Et aussi, les fractions partielles, c'est comme prendre x^3 et le couper en morceaux plus petits ?
im just gonna say it because i think explaining about how I will explain it will not be helpful
tu prends une fraction et tu la décomposes en deux autres fractions
Maybe if someone writes out the actual split with numbers i can see it… right now it’s just letters and confusion everywhere..
${ln(x)x^3\over P(x)Q(x)} = ln(x) ( {A(x)\over P(x)} + {B(x)\over Q(x)})$
okay so watch this gold I think it might help
Médicis
a diophantine equation is one where all the variables are integers, and I'm going to discuss an important theorem about diophantine equations, and then show how it's related
a diophantine equation is linear when all the variables are to the first or zeroth power, like so:
4x+7y=-23
Okay, so we just put the ln(x) outside and then split the x^3 fraction. I think i kinda see it, maybe.
here x and y must be integers
without asking what the solution is, I want to know, IS THERE a solution at all?
Alors on coupe une fraction en deux ? Est-ce qu’elles s’additionnent comme par magie ou bien?
Bezout's Lemma says that these equations have solutions if and only if
gcd(4,7)|-23 in this case
in general
ax+by=c
has a solution iff gcd(a,b)|c
do you know this notation?
Now we’re talking about diophantine equations? Ithought we were splitting x^3 fractions.
youre calling partial fractions magic
i'm trying to show you theyre not
par exemple $\frac{1}{x(x+1)}=\frac{a}{x}+\frac{b}{x+1}$, pour trouver a et b tu peux utiliser quelques techniques comme par exemple mettre tout au même dénominateur et identifier les coefficients. ici $\frac{1}{x(x+1)}=\frac{a}{x}+\frac{b}{x+1}=\frac{a(x+1)+bx}{x(x+1)}=\frac{(a+b)x+a}{x(x+1)}$ et en identifiant on trouve que $a=1$ et $a+b=0$ donc $b=-a=-1$
Can someone tell me if the fraction version even has a “solution” too? i feel like i missed a memo.
tm
justement c’est pas sous le même dénominateur donc ça s’additionne pas si facilement
do you accept Bezout's lemma as I stated it, and do you know the notation I used?
I'm getrting there I promise
So partial fractions aren’t magic? ok, i guess i’m starting to see that… but my brain is still doing backflips between fractions and integers.
but answer my yes/no questions please so I know if youre followinmg
Donc on fait correspondre les coefficients après avoir tout mis sur le même dénominateur ? C’est plus logique. peut-être que je peux suivre cette partie.
oui on identifie
la partie constante vaut 1 d’un côté et de l’autre c’est a, et la partie correspondant au x ça vaut 0 à gauche et à droite ça vaut a+b
goldtrain
I'm showing you the m agicians tricks that make it all make sense but you have to work with me if you want my help
I think i kinda follow Bezout’s lemma? like, gcd(a,b)|c means there might be integers that work?
gcd means greatest common divisor
the biggest number that is a factor of both numbers
ahhh ok… donc la partie constante d’un côté est égale à 1, et de l’autre côté c’est a… donc a = 1 ? 😳
| means divides, meaning
Oh ye I remember that.
x | d is another way of writing "d is divisible by x"
exactement
so Bezout tells us that something like
i let u with @amber veldt 
3x-2y=101 has a solution
but notice this can be written as
x/2 -y/3 = 101/(6)
agree?
I just divided both sides by 6
$$\frac x 2 + \frac {-y} {3} = \frac {101}{3 \cdot 2}$$
actually i'll write it this way so it's a plus sign, doesn't matter
gfauxpas
do you agree this diophantine equation has a solution by Bezout's lemma?
So you just divided everything by 6 and now it’s a plus instead of a minus?
I kinda see that, but my brain is still half in fractions and half in integers .
whether I write -y or +(-y) doesnt matter, I never made a claim that y is positive or negative
I did turn it into fractions, but it came from a diophantine equation that's the important part
it came from this
3x-2y=101
$$3x-2y=101$$
$$\iff$$
$$\frac x 2 + \frac {-y} {3} = \frac {101}{3 \cdot 2}$$
gfauxpas
Okat, so the signs don’t matter, it’s still a solution either way . I guess i’m starting to see why the diophantine part is important,but my brain is still juggling fractions and x^3 lol.
okay so
know what it means for a polynomial to be a divisor or another?
x divides y if x is a factor of y
here's the cool thing
Bezout's lemma also works for polynomials
let's say you have three known polynomials, f(x) and g(x) and h(x)
and two unknown polynomials, fall them P(x) and Q(x)
I want to know, does this equation have a solution?
$$f(x)P(x)+g(x)Q(x)=h(x)$$
gfauxpas
gfauxpas
does this equation have a solution for polynomials P and Q?
yes, because gcd(x-7,x^2+1) = 1, and 1 divides 2x+5
here's the connection to PFD
$$(x-7)P(x)+(x^2+1)Q(x) = 2x+5$$
$$\iff$$
$$\frac{P(x)}{x^2+1} + \frac{Q(x)}{x-7} = \frac{2x+5}{(x-7)(x^2+1)}$$
gfauxpas
so basically, if the gcd of the denominators divides the numerator, we can find P(x) and Q(x) that work? So that’s why partial fractions always has a solution. I think i’m starting to see the “why”.
yes!
We done?

so
for this integrand
forget log for the moment
$$\frac{x^3}{(x^2+1)(x^2+4)}$$
gfauxpas
let's just do PFD on this
because the numerator is a degree lower than the denominator, let's assume that all fractions are
what does PFD mean?
partial fraction decomposition
( \frac{(x^2 + 1)(x^2 + 4)}{x^3} = -\frac{3(x^2 + 1)}{x} + \frac{3(x^2 + 4)}{4x} )
we can integrate term by term:
$$
\int \frac{x^3}{(x^2 + 1)(x^2 + 4)} , dx = \int \left( -\frac{x}{x^2 + 1} + \frac{4x}{x^2 + 4} \right) dx.
$$
$$
\int \frac{(x^2 + 1)(x^2 + 4)}{x^3} , dx = \int \left( -\frac{3(x^2 + 1)}{x} + \frac{3(x^2 + 4)}{4x} \right) dx.
$$
$$
= -\frac{1}{3} \int \frac{x}{x^2 + 1} , dx + \frac{4}{3} \int \frac{x}{x^2 + 4} , dx = -\frac{1}{3} \int \frac{x^2 + 1}{x} , dx + \frac{3}{4} \int \frac{x^2 + 4}{x} , dx
$$
$$
\int \frac{x}{x^2 + a^2} , dx = \frac{1}{2} \ln \left| x^2 + a^2 \right| + C
$$
$$
\int \frac{x^2 + a^2}{x} , dx = \frac{1}{2} \ln|x^2 + a^2| + C
$$
$$
-\frac{1}{3} \int \frac{x}{x^2 + 1} , dx = -\frac{1}{3} \cdot \frac{1}{2} \ln \left( x^2 + 1 \right) = -\frac{1}{6} \ln \left( x^2 + 1 \right)
$$
$$
-\frac{1}{3} \int \frac{x^2 + 1}{x} , dx = -\frac{1}{3} \cdot \frac{1}{2} \ln(x^2 + 1) = -\frac{1}{6} \ln(x^2 + 1)
$$
$$
\frac{4}{3} \int \frac{x}{x^2 + 4} , dx = \frac{4}{3} \cdot \frac{1}{2} \ln \left( x^2 + 4 \right) = \frac{2}{3} \ln \left( x^2 + 4 \right)
$$
$$
\frac{3}{4} \int \frac{x^2 + 4}{x} , dx = \frac{3}{4} \cdot \frac{1}{2} \ln(x^2 + 4) = \frac{3}{2} \ln(x^2 + 4)
$$
$$
\int \frac{x^3}{(x^2 + 1)(x^2 + 4)} , dx = -\frac{1}{6} \ln \left( x^2 + 1 \right) + \frac{2}{3} \ln \left( x^2 + 4 \right) + C
$$
$$
\int \frac{(x^2 + 1)(x^2 + 4)}{x^3} , dx = -\frac{1}{6} \ln(x^2 + 1) + \frac{3}{2} \ln(x^2 + 4) + C
$$
Gold/Train
Is this correct?
Lemme try to polish it:
We start with the partial fraction decomposition for the integrand:
$$
\frac{x^3}{(x^2 + 1)(x^2 + 4)} = -\frac{x}{x^2 + 1} + \frac{4x}{x^2 + 4}.
$$
This allows us to integrate term by term:
$$
\int \frac{x^3}{(x^2 + 1)(x^2 + 4)} , dx = \int \left(-\frac{x}{x^2 + 1} + \frac{4x}{x^2 + 4}\right) dx.
$$
Step 1: Factor constants
$$
\int \frac{x^3}{(x^2 + 1)(x^2 + 4)} , dx = -\int \frac{x}{x^2 + 1} , dx + \int \frac{4x}{x^2 + 4} , dx.
$$
Step 2: Apply standard formulas
Recall the standard integrals:
$$
\int \frac{x}{x^2 + a^2} , dx = \frac{1}{2} \ln \left| x^2 + a^2 \right| + C.
$$
Using this:
First integral:
$$
-\int \frac{x}{x^2 + 1} , dx = -\frac{1}{2} \ln \left| x^2 + 1 \right|.
$$
Second integral:
$$
\int \frac{4x}{x^2 + 4} , dx = 4 \cdot \frac{1}{2} \ln \left| x^2 + 4 \right| = 2 \ln \left| x^2 + 4 \right|.
$$
Step 3: Combine results
$$
\int \frac{x^3}{(x^2 + 1)(x^2 + 4)} , dx = -\frac{1}{2} \ln \left| x^2 + 1 \right| + 2 \ln \left| x^2 + 4 \right| + C.
$$
And that’s the final integrated form.
Gold/Train
first of all, the PFD is wrong
second of all, why are you doing all that
that's not the integral youre trying to solve
Oh ye, my bad.
so we don't know the degree of the numerators but we know they're proper fractions because the original expression is a proper fraction right
so let's write
$$=\frac{Ax+B}{x^2+1}+\frac{Cx+D}{x^2+4}$$
gfauxpas
and actually it will be helpful to write it in Bezout lemma form
$$x^3=(x^2+4)(Ax+B)+(x^2+1)(Cx+D)$$
gfauxpas
now the key is to simplify this by using that it holds for all x
because this is an equality of polynomials
for examkple, it holds if x=0, which gives us:
$$0 = 4B+D$$
gfauxpas
you plug in x=0 to simplify and get 0 = 4B + D. I see how that works now.
I guess I'm done here.
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i need some help with Intermediate value theorem
what about it
wait let me send u the question
here u go
prove that the equation have a unique solution
(x+1)^3 = 4+3x with x in R+?
i think we wont use Intermediate value theorem here
yeah
Well, you can
R+ is not a segment
What does that mean
The interval should be closed from both directions
I mean... R+ is closed, but even then, it doesn't matter, you don't need a closed interval, you can use limits
Or, if you want a closed interval, you can make one
Thanks for your help, man. I think I'll get some sleep
I don't know why they're teaching us this in high school 😭
😭
@modern garden Has your question been resolved?
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i dont know where to start
im stil confused how that helps
i also dont understand how to do 11
ok
what does chain rule tell you?
you do the derivitave of the outside function applied to the inside function times the derivitave of the inside function
yeah
if you consider y as a function of x which is a function of t, then
dy/dt (t)= dy/dx (y(x(t)) * dx/dt (t)
and you know the sign of dx/dt
and you know from the graph a lot about dy/dx
so you should be a able to make a conclusion about dy/dt
ngl im completely lost
why do you consider y as a function of x which is a function of t
the relationship between x and y (per the graph) is that of a function (y being a function of x)
i.e. for every x there is exactly one matching y
correct
wait so is x a function of y
or is y a function of x
y is a function of x cuz x is the input
right?
for this you would need for every y there is a unique x, which might not happen
(in this case it does happen, but for the question its not what we care about)
you consider x to be the input, and a function must have a unique output (a value for y) for every value for the input (x)
ok
wait
does that mean x^2 isnt a function
cuz its like mirrored
x^2 is a function
you but you are flliping the quantifiers
I said for every x, there is y
not the opposite
and indeed you are right, x^2 is not injective in R
now getting back to the question.
dx / dt is everywhere negative
what can you say (from the graph) about the sign of dy/dx
so we have the graph of y(x)
yes
what does it mean for dy/dx to be positive/negative?
its not just anything
its the derivative
it is much related to y(x)
yes
i imagine tangent liners
why is that (I am testing you)
ok you have the correct idea
dy/dx is negative as y(x) is always strictly decreasing
now what can you say about dy/dt (using the chain rule)
so we know that dy/dx is neg and dx/dx is neg
do i set them equal to eachother
then differntiate
bumping this
take a look
halp
!occupied
Someone else is already using this help channel. If you need help with a question, please open your own help channel/thread (see #❓how-to-get-help for instructions).
well no need to differentiate this further
as we already have a relation between dy/dt, dy/dx and dx/dt
also this second derivative may not be defined
can we move on to 11 i dont think im going to get it ima js have my teacher explain it to me later
we are really close to finishing
I will just explain this a bit faster
and we will move on after
so you know dy/dx and dx/dt are negative
ok
their product, which by the chain rule is dy/dt, is positive
thats it
its fine if you don't fully understand this
but eventually it will click
ok
now for 11
first understand what it means for x and y to change at some constant rate
do you know what it means?
when the coefficents
are the same?
lino
no thatss wrong
when they are proportionally changing
at the same speed
ok I meant just for one of them
what does it mean for a function y to change at a constant rate of k
||I am looking for an answer in terms of derivatives||
same as what?
when a x value is plugged in
so a function f(t) changes at constant rate k if df/dt is always k for all t
yes
so now, according to the question, we assume this is true for x
so dx/dt = k
what can you say about dy/dt?
||again, chain rule is your friend||
dy/dt=k
how did you arrive at that?
im ngl i think im not understanding this whole part at all im going to go review the basic concepts more cuz i dont think im ready for these types of problems
sure you can review it later as much as you like
again, you are not supposed to understand everything immidietly
a first exposure can help you understand the second time
but really here it is the same trick from before
y is again a function of x so
dy/dt = dy/dx * dx/dt
and you know dx/dt = k, and dy/dx = a (by the equation) so dy/dt is k * a
ok, ty for the help you have gave so far im going to go ahead and close this channel
.close
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wow somebody had the exact same problem as yours
Are you trolling?
this is the same pic
same framing
This is a troll no doubt
troll or not, what about the explanation above do you not understand?
oh cool. so we're done?
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Was the troll banned?
dkdc
"stop yapping"
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Hi, is my answer for c correct?
not sufficient
Why are you doing it upside-down? You should've integrated the f'(x), finding out that f(x)=... + C, and then you find the C
no
if you do not know integration, you can differentiate the ansatz and show that the y-int is correct and the derivative matches
you've shown that f as given has that y intercept rather than showing f as described in the previous parts with the added condition that its y intercept is 4.5 is precisely the function they gave
This is not something you would ansatz with. It would suspiciously look like you looked at the answer key.
I meant that since the question asks you to show that f(x) = ... satisfies the equation, I wouldn't fault someone if they differentate the (given) f(x) (if it is truly given), and then showing the constant also matches. Integrating is obviously more straightforward, if op knows it.
whats ansatz?
Forget ansatz, do you know integration? If you do, forget my message completely.
do this then
but why integrate if they already gave us the original function, f(x)
oh ok I understand
my answer for D is correct but I want to check if I used the right notation/process
because Im unsure if this was the right thing to do
Infinity is not just a large number.
Have you learned about Extended Real Numbers?
In Baby Rudin, Extended Real Numbers are the first thing you learn on the very first chapter.
let's not go there for this OP.
Why not?
I don't think introducing extended reals to this particular OP is beneficial at this stage.
@shrewd trellis Has your question been resolved?
You can't just check the value at one point and say that's the limit
We need a proof
In particular, what does the graph of e^(-2x) look like
Does it have any asymptotes
btw if I may say this
your working for c) looks like you went the other way round
you took f(x) as gospel and showed that f(0) = 4.5
they want you to take f(0) = 4.5 (plus info from f'(x)) and show that f(x) is what they say it is
Give me a moment I’m reading this
Yes, what you have done is proved that the given function works. But you haven't shown that it's the only function that does
You have to work forward
Alright, here's some important theorems about limits.
If
$$
\lim_{x\rightarrow+\infty} f(x) = C
$$
and
$$
\lim_{x\rightarrow+\infty} g(x) = D
$$
Then
$$\lim_{x\rightarrow+\infty} f(x) - g(x) = C-D$$
$$\lim_{x\rightarrow+\infty} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = \frac{C}{D}$$
Xwtek
But the limit is correct, it’s 5
theres a more rigorous way of doing the problem than plugging in bigger numbers
thats not good either, thats a shortcut for something else
let me continue,
if you graph f(x) or plug in big values, youll see that the limit should be 5
but we still havent proven that as such
That's almost like using Extended Real Numbers, but I've been advised not to continue on that route.
one way is just to memorize limits you already know are true, then solve for problems using that
Instead, use my theorems above
for example, you can use as a given that $\lim_{x\to\infty}e^{-x}=0$
mtt
proving this takes some effort, so you can take it as true for now
now based on this fact, heres how you show that $\lim_{x\to\infty}e^{-2x}=0$
mtt
one way is: $\lim_{x\to\infty}e^{-2x}=\lim_{x\to\infty}(e^{-x})^2=\left(\lim_{x\to\infty}e^{-x}\right)^2=0^2=0$
mtt
moving the limit inside the function was done through composition limit rule, which you can search up
another way is: $\lim_{x\to\infty}e^{-2x}=\lim_{x\to\infty}e^{-x}e^{-x}=(\lim_{x\to\infty}e^{-x})(\lim_{x\to\infty}e^{-x})=0\cdot0=0$
mtt
