#help-19
1 messages · Page 223 of 1
plan in 3d space...
hmm
its like if i flip the 2d plane and make it vertical
is that how it would look like?
In r3, two independent vectors also span a flat 2D surface —a plane — but that plane might be “tilted” or “vertical” inside the 3D space.
its a flat 2d surface + a 3d infintely long plane that is tilted or vertical based on the a and b value varied
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I'm continuing on an assignment for direct proofs and quite stuck on how to get n=(a+b)(a-b) into the form n=2k+1 for all k in Z.
The proposition is that every odd number can be expressed as a^2-b^2.
I have noticed that when b = a - 1, a^2-b^2 seems to iterate through odd numbers. The result of evaluating any particular a seems to be n = 2a - 1, but I'm not sure how to prove that algebraically for all integers.
So as it stands now, the P side of the proof is basically at
Suppose n is odd.
n=2k+1.
And the Q side of the proof is at
Let a = k+1.
n = (2a - 1)(a - a + 1).
Let b = a - 1.
n = (a + b)(a - b).
Therefore n = a^2 - b^2 for every odd n.
I also have various fragments like solutions for the roots of the polynomial like a = sqrt(...), b = sqrt(...), and like a = (2k+1)/(a+b) + b
I'm a little unsure how to bridge the gap between intuition and a formal proof. "Let b = a - 1" feels like a deus ex machina or non-sequitur that maybe needs justification?
Is it sufficient to make a direct proof by pulling magic numbers from a hat and demonstrating that the proof is satisfied, or am I missing a tool (besides observation) to demonstrate where they come from?
@idle spear Has your question been resolved?
For a^2 - b^2, either a or b exclusively have to be odd. Based on the fact that:
odd . odd = odd
even . even = even
even + odd = odd
odd + odd = even
even + even = even
Order doesnt really matter that much
so, for the sake of ease, its pretty easy to prove that if:
a = 2m
b = 2n+1
then a^2 - b^2 is of the form 2k + 1
tho, the problem becomes proving that the the quotient of the difference of squares can produce all integer numbers k
I think I have the beginnings of... something that spans the two ends of a direct proof, but I don't like how it gets there with some arbitrary let statements and injecting an a - a + 1 term:
Suppose n is odd.
n = 2k+1.
Let a = k+1.
n = 2a - 1.
Let b = a - 1.
n = (2a - 1)(a - a + 1) = (a + b)(a - b).
(a + b)(a - b) = a^2 - b^2
Therefore n = a^2 - b^2 for every odd n.
It probably is correct, imma head off to sleep though, good luck 🥀
No worries, thanks. I was also stuck on proving every odd integer satisfied the form.
Closing for now, as I'm also off to bed
.close
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Hello
How did they get this new denominator in the numerator
dear god... this typesetting's making it kinda hard to figure out wtf is meant
are you asking abt this
if you are: it looks like an application of l'hôpital.
Ann!
I haven't seen you in a long long time
Man if you were close, I'd peck you on the forehead
You don't know me, but you helped me a lot two years ago on this discord server
anybody wants help?
I want help
uhhhhh yeah i dont remember you at all lmao
that was mildly weird.
2 years ago...
yeah sorry nothing is coming up
ann has fans apparently
well i had one "fan" who fucking stole my pfp and continues to do so (whom i witnessed in #chill...)
Sorry
I went to take another photograph
They haven't applied Lopital to the denominator.
yes they have actually
the denominator is h*log(STUFF)
the new denominator is log(STUFF) + h * (STUFF')/STUFF
and most importantly of all
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I know this is false from use of venn diagram
use your venn diagram to figure out which regions definitely need to have sth in them
i think this works
if i let A = {1,2}
B = {2,3}
C = {3,4}
Im essentially seeing something in C that isnt in A right?
and so the LHS becomes {2}
RHS is {2,3,4}
which isnt true
That works, you could also have A and B be empty sets and C be non-empty
For the “smallest” counter example
this was the aim right?
oh i see
oh thats neat icl
just thought abt it
The simpler the counter example, the easier the verification is
for this one, can we just say intersection is associatve?
wait no, i know its true so there would have to be some sort of rigour involved
alright what am i even looking at here
wait lemme just thinka abt it then come back to it
@turbid warren Has your question been resolved?
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@warm bridge Has your question been resolved?
no and im gonna die if i dont get an answer in the next 5 min
<@&286206848099549185>
Are you alive?
All good
Its correct if im not wrong
And im not wrong
Good job mate
that problem looks cool
Yeah
If the helpee is dead do we close the help channel?
NO its not cool its making me rip my hair out
i hate physics
yes i came back to life just to say that
this is mechanics, dw, nothing w phys
also thanks guys
well no theory anway
well uhh this is from a book called univeristy physics
and im taking a physics course
its included
yea looks close to A level mechanics
oh nice nice
gl
thank you
@warm bridge Has your question been resolved?
ah i used to use that
my university uses matter and interactions
really unique approach... like you start off with vectors then newton's laws, momenum, universal gravitation
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.reopen
✅ Original question: #help-19 message
yes we did this
but our prof is so
insufferable
like
bad teaching style (at least for me and my mates) and keeps bragging about his phd and how physics is just better than math
💀
skull emohi
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hello, i am working on this problem, but i feel like something has gone wrong/my understanding of how triple integrals work isnt correct, mainly because in the final point that i am up to, i am getting an integration that will give 0, after cos changes to sin, limits of 2 pi and 0 go in and we get 0 for both of them
this is the content that was shown just before this example, so i am pretty sure that this is the way in which the question is meant to be solved
@random helm Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
What is the issu
i would just like someone to help me understand where i have gone wrong
Which one of all is the exercise
the first image i sent is the question
this?
yes
okey Okay, let me read it
why do you add those numbers and where do you get them from
which numbers?
0.056...
ah yes
so you see the integral with "M"
that represents the missing parts
so the 2 vertical columns that are missing (from what would otherwise be make the object a complete cuboid instead of an I shaped object), either side of the central "web", they make up the 0.056
and the other integral with "C" represents the circular sections of the object that are also missing
ρ♗☾♄☋_➊➋➌➎
@nocturne jetty the part I am using polar coordinates for is circular, it is the missing circular sections
and I believe that the intended way to complete the question is with integration since that is what was taught just before this example
Okay, let me do it with integrals
thanks
I have to go for tea now @nocturne jetty will be back in around 20-30 minutes, so i wont be able to respond to anything until then
I need to know where you get those constant numbers from
okey
which constant numbers?
385042.5 is from taking out the constants of g and sigma and 5 out of the integration and multiplying them together
i took 5 out because the object is just 5 identical parts stuck together, each containing 1 hole and having length of x=0.865
ill explain 0.056 after
i gtg
ah wait no @nocturne jetty i realised just now that splitting it up into 5 sections isnt possible
because they are not identical
we are calculating the gravitational torque, so the contribution from each of the 5 sections is not equal
I will try it again after tea
@random helm Has your question been resolved?
@nocturne jetty <@&286206848099549185> Here I have attempted it again with a different approach that you suggested, but i am still unsure about how to go about the triple integral of the holes?
<@&286206848099549185>
<@&286206848099549185> is anyone able to help me with this please?
@random helm Has your question been resolved?
I've arrived.
What is g?
yeah i could take it out but its ok
my main issue is with the circles
you see the 5 circles in the original question?
i want to integrate this integrand over these regions
Do you know polar coordinate integration.
Why don't you integrate the simple planar regions and then subtract the repeated circular regions?
It's usually more effective for circles.
wouldnt that mean doing 5 seperate integrals?
but maybe thats simply the only way
i think that is what i have done if i am not mistaken
That's what is implied here.
Right but you simplify it a whole lot more right, the limits are now only the rdrdtheta.
hmm, that should've worked in that case
I don't think polar works here either way because we're in 3d.
Isn't cylindrical the way to go?
ah possibly
cylindrical should work you just have to account for that x
ok let me remind myself of cylindrical and i will give it a go
thanks
but @fallow pond can i ask why wouldnt polar work here
Polar Coordinates are only 2 dimensional right.
oh ok
so you couldnt integrate for example wrt r then wrt theta then wrt z?
Very application driven.
with z being in the direction of the height of cylinders
Yeah this is cylindrical.
rdr, dtheta, dz
yes i seem to remember z=z for the conversion
Oh I see.
i mean that would make sense i think
Try it and see what happens.
Good luck!
@fallow pond
there will be 5 integrations for the 5 holes
and these 5 integrations should in theory produce 5 different results
with the hole furthest away from x=0 having the highest result since it produces the greatest torque
but with this integration with these limits it is going to produce a result of 0
because this integration calculates the torque produced
but these limits imply the circle is centred at x=0
and therefore doesnt produce any torque
I see.
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hi
i need some help in learning mathematical induction... i know the base case and the inductive step, inductive hypothesis my struggles is with the algebra and proving the answer
<@&286206848099549185>
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have you proved yet the cases for n=1 ?
induction got 3 steps
yes that isn't the hard part,
for example in 1) it would just replace every occurence of n with 1
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
- prove it's correct for $k + 1$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
this step troubles you the most right?
for this step, this should not trouble you
but yes step 2 is the struggle
replace every occurence of $n$ by $k$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
as in n = k + 1
it's like you do in step 1, but you replace $k$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
every occurence of n is replaced with k
this one is important
now if you want to prove for this
yes thats also pretty straightforward
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
or that's called substitute
3k = 3k(k + 1)/2
and that is $3 + 6 + 9 + ... + 3k$ right?
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
yes
now if instead, you substitute $k + 1$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
do you see something?
no no
let me add in a parentheses so it's easier to visualize
$(3 + 6 + 9 + ... + 3k) + 3(k + 1)$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
do you see it now?
yes one 3k is seperated from the other 3k?
...
so like they are on different sides
it's this expression
and we know what value it is
ohhh ok yea i got it
so that's where you substitute
substitute first
what do you mean?
so basically, this is $P(k)$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
and this is $P(k+1) = P(k) + 3(k + 1)$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
ok
so try substituting the value of $P(k)$ in
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
3 + 6 + 9 ...+ 3k substituted into = P (K) + 3(k + 1)
yes
and $P(k) = \frac{3k(k + 1)}{2}$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
see theres where my problem lies where do i start
how do i substitute this
do i expand
$P(k + 1) = \frac{3k(k + 1)}{2} + 3(k + 1)$
3k multiple k and multiply 1
it's something like this
3k^2 + 3k/2 + 3k (k + 1)
k+1/2
$3k(k + 1) = \frac{6k(k + 1)}{2}$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
jesus
that's no problem
does your expression look like: $P(k + 1) = \frac{3k(k + 1)}{2} + \frac{6(k + 1)}{2}$?
3 x 2 = 6
yes
lel
yes
6k ( k + 1) /2 ok
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
but the idea is the same, bring the same denominator
could it still be 6 since it has a k or would it be different?
it's still 6
basically timesing by $\frac{2}{2}$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
your expressions should look like this
no it doesnt so we have do SIMPLIFY
and do some fraction additions with factorization
our target is to bring to something like this
$P(k + 1) = \frac{3(k + 1)(k + 2)}{2}$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
ok
because we want $P(n)$ to be true for $n = k+1$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
so from here
we want to turn it into something like this
so ok can we do like terms here?
do factorization
it's technically like terms lel
what do you get?
so 3k(k+1)(k+1)/2 + 3
i may of
been so off
ngl i have no idea how to factorize mb
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
isn't that just adding with the same denominator?
show me your working
see um
i just been kinda
winging the working and trying to get the steps cuz ngl the test is tomorrow
dang
but you gotta show your working so i can help fixing for you
idk what is required im trying to figure out my methodology
ok hold on
3k^2 + 1 + 6k + 6/2
don't expand yet
there's a common factor here
k + 1
so factorize
3K (K + 1) 3 / 2
$(k + 1)(3k + 6)$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
add a denominator too
yes
there may be hope
3k + 6 got a common factor
so k + 2
so what's your result
(k + 1) (k + 2)
where did the 3 come from
oh ok got you
?
remember this?
so for 2 (i), factor 3 out and copy what they do 💀
ok fair enough idk if that'll be on the test
some methods huh?
okay
like after the inductive step like some visual cues like if i see this then do that
like a flowchart
of some sort
do 2 (ii)
if you see a series of sum like exercise 2
im writing as i go along
for example 2i
the sum can always be written in the form of $P(n) = P(n-1) + \text{something}$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
okay
ohh ok got it
is it (3(1) - 2) = n ( 3(1) -1)/2
set the function like they do
you left out an n lol
3k - 2 = k(3k -1) /2
yes
where do i put the k + 1
$3k - 2 = \frac{k(3k - 1)}{2}$
wait actually no
take a look at the expression
the left hand side does not only have $3k - 2$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
they have more expressions
1 + 4 + 7 + ... + 3k-2 = k(3k-1)/2
now that's correct
let $P(n)$ be $1 + 4 + 7 + ... + 3n-2$
ok
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
now to the gritty
so $P(k)$ is this
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
you remember this?
i am TRYING to prove P(K) = 3n - 2
no no no no no no n o no no
oh
you need to prove $P(k + 1) = \frac{(k + 1)(3(k + 1) - 1)}{2}$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
or simplify it: $P(k + 1) = \frac{(k + 1)(3k + 2)}{2}$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
oh you actually know the notations
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
ok got it
what's $P(k)$?
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
ok
you just substituted $k$ in
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
3k - 2?
this is $P(k)$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
1 + 4 + 7 + ... + 3k-2 = k(3k-1)/2
k(3k-1)/2
this one is P(k)
so that you can substitute in here
yeah basically
the LHS is too complicated
so you stick with the RHS so it's easier to work with
the LHS is to turn into P(k)
k ( 3k - 1) / 2 + (3k -2) / 2
try bringing to the same denominator
wait wait
well shit
you multiply by 2/2, not 1/2 XD
k ( 3k - 1) / 2 + 2(3k -2) / 2
$\frac{k(3k - 1)}{2} + \frac{2(3k - 2)}{2}$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
ye
u can just add a two
that's basically multiplying by 1
fair
notice that 2/2 = 1
so i multiplied with a 1
k(3k - 1)(3k -2) / 2
wait wait
did i mess u
too quick
ok
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
and try to work around with this
so from there
2k (3k -1) (3k -2)?
idk from this step do i use my brackets and multiply
yea
so you can seperate $2(3k - 2) = 2(3k - 1 - 1) = 2(3k - 1) - 2$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
pulling the -1 out of the bracket
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
correct
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
2 ( 3k - 1) 2 ( 3k -2)?
wait a moment
alr
ok im back
needed an orange talk to me
remember our target is to turn into this
we are here
but we want to turn into this
so i think we should find a way to get the 3k + 2 factor
ok u mentioned 3k - 2 is the same as 3k -1 -1
,w simplify k(3k - 1) + 2(3k - 2)
wait
i think i calculated wrong or smth
ok phew
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
of $P(k + 1)$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
it should be like this
not this
so k(3k -1) / 2 + 3(k+1) -2?
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
the next term is $3(k + 1) - 2$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
NOT $3k - 2$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
ok lets simplify
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
so k(3k -1) / 2 + 2 (3(k+1) -2/2?
i just did the magic thing for you lol
for the right term, the parentheses looks yucky
yeah
now for $k(3k - 1) + 2(3(k + 1) - 2)$
hold on
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
(3k + 1) -2)?
that looks kinda yucky 🤮
yes
$3(k + 1) - 2$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
not $(3k + 1) - 2$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
so anyways $3(k + 1) - 2$ can be simplified
can you do it?
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
(k + 1)
yes for sure
so what does this look like?
k(3k -1) + (3k + 1) / 2
where's the 2
good?
whatever
now we simplify?
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
this is what we want right?
notice that we want to have a $3k + 2$ factor in the fraction
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
and there are $3k - 1$ and $3k + 1$
.
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
so what do we do with them
yes
this gives u 3k + 2?
i am a bit overworked but u helped a lot i will take this info and in this channel and go from there im kinda sleepy thank you so much
ima find my methodology
$3k - 1 = 3k + 2 - 3$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
do you see it now
same for $3k + 1$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
try it
and just like what i told you here
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Find the average number of people who picked any particular number. I am trying to understand what this means for a programming problem.
There are 10000 people who picked a four digit number from 0000 to 9999
Does it mean I need to find the unique numbers then divide the people by that?
is it not just 1...
thats why im confused lol
I think it means to find the number of unique entries and then use that to see how many people on average picked a number
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P is a randomly chosen dot that can be inside or outside of the rectangle ABCD
how can i prove it ?
@plain coral Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
hint is it has something to do with the fact ABCD is a rectangle
@plain coral Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
What is the problem?
.
i want the proof of the equation
Let me check it out.
Maybe try congruency?
“Hey, I was checking that equality you posted:
𝑃A^2 +𝑃C^2 =𝑃B^2 +𝑃A^2
, and in general it doesn't hold. It only works if the diagonals of the quadrilateral are perpendicular. If they aren't,
i saw it in a book
and
PB^2 + PD^2 *
i also got the resault that it would be ez to proof if they were perpendicular
but the book says it works for every rectangle
Yes, but the diagonals have to be perpendicular to each other.
If they are perpendicular everything is perfect
so u mean the book is wrong here ?
Since it is a rectangle there is actually a 90 degree angle so they would be perpendicular
what
So you make some sense.
@plain coral try dropping perpendiculars
from P onto the sides / their projections
assume some lengths, you should see stuff cancel when you pythagoras and add
That's what I said
no
what
you first refuted the question by saying that it holds only if diagonals of quadrilaterals are perpendiculae to each other
that does not equal dropping perpendicular
Well, I'll let you check it out then.
@plain coral any progress?
U mean something like this?
Is AE^2 = BF^2 ?
And the same for CF and DE ?
If AE^2 = BF^2 and CF^2 = DE^2 then it's solved
@inner swift
Ok so im guessing youre done then?
yea ig
Well you can close the channel if you dont have any other questions
.close
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did i do this correctly:
By u' and v' you mean the gradient?
yes
Ok the quotient rule is valid for gradients so that's fine
do you know if the final answer okay? I didn't think id be able to solve for w because there are so many vectors and matrix division isn't defined
@light hawk Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
@light hawk Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
@light hawk Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
my recommendation is
to write
$$\langle w^\top C w \rangle = \langle w, w \rangle_C$$
$$w^\top w = \langle w, w \rangle$$
and calculate the quotient rule , relying on the produt rule, without ever writing down the letter "C". once you get the answer, you can plug C back in
gfauxpas
I think it will be easier that way
C is a constant matrix I am assuming
if C varies with time its a bit more complex
but not much
so does this mean the method i used is wrong?
idk, but it's too long for me to want to check
and annoying to read with all the symbols
ok. im trying to understand, does this mean set u = <w, w>c,
v = <w, w>?
no, it's just another notaztion for multiplying
I just would rather not deal with "C" as a variable at all, it makes it easier to see your work
it's like how in calc i we sometimes introduced variables to make the chain rule cleaner, remember?
D_x [ sin(log(x+1))] = D_x [ g(u(v))] = dg/du du/dv dv/dx
also I see I made a typo
I meant
$$w^\top C w = \langle w, Cw \rangle$$
gfauxpas
gfauxpas
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so i have k(x) -|-2x + 1|/2 + 5
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use definition of absolute value function
,tex .abs def
riemann
x >/ 0
because its absolute value
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why is this wrong
here is my work
<@&286206848099549185>
wait
nvm lol
silly billy me i plugged in wrong pts
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✅ Original question: #help-19 message
do yk what the goal is?
of?
the problem 😭
i would too 😭
dont pmo
i do want help from someone who knows what they're doing
ik what im doing

i did that
what would df/dx be
i got fx = 2x
yes
and fy = 14y
i did that also
yes
and then i plugged in theta
so itd be x root 3
society
sorry for being an ass 😔 i lowk thought you were boutta troll me
yea idk what the need to be rude was
maybe
got u
for this one, how do i know which direction is increases the most rapidly?
well what are u thinking rn
well we're looking for a direction right
yeah
i got fx and fy
well nto check
plug in poiin ts
plug in the point
into dfdx
and dfdy
youll get
(-10,-11) im pretty sure
yeah
so then u want to find the magnitude
oki
tell me what u get alr
sqrt(221)
no
well the direction will always be the gradient vector right
so gradient gives direction
what do u think mag of the gradient gives us
@umbral epoch
well im inclined to say direction of most rapid increase 
thats what the gradient vector gives us
i dont understand it conceptually but i will remember
alr so gradient gives us direction of maximum increase
magnitude gives u the rate of that maximum increase
does that make any sense?
does it actually 😭
yk what the gradient represents right
or yk what a vector is right
bro yes ik what a vector is
yea what qualities does a vector possess

direction and what else
i know what a vector is
what is the point of the question evidently ik what vectors are
well the problem was asking for a vector
stemming from the point (-3,4)
on the curve f(x,y)
why is this incorrect
i got fx = y(1/1+(y/x)^2)
and fy = (1/x)(1/1+(y/x)^2)
@mystic saffron
how
yk what the derivative of arctan is...
yea
how did you get fx tho
the question is at p(-6,6) now