#help-19
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yes
mk, now that u know the area formula, find the area in another way
Uhm okay
use the hypotenuse this time
Idk what to do
Do u know the other formula for finding area of a triangle using base and height
Wdym?
Did u know this?
Can u identify the height and base of the triangle ABC
15 n 12?
Which is which
15 base 12 height
hm
But height isnt 12
9?
Sorry it isnt
Anyway
U already used the perpendicular and base for first one
So u should use the hypotenuse as base and the height on hypotenuse as height
So which one is ur height
Not right yet
Idk that where I’m confused
Alr height is the perpendicular on ur base
Yes
12?
Nope
Alr
Cuz it is perpendicular on base BC
YES
So can u use the formula (1/2)bh here
1/215ad
Careful with the bracs
Otherwise yea
👍
And u found the area of the triangle before right?
7.5ad?
Yes but like like the one u found at the very beginning with Frances
Yep
Alr so can we say that this equals to 54
now do I set equal?
Exactly
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looking at ii), and the answer key, my question is, if I have 2 linear transformations T(x) and I(x), will (T+I)x be the same as T(x) + I(x)?
yes
why is this the case
addition is defined pointwise for function vector spaces 
that's really all it is

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Hey, how did they get the values for $P(A \cap ( B \cup C))$?
the .04+.05+.03
Do u know how union and intersection works
@neat scaffold Has your question been resolved?
yes
So can u mark BUC
Yes
How about A intersection (BUC)
And that part contains the following 0.4,0.3 and 0.5
is there another way to solve this without the ven diagram?
Yeah lengthier way
yeah, I was trying to use properties of set but that didn't get me anywhere
Using P(MUN)=P(M)+P(N)-P(M (Intersection) N)
Wait i m missing
Stuffs
Lemme edit
yeah inclusion-exclusion?
Oh what does that mean
Sorry cuz i m not well familiarized with terms
Alr now that i think abt it idk which formula to use to crack the intersection
this is what I was thinking
but yeah idk about intersection
anyway, appreciate the help
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Oh yea ik that one but well it doesnt seem to be of help
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While reading the following passage in book, I tried to practice the rewrite myself.
While trying it out, I got to a step where I'm not sure how to proceed. Namely, how to decide on which side of the parenthesis to place the common factor. Since, in this case, this is a matrix-vector multiplication, the order matters. Placing the vector on the right side of the matrix is the ideal position, but what is that choice based on? See the following image.
At the second line, I can either go with the left or the right version; but, what criteria do I base that choice on?
You're saying, if you place it on the left just transpose the vector?
left one.
I mean it's gonna be the same result in a way but convention is the left one
e is on the right of A. That doesn't change even after factoring.
If you try the one on the right, the matrix wont be compatible with the vector (ie. row vs column vector). Or if it is, then you're using the equivilant row vector, which is still fine
Like let M be nxn, then e mist be nx1 (ie. a column vector), in which case you go with the one on the left
I like this answer. It makes sense to me.
Ok, I see it, now. In both factors, it was on the right of the matrices, and so it remains there when factored out.
Thanks all
🙂
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is there anyway to simplify this further? I can't really think of any
!show
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
It looks extremely dubious, check again
U can combine fractions
If I’m right, u can factor 1+cosx out
And things will cancel
what about it?
how did this turn into 1+cos sin underneath
I'm not sure what you mean
i know you meant to multiply the second fraction by sin(u) to equalize denominators
oh
It looks much clearer now
How so
Have u combined the fractions
Hey
yo
I’m new on here
Let’s move to #discussion
Ok
U combined the fractions wrong
so far so good?
No
whats wrong
What is (1+cosx)(1+cosx)
ummm
The thing has the same denominator
So u can combine the two fractions together
is it not this?
What is (1+cosx)(1+cosx)
No
(edited)
k
u^2
Good
So (1+cosx)(1+cosx) = (1+cosx)^2
Right?
The squaring is done to the bracket
Not just cosx
ohhhh
wait thats what I wrote the first time though I just coppied it wrong by accident
Okie
With this information, could u simplify it
Yup
which
=
which is fully simplified
nvm no its not
I still have to distribute
No
Yes
no as in this isn't a true statment?
or no as in its not fully simplified
It’s not the correct simplification
No
we can cancel
bruh
.
whoa whoa i don't think we can do that
aa+bb / ab can't be canceled as if they were factors
.
is this right?
No
@errant plank Has your question been resolved?
bruh
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How to find the general solution ive shown my work
consult the unit circle?
oh
could there be two solutions?
since
cos(x)=-1/2
could be
in
two different quadrants
If it’s general there is infinite
what does general solution mean
oh
wait
I think I know what its talking about
is it talking about k?
Yeah the from θ+2πk
But first off try finding when
cosθ= -1/2 in (0,2π]
isn't there a shortcut for general solution? Just use that
Wait I'll fetch it for ya
wdym for (0,2pi)
The answer is in angles or radians ?
Yes
From 0 to 2pi
Same idea I had in mind
Find where cosθ= -1/2 if theta is in 0 to 2pi then you can generalize the solutions
2pi/3
First the solution is in the fourth quadrant
It’s cosθ= -1/2
Cos negative in fourth quadrant
thats
U sure ?
It’s alright
so is it 2pi/3
That’s one there is another sol in QIII
Pi minus pi/3
2pi/3 is solution 1
For another time try not memorizing at least understand why somethings are, use reference angles
i think it was 4pi/3
Ok know for the general form
so we have two solutions
Do you know the periodicity of cosine and sine is ?
what does periodicity mean
How the values reoccur
The amt it takes to repaet
It’s a circle
Where if you walk 2π distance you’ll still be on the same position you were in
oh
so for sine and cosine the periodicity is 2π every 2π you’ll do it’ll give you the same value
yeah
2π/3 +6π/3=8π/3
And for integer multiples of 2π
where did you get those numbers?
In other words
2π/3 +2πk
uh where did you get this
I understand where you got 2pi/3
but where did you get 6pi/3
That’s 2π
No it's 2pi
No listen
2pi is the time it takes to become same
Sin0 is 0
What is sin2pi
Cos0 is 1
What is cos2pi?
Do u get it?
I’ll leave it to you @granite bridge a little busy atm
No big deal, thank you
I mean in degrees
You can convert it to radians later
yeah I understand that
The thing is trig functions repeat values as you turn multiple times around that circle
I was confused why you guys changed 2pi to 6pi/3
is it to make the addition
easier
If I had my notebook id show u the theory but I don't
So I'll explain
Basically costgeta was -1/2. So you had to consider both general and particular solutions
First pi minus pi by 6 to get 2pi/6 cuz that's the first one
(I'll explain from the start, hope you don't mind)
yeah i dont mind
Then after that though, we have to account for the general solution
The general solution for cos theta
Is 2n times pi plus or minus your angle
Here it was pi/6
But this was if theta was positive, here its more like
pi+- pi/6
So you get it???
yeah
This shortcut I did works only if cos is positive, so u modify it to make it negative
You can try putting it in the formula 2n pi plus or minus pi/6
What do you see?
cos is........ 1/2
But from our original Q, it was -1/2, so it became pi plus or minus so as for cos to enter the second or three third quadrant where cos is neg
I hope I'm clear enough
Any questions, dear?
uhh i dont think so
Glad to know🙏
this?
The domain of cos is zero to pi, and two by three times pi is in the domain, so it works
It means k is an integer
which is true i think
Think what the expression means
He means after every rotation, were adding 2pi/3
Which is fine. What I meant with my shortcut was that
After every half rotation, I'm adding or subtracting pi/3
Both are the same
It's just worded differently
so it has to be an integer
YES! THATS WHY ITS NOT A FRACTION
Nice one!!!
😭🙏
also u called me dear but im a dude and im in highschool too 😭
You're doing well for someone who's just been introduced to trig
yeah im doing alg 2 trig over the summer with no teachers
My teacher used to do it to me
You should try khan academy or the org chem tutor for this
so would the answer be 2pi/3+2pik , k E Z
Yes
That would be it. If the option has many angles in each, then put in done values of k and see which one satisfies
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,rccw
How do i determine when i shud use cross or dot product
In this case, since I am asked to find the angle, I will use dot product
Well sin also gives angle isnt it?
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that's for finding the angle between a line and a plane
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what is your doubt
do you need help sir
,help
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Is this first case of the proof correct ?
what other case is there
infinite limit?
ok I guess
@manic grail Has your question been resolved?
Thats another question i had
If we say lim f(x) >0
Does it going to infinity count ?
id say depends on context
in calculus no, in analysis yes
you tell me
exactly my point
I dont understand what the course has to do with it
Isnt math supposed to be true in any course
convention, thats all
Oh
yes i would
Alr

know the definition?
i put them up on proofwiki years back so i know theyre there
infinite limits
I know it but there is a problem
I am just using this book to prove all theorems on limits and continiouty with ε,δ
But i havent got to limits going to infinity in proofs
right that's why I'm aksing if you need a definition
and looks like someone renamed the proofwiki page
So I don't have an idea of how i would say for every Μ there is δ>0 so that if 0< |x-xo| <δ then f(x)>Μ
Ik the definition
Idk how proofs work for these type of limits
Like how would i prove |1/x| has limit infinity at 0
Thats the only issue but ig for this theorem might be easier wait lemme do it
Wanted to think about it when i got to infinite limits
Anyways lemme do this for the theorem
And ill send my work to se if done correctly
do it for 1/x^2 then
there's also a theorem you can use
proof is finicky but not conceptually difficult
yup, thats all you need
you know the sequential characterization of limits? it's often easier
but they dont teach it until calc ii
but its not difficult
Probably
Can you show it idk names in English most of the time sorry
You mean the definition?
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✅
hi
lim x->c f(x)=L if and only if f(x_n)->L for all sequences x_n->c
i'm from brazil and i trying to study math in english
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What does f(x_n)-> L mean
the limit of the sequence f(x_n) goes to l as n->infinity
i'm a proggramer
Real
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I know it the other way around
Go to #help-13
I think
Why would this be the case for all sequances
What if a sequence converges to 0
f(0) doesnt have to be L
Huh?
for all sequences xn to c
all sequences that go to c
it replaces "arbitrarily close" with "for sufficiently high terms in a sequence"
conceptually
Oh
Isnt this just a substitution
You just sub in x_n to x
And find the new limit
what
Its just a substitution to the starting limit
Let x= x_n
Then x_no = lim x-> c x = c
So its lim x_n -> c f(x_n)
@amber veldt
I have a theorem that says if f,g have a limit at xo and f(x) <= g(x) near xo then lim f(x) <= lim g(x) at xo
Does this include if the limits are infinite
Can one limit be bigger than another even if they both go to infinity
no
there is such a thing as "some infinities are bigger than others" with you deal with cardinalities of sets
but not with limits like this
good question though
wait but
your question written and your written in words are different @manic grail
you can say +infinity <= +infty in analysis
What's the difference
Oh =
So theorem stands for infinite limits aswell
?
So that means that all limits going to infinity equal
So... yes*
*usually; but you often have to verify this
Well because we define an infinite limit slightly differently to a finite limit
So if lim f= oo and lim g = oo then oo = oo => lim f = lim g
A limit going to infinity doesn't really represent an "infinity" per se
All it says is that the bigger the input gets, the bigger the function gets with no upper bound
even in analysis, where we're more comfortable with the infinity symbol, it's more of a legal fiction
than an actual number
It characterizes the behaviour of a function, not really anything related to what we usually mean when we talk about "infinity"
You can simply think of "this infinity" as sup(R), if a limit tends to sup(R) there exists no real number that bounds it above
Yeah
How can you write sup(R)
There isnt a bound
Infinity is a concept not a number
so you can think of R as any seq...
Of course, we simply define an element like that and represent it as "infinity"
suprema aren't necessarily bounds
we don't define them quite the same
Suprema is liturately the upper bound no?
It's more of a convenient thing than anything else
Infinity is a new element that we have to adjoin to the real numbers, which is definitionally greater than every real number.
The least such element
as I said, it's more of a legal fiction
forget supremum that's confusing and irrelevant here
like joining blockbuster just becasue you want a 10% off the vhs rental even if you never go to blockuster again after that one time
youre still a member of blockbuster
Yes
Legal fiction?
What does that mean
we invent that shit
just realized that the student might not be old enough to even understand the reference ...
yes
it means we create a definition in order for the law to be a certain way
for example
we might want an organization to be tax exempt
so we turn it into a religion by some technicality
Look, think of it like this, consider the set R of real numbers
Say we want to "create" a new element that satisfies the property that any chosen y in R is lesser than it, say this element is x
it's a convenience, not a fundamental truth
Then, define a new set by RU{x}, that is, the real numbers with this element we literally made up
it's easier to say "all monotic sequences have a limit" than to say "all monotic sequences that are bounded have a limit and if they're unbounded they have behavior similar to a limit but kind of not"
-# you know that's how televangelists get away with shit
Your limit as x goes to infinity would be the input of a function f on the x we defined over that set
these are crazy
Maybe this also helps clarify something:
The cardinality of the naturals/integers/rationals and the cardinality of the reals are different "sizes of infinity", yes.
But these are a completely different concept with a different purpose relative to the symbol ∞ that we use in analysis, which is (as it's been said) a useful fiction that allows us to talk about "forever" or "approaching" behavior
We invented infinity, so to speak
We lie and describe this like a number for the sake of convenience, but the underlying implication is this
It's a number in the sense that it's an element we adjoin to the reals and endow with behavior under addition and multiplication, but it also breaks a lot of algebraic structure that we want to see if we're going to call something a number
On a more pragmatic note as well, unless you're studying measure theory, topology or set theory, you won't encounter explicit treatment of "infinities of different sizes", so whenever something like this shows up, think of it like a convention to denote a nonexistent upper bound
i mean saying we "invent" something is a bit philosophical and invites questions like "is mathematics invented or discovered" which clearly belongs in philosophy server not math
Unlike a counting number this "number" has certain properties we need to take care of if we want to treat this like a number
well shit we all philosophers in this mine
Without infinity, the real numbers form a field. We like fields, they "behave well" and we can do linear algebra and stuff. With infinity, you have like a semigroup at most or something lol
The best you can get I think is like a loop if you identify +infinity with -infinity
This is all for the purpose of helping the guy get intuition
iirc
I'm not trying to abduct him into the logicist sect
but the asker perhaps doesn't need all of this, for example he asks this
Sure, just explaining why we generally don't consider infinity a number
maybe it's enough to stop at we define the limit approaching a number and the limit approaching infinity differently
@manic grail Has your question been resolved?
thats semantics
maths is basically just based on axioms and definitions definition is just saying what the thing we write means/represents
was your question answered
yeah
But that's not a very interesting observation tbh, it's a bit like saying that any real number subtracted from itself is 0, therefore a-a always equals b-b
but yes there is only one infinity in the context of analysis
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Pretty sure that isn't allowed
we dont do problems for you
offering to exchange money for completion of work
or vice versa
<@&268886789983436800>
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b&
Thanks rocket
all cheating must be done for free
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Exercise 1.2.7(c) In Abbott’s Analysis. There was already a counterexample showing why g(A)intersectg(B) is not necessarily a subset of g(AintersectB). However, I was considering the train of thought used in the solutions manual (first pdf online) for 1.2.9 b and saw that you can write
xEg(A)Ug(B), and there are preimages for each, so we write g“inverse”, not really inverseE(A)intersection(B), then take g again to obtain xEg(AintersectB). Clearly there is some flaw in the reasoning, but its not clear where. What is the flaw?
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is there a reason why there isn't a "oneths" place behind a decimal point in math?
what is oneths?
units but for unitths idk english isn't my main
but why isn't their a one units for the other side
because its the same as the units place
0.6168 = 0 * 10^0 + 6 * 10^-1 + 1 * 10^-2 + others
the 6 is called the "tenth" because its divided by 10
hundredth: divided by 100
if you want a "oneth", you divide it by 1
but thats the units place
does it affect it at all?
affect what
Understanding Decimals
why would it
I was just asking because I didn't see any of them while trying to study for it
and I'm kind of new to this
the "oneths" place you asked?
yep
this should help ya
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-(x+2)(x-1)(x-6)<=0
whats the question?
-x-2<=0
-x<=2
x<=-2

usually with these inequalities i make sure that the highest power term is positive in the expansion
well they gave me a graph
but yeah
after mutliplying with -1
i got
x>=-2 x>=1 or x>=6
it is the same as $(x+2)(x-1)(x-6)>=0$
ImOakley
but apparantly the correct answer is
in any polynomial the final leg is going up if the highest power is positive
-2<=x<=1 and x>=6
yeah no that's not how you gotta do it
remember how you can make a product of 4 things negative
(I'm counting the -1 coeff as a term)
negative * negative makes a positive
so to get a product of 4 things negative, you need an odd amount of the coefficients negative
so
if you have three negative terms for example
it will be (positive) * (negative) * negative * negative = negative
best thing to do in those cases
is to do a sign table
you make a table that registers the exact moments each term is negative, positive or 0
and then to get the sign of the product
idk how to make a table
ive not been taught how to make a table
p(x) = 3(x-2)^2 * (x+3)
well it's a good thing you can learn now
it's not that complicated
starting with the leftmost column
it just sums up all terms that appear in the product we want the sign of
so in our case, we'll put in that column:
-(x+2)
x-1
x-6
and finally we'll place the entire expression
-(x+2)(x-1)(x-6)
brother
yes?

?
I don't understand what's your point
Right now I'm teaching you how to make a table to figure out the sign of -(x+2)(x-1)(x-6)
oh
specifically when it's <= 0 is what interests us
so let's call this p(x) so I have enough space to put it in my table
alr
so to get the sign of p(x) at a particular value of x
all we need is to multiply the signs of each term
so all we need for now, is to get the signs of each term
The top row will serve as a record of the x-axis, and so it'll keep track of every important x value
by that I mean specifically the x values where any term switches signs
let's start with -(x+2), when is it positive, when is it negative, when is it 0
alr
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Whats the difference between a constant and a variable. Like if you write a, as the constant and x as the variable i feel like they both represent the same thing. Becuase you could just as easily display a graph of all the a values as you could with x values
Context is the difference
the"constant" part just means that a stays the same within the problem while the x varies
@proven wigeon I don't think you understand the purpose of the question...
Kinda the question i want to know that becuase a constant still can be almost every number usually
a constant is fixed within a problem
Yeah constant is any number
but variable can vary
if you are given ax+b and a pops up later in the problem, you can be sure that the first a is equal to the second a
but variables can just be unknowns you need to solve
in essence constant doesnt have different values and isnt an unknown
We can actually treat constants as variables and they function the exact same way as variables.
For instance, if we have a problem in physics where we drop an object off of a building, we have y(t) = -g/2 t^2 + y0
stupid projectiles
So in this problem, y0 and g are constant, they are taken from information in the problem, and while we have abstracted away their values here, they are considered constant
Yea but theres a different i think becuase i think d/da (a) either doesnt make sense or is 0 while d/dx (x) is 1 . Dont qoute me on this i was told this im not sure if it is real
While t is considered an independent variable and y is considered a dependent variable.
not real
d/da (a) = 1
Ok
However, we can imagine situations where we allow g or allow y0 to vary, such as examining entire families of problems
So we can treat constants as variables if we have motivation
Sometimes this can be valuable
So truly the only difference is context, as I mentioned before
I think we're making this more confusing than it is
Ima be fr 5 people talking isnt the best XD
@meager juniper you should explain, you were here first
i suggest everyone else leave
I am english tis just my ign
I think he speaks english just well
@karmic stirrup well, if you have a moment to review what I wrote, I will be happy to answer follow up questions. 
I will read what you wrote thoroughly
Then let you know
I understand. If i find constants in calculus like d/da am i able to treat it as a variable?
An example of such a motivation would be if we wanted to find (for instance) a building that would result in the object dropped reaching the ground after 4 seconds. We would allow y0 to vary instead of t, and now y0 is the variable and t is the constant.
Yea that makes sense.
Yeah, absolutely. The fact that you are taking the derivative with respect to it means you are allowing it to vary
Couldent we make the constant a variable if we added another axis to graph it or sm
Exactly.
Ok makes perfect sense now
In fact, this sort of abstract space is called a configuration space
They are very commonly used in physics and engineering.
For instance, I'm a nuclear engineer, and we consider how neutrons travel inside of reactors using the neutron transport equation, which is a differential equation in a 7 dimensional configuration space.
That sounds fun
Did you have any other questions for me?
Realistically, we just use numerical methods on a computer to solve them, which is not quite as interesting.
Yea i mean thats how your gonna do it can visualize 7d that well
What parts do you do for nuclear or do u oversee or sm
I don't work on reactors, I work on detectors mostly.
My favorite isotope is Ta-180m
I love hydrogen +1 charge
So for an isotope, you have a few characteristics that help determine, roughly, how stable an isotope is.
First, is whether or not the number of protons and neutrons are even or odd. Most stable nuclei are even-even, there are fewer even-odd, and odd-even, and fewer still odd-odd.
Second, a nucleus is unlikely to be stable if it is not in its ground state.
There are in fact, only 5 stable odd-odd nuclei: H-2, Li-6, B-10, N-14, and Ta-180m
Ta stands for which
Tantalum, element 73
The m means it's in its first metastable state. So not in its ground state
How stable is it. Like lead or
Wait 74 is my favorite element kinda wiere how their close
In its ground state, Ta-180 decays with a half-life of 8 hours, like any good odd-odd nuclei should
8 hours is plenty of time to move it around
But in its first metastable state, it has never been observed to decay.
Dam
The reason for this is because the decay paths are all forbidden. It can't decay directly to Ta-180m because it would need to simultaneously emit 8 photons, but it only have 70 or so keV excess energy to do so.
And due to some insane fluke of nuclear chemistry it also cannot β decay to tungsten or hafnium
So it really wants to decay but its just hella inconvenient for it to do so
No, lol, but it is possible to have a 2/3 bond between atoms.
Interesting
There are some boron compounds that do this
Diborane(6), commonly known as diborane, is the chemical compound with the formula B2H6. It is a highly toxic, colorless, and pyrophoric gas with a repulsively sweet odor. Given its simple formula, borane is a fundamental boron compound. It has attracted wide attention for its electronic structure. Several of its derivatives are useful reagents.
Are you good with relativity stuff i got a major question ive always needed answered
When you approach a black hole time dialation slows down to infinite. So it would take an observer infinite time to observe you fall into the black hole. But hawking radation says the black hole should decay before an infinite amount of time has passed for you fall into the event horizon
As I understand it, locally it doesn't really matter that it takes you an infinite amount of time to cross the event horizon, you just cross it, and then the direction of time for you stops being a place in the future, but instead a specific point in space.
But, this is definitely not something that we know for certain as a species, and in specific it's also not something that I know entirely.
As far as the black hole evaporating before you enter it, nature doesn't actually deal well with infinities, it is likely that only a finite amount of time will pass before you enter due to some sort of tunneling effect or something.
Actually that makes sense because if you just tunnel over the place of infinite distoration you will be inside without have to actually cross over it
And even if an infinite amount of time passes, it is likely that any black hole large enough will grow faster than hawking radiation forever, and thus has properly infinite life.
@karmic stirrup Has your question been resolved?
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hi
You are right
im not sure if thats what youre asking
because the conclusion is also false i guess as you note so maybe im missing the point
No that's it
I wrote the terms down properly, if I would apply the real part, I would attain exactly what I would get applying the cosine addition formula
The reason I asked this was because I was stuck on an induction proof
but yeah ty
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The passage in a Linear Algebra book mentions how to construct a change-of-basis matrix between two basis B and B'. It shows 2 ways:
The first one is when both bases are orthonormal. Cool.
But, the second one seems to be saying that if the bases are not orthonormal, to make them both orthonormal; unless I'm miss reading it (the blue equation).
That seems to preclude making a change-of-basis matrix between bases that have differently scaled basis vectors. For instance, if the "x" basis of B has 1 unit along the x-axis, but the B' has 2 units in "x", they're both going to be normalized to 1 unit.
In general, the columns of a change-of-basis matrix don't have to normalized. So, I'm not sure what it is that I'm missunderstanding from that definition.
they dont, but if say you want to use the first way and your basis vectors are orthogonal but not orthonormal, you can fix them so that you can use the first way on them
@sage helm Has your question been resolved?
Ok, but that's potentially messing things up, unless (for example) you only care about orientation. So, say in vector space R^2 that axis units are 1w X 1h in basis B, but 1w X 2h in basis B', that type of normalizing change-of-basis is going to clobber that scale of B', no?
@faint knot ^
this is not really how basis vectors or bases are considered
its more of whether the bases can or cant reach a vector in the first place
itd be more of "Im in R^3, and these three basis vectors cant reach all of R^3 because theyre all dependent"
the usual basic linear algebra more cares about the direction of the basis vectors than the size
But, if you're using the basis as a coordinate system, which is almost all the time, doesn't the scale matter then?
well we're not
we're using basis as a vector space
if the coordinates get screwed up then that sucks for the coordinates
not for us really, its still the same vector space
It's still the same vector space, but that doesn't seem to me to be the same vector after the transformation. Because the transform is changing the value of the underlying "abstract vector" to something else, do to the normalization.
Say, something like, the underlying vector is (5, 5) in R^2, but after being normalized it gets changed to (1, 1) in R^2; still pointing in the same direction, but at different scale.
using the basis vectors {(2, 0), (0, 2)}, the vector (3, 4) in this basis would be (1.5, 2)
if the units are twice as large, the coordinates must be twice as small to represent the same vector
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What I'm saying is that if basis B has some orthogonal but not orthonormal vectors, and then the same for B', and B != B' then, when making the change-of-basis matrix, if you normalize both, you loose the relative scale between both basis.
So, in that case, things still point in the same direction, but their scale relative to each other is lost.
vulkanoid you have to recognize that the method theyre giving here cant be the only method that exists
Of course, I understand that.
you can clearly see the method given does not care, that doesnt mean the entirety of linear algebra does not care
just this specific method and most of basic linear algebra
What I'm asking is if my interpretation is correct.
of course? this was never in contention
Ok, then I'm good.
It seems I didn't make my intentions clear, but I wanted to confirm that there was information lost if the second way was adopted.
yes you lose information during this conversion
I was thinking they were going to talk about a different process which can take any n linearly independent vectors and force them to be orthonormal
The author doesn't mention this loss of info. Basically, that there is a trade off when choosing this route. As I was looking info for another related topic, it occurred to me that this was the case, so wanted to confirm I wasn't missunderstanding something.
So, thanks for the info.
🙂
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hi
I need help with this
What have u tried
I tried making it by parts
using shapes like this
im working on yellow shape
why 9 is wrong?
did i do something not right 
@vivid wyvern
fair how i can find the height?
I was thinking of taking different shapes
yellow is wrong
i know
Thas 8
So to get the height u need to deduct 3 as well as 2 from 8
Both
Not 6
The red part and blue parts sum upto 8
And u need to find the red part
U know the values of blue part