#help-19
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Ian are you trolling
Yes I think so
have you learned something f(x) and whats this?
Ikr?
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lmao
what was your answer?
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I cant solve questions 2 n 3
I did more work on two of them but deleted them
This is whats left from my work
Doesn’t make any sense
well
starting from 2nd
sinx/(cosx - cos^2x) = (cosx+1)/(sinxcosx)
is good, but the question is if it leads to something
I'd stay with:
$$\frac{1+ \cos x}{\sin x \cos x}=\frac{\tan x}{1- \cos x}$$
Modus
now cross multiplication
@viscid crest try to proceed?
ah, it's about proving an identity 🥲
then, e.g. if you have a form (1+cosx)/(sinxcosx) you're almost done
divide by cosx and you'll end with:
1/sinx * (1 + 1/cosx) which is what you're looking for
@viscid crest Has your question been resolved?
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Hi. It needs to be calculated. The correct answer is 1. But I can't get the answer 1, I'm at a dead end in solving it.
do you mind showing your work
Yes, now, wait a bit
faiyrose
faiyrose
2/3?
5/3 ?
no
what?
10 and 6 can simple for 2
faiyrose
Do we get 5/3^-1 ?
faiyrose
does the degree of minus 1 mean that I need to divide 5/3 by -1 ?
I don't understand, do I need to add 5/3 and 0.4?
Omg, I'll just get 3/5
faiyrose
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Is the way i proved this valid?
@lone zinc Has your question been resolved?
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you factored wrong at the top
you only took out the 5 from the x, not the 10
you should get (x-2)(x-5) as your factorization
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I dont know how i would approach this
I think i have to use partial fractions but it seems impossible when i look at it
what does your integrla become after the substitution?
This
But then it doesnt make sense bc the degree of the bottom is smaller than the top
Bro…
??
You’re in my help channel
You need to find a different one
mbb
polynomial long division and then partial fractions
lemme double check your substitution, if you let x = u^6 then dx = 6u^5du and your integral becomes 6u^5 du / (u^3 - 3u^2) which simplifies to 6u^3 / (u - 3)
great so you did that right
what is the full result of your long division?
u^3 divided by u - 3
do another substitution it gets so easy
bro do this it’s way easier
The question requires me to express the integrand as a rational fraction
I wouldve done it that way if i could
hi
yeah that looks right to me
that means that u^3 / (u - 3) can be expressed as u^2 + 3u + 9 + 27/(u-3)
you don't even need partial fractions
Hmm
Ok so simplified
u^2 + 3u + 9 + 27/(u-3) = u^2 + 3u + 36/(u-3)
And then just integrate this?
u^2 + 3u + 36/(u-3)
@dawn tiger
no
9 + 27/(u-3) is not the same as 36 / (u-3)
but you would integrate 6 (u^2 + 3u + 9 + 27/(u-3)), yes
And i would do that by splitting the integrals into 2
And adding
After
Then sub u for 6th√x ?
yes so separately integrate term by term and then resubstitute for x
you don't know how to integrate those? it's just power rule and then natural log
the 9 becomes 9u, yes, but 27/(u-3) doesn't integrate to 27u
(u^2 + 3u + 9 + 27)/(u-3)
Thats why i was getting confused
so you can finish the rest of the problem off?
So to clarify the integrand is
u^2 + 3u + 9 + (27/(u-3))
This
@dawn tiger
Brother
Please find an empty help channel
@cold sparrow
Im using this one
please i am in a little hurrry am not here often
yeah
Gl
yes, all of that multiplied by 6, look up top where we pulled the 6 out of the integral
This
yes
looks good to me
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If the independent term of the following
polynomial:
is 23, determine the value of
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how do you create the T symbol
$A^{T}$?
SWR
Oh I see
$A^{\top}$
SWR
that renders differently
$A^{\intercal}$
SWR
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30 children are supposed to line up in 3 rows. How many ways are there to line up?
Shouldn't that just be 30! ?
30 factorial?
Yeah.
If there were 3 students lining up in 3 rows, would the number of ways be 3 factorial?
Yeah or am I stupid? 😂
But you need to permute the 10 people too
My idea was (30C10)(20C10)(10!)(10!)(10!) which ultimately cancels to 30!
Every position is unique
It ends up being 30! I think
Yeah that's what I thought.
Oh!
I wondered this
Good job!
And then I thought "Wouldn't it be the same as if the 30 children just lined up in a single row instead of three" which also leads to 30!
Because the lines need not be the same size
Yeah, you have to arrange WITHIN each selection
But you know
What that also is?
(30P10)(20P10)10!
It’s more of a stars and bars moment I think
Oh I'm dumb. Ignore me
...pretty sure
What exactly is the difference between (30C10) and (30P10)?
C -> order of selection doesn't matter, just what is in the group
P -> selection order does matter
For every arrangement of 30 people, how many ways are there to put 2 bars between them such there there are at least 1 person in each “bin” (or line)
; ordered vs unordered selection
Thank you. 🙂
I doubt an empty line counts as a line
Otherwise putting 30 students in 2 lines would count as putting them in 3 lines
This is only true when there are exactly 10 students in each line
Or exactly some number of students
Imagine 6 students 123456
Can we not treat the three rows as one big row and look at the permutation, therefore 30! ? Or is that wrong?
Confirmed that 30! Same as (30P10)(20P10)10!
12 34 56 and 123 4 56 is the same arrangement of 6! But not the same lines
There definitely should be more than 30! ways
Ah.
I thought I did something wrong because 30! looked way too much to me. 🥲
It’s too little
30! Doesn’t care about where each line starts and ends
But where each line starts and ends very much matters
They count as distinct arrangements of the students
As shown here
Read from here if you haven’t already
I did.
I think we can assume that there should be 10 children in each row.
I don't see how else to solve it tbh.
We can’t
.
I meant in my homework. 😂
Well it doesn’t say there needs to be 10 in each line
It is ridiculous to make such an assumption
Never heard of that one.
.
No idea what that means
Nvm then.
Looking at the wiki article "Stars and bars (combinatorics)" rn, that's why I said theorem one and two. ^^
Oh
Oh...shit. yeah, doesn't say how long each line should be
Who said "stars and bars" earlier?
That would be part of it
@merry finch
We want theorem 1
Theorem 2 is for weak compositions that allow for 0’s
That’ll translate to allowing 0 people in a line to count as a line
We don’t want that
Yes
But 29C2 is not enough because the order matters.
For each arrangement of 30 students in 1 line (30! ways), there are 29 choose 2 ways to cut them into 3 lines with at least 1 student in each line
Yes
That is such a big number man. 😭
Yes it is
Idk I can't imagine it lmao.
Try it with 6
Yeah you're right.
With 6 you can see there’s already hundreds
Maybe trying with the smallest number of students 4
Will make more sense
Let's say there are two students who are in love and want to stand next to each other, how many possibilities do we have then?
Can we just look at them as "one pair"? So that our n becomes 29 instead of 30?
Btw you’re not actually wrong, 30! isn’t correct, although it does line up with the answer for 3 students
Yeah that’s how I’d think about that
* 3 rows of 10
Turn them into a box
You put the 2 students in a box and then now you have 28 students and a box
So 29 students
Oh
But you need to multiply by 2 at the end
But the two can change places with each other, right?
Yeah right.
Because AB and BA is the same box but not the same arrangement for the lines
So we'd get 29! * 28C2 * 2.
Yes
Thank you very much Sir, you are a genius. ❤️
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2/0,06 * 0,532/5,32 * 0,18/0,9
Could someone help me with that?
I find 0,19152/0,28718 when multiplying all, which makes no sense. The answer is just 2/3
I think they do this in Europe, but the , are decimal points, right?
yes
i'm a total newbie in math and just dont know how to solve this :(
0.28728
I'll try and make it simple
tyvm
you lost a 1 somewhere
i mean still the answer is just 2/3
i must have been doing it wrong
Do you know how to convert decimals to fractions?
yes
What about reciprocal?
0.19152/0.28728 is exactly 2/3
i dont know what it means
i might know but
im not learning math in english
you just gotta do divisions first to see it
Like 1/(1/a) = a
it isnt practical to divide 0.19152 to 0.28728
yes
Also that's impressive, what language are you natively learning it in?
Cool, I'll use it
turkish
thank you guys!
im grateful for all the assistance
1/0.03 ×
1/10 ×
0.2
= 0.2 / 0.3
wow wait
it looks way simpler
when visualizing like this
all numbers are just multiplers
but i mean
when multiplying fractions
I decided to not touch the third fraction in case you wanted to try it, but it follows the same style
ty! let me check it
why dont we divide 5,32 to 100? it would give us 532/532 = 1 but i mean when multiplying we only operate between numerators and denominators, right?
so i have no idea why we're doing this here
wasnt that only valid for addition and substraction?
That's valid, and also faster
the only thing
i didnt understand is
we can do it like 532/532 = 1
but afaik
we're only allowed to
do the multiplication
between numerator and denominators
would it still be valid
if we simplificate idk
From this step to the next?
yes, i just dont understand why theres 532/1000 * 10/532
isnt it just 532/532 after the simplification
Yeah, except we can't remove the 10/1000 immediately
i was told that i should just slide comma by the amount of zeros
still confused but im trying to understand it
The sliding the comma works better than what I did
thank you!
What I ended up doing was "proving" the slide-the-comma by expand the fractions and then canceling. So both works, but sliding the comma is faster
i understand
so is this correct?
i was already doing that but
i thought i wasnt allowed to do that in multiplication
but rather only in addition and substraction
Yup
ok i'll try with this now
i still get huge numbers with 7-8 digits, feels like there's a trick for that.
May I see an example?
Yeah, there's a trick
It may actually overshadow the slide-the-comma, but it is usually easier to think with whole numbers instead of decimals
What I did to the bottom fraction was divide the numerator (top of the fraction) and denominator (bottom of the fraction) by 2 because 200/2 and 6/2 are whole numbers
And if you do that for the other two fractions, the numbers become small enough so you can multiply them easily
so simplification
Yeah
i think the second one is 1/10
Yup
the last one is 1/5
Yeah
i get it now
i alrerady do simplification and expanding thingy but
for some reason
i've always thought
im not allowed to do these operations in multiplication
let me try again
thank you very much! @agile crag
i couldnt do that without you
im grateful for that
hope i can learn math extensively
Yeah
Math is filled with neat little tricks like these, many of them are still probably undiscovered even today
math is fascinating for me
a man made, flawless science
so now im closing this
goodbye
.close
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Goodbye
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since $f'(x)=e^x^2, f'(c)=e^c^2$, $xe^c^2=xf'(c)$, but then how to continue
nino
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@heady plover Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185> why noboday checked my q
so you want to show that $f(x) = xf'(x\theta(x))$ for some unique $\theta(x)$
Bungo
where $f(x) = xe^{c^2}$ and $xf'(x\theta(x)) = xe^{x^2 \theta(x)^2}$, so you will have equality if and only if $c^2 = x^2 \theta(x)^2$, or equivalently $\theta(x) = c/x$
Bungo
you have 0 < c < 1, so $0 < \theta(x) < 1$
Bungo
just need to check whether $\theta(x)$ is unique
Bungo
so this assume that c=(x\theta(x))?
wait doesn't it should be 0<c<x
well c is already defined as a function of x, so i'm seeking to find what theta(x) would satisfy that equation
oh yea typo, i meant 0 < c < x
so we assumed that they're equal in order to find theta(x)?
yea that's what i'm doing, seeing if there is a theta(x) that makes it equal
Good, i see it now
then the remaining thing is to check that it's unique
to do that it suffices to show that given x, c is unique
it's not true in general for the mean value theorem, there could be multiple c that work
but in this case it's actually easy to see:
the mean value theorem says as follows:
$\frac{1}{x}\int_0^x e^{t^2},dt = e^{c^2}$ for some $0 < c < x$
Bungo
now the right hand side e^(c^2) is monotonically increasing with c (for positive c)
so in particular it's one to one (injective)
so different values of c give different values of the right hand side
so only one value of c can make the right hand side equal the left hand side
yw, cheers
.close
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I really need someone to help me understan this
Idk why they want to show that \bar a1 \bar a2>=a1a2? this seems completely unrelated to GM-AM equality
if you repeat this exact process multiple times, you can prove that the geometric mean is smaller than the arithematic mean
and this could be done by a proof by induction
found this proof online
Thank you ! but still confused, what's the point of making \bar a1 and \bar a2?
bar a1 and bar a2 are the arithematic means A_1 and A_2
\bar a2 means A2?
so idk why they assume \bar a1 \bar a2 like this
I don't see any meaning or regularities in such assumption
<@&286206848099549185>
ok so consider a case where all of a_1...a_n are the same
clearly, we have A_n = G_n = a_1 = ... = a_n
now what we will do, is we're gonna change a_1 and a_2 slightly while keeping the arithmetic mean the same. Clearly, this means we subtract a little from a_1, and add the remainder to a_2.
now we want to define two more numbers, we have \bar{a}_1 = A_n, \bar{a}_2 = a_1 + a_2 - A_n. We will note that \bar{a}_1 + \bar{a}_2 = a_1 + a_2.
in particular, this means that the arithmetic means of a_1, a_2 and \bar{a}_1, \bar{a}_2 are the same
subtract a little from a_1, and add the remainder to a_2 ? Btw why do we keep AM the same instead of keeping GM the same?
it's easier to show that changing a sequence while keeping the AM the same must decrease the GM
than the other way around
that's really what we're trying to do here; we are trying to show that given a sequence with equal AM and GM, any change to the sequence which keeps the AM the same must make the GM decrease
other than if one of them is like negative but we assume this isn't the case
So bar a2 means subtract bar a1 from the AM of a1 a2 ?
no, it means what they said it means
I think i really need an example
I'm too dumb to understand this just by words
why do we must keep AM the same
take a_1 = 2, a_2 = 4. Compute \bar{a}_1 and \bar{a}_2
\bar{a}_1 = A_n = 3
\bar{a}_2 = a_1 + a_2 - A_n = 2 + 4 - 3 = 3
So, for a_1 = 2 and a_2 = 4, we have \bar{a}_1 = 3 and \bar{a}_2 = 3.
The basic course of this proof is that we have a given sequence, and we show that we can increase the Geometric mean until it is equal to the arithmetic mean, while keeping the AM the same
this means that the AM must have been greater than the geometric mean to begin with
does that make sense? It's a bit of a weird and subtle proof
to be noted is that we have kept the arithmetic mean mean the same, while the geometric mean has increased. Infact, they are now equal. This means that the geometric mean used to be lower and the arithmetic mean was not, which means that the arithmetic mean was higher than the geometric mean
we can keep doing this, for pairs a_i,a_j where a_i < A_n < a_j. We replace one element with A_n and another with the corresponding term needed to keep the AM the same. We note that all these replacements increase the GM while keeping the AM the same.
after n-1 such replacements, we will have replaced every single element with the arithmetic mean. At this point, A_n = G_n, but up to now A_n was constant and G_n was increasing, meaning that G_n was lower than A_n
the only sequences which we can't do this trick on to keep A_n the same and increase G_n are ones where all the terms are the same, whence A_n = G_n
@heady plover Has your question been resolved?
Thank you, Lemme diggest a bit
I'm too dumb
@heady plover Has your question been resolved?
It's ok, if you're not used to this sort of proof it is very strange
Does this proof have a formal name?
I don't know of one

Thank you....I just tried to find out if i can visuallize this proof
why any change to the sequence which keeps the AM the same must make the GM decrease ?
it doesn't, this was never claimed
Can you help me check if i understand it correctly ?
all this is correct. If we increased the GM by changing the sequence without changing the AM, and now they're equal, what can we conclude about the AM wrt to GM for the sequence?
the arithmetic mean is always greater than or equal to the geometric mean
well it couldn't have been equal, because the GM just got bigger and now they're equal
yeah
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quick question
let's say you don't know the taylor series for the sine
how would you derive it given only the geometric definition
well you would start by finding its sequential derivatives (squeeze theorem for the first derivative and then it's easy)
ah i see
and then you would use taylor-lagrange formula with integral remainder
and show that the integral remainder goes to 0 when you add more terms
once we have the derivatives we can use the taylor formula. but the big problem is proving that the derivative of the sine is the cosine
sin(x)/x goes to 1
and (cos(x)-1)/x goes to 0
those are from the squeeze theorem geometrically
then focusing around a point "a"
(sin(a+h)-sin(a))/h
sin(a+b) formula
it's sin(a)*(cos(h)-1)/h + cos(a) sin(h)/h
boom limit is cos(a)
same thing for (cos(a+h)-cos(a))/h
limit is -sin(a)
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i'm confused, how do i know if those two curves intersect?
If there's a solution when you set them equal to each other
For example 2x^2+1 and 4x^2+3 don't intersect because no real value of x makes them equal
That is, if $Ax^2+B=Cx^2+D$ has a solution
nameless individual
ah so they intersect if both equations are equal? okay thanks
u learn new stuff everyday
.close
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Uh not quite but ok
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Hello guys
Just one question:
If X and Y are negative numbers, which of the following is negative:
a) xy
b) x+y
c)x/y
x+y
two negative numbers when multiplied by each other or divided by each other always result in a positive number
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q29
<@&286206848099549185>
What is that
its q29 only
its okayy
bro is NOT gonna get helped 😰🤓
ping me whoever wants to help
😹😹😹 ima ask my sir
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<@&286206848099549185> is this step I've circled crucial for solving this? I prefer it without since I already know the answer (I'm relearning Algebra 💀 )
umm
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crucial no
My bad, I didn't know
x^8+9=x^8 * x^9
if you don't need it, you don't have to write it
its fine
I think
it's clear for most people reading it
include it if the teacher would otherwise dock marks
x^8+x^9=x^17
Ah alright
If express it with dot, make the dot clear.
(and preferablly bigger)
so the teacher can tell
Alright, thank you
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Hello
Anyone here knows how to do double entry or make t account?
@stuck hare Has your question been resolved?
all the terms have an x, factor it out, it forms a quadratic, use the quadratic formula or the factoring method to determine the real and complex roots
$126x-3x^2-3x^3 = -3x^3-3x^2+126x = 3x(-x^2-x+42)$
Set this equal to 0: $3x(-x^2-x+42) = 0$
Now use the quadratic formula, as recalled to be $ax^2 + bx + c = 0 \implies x = \frac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^2-4ac}}{2a}$
Now that we know what x is equal to, flip the sign to turn it into a factor, assume our x's here are some d and -e, our factors become $(x-d), (x+e)$
The Cat Collective
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recall factored form of a polynomial
i had
a (x+2)^2(x-3)(x-1)-4
i know its a reflected 4th degree
so the leading cof will be negative
not sure if i made a mistake somewhere
why -4?
yes but in expanded form
so what do i do with it when its not expanded? leave it out
it's unnecessary adding (subtracting) a constant term in this case
okay so do i solve for a without the -6?
but the y-intercept might be useful
did i get it right factored?
yes (x+2)^2(x-3)(x-1) is valid
watch your signs
is that the final factored form? do i not add the a to solve for the leading coefficient
yes you need the a
let me try
im getting a negative half?
seems right
yup -1/2 seems correct
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Hello! How can I find the rest from dividing a polynomial to another of the form (x-a)^n where n takes values such as 1,2 or even 3
Please don't occupy multiple help channels.
I know how to do it for n=1
But for a higher grade it gets a bit harder
And so, I was wondering if there is a technique
I know Bezout's theorem
And I know how to divide two polynomials, but, let's say we have a trickier one
Let's say x^10 or something
well, think about derivatives
if for example we have a polynomial P(x)
when dividing by (x-a) we can write down:
P(x) = (x-a)Q(x) + R(x)
where R is just a constant in this case
P(a) = R(a) = R
(remainder theorem)
when dividing by (x-a)^2 we can write down:
P(x) = (x-a)^2 * Q(x) + R(x)
where R(x) is a linear function let's say mx + b
then:
P(x) = (x-a)^2 * Q(x) + mx + b
P(a) = m * a + b
P'(x) = 2 * (x-a)Q(x) + (x-a)^2 * Q'(x) + m
P'(a) = m
and therefore we can obtain:
P(a) = P'(a) * a + b
B = P(a) - P'(a) * a
come back to R(x), finally:
R(x) = mx + b = P'(a) * x + P(a) - P'(a) * a
and same thing can be done when dividing by (x-a)^n for higher n's
I see, I see
Indeed, while it is a good method, I don't find it as efficient for very high powers of n, but in some cases maybe you can work it out with induction
Thank you, I didn't know of this method
well, I don't think it would be useful for higher powers
Yes, I was thinking there may be some kind of formula for such types of divizions
But this method is great
Thank you!
Have a good night<3
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I need help with mathlab, I have this problem to solve but I am not familiar with the program
is this matlab?
im supposed to use the program to do the exercise
but since I have no experince with it im finding difficult to do the operations
yes
word, matlab is a weird "language" ig. but its arrays are just x=[1 2; ....]
spaces move you down the row, ; for down the columns ig
looks like its just creating an array full of those two mean values, but im not super familiar with it
This MATLAB function returns an array containing n copies of A in the row and column dimensions.
gotcha
another question if u know by any chance
any idea where this 7 comes from?
well its n-1 but idk where that n comes from, maybe number of entries?
if thats attached to the original problem we have 8 vectors so ig that fits
make sense
sorry if I just copy paste like that but the instructor is just bad...
ty for the help tho!
no problem 🙂
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Find a basis for the subspace H when $H = Sp(\vec{a_1}, \vec{a_2}, \vec{a_3})$, with $\vec{a_1} = (1, -2, 1), \vec{a_2} = (2,-1,3), \vec{a_3} = (-1,-1,-2)$
Michael
The solution is: "For example $\vec{a_1}$ and $\vec{a_2}$"
Michael
But why isn't it all three? Don't you need all three vectors to make the subspace?
If I row reduce the matrix containing the vectors I get the identity matrix (if I did it correctly), so doesn't that mean they're linearly independent -> can form a basis?
You rref'd it wrong
for it to be a basis, they all need to lineary independant
or find the lineray indepdant ones
@warm moat Has your question been resolved?
ah welp, probably should've checked that ._.
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can someone help me better understand the explanation he gives at 6:30?
why do the terms from f''(a) onwards just disappear?
P(x) = f(a) + f'(a)(x-a) + f''(a)(x-a)/2! ...
so P(a) = f(a) + f'(a)(a-a) + f''(a) (a-a)/2!... = f(a)
thus, P(a)-f(a) = 0
that I understood
but how does f'(a) = p'(a), f''(a) = p''(a), etc. ?
this is what i cant wrap my head around
its just the product rule actually i think
makes more sense
thanks
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oh, wouldn't it just be the power rule?
(f'(a)(x-a)^2)/2! = f'(a)/2! (x-a)^2
for any power of (x-a) really
dk
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What does this function mean?
I've never seen something like this where there is a + in front of the function
it's always been a coefficient
can I just rearrange it and say y = tan theta - 1?
yes
okay so it's the same thing as that then
well
It's just adding things
isnt it just a tangent graph but everything is shifted down one unit?
Whether it's functions or constants it doesn't matter
so y = -1 + tan theta is the same thing as y = tan theta - 1?
Yes, just like -a + b = b - a
I was confused because I've never seen any problems written this way and thought I missed something lol
bro is so advanced that he needs to work on his basics
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So I integrated x/(x - 1) using u substitution
u = x - 1
du = dx
u + 1 = x
(u + 1)/u = 1 + 1/u
Integrate that gives us E^(u + ln|u|)
u * E^u = (x - 1) * E^(x - 1)
okay so they ended up just getting e^x instead of e^(x - 1)
im guessing that's because they did E^(u + ln|u| + C) --> u * E^(u + C) --> (x - 1) * E^(x - 1 + C) and they combined the -1 and C?
x/(x-1) = 1 + 1/(x-1)
That's it yes. The constant term manifests itself as an extra $e^{-1}$ factor in the exponential in your end result. Realistically, the most general answer would be $De^x (x-1)$ where $D > 0$.
Azyrashacorki
Good to know. The Polynomial division works perfectly tbh though since I can avoid the extra steps. It was part of a Reduction of Order problem and I was using the formula for it
Yeah it's a better approach to do that. x = x - 1 + 1
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help
someone help me with how to do pascals triangle, like i know how to make the triangle but i dont get the variable part and the powers n stuff
<@&286206848099549185>
I think it's a trick to learn the power and trick doesn't have any meaning
wdym''
pascals triangle can represent the coefficents of a binomial to the n-1th power
so is it like n-1 each time?
like for example the 4th line
1
11
121
1331
what would 1331 be as the equation what power would it start with
1n^3+3n^2+3n^1+1^0 i know this isnt the correct equation but if it went down by 1 each time it would be something like this right
the other equations i saw which were the full one had like 2 variables together also
yes
I'm trying to figure out how the coefficients can be written into a general form
@lusty acorn Has your question been resolved?
I don't think I am doing this right
oh
right now im just reviewing polynomial division and rational roots ill get back to that later
3
(a+b)^3 = a^3 + 3a^2 b + 3ab^2 + b^3
remember that pascals triangle is indexed from 0
0: 1
1: 11
2: 121
3: 1331
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✅
but how do u know what powers to put for a and b though
like i know the n-1 but like how do u know when to put a^2b or like ab^2
if b is a term then it is ab^2
oh wait i think i got it
so its when the degree for the a value goes down and b goes up and when they are the same value it becomes ab^2
let me try to make one for 1 4 6 4 1 and see if i get it
$(c_1x + c_2y)^n$
bamidbar_
this is wrong
how so?
nvm ur right because of the symmetry of pascals triangle, but it is backwards tho
middle term is a bit ambiguous do u mmean 6a * b^2 or 6(ab)^2
yeah
yeah is not an answer?
i put 6ab^2 but idk which one its supposed to be im pretty sure its 6(ab)^2
the latter is correcct
which one is it supposed to be
i just put 6ab^2 not sure which one it should be
the 2nd
oh bet ima do the 5th row 1 5 10 10 5 1 and if i get that then i think im good
i already know how to do it when plugging in
a^5 + 5a^4(b) + 10a^3(b)^2 + 10a^2(b)^3 + 5(ab)^4 + b^5
this seem right?
but the degree for a decreases by 1 each time though
thats for the 5th power btw
like the one after this one
10a^2(b)^3
would be
5a^1b^4
so would that just make it 5(ab)^4 ?
interesting
I don't really understand rational roots
yeah it takes a long time just to do 1 of those questions because u have to plug in so many different values for the gcf of the constant and the coefficient and the factoring
u distribute the power to both terms
oh
however 5ab^4 is correct
be careful with parenthesis cuz grouping them together implies a^4*b^4
wait actually i think its 5a^4b^1 i just put the perenthesis to put it on its own but i made it look more confusing but i got it now
apperciate the help from u guys
i checked it online and it was that
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Is it possible to use chebyshev polynomial to approximate cos(x) on 0 <= x < π and get better result than Taylor approximation? From wikipedia:
Polynomial expansions such as the Taylor series expansion are often convenient for theoretical work but less useful for practical applications. Truncated Chebyshev series, however, closely approximate the minimax polynomial.
Better here means "less terms".
In particular, I want log_2 of maximum absolute error value to be less than -16.
For example Taylor approximation requires up to x^9 degrees but with 5 terms (because it skips even terms) to reach this error size.
@thorn cloak Has your question been resolved?
wikipedia seems to be indirectly referring to this: https://mathworld.wolfram.com/ChebyshevApproximationFormula.html
Thanks. Is it possible to change the range?
The article is making polynomial on [-1, 1]
modifying f(x) would work to do that
if its closed to you, you can .close
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context, this is the paragraph leading to defining the alternating group
[Abstract Algebra by Dummit and Foote 3rd edition, sec 3.5, page 109]
so what I don't understand is how $(i j) = \lambda (1 2) \lambda$
suckywuckyuwu
like i understand that λ maps 1 -> i and 2 -> j, but if its a permutation, what does it map i and j to
so then wont λ(1 2)λ just map 1 -> i -> 1
well yes
basically λ = (1 i)(2 j) right
then how is λ(1 2)λ = (i j)
well (i j) also sends 1->1
well you need to check all of them
yeah I mean I was checking for 1 when I thought I was checking for i
😭 basically i was being stupid. tysmm
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Definite integral of x^2 -2x from -1 to 2
,w Definite integral of x^2 -2x from -1 to 2
you have to be careful with signed area
whenever the function goes below the x axis, the area becomes negative
im assuming the problem was something like "find the area between this function and the x axis on the interval provided"
!original please
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
,, \int x^2 dx + 2\int xdx = \frac{x^3}{3} + x^2
938c2cc0dcc05f2b68c4287040cfcf71
,rotate
what does the text say
So the positive and negative areas cancel out?
ok yeah, you need to find integral of |f(x)| not integral of f(x)
I thought areas are considered scalar in integration
Wdym
scalars can be negative
But here areas of opposite direction cancel out
That's a vector property
they want the area, not signed area
you need to find two separate integrals to find integral of |f(x)|
What if I put the absolute value symbol instead of these squared brackets
That would make a positive 4/3
And my ans this time would be 8/3
Cuz the main problem is that area over the abscissa and under it are cancelling out
So i can just take the modulus
(magnitude)
integral of |f(x)| is not always equal to |integral of f(x)|
this is an example of it
Whats the example?
why are you getting 0 area
Cuz of the negative sign
|0| = 0 yeah?
thats |integral of f(x)|
if you consider integral of |f(x)|, i.e. the total area, thats different
I may not be understanding your way garlic, but I did the question my own way
So thanks
🧄
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ok if you say so
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