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When u get $\int \frac{\dd u}{\sqrt{u - u^2}}$
hiidostuff
Integral of square root of 1+1/sinx
All under the square root
Edmund Cloudsley
correct?
Right
For clarification, my first step was multiplying the argument under the square root by 1-sinx/1-sinx
So i get ( cosx)^2 and get rid of the square root in denominator
yup that should work
The next step is u-sub
Eliminating cosine
Not sure whether subbing 1-sinx was right decision though
it does look to be correct
since you have to eliminate the cos(x) on the numerator eventually
So my result is correct?
Unfortunately, I cannot make out what you have written
Where did you get lost?
I can't differentiate the x and the u
could you perhaps re-write this solution on another page
and post it here?
Can I rewrite only the part after subbing?
Sure
Sorry I know this would take some more of your time
but it would help me point out the mistake much faster
Its alright, iam really thankful for your help
feel free to ping me once you are done
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How did they go from 2^-ln n to 1/n^ln2
this is as far as i got lol
,, 2^{-x} = \frac{1}{2^x}
mmmm7
Yeah, thats what I did but $\frac{1}{2^(ln n)}$ isnt $\frac{1}{n^(ln 2)}$
dingy
wdym?
x -> -ln(n)
look at the change in exponents
2^-ln n = 1/(2^ln n) =1/(e^ln2)^(ln n) = 1/e^(ln2 * ln n) = 1/(e^ln n)^ln2) = 1/n^ln2
lol
๐ญ
2^{-ln n} = 1/(2^{ln n}) = 1/(n^{ln 2})
Are you asking about why the second equality holds?
im more so asking how they went from that one form to the other
i dont get how this step was made
its a rule of exponents and logarithms
x = e^(lnx)
since the exponential function and the logarithm are inverses they cancel each other out
in this case we go from 2 to e^Ln2
then just slap on the 1/ and ^ln(n)
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Does anyone know where I can learn this?
It's barely explained in the book, I don't even really know what it's called haha. When I try to google 'Set theory union infinite intervals)
Or something like that, i don't find anything
If anyone can refer me to a good youtube video or something that explains these proofs wel, it'd mean the world
I never understand how they make these proofs
i don't know any material on this but i can help you with the actual problem
That'd be amazing!
Wait, is it cool if I then quickly get a new exercise that's basically the same but with different values?
Since I've already seen the answer of this one haha
yes
artemetra
it's a bit easier to work with
I know the first step, namely, that this intersection should be equal to (1, 3] indeed
yep
Yeah that makes it way easier indeed
so you are struggling with the proof?
Yes, very
okay so i'm gonna go by the same steps as here
By the way, I gotta say, the proofs differ quite a lot for each exercise, so it might backfire
That's why I struggle a lot with them haha ๐
okay i'm back
Hi, I've tried to do it your way, so like just mimic the exercise above
,rotate
This is half of the proof though
right so this establishes that the interval we wanna work with is (1, 3]
(i would honestly accept this as good enough of a proof but ig your school wants you to be more rigorous)
this proves the $\subseteq$ part
artemetra
now for the $\supseteq$
artemetra
Wait, before me continue
yes?
I've just taken a look at the answer for the first part
Would you think it would also be correct what I have?
no no you were at the correct part
that was my proof
....right
indeed
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it's literally your proof but backwards haha
Oh it is indeed haha
Is it okay though? That I didn't do that proof on the other side
I'm sorry if I'm asking dumb questions I'm a bit confused why they like utilize strategies differently everytime
i see that you have the idea but it's not quite what they want from you
Thanks I was actually offline that time
if it's a question on intersection, then
whenever they ask you for the ">" part, you pick 'a' from the set it you want it to be in and show that for any 'a', it's in the intersection, so all 'a''s in (1,3] are in the intersection
then for the "<" part, you let 'a' be the intersection and then in particular the biggest 'a' can possibly be, which here is (1,4) and then you rule out all the choices that make it differ from (1,3], in particular you figure out that 'a' can't be bigger than 3
Wooow okay
I'll try to apply that in the practice exercises
How would it work with unions?
I can show you 2 examples of proofs of unions
that's the fun part โ for unions it's almost the complete opposite!
for unions
the ">" part: you pick x to be from the set you want it to be, and then show that for some element index n or k, x will be in the corresponding set with which we take union with.. in other words: for all x, find k such that it's in the interval, which immediately means it's in the union
the "<" part: you pick x to be from the union, and then simply show that it cannot be either bigger than or smaller than the endpoints of your target set. this is sufficient as if bounds all possible x's from the union
but you typically see "<" before ">" because it's easier
all correct!
I dont really understand this though, for the < part, so x in the interval you found, herethey say take x => 1 then ... and x < 1
why is this a smart choice
Cause I would've never foudn this myself
And do I do this for every proof with unions?
i'm not sure what you are referring to
the " take x => 1 "
yeah they are splitting the cases. if a >= 1, then x=1 immediately works and we don't really need to do anything, because that interval is [1, 5)
and now the other case is when a < 1, which means a is in (0,1), which is the same as the parameter x!
so we can simply take x=a because [a, 3x+2) certainly contains a
yeah i agree that was rather smart of them
Ohh okay
This only works because the union is only x inside (0,1) of course
Final question, what about this?
the > part again
I don't understand the x<1 part again haha
your goal is given $x$, get a $k$ such that the inequality $$\frac{1}{k+1} \leq x < 1 + \frac{1}{k+1}$$ is satisfied
artemetra
does that part make sense?
my real analysis professor taught a very useful approach with these problems/proofs, and that is establishing what the actual goal is, or is equivalent to
Yes, it makes sense idneed
awesome
its the same as saying x is inside that interval
My Analysis professor told me we don't teach you proofs, weteach you some handy tools you can use and you become skilled in them yourself as you encounter them again and again haha
so we basically need any k s.t. 1/(k+1) <= x
let's rearrange the inequality and solve for k
1 <= x(k+1)
x(k+1) >= 1
k+1 >= 1/x
k >= 1/x - 1
so any such k works, and since k is an integer they round it up to make it an integer
damn
Wooow
different styles 
I understand how you did it indeed
However, why don't we use this
because x < 1 and 1 + 1/(k+1) is strictly greater than 1
OHHHHHHHHHHHHHHHH
it's always true
i love you youre the best
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so in deriving the product rule (using differentials) we have that:
d(uv) = (u+du)(v+dv)-uv = u dv + v du + du dv
so the question is why do we ignore squared differentials?
Because they do not measure rate of change
if we imagine du and dv as being both very small quantities, then the product of two small quantities will be negligible
They are infinitesimal in comparison to the things we're interested in
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would question 22 involve repeating the steps in 18-21 but with 785.0kv instead of 500
im confused because the question seems to go specifically into voltage and power lost to resistence and idk how this ties into personal electricity use which they seem to be refering to
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you need to use the equation $P = I^2 R$ to calculate the power loss
south
oh wait you did that in q20
yes then that's correct, calculate the new current and then the new power lost to resistance
then repeat what you did in q21
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Once again is there an easier way of doing this than writing out an explicit injective map?
this is 3.15 btw
its not like two lines is too much to write
I cant think of another proof right now which doesn't do that
It isn't, I just don't like writing out linear maps in particular
Maybe I should just get used to it
but its so nice to write out a linear map
only need to pick a basis and send it somewhere
that's true
it just feels a bit like cheating I guess
pretty much the same idea
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yes
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I didn't really understand the statement
Can you please explain me how I should start the solution
I actually think I understood. Joe's ratio is 10/2 because he drank 2 ounces of coffe and added 2 ounces of cream and JoAnn's ratio is 11/1 because she added 2 ounces of cream: 12/2, stirred well and drank 2 ounces. If she stirred well, the 2 ounces that she drank have the same amount of coffe and cream, so she drank 1 ounce of coffe and 1 ounce of cream. So Joe's ratio = 10/2 and JoAnn's ratio = 11/1. I multiplied Joe's ratio by 11 and JoAnn's ratio by 10, so it is 110/22 and 110/10. Joe's cream divided by JoAnn's cream is 22/10 = 11/5
Am I right?
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What is your question?
Just checking if my proof is correct and if I can word it better
the implications at the start are a bit worrisome
why is Tv=0 equivalent to what you wrote in the line above that
S(Tv)=0 if and only if v=0, so Tv=0 is only possible when v=0 as otherwise we would have a non-zero v with S(Tv)=0
$\big((ST)v=0\iff v=0\big)\implies (Tv=0\implies v=0)$
kheerii
and how does the left imply the right?
Because if Tv=0 with v != 0 then (ST)v=S(Tv)=0 without v=0, which is a contradiction
ok the part I wanted to make clear is that you are using Tv=0 implies STv=0
but its not clear whether STv=0 implies Tv=0
(and not necessary here to think about)
It doesn't have to I think
Does this look better?
Oh I can just cut out the middle line
Denascite
or similar
looks good now
yes
btw it does cause STv=0 implies v=0 implies Tv=0. however, Sw=0 doesnt have to imply w=0 so there is definitely cause to be careful
Oh right
the kernel of ST is {0} but that doesn't mean the kernel of S is T(0)
so what you wrote earlier isnt wrong. I just personally think its a bit hard to read, its not clear what the implications are that you are using etc
and I hope you agree with me that the updated version is much clearer
Yeah i got confused while writing it too
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does anyone have any theory on the way to solve a matrice with either Cramer, Rouche or Kronicker Kapelli?
because i completely forgot when a matrix is uniquely determined, undetermined or anything else, and how to actually solve them.
So help me please!!!!
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You mean matrix equations ?
yep yep
the onlly thing i know is Cramer because its the easiest
all you have to do is to find x, y and z with the formula if det A is not 0
but then what if det A is 0
I see
or what if we have a parameter
You can learn the gaussian elimination
the thing is, i just need to see some theory on Rouche and Kronicker kapelli, or at least an example, because i cannot find anything relevant online
Thats basically we generate an identity matrix by stepwise row operations
Wait one min
Row reduction is the process of performing row operations to transform any matrix into (reduced) row echelon form. In reduced row echelon form, each successive row of the matrix has less dependencies than the previous, so solving systems of equations is a much easier task. The idea behind row reduction is to convert the matrix into an "equivalen...
ok i see
Jump to the part, "solving eqns with inverse of a matrix"
solve them with the inverse
hmm
i bet its useful
but can i give you an example of an equation, and you maybe try to solve it/
?
i get that you can probably solve it with the inverse of a matrix
seems pretty clear
but i was interested specifically in solving them with either Crammer, rouche or krocker capelli
u there?
Hi
Okk I see !
krocker capelli is the same as the matrix inversion method !
no no it isnt
i just checked in a book i have
What does it say ?
so kronecker kapelli sais that if rang A = rang A exted then the system is compatible and determined
if rang A different than rang A exted its incompatible
Rang stands for ?
idk how to explain Rouche in english but ye
the biggest matrix that you could make out of that matrix that has det = 0
and with rouche they all have to be 0 i think
im not sure
But that tells us if solutions exist or not
That's not a method to solve the system of equations
solving it with the inverse of a matrix is the easiest type of exercises
and then theres also Gausses method/ row echelon form method. But its rarely used here
Gaussian is better for higher order matrices !
Then there's also the step escalator method!
yea, to actually solve it its easy, you just apply some formula or do some easy method
the hard part is to show that its either uniquely determined, compatible and undetermined, or incompatible
thats the hard part for me at least
Cramers the best way ig !
cramer only works on matrices with m columns and m rows
it also only works if det A diff 0
so its really rare to be able to use cramer
cramer is the easyest BY FAAAAAAAAR anyway
That's only when you have unique solutions.
exactly
thats when you use cramer
To determine the rank you can convert the matrix to echelon form !
and you just use x = det x / det A ; y= det y / det A
dude you keep saying stuff that doesnt correlate with one another
like, sure you can do that, you can also find it another way
Rank is necessary for krocher caelli
and with crammer you might be able to say whether its determined or undetermined
oh yea kronecker capelli, my bad
ok i think i actually get it now
i dont think i have everything down yet
but ill just begin doing some exercises
cuz thats how you learn the theory the best
anyway, thanks a lot
cya
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hi, tried this question and i've no idea how to solve it on my own. What problem solving methods apply to this and what was your thinking behind it
,tex $\int\frac{1}{\cos x + \sqrt{3} \sin x} , dx
Rambo
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experience..
in the denominator you'd get 1/2 cosx + sqrt(3)/2 sinx
could you please explain your thought process? i'd be grateful
which is
tbh the more questions u solve the quicker u can get such ideas
ahh
yo mean looking at the solution for the tricks?
wdym by looking at the solution
u never learn mathematics just by looking at solution
u need to do it on ur own to get a hold on it
how did you solve it tho? what was the thought as in how did it strike you?
"experience" here implies you need to be exposed to the probleme
it's something teachers love to give out to students
when doing trigonometry
experience implies having solved a lot of questions
when i had my trig class, this form was something that you could NOT skip
this was a guaranteed on an exam
one of the most important formulas in trigo yeah
uhm... that basically means you are exposed to methods
they make you notice each form
sort of
never learnt it, strange
ur learning integration but u didnt learn trigo yet?
idk you just gotta learn to notice
strange
sometimes the "1" should even be written/noticed/said out loud while doing problems like these
so its an idea that you need to be exposed to? i mean the question seems quite aimless and you have no way of intuiting the solution/method
to get the hang of it
that's not what i said lol
i said this form wasn't explicitly taught
well, for me, our teacher loved to give such a question on an exam or school work, so the more you do it, the more you understand and the more you notice
I see, so its like an exposure thing
you might also want to remember these hell formulas
oh they can be derived from the already learnt formulas
yes, as you can see, 1cosx + sqrt(3)sinx is basically somewhat in the form of sin(a)cos(x)+cos(a)sinx = sin(a+x)
so you gotta learn to understnad
i can for example, identify two aims in it:
- remove root3
- simplify the denominator
yes i got it when you asked me to multi and div by 2
how are u supposed to rmeove root 3
it could also be cos(x-a) form
yeah it can
yes
so one idea that i can extrapolate from that is that always try to convert nums to values of trig functions
that way i can get a trig function to replace the mess
and then i'll be able to see the sum/diff formulas
Expressions of the form $acosx + bsinx$ can be rewritten in the form of $Rcos(x-phi)$, where $R = \sqrt{a^2 + b^2}$and $tan(phi) = b/a$
alex <3
is there a name for this method? where did u get this from?
I don't know if it's a method, it was something I was taught as well as a method.
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you can also use another method, typically used in integrals, it's called the tangent half-angle substitution!
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What is the precise definition of cardinality? My searches on google doesn't give me a direct one, but just what two sets having the same cardinality means.
Usually it's defined such that two sets have the same cardinality iff there is a bijection between them
@chilly locust Has your question been resolved?
To me, it feels like saying that ordered pairs are pairs that are equal if and only if their coordinates are respectively the same (but the notion of order doesn't exist in pairs). It's like you're describing their fundamental property, but not the object itself.
It's defined with the bijection because it extends to any set the notion of two sets having the same number of elements, even if they aren't finite.
Also ordered pairs do exist using set theoretical definition. (a,b) = {{a}, {a,b}}
for a finite set A you could say that the cardinality of A is the unique natural number n for which there is a bijection f: n -> A
by the way, this (possible) definition assumes (possibly) a von neumann construction of numbers (for example 3 = {0,1,2}). So, if A = {a,b,c}, (with cardinality |A|=n=3, you could say there is a bijection f: {0,1,2} (which is just 3) to A
f(0)=a, f(1)=b, f(2)=c, or any other choice
there might be different definitions to capture the notion of cardinality of finite set with possibly different constructions though
That's interesting, thank you
I was expecting something that way for cardinality.
I think I'll keep looking
Thank you
That's kind of the set theoretic definition of cardinality though
one needs to realise that many things in mathematics are defined by their properties not by explicit constructions, because mathematics cares not for how they are constructed but how you can use them
for instance this is one specific construction of ordered pairs in set theory, but it is certainly not the only one
and in practice, nobody ever uses that construction either
I understand, but the notion of cardinality is really quite obscure to me
for a set, which is what just asked, just intuitively the number of elements of a set (finite)
cardinality is just an equivalence relation on all sets
i would think of cardinality of what you are thinking of as number of elements in the most simple way
cardinality is to sets just as isomorphisms are to groups/rings/fields/modules etc
Cool!
cardinality for finite/countable sets has the sensible interpretation of just counting how many elements there are
cardinality for uncountable things is just hard
So, the cardinality of a set A is the equivalence class of sets that can be placed in bijective correspondence with each other, right? If so... wow... how deep
barring set theoretic issues, pretty much
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Just draw a line y = -1/2
i mean this is just a common value you should know
and see where it cuts the graph
from the 30-60-90 special right triangle
but u cant just read it from the graph and be acurrate
how do i work out the exact point
it cuts it
then you remember quadrants
Yes, cardinals have a specific rarely-used "definition" as one particular set: the set of ordinals with cardinality smaller than k is the cardinal k
But it's easier to think of them as equivalence classes of sets even though technically those are proper classes and not sets
Ignore me current people
What quadrants is sine negative in (ig that's apparent from the graph) and what is the reference angle of 30ยฐ in those quadrants
Or if you don't use reference angles, try to use symmetry with the unit circle, or just with the graph of sin(x) maybe
bottom two quadrants
and wdym reference angle of 30 degrees in the qaudrants?
Or what angles have a reference angle of 30 degrees I mean
Maybe it's easiest just to use symmetry though
ok so
given sin30 = 1/2
acc
is sine symmtetrical by 180 degrees?
acc no
Any1 free to help me in mechanics?
!occupied
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I tried putting this into multiple calculators, didnโt work then I tried ai and they all gave different answers can someone please just help me find the answer to this equation: 30+30+30+80+80+30+80+80+120+80+30+30+30+200+120+200+120+200+200+120+200+120+200+120+200+120+200+120+30+30+30+30+30+80+80+30+30+80+80+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+30+30+30+20+80+80+200+200+120+200+200+120+80+20+30+200+30+30+120+80+80+80+30+80+80+80+80+80+200+200+120+200+200+120+30+30+200+200+120+200+120+30+200+120+200+30+30+30+120+200+120+200+120+200+200+120+80+80+30+80+200+200+120+120+200+200+200+200+80+200+80+80+80+80+30+80+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+80+30+80+80+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+80+80+80+80+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+80+80+30+30+30+30+30+30+80+30+30+120+80+80+80+30+30+30+30+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+30+30+200+30+30+30+30+30+30+200+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+80+30+30+30+30+30+80+120+80+80+80+30+200+30+30+80+30+30+80+80+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+30+80+80+30+30+30+30+30+30+80+30+30+30+30+80+20+20+20+20+20+20+20+20+20+20+19+399+100+25+10
python should be able to do that
How do I get python ๐
put print(30+30+....+10) into this https://www.programiz.com/python-programming/online-compiler/
Okay Iโll try
google agrees with matlab, for whatever that's worth
What is bro calculating
chatgpt seems unable to do it, it's just sitting there idiotically (more so than usual)
it finally gave an answer that disagrees with the others
it says its 24733
where did you get this
haha
its from transaction logs
well gpt ain't wrong, it said xe
i had to go through like 90 pages of stuff
i had to train it to do that
if you had it as a list it might be better to just put it in google sheets or something
what happened to the XE guy
the thing is the list is full of other stuff unrelated to those numbers
python also says 24733 btw
i don't even remember their pseudo tbh, something with josiah ? I can't seem to find them w/ discord search maybe they left
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,, e^{tD} = \sum_{k = 0}^{\infty} \frac{t^k}{k!} D^k = \sum_{k = 0}^{\infty} \frac{t^k}{k!} \begin{pmatrix}
a^k & 0 \
0 & b^k
\end{pmatrix}
\sum_{k = 0}^{\infty}
\begin{pmatrix}
\frac{t^k}{k!} a^k & 0 \
0 & \frac{t^k}{k!} b^k
\end{pmatrix}
\begin{pmatrix}
e^a \sum_{k = 0}^{\infty} t^k & 0 \
0 & e^b \sum_{k = 0}^{\infty} t^k
\end{pmatrix}
ourfallenstars
is this the correct computation for $e^{tD}$ if $D = $
\begin{pmatrix}
a & 0 \
0 & b
\end{pmatrix}
what is D?
ourfallenstars
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
$D=\begin{pmatrix}a&0\0&b\end{pmatrix}$?
Bonk
you did something like sum(ab) = sum(a) sum(b) did you not?
uhh, move the sum into all components 
Bungo
oh yes, yes I did
that's a problem
the secret code of "diagonal matrices are just funny looking numbers"
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Found this yesterday 
matrices are crazy ._> prolly the reason why me n them don't get along
Actually this kind of product exist
Hadamard product iirc
the meme is that the hadamard product coincides with the ordinary matrix product for these particular matrices
Hadamard product should be the matrix default product
not really
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how can I decide what these series equal?
$$\sum_{k = 0}^{\infty} \frac{t^k}{k!} \sin \left(\frac{k - 1}{2} \pi \right)$$
$$\sum_{k = 0}^{\infty} \frac{t^k}{k!} \cos \left(\frac{k + 1}{2} \pi \right)$$
ourfallenstars
I'm a little lost 
right
so basically in the first one you will notice -1, 0, 1, 0 as a pattern before it repeats
for sine
so the odd terms vanish
and the even terms change sign (-1)^(k+1) for example
so you could replace k = 2n where n = 0 and leave sine and add instead a factor (-1)^(n+1)
and it doesnt hurt to just write out the sigma notation sometimes
that will make it much more obvious whats going on
I'm having difficulties reindexing 
reasons why you write out the summation
ratio test?
that just determines convergence
,, \sum_{k = 0}^{\infty} \frac{t^k}{k!} \sin \left(\frac{k - 1}{2} \pi \right) = \sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} \frac{t^{2n}}{(2n)!} \sin \left(\frac{2n - 1}{2} \pi \right) = \sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{n + 1} t^{2n}}{(2n)!}
this seems to be it 
ah, hold on
ourfallenstars
uhh, this is slightly wrong, I think 
that (2n)! in the denom is problematic for n = 0
oh hold on
0! = 1
wolfram agrees
i mean agrees to this
uhh, this is...
cosine?
I've forgotten the Taylor series 
lemme check
oh it's -cosine I think
yes
I mean both series are related in a sense that one is the derivative of the other
vaguely
,, e^{tJ} =
\begin{pmatrix}
\cos t & \sin t \
- \sin t & \cos t
\end{pmatrix}
ourfallenstars
that's what I'm getting
yea this is now out of my expertise
How do the series relate to J
see hlounge
Yea that closely matches what Ann said
Up to a sign. Not sure if that's her mistake or yours
well, that's not a large issue
I can check the sign again
thanks adonis, riemann, Bair, cloud, Ann, Denascite for the help 
.solved
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,w exp({{0,-t},{t,0}})
Reindexing bain of your existence

Reindex your existence so the version of you that knows reindexing is now

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@lilac pebble Has your question been resolved?
!show
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
it uses burnside's formula


@lilac pebble Has your question been resolved?
@lilac pebble Has your question been resolved?
a shud be 720 i think? and for b...6^6 ๐คฃ
Because we can use rotation I don't think it will be distinguishable
Ik my answer to b is wrong I am thinking how to get the correct answer without whatever formula that is

Ok I did found that
Uhh
How bout the rotation of the 4 long side

Alr alr what is the logic behind question b
How to make it distinguishable
the first one is 90
720 / 8
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i only have fn+1 (x) = (fn(x))ยฒ i have no idea what to do
can you at least try them
if you plug in n=0 here what do you get ?
which is
x^4?
yeah and the left side is ?
yea
yes do that
yea it's still a recurrence relation
aaah okay
see if there's a pattern
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Hello, I can't seem to understand the last line? I'm not sure where the 9 has come from because when I was working on the question I had 3 instead of the 9. Please can someone help me.
did you check with small examples to see if your statement is actually true?
33-6 is 27
ohh
I'm not sure because there was a solution to the question.
the proof is correct exactly up to the point where they use 9 instead of 3. That's the mistake that makes it wrong
so the solution is wrong??
yeah
its supposed to be (66...66)^2 x 3
i dont know how you would go about proving it from there tbh though
this essentially disproves it
and proves that no such number can be a square
what's perhaps interesting is that if we divide it by 3, then it's gonna be a square
wait so if m = 3n^2 then m cant be a square number?
so
11...11 - 22...22
(2n) (n)
is gonna be a square
correct
good to know
sqrt(m) = sqrt(3) * n which cannot be a whole number
sorry where did the 11...11 come form??
sorry, i made a typo. I divided it by 3 though
im not sure it was just a question i got from a book
oh right
well thats the shortest proof by contradiction ive ever seen
ohhh okay thanks
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can someone help me with 4a+b and 5a
i dont know how to draw the angle on which point of the triangle
The angle needs to be adjacent to the positive x axis
could u aid me with a diagram
It can be
The important part is to make sure you take care of the sign
Counter clockwise is positive
Clockwise is negative
Say the yellow angle is +pi/4 rads
i havent learnt that
Radians?
yes
Ok, say itโs +60degrees
okay
Then the red angle would be -300degrees
yes
But it is preferred to keep degrees positive, which is why I used the yellow anglw
i see
could you do b as well?
No, you do b
alr
I can check it
wouldnt it be more suitable to do the green arrow?
Yeah I would to be honest
mark scheme does this
It seems unclear what the question wants exactly, but it looks like this is just a trig exercise
So keep all angles positive
its finding vector form
using trig
would the clear answer be -53.1?
because the person that did it went clockwise
Stick to positive for now
got it
When you learn radians you will probably see why negative is useful
i see
shall i always mention if it is below or above the axis?
Yeah you should
got it
part a for 5
should i just do it to the right?
the one in red
got it
i asked this question yesterday so im wondering how u will do it if u dont mind
bc i always see so many methods to people doing this question:
Well first, what would a random vector parallel to i + j look like
one line will be the multiple of the other but go in the same direction?
Yes, so how would you write that in maths
k(i+j)=i+j
where k is some multiple
Yes
can i use the word scalar?
Yes, k is a scalar
alright
Now, you are told c + ld is parallel to i + j, meaning it will look like k( i + j )
yes
So you have
c + ld = k( i + j )
yes
Itโs not really an equation, more of an identity because you want the left hand side to look like the right hand side
But combine the left side into one vector
done
Now you want the top and bottom of that vector to match so that it looks like k(1,1)
So you equate them
Then solve for l
i see
that makes sense
i use to do this method but i had no idea how to do this question:
beacuse k would be 0 for j
Iโll use x for lambda because l looks odd
(2 + 3x, 5 - x) should look like (k, 0)
yes
Then I would start with the bottom, 5-x=0 so x must be 5
yes
Thatโs all there is to it
oh yh
Because it doesnโt matter what the top is, it will always be a multiple of 1
ive seen this method as well:
i see
Just write everything out in column vector form, makes things easier
I never liked the ai + bj form
ok tysm, i got 1 more question regarding what it means by "and i"
it it just asking along the x axis?
Yes
i is 1 unit along x axis
j is 1 unit along y axis
So the angle between AB and i is the angle between AB and x axis
i see ty!
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,tex prove that 121 doesn't divide $n^2 + 3n + 5$
TRIAENGLE
i am unable to progress further
proof by contradiction
claim that it does divide it and provide a counterexample for n=1
(i am assuming $n\in\bN$)
;(
will proving through 11 work
,w does 121 divide 9?
what
i...don't think you need to use WA for that.
hmm, doesn't seem to work
?
Oh
For all n obviously
You can't just show it doesn't divide for one n and then be done
No
what does this mean?
i tried it by showing that 11 doesn't divide the expression
just do the easier and more comrephensible route
i got to n(n+3) congruent to 6 mod 11
n=4 though
My guy wtf are you on about
Everything you've said here has made zero sense
how so
Banana puppy ice cream
???
That's how so
Anyways n=4 makes it divisible by 11 sadly
i clearly stated the route here
so that method won't work
.
contradictiom right ?
i am new to this
yeah, its fine
contradiction is a more logical approach to proving a statement "an infinite amount of ___"
My guy you can't explain to someone why their words make no sense
That's the default state with any random amalgamation of words
??
now im more thoroughly confused
i asked for clarification on things i couldn't understand; i don't see the problem here
i gave a clear route as to how to prove it
You did not

You gave a route to prove that there is some n value which makes it not divisible
That is not the question
i am leaving because i have better things to do
Better things then disrupting a help channel by not understanding the question and blocking attempts at help from someone who actually knows what they're doing?
I should hope so
@fluid flare Has your question been resolved?
hmm, my guess would be to consider $n=11k+r$ for some $0 \leq r \leq 10$
rakยณen
From there's theres probably some mod shenanigans that'll work
11 does divide the expression, so this approach is a dead end
contradiction is possible too ig
Use induction :| I believe it's an induction exercise. Right? m I tripping
LOL I thought that too but I doubt thats possible
I've never done a question like this using induction
XD
I guess you would assume $n^2 + 3n + 5 = 121k + r$ for some $r \in \left[0, 10\right]$
=> 11 | n - 4
=> n = 11k + 4```
rakยณen
where did n go
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this would work
@fluid flare
thats n^2 - 8n + 5, not n^2 - 3n+5
yes, which is nยฒ + 3n + 5 - 11n
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pq is just some constant A. What do you get after integrating A?
Yes
how do i know that
pq are constants
what if p and q are y and x
idk if im making sense
because it asks for the value of p and q
oh ok
i need help with the wording of this btw:
second line
why do i need to know that x is small
so that you can ignore terms that involve x^7
can u use an example of what u mean
so if you have x = 0.1 for instance
yes
then x^3 = 0.001 which is too small to think about
and ofc x^4 is even smaller than that
it asks for the exat vaule of k
however
in the mark scheme it says
+/- 6
but it says value, not vaules
so like
doesnt really make sense coz shouldnt k have only one value, not 2?
well, then thats an error on their part, i suppose
because both of those values are valid
ohhhhhh ok ty
let me just double check
okay
;(
i jumped ahead and behind myself sry
its ok
$k^2=36\implies k=\pm 6$
;(
yeap
right
they're both valid
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hi, how can I find the limit of $(\sqrt[n]{n} - 1)^n$ using the squeeze theorem? I thought about using $\frac{1}{n}$ and $-\frac{1}{n}$ but not sure how to show they are the "bounds"
p1za
e.g. proving that $(\sqrt[n]{n} - 1)^n \leq \frac{1}{n}$ or should I approach this differently
p1za
You can factor out $n^{1/n}$ from the parentheses and use binomial theorem on the remaining $(1-x)^n$
riemann
