#help-17
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Also this
anyway the way to start is just trying to simplify it through algebra
especially exponent rules are extremely cruicial here
so its 1 over root 2
wait i will see what you have done
can you tell me what exactly u did to get here
try factoring something from the inside
and then
then you'll see what you get
@scenic ravine any tips for uga preparation
Could you please assist me with this
Just give me a hint
the inside looks kinda factorable
(cos(x) - 1)(cos(1/x) - 1) = cos(x)cos(1/x) - cos(x) - cos(1/x) + 1
which is just the inside negated
why is it incorrect to see what the thing inside is approaching
and then the exponent
you'll get 0^0 I think
which is indeterminate form
1/2^ 0?
the inside isnt approaching 1/2, is it?
why not?
2^(-something large) + 2^-(something large)
I just solved questions, didn't clear UGA tbh, found UGB much easier than UGA
that's 0 + 0
what
oh and btw once you do the algebra to get it to this $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\left(\left(2^{-2^{x-1}}\right)^{3}+1\right)^{2^{-x}}$ there is a "standard" approach to follow
uga is much easier
MæthIsAlwaysRight
Yeah, but I make really silly mistakes
can you please say what the "standard" approach is
i want to know if what i did is the fastest
so many answers were off by one or two digits
ah, also dont mind me asking, did u get into isi?
nope, I didn;t clear UGA, right
so even if I had a 100 in UGB , wouldn't have made a difference
ah
to solve limit of $\left(a+1\right)^{b}$, we can take the logarithm and get $\ln\left(\left(a+1\right)^{b}\right)=b\ln\left(a+1\right)=ba\frac{\ln\left(a+1\right)}{a}=ba$
MæthIsAlwaysRight
wait let me read
but is that the form above?
yeah, with a bit of algebra you can convert it to that form
that was also the motivation behind factoring out 2^(-2^(n-1))
I'd honestly re-write this as $\frac{1}{x} ( sin^2(x/2) + cos(1/x)(1-cos(x))$
math_rocks
it can be also rewritten as -(cos(x)-1)(cos(1/x) - 1)
yup
and then doing 1/x, the first factor cancels to 0 and the second one is almost like 1/x which tends to 0 as well
oh wait x goes to 0
nvm then
but still, (cos(x) -1) / x goes to 0 and cos(1/x) - 1 is bounded
so bounded * 0 = 0
i feel im weak at functions, what should i do @peak matrix
You could use the squeeze theorm I suppose
yeah, sure, either squeeze or argue that cos(1/x) - 1 is bounded
with which limit?
do you mean squeeze theorem
in general
yes
wait let me try everything suggested here
I used to (and often still do) plot every single function i encountered in desmos, and that really strengthened my intuition
- it helps you avoid stupid algebraic mistakes
but like there is no single best advice
ok. what topics do u suggest revisting
in functions,
to get a clearer understadning of limits, derivatives and integrals
i want to feel them
Practice ig
okay
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I have got to (x+y)(x^2+xy+y^2) = 2024
x⁴-y⁴ = -2024(x-y)
(x²+y²)(x+y) = -2024
How did you get this ?
@twilit magnet Has your question been resolved?
Like this
x^4-y^4=2024(x-y)
(x-y)(x^3+x^2y+xy^2+y^3)= 2024(x-y)
x^3+x^2y+xy^2+y^3=2024
(x+y)(x^2+xy+y^2) = 2024
<@&286206848099549185>
show that f(t) = t^4-2024t is increasing in the range where f(t) > 0 and t > 0.
@twilit magnet
@twilit magnet Has your question been resolved?
So a graph>]b
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Woooooooo
Eurekaaaaa
This is amazing !
Geniuses like you are seldom born on planet earth, you're one in a billion.
Bro thinks he's Newton
You should publish a paper on this all
Bro is Newton's father 😭
What would 1 divided by -0 be?
That sucks. I wanted the last chocolate bar
1/-0.001 is -1000
So it goes to -infinity
Dividing by -0 should then yield -infinity shouldn’t it
Idk man. I think it has legs
Wow
He might be onto something
That's what the positive x asymptote of this graph tells you
1/∞ = 0
It’s all a matter of perspective. Infinity isn’t a number - you would want 1/0 to be a number wouldn’t you?
For example:
6 ÷ -0.1 = -60
6 ÷ -0.01 = -600
6 ÷ -0.0001 = -60,000
And so on...
So 6/-∞=0?
Not very useful to have a result for 1/0 if you can’t keep using it mathematically
infinity is clearly a number rotate your damn page 🔥
I support this
Actually no what you're thinking is the concept of asymptote
What you're thinking is
For example:
6 ÷ 0.1 = 60
6 ÷ 0.01 = 600
6 ÷ 0.0001 = 60,000
And so on...
And I know you would think when
The denominator is 0
It will blow up to infinity
But let me tell you you have ignored a big part
Negative numbers
Let me do the same thing @sweet spindle
With negative numbers
For example:
6 ÷ -0.1 = -60
6 ÷ -0.01 = -600
6 ÷ -0.0001 = -60,000
And so on...
This will hit to -∞
Means you're saying is
6/0=∞ and -∞ at the same time
Youre saying a constant has two values at the same time
Yes -∞ and ∞ ate completely different
Are
You were dividing by 0.0000001 whatever but you're lowering your digits by positive number
The simple answer is we can't
There is no defination
Dividing 0 is undefined
By 0*
In mathematics
You can prove that using limits
But you would learn that in high school
But?
AI would agree ,chat gpt only has specific knowledge it shouldn't be your primary source of knowledge
Idk if there’s much you couldn’t get ChatGPT to agree on
In negative numbers yeah
@sweet spindle Has your question been resolved?
Ah, spamming dozens of messages about someone else yapping
Pending postgraduate
I didn't know grad programs accepted 12 year olds
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All good to me
@fervent dagger Has your question been resolved?
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Is the converse of the inscribed angle theorem also true?
That is, if you have an angle on the circumference with a measure of half of an angle inside the circle, and both angles subtend the same arc, does the angle inside the circle coincide with the center of the circle?
Sounds correct
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Find n>=2 such that the following statement is true: A,B nxn matrices with complex entries and A^n = On and det(A+B)=det(B)=0 implies BAB=On.
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Can anyone help? Idk what to do next
you can find all the angles of it
although im not sure whrre the XY=4x comes in?
Somethng like this?
It means chord YX is 4x im pretty sure
Or rather the angle
Idk tbh
try to find all the angles in triangle XYZ
yeah but my solution doesent use it so maybe i went wrong somewhere
choord XW=/=XY
Oh
Gimme a hint here
inscribed angle
the inscribed angle is half of the center angle
yea
find angle YXZ interms of x
Its 12.5 degrees
interms of x
do you understand what "interms of x" means?
No
basically it has x in it, like interms of x, for example like x+10, 2x, x^2, ect
Oh you mean in terms of the 4x and 2x?
hint: ||draw OV (assuming O is the center||
yeah basically
whats YOV?
4x?
no
remember
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could someone help me with how to get to the integral in the middle? the first rearrangement was fine, just sub t=x-1 but i wonder if ive used the wrong substitution to get me to the middle integral
oh hang on ill try arctan
this looks better but still not there D:
<@&286206848099549185> help pls :,)
is the 2nd-last integral with tan^2 (theta) + 1?
nvm, I thought it was difference of two squares (it isn't)
no but it simplifies to sec^2
maybe you can expand the top to get sec^2(k+1)
then use the definition of sec as 1/cos to get cos^-2(k+1)
i think what i eventually need to end up with is a sin2theta in the denominator
so i can use double angle and then convert to cos?
then you get 1/(cos^2(k+1))(tan + 1)^k+1)
you move all terms to denominator
then as the powers are the same, you can get 1/(cos^2 (tan + 1))^(k+1)
then you should get 1/(cos (sin + cos))^(k+1)
from where?
tan = sin/cos
so you can get 1/(cos^2 ( sin/cos + 1))^(k+1)
oh did you pull out a factor of 1/cos
ah ok
I don't know how to simplify this into the required form, but I'm sure there's a method you can use to get it
I hope that'll be enough for ya
hmm i'll try, thanks for some tips anyway tho
i did something a bit diferent and managed to get here instead but even though its a lot simpler, now the numerator isnt 1
@sinful nacelle Has your question been resolved?
@sinful nacelle Has your question been resolved?
Instead of transforming to sqrt(sec^2 - 1) instead leave as 1+tan and let sec^2 become 1/cos^2 multiply through to get cos( tan cos + cos) = cos( sin + cos) and then use complex amplitudes to combine the sin + cos.
This will get you sin + cos = sqrt(2) cos(theta - pi/4) which is the same as the example
(because cos is even)
@sinful nacelle Has your question been resolved?
ahhh ok i will try that thank you
@sinful nacelle Has your question been resolved?
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nehelp
which one
but b and c are apparently wrong
sorry question 8
um ok
I got part a correct
part a
i dont understand what i did wrong in b and c
be careful about the area below x axis
oh um
this
check the integral from -1 to 0
x axis, sorry
it isn't 2
Yeah, but it should be negative
since it's under x axis
areas which are under the x axis are counted negatively in the integral
but area can’t be negative shouldnt you do the absolute value?
Yeah, the area can't be negative. But the integral can
integral != area
there are slight differences
i see i see
mainly the one with sign
you'd have to integrate |g(x)| to get the right area
this isnt exactly true
the area is integral of |g(x)|, not g(x)
integral of g(x) is signed area
you basically did 2 mistakes
how does that change the result?
it doesnt
because your second mistake was evaluating the integral incorrectly
just a matter of writing it?
not really, its quite cruicial difference
this integral evaluates to -2
if you wrote |g(x)| instead, it would evaluate to 2 as you wrote
ahhh
so you basically did 2 mistakes and they luckily cancelled out
this integral doesnt equal that though
i should put those lines around it too?
around g(x)
okay
$\int_{-1}^{2}\left|g\left(x\right)\right|dx=\int_{-1}^{0}\left|g\left(x\right)\right|dx+\int_{0}^{2}\left|g\left(x\right)\right|dx=2+4=6$
MæthIsAlwaysRight
the trick is that |g(x)| reflects the curve that's below x-axis above it
and then we can integrate it without worrying about area getting counted negatively
for calculating area, yes
if i’m finding area
got it
for part b
the book says 8
i got 12
from b onwards we’re not finding area i’m pretty sure
they’re just normal calculations
ahh
so in that case the 2 would be -2?
c is correct now
thanks for that tip
and your help of course
yw :)
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bye
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How is the axiom of pairing not contradictory? Doesn't it let create the set C = {C} with A=B=C? And if A=B=D=C, what about ∃C(C∈C <--> C=C)? Or maybe the one stated in wikipedia is incomplete because in the other website it says x,z,w must be different, and y,z,w must also be different. Or maybe I forgot how to use first order logic
the axiom of regularity implies no set can contain itself
it's not supposed to prevent you from C = {C}
It would still be contradictory if it implied that
or inconsitent with axiom of regularity
the issue is with the proof
What rule did you use here?
I suppose that you used this one, right?
Universal instatiation
it only replaces the free occurences though
The thing that doesn't make sense to me is that axioms shouldn't interfere with each other. Technically pairing is a theorem of axiom of replacement and some other weaker axioms. But that would mean that there exists a set that belongs to itself, but also that it doesn't with foundation
x and y are free variables in the scope of the quantifier, for example ∀x(x∧y) ⊢ t∧y. But ∀x(x∧∀x(x∧y)) ⊢ t∧∀x(x∧y)), so I don't see the problem in there
meth is right, it doesn't let you do it
oh wait i might not be right
it definitely shouldnt
but i cant figure out the reason why rn
hmm
if you says A is C, then the C doesn't mean the same C
it doesnt let it pass
The issue is that the variable that got substituted gets tied back to the existential quantifier
which is an issue
i feel like wikipedia is missing that
let me check enderton
here
t is substitutable for x in Ay a only if y doesnt occur in t
in our case, that means w isnt substitutable for x since it then gets tied by the Ew quantifier
to put it shortly, when eliminating forall quantifier always make the substititution only for fixed constants
as soon as you say let A = C, the axiom changes, the letters have to avoid C
that's the new axiom you have to use
i'm not sure that's the issue you;re talking about, must be that
wait what?
The axiom is fine
what isnt fine is the way in which it got manipulated in the proof
well yeah, that's also part of implied question, "where's the mistake in the proof"
but it's like secondary
The issue is that in this step, OP eliminated the quantifiers by making a substitution
x -> w
y -> w
However, this newly substituted w's got captured by the ∃w quantifier which made the proof faulty and the conclusion false
substituted variables cant get captured by any quantifier
ah yes
w is bound
well *that was the problem
@dark kiln I feel you also have the doubt why the substitution if the variable is bound is not valid. The reason I just came with is that, intuitively, bound variables, might not refer to the same object in all cases
like this
the first one is true but the second one isn't
anyways, ty yall
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i wouldn't write a proof in the first place, the issue happened because you tried to write it down
"use first order logic"
It didn't?
oh maybe
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I need help with question 7c, this is a new topic for me so if someone can show me how to do it slowly that would be appreciated
in question (7) , do you know how to do the first two parts
Yes I have to give one side a value so I pick 0
I got those bits it’s just that 1/2 that I don’t know
Well, just proceed like you did for the other problems
Yes
can you find x for me in that case
With the 1/2?
yes
okay, so $4= \frac{1}{2} x$
math rocks
yes?
Yes
can you multiply across by 2 now
math rocks
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$4y - 6x = 24$
𝐌𝐞𝐲𝐬𝐚𝐦
I need to find the coordinates for this to sketch a graph I just don’t know how to
assume any value for x, then find the corresponding value of y to get a point
for, e.g. let x = 0, then find y for it, suppose you get y = 6, then one point is (0,6)
Bro what
Could you say it a little simpler this is a new topic for me so I’m confused
Ok, in this question we have to find two points, so that we can sketch the graph of the line
now, this line passes through all points (x,y) such that 4y - 6x = 24
Ok…
so, if we have to find two values of (x,y) such that it satisfies the line
now, we can let x = any value
say, we let x = 4, alright?
Ok
now the equation of line is 4y - 6x = 24
and we assumed that x =4
so, 4y - 6(4) = 24
or, 4y -24 = 24
Ah I see
yeah (4,9)
In this bit why did the 6x turn into 3x?
seems like a mistake from my side
And how did you get this bit from 4y = 36
Seems like I made a mistake, lets restart from beginning
Alright
4y - 6x = 24
let x = 4
now, we substitute this value in the line
4y - 6(4) = 24
4y - 24 = 24
now adding 24 to both sides
4y -24 + 24 = 24+ 24
4y = 48
y = 12
so, one of the point is (4, 12)
Ok.
Now, when solving this type of question, the simplest assumption to find a point is to let x=0 and y =0
so, when x = 0
4y - 6(0) = 24
4y = 24
y = 6
so one point is (0,6)
and let y =0
😭 bruh !
You could have told him about intercept form
x = -4
Yeah I dident understand a single thing until the x=0 y=0
I don't think they've learned slope yet
anyways drawing graphs is overrated, use a graphing calculator instead 
I have been trying to get one
It’s so expensive to get the one I need for my school
But I understand the question now so I appreciate it
I don't know why we need to purchase graphing calculators, using smartphones with family link or something should be allowed in school imo
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whats the answer?
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can someone please dumbify the solution for me
i dont understand the first line on the second page
by the chain rule, the dx on the numerator and denominator 'cancels'
also you're allowed to swap the order of the differentials
$\frac{d}{dx} \frac{dy}{d \theta} = \frac{d}{d \theta} \frac{dy}{dx}$
south
you're fine if you treat them as fractions basically
i see but what i dont get is in this
d/d0 (dy/dx) = d/d0 (-cot 0) for simplicity im using 0 as thetha
and diff of -cot 0 is cosec^2 0
so d/d0 (dy/dx) = cosec^2 x but then where did the 2nd d/dx spawn in from?
in here
to make it easier
ah so it's just using the fact that dy/dx = -cot theta
ignore the bas handwriting i cant write on laptop
yeah exactly
that's correct
so where did the third d/dx come from?
it has to do with treating the derivatives like fractions as I said
$\frac{d}{dx} \frac{dy}{\cancel{dx}} \frac{\cancel {dx}}{d \theta} = \frac{d}{dx} \frac{dy}{d \theta} = \frac{d}{d \theta} \frac{dy}{dx}$
south
ohhhhhh
so essentially we're splitting dy/d0 by multiplying and dividing by dx
ohhhhh
how tf do i even think of this in the exam
yeah like formally speaking that's not the correct reasoning
but yeah chain rule magically makes this work
also you might have used 1/(dx/dy) = dy/dx before
same principle
its so confusing sometimes 
like how do i even manage to think this way during the exam
also thank you
is there any particular situation where i can treat them as fractions?
or can i just do stuff like this whenever cuz chain rule
i spent like 20 minutes tryna figure this out
thank you!
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literally all the time
yeah now you know haha, nw!
oh
i never thought about it that way lol thanks
if you want pathological examples where this doesn't hold, come learn real analysis and you'll be horrified at where your intuition can go wrong
basically all the functions in your questions will be neat enough for you not to worry
im struggling enough as it is
continuous and differentiable
also boundedness is a strong property, depends on the exact statement
anyways
im scared
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how to prove that if a is an m digit number of all ones, and b is an n digit number of all ones, where a<= b, then a|b only when m|n?
im stuck at $10^m-1 \mid 10^n-1$
the vertical bar means is a divisor of
and this is actually an equvialence
does this help?
@unkempt gate
should be m digit | n digit btw?
how does this help with my question?
no the idea is suppose $\underbrace{11\dots1}{n\text{ digits}}|\underbrace{11\dots1}{m\text{ digits}}$
VincentBH
then you can keep chopping of n 1's from the left until you are left with either zero or $\underbrace{11\dots1}_{m'\text{digits}}$ with $0<m'<n$.
VincentBH
in the second case you get a contradiction since $\underbrace{11\dots1}{n\text{ digits}}$ does not divide $\underbrace{11\dots1}{m'\text{ digits}}$
VincentBH
since it is bigger
ye maybe you can phrase the solution a bit cleaner but that is how you solve it
second case??
the case where you don't get zero
ignore $\underbrace{11\ldots1}{m \text{ digits}}\mid\underbrace{11\ldots1}{n \text{ digits}} \implies m\mid n$
babario
the other direction is the easy direction
so like we r just restating the obvious and really theres not much to prove?
just think of it as recursively chopping sequences of m digits from the n digit number?
yes basically
you can prove the following lemma: $\underbrace{11\dots1}{n\text{ digits}}|\underbrace{11\dots1}{m\text{ digits}}$ if and only if $\underbrace{11\dots1}{n\text{ digits}}|\underbrace{11\dots1}{r\text{ digits}}$ where $r$ is the remainder of the division $m/n$
VincentBH
oh i see
from this, your result follows immediately
btw im kinda overthinking n having trouble trying to write it as a formal proof
@feral stream how?
since $0\leq r<n$, the second part of the equivalence is true if and only if r=0 and that is true if and only if $n|m$
VincentBH
ye the way I wrote it is not very good, you might try to prove the lemma inductively on $q$ with $m=q\cdot n + r$
VincentBH
you can also prove it directly but you are basically proving the same
nahh i mean wording it is literally so easy, but i cant translate it to the proof is what i mean
as in this
if you do this then the induction step can be proven by chopping once
induction step?
VincentBH
this feels so complicated than necessary, but its the best way to ensure rigor?
@feral stream
nahh literally why am i showing for the general case when i already have the idea on how to directly prove it?
im just asking how to write in proper math terms the idea
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how to solve this ?
???
The order of a differential equation is defined as the highest derivative of the unknown function that appears in the equation.
so you tell me what do you think the order is?
The degree of the differential equation is represented by the power of the highest order derivative in the given differential equation.
I think this is pretty straightforward now
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The order is 3
maybe degree 1 ?
yes
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Help me question 1 pls… 4. I have got an answer for angle c
but I don't get the angle of d
how to take out angel d
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- I have got an answer for angle c
but I don't get the angle of d
how to take out angel d
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in (f) i use a^2 - b^2 result is 3/8 which is correct
in (g) i put 27n^3 in front and end up with 3n -3n =0 which is corect
Why couldn't i solve (f) same way i solved (g)
bring 16n^2 in front of the square root with result of 0
What even is the question asking
what happens when n goes to infinity
in (g) i just pulled 27n out of root
If i do the same in (f) i get 0 but that's not correct solution
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i need help pls
whats the question?
how do i solve question 14 e?
i dont want the answer i just want to understand how to work it out
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what do you have so far
this is what i did, but i’m certain it’s getting me nowhere
i think i have to look at the graph
the 12 i got from working out the area between 0 and 6 on the graph
whats your answer for b?
-8
oh wait
a is a little before 10
since the definite integral is negative from 6 to a
i feel like there’s some simple math im missing
hello?
ping helpers, cuz im confused aswell. idk why we cant just solve it analytically
do i find the equation for the curve between 6 and 10?
and then just work it out from there?
ahh
thats what i would do yeah, get the parabolic equation and then solve it such that the area is -6
let me try that
very strange
solving it on the calculator gave me x = 6 and x = 12
what equation did you get for the parabola?
0.75(x-8)^2 - 3
what is the integral of it from 6 to a
integrating that function gave me (x-8)^3 / 4 -3x
and then i plugged in a
and then 6
then i used the calculator to solve for a
oh wait
i got it
i got my answer
i forgot to substitute in -6 for the definite integral of f(x)
a is 8.695
sounds about right
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it's so intuitive, but is there any nice way to prove it?
I'd recommend cross-asking to #advanced-probability
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shouldnt this be infinite solutions because of the non leading row?
there are three variables and 4 rows
where the last row is just 0 =0
ye
but there are constraints imposed by the other equations
try row reducing it further
ahhh so we cant blindly say infinite solutions when we see 0 = 0?
you mean reduce it to row reduced echelon?
yup
ye we get z = 22
then back track
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@shell grotto Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
what have you tried so far?
im counting but it does not appear in the alternatives
you're probably counting too few then
there's also the 2 long rectangles, and the 1 big rectangle that covers the entire thing
then you have to figure out how many more you can make with the diagonal line
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if you label the areas 1, 2, 3 and then 4, 5
hopefully you see it's (1, 2), (2, 3), and (1, 4)
so 3 more ways
yeah convince yourself that we've counted everything systematically
for instance, (1, 2, 3) would be the long rectangle so we already counted that
That's what I'm doing, but I only counted 8. I must have missed one.

oh did you forget the original 5
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I have no idea how to do this
I need to find antiderivative of e^-x/x first but idk how
you don't need to!
you can just compare the integral with the integral of e^(-x), which is larger than the original
Oh mah god
I didnt think of it
Thx u
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hello i'd like part a checked please
lemma 1 says list of polynomials in F with distinct degrees is LI
2.38 says LI list in U with length dimU is also a basis
(1-1)+(1+1) = 0?
You did it twice for the record
yes i copypasted, thanks for pointing that out
a) looks fine other than the typos
nice, thank you
also i think instead of strict subspace you mean proper subspace
to denote a subspace that is not the whole space
i think the two terms are synonymous?
oh ive never heard the former
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how to prove dim(kerf^2)<=2dim(kerf)
i remeber a thing that if dim(a)=n , dim(a*a) does not make the dim bigger
but the question is 2dim (kerf)
can i still use this definition
no its not definition thats what i remember
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stuck at the right hand limit part
Hint write cot in terms of tan
@vagrant oak Has your question been resolved?
my answer still comes e^0 which is 1 but the answer key has e^(2/3)
upon using the limit it also does not seem to be an inderterminant limit
<@&286206848099549185>
The answer key wants you to find the value of the expression in lambda and mu.
And not of e^(cot6x/cot4x)
yes but to find it we need value of the e^(cot6x/cot4x) its a continuous limit so it will be equal to mu and e^lambda
how can you explain this step im stuck at this step
i cant use l hospitals rule if its not indeterminant
Yes
it doesnt apply right??
But
then
cot6x/cot4x = ∞/∞ form
Isn't it so ?
Indeterminate
And we can raise the limit to the power of e
yeah give me some time ill be right back ill try this first
arent cot(3pi) and cot(4pi )= 0
then shouldnt it be 0/0 form
or rather just written 0 and e^0
thats where i cant fgure out why should we use infinite/infinite
@dense cedar sir/maam pls help im sorry im hurrying this
Cot(n•pi) = ∞
Tan n(pi) = 0
And so
1/0 = ∞
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hi
Hi
Simplify
simplify?
x (1-1.15×23/27) = 5.5 + 1.15(-110/27)
,calc 23/27
Result:
0.85185185185185
Result:
0.81481481481481
-27.1 is wrong
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they're all given in the diagram
Ik but idk which is which
like is 9 a?
is 5 the height?
no
look at formula for area of a trapezium
that should come with a diagram telling you what
a,b,h
represent in that formula
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Proving that if $f$ is locally growing in $a$, then $f'(a)\geq 0$
Here is what I have so far:
We know that $\exists \delta$ so that $\forall x,y : a-\delta < x < a < y < a+\delta$ we have $f(x) \leq f(a) \leq f(y)$. (As per the definition of local growth.)
From here I wrote $\frac{f(y)-f(x)}{y-x} \geq 0$ and used the mean value theorem to see that $\exists \xi \in ]x;y[ : \frac{f(y)-f(x)}{y-x} = f'(\xi) \geq 0$.
Now, I have the intuition that $\forall \xi \in ]a-\delta;a+\delta[$ this holds, since the $]x;y[$ interval "runs through" the $]a-\delta;a+\delta[$ interval and $\xi \in ]x;y[$, but I don't know whether it is correct, and how to formalize it. Can someone please help me out?
max
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while solving this question i dindt get it so i looked at the answers and see this (pic 2)
how do theyknow if PQ and AP are perpendicular
if its never mentioned
and then they just let a bunch of random points equal to the common point of those two lines??
where are they getting this from??
To get image of P wrt AB, you're looking for a Q st AB perpendicularly bisects PQ
how can we say that the equation given is perpendicular to the line tho
i dont understand that part
Which part of this figure is confusing to you
We are given equation for a line AB. We are given a point P. And the foot of perpendicular frm P to AB is L. Now, we're asked to find the image of P wrt AB.
Which is Q, i.e., a point with LQ = LP and PL perpendicular to AB makes QL being perpendicular to AB a necessity
@feral gorge Has your question been resolved?
they never said the equation given was for line AB tho
thats my doubt
AB is assumed to be perpendicular to PQ
when it is never mentioned that is it
... They named the line as AB. And PL perpendicular to AB is given.
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this is the question
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You are provided with a table showing pain scores before and after a treatment. The scores are based on a pain scale where higher numbers indicate more pain. The difference is calculated as: pain before - pain after
The goal is to determine whether there is a significant reduction in pain due to the physiotherapy treatment.
You may assume that the differences are normally distributed. The significance level is 0.1% (
𝛼
0.001
α=0.001).
So is it possible that's it's a t-test
With p-value=0,01?
Can someone verifiy if I'm right please
<@&286206848099549185>
Any helpers please?
<@&286206848099549185>
<@&286206848099549185>
● d_1 = 5 - 5=0
● d_2 = 5 - 4 = 1
● d_3=3 - 2 = 1
● d_4 = 5 - 2=3
● d_5 = 5 - 4 = 1
● d_6 = 5 - 3 = 2
● d_7 = 4 - 4 = 0
● d_8 = 3 - 3 = 0
○ \sum_{i = 1}^{n}d_i=0 + 1+1 + 3+1 + 2+0 + 0 = 8
○ n = 8
○ \bar{d}=\frac{\sum_{i = 1}^{n}d_i}{n}=\frac{8}{8}=1
5. Calculation of standard deviation of differences s_d:
○ First, calculate the variance of the differences:
● (d_1-\bar{d})^2=(0 - 1)^2 = 1
● (d_2-\bar{d})^2=(1 - 1)^2 = 0
● (d_3-\bar{d})^2=(1 - 1)^2 = 0
● (d_4-\bar{d})^2=(3 - 1)^2 = 4
● (d_5-\bar{d})^2=(1 - 1)^2 = 0
● (d_6-\bar{d})^2=(2 - 1)^2 = 1
● (d_7-\bar{d})^2=(0 - 1)^2 = 1
● (d_8-\bar{d})^2=(0 - 1)^2 = 1
○ \sum_{i = 1}^{n}(d_i-\bar{d})^2=1+0+0+4+0+1+1+1 = 8
○ s_d^2=\frac{\sum_{i = 1}^{n}(d_i-\bar{d})^2}{n - 1}=\frac{8}{7}\approx1.143
○ s_d=\sqrt{1.143}\approx1.07
○ t=\frac{\bar{d}}{s_d/\sqrt{n}}=\frac{1}{1.07/\sqrt{8}}\approx2.67
why it cannot transform to the normal formula
you need to use the bot i guess
to get the image with it inside

