#help-17
1 messages · Page 234 of 1
is it two lines?
x and y axis
it does go through 0,0
because they have a 0,t) or vice versa
vector addition is true because t is any real number and any real number added to a real number is a real number
you sure?
if you take any 2 vectors in E and add them, will you also get a vector in E?
it will be in E only if 1 of its components is 0, will it always be?
[0,t] + [0,Real number] = [0,Real number]?
yes
yes because when doing vector addition
but what if we chose another 2 vectors
you have to add by a vector also in E
and it would not be in E because you end up with [real number, real number]
yes, where we have no guarantee that one of these is 0
so condition i) fails
what about ii), just for fun
yes it does work
yes, condition ii works
because any scalar multiplied by a vector in E
gives you 0,T or vice versa
because that scalar * 0 =0
exactly
it either gives [0, t] or [t, 0]
for some t
alright, now F
can you draw this?
its a vector passing through 3,1?
yes
yes, it's a line and it does pass through 3, 1
but there are many lines with that property
T multiplies that point
so its a line going through 3,1 depending on T as if it were a scalar
0,0
yes
so now we have 2 points and that uniquely determines a line
so what about condition i)?
yes
because any real numbers in E added to 3,1 give us another point on F
It's mainly because all vectors in E are scalar multiples of [3, 1], as you said. And if we add 2 scalar multiples of [3,1], we get another scalar multiple of [3,1]
a[3, 1] + b[3, 1] = (a+b)[3, 1], which is a scalar multiple of [3, 1]
and so is in E
right
what about condition ii)?
yes because its just another scalar
yes
if we just add another scalar in front of it, it's still gonna be a scalar multiple of [3,1]
t*a[3, 1] is a scalar multiple of [3, 1]
so is it a subspace?
yes
its a line going through that point and 0
yep
so it's a really similar situation to what we had in F
except instead of [3, 1], there is [1, 1]
Can we skip directly to H?
yes
alright
this one looks a bit tricky
it actually is tricky, very tricky
this doesnt have a definite answer, as it depends on u and v
kind of a trick question?
everywhere?
yes, it's whole R^2
gotcha
but sometimes, we may get something like this:
span{ [2, 0], [1, 0] }
what would this be
the same
now it's not everwhere
yep
thought it was 2,0 0,1
so it's either everywhere, or it can be a line
there is one last situation
can you figure it out?
it's a very special case
it has sth to do with [0, 0]
its not within the span?
the last special case is
span{ [0, 0], [0, 0] }
ic
right
and all of those are subspaces
right
in general, all spans are subspaces
because spans were designed to be closed under vector additon and scalar multiplication
So H is a subspace of R^2 as well
gotcha
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which part are you having trouble with?
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how could i prove that $f(2n+1) < 4n+2$
General_Jacob
f(x) returns the sum of all factors of x
for example f(12) = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 6 + 12
@brazen sluice Has your question been resolved?
is this the original question?
i'm pretty sure this is an open question
bcus if we could prove f(2n+1) < 4n+2
that means there are no odd perfect numbers
(odd perfect number => f(2n+1) = 4n+2)
but no odd perfect numbers is currently unproven
nice
well if u manage to finish this problem, please let me know how to do it cus i'd love to get a fields medal
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hi
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Let
$A = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & -5 & 1 \ k & -k & 1 \ 5 & -1 & k \end{pmatrix}$
and
$\mathbf{b} = \begin{pmatrix} -11 \ 1 \ k^2 \end{pmatrix}$.
Find all $k \in \mathbb{R}$ for which
$\begin{pmatrix} 3 \ 3 \ 1 \end{pmatrix}$
is one of the infinite solutions of the system $A \mathbf{x} = \mathbf{b}$. For each of the values found, determine all solutions of the system.
ඞඞඞ
(3,3,1) is a solution for Ax=b
,w rref {{1,-5,1,-11},{k,-k,1,1},{5,-1,k,k^2}}
,, \begin{cases} \frac{k^2+3k-4}{4(k-2)} =3\ \frac{k^2+7k-20}{4(k-2)} =3 \ \frac{k^2-3k-2}{k-2} =1 \end{cases}
ඞඞඞ
hmm
i might have messed something up
I thought of doing [ A\mathbf{x} = \mathbf{b} \Leftrightarrow \begin{pmatrix} 1 & -5 & 1 \ k & -k & 1 \ 5 & -1 & k \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} 3 \ 3 \ 1 \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} -11 \ 1 \ k^2 \end{pmatrix} ] and then find such $k \in \mathbb{R}$ so that $A\mathbf{x}$ has one zero row (inducing infinite many solutions).
bacc the sigma😔🤞
yeah sure
we can perform matrix multiplication
,w {{1,-5,1},{k,-k,1},{5,-1,k}}×{{3},{3},{1}}
what
Ax produces a vector
k=-12
k+12 = k²
I noticed the last sentence with the zero row didnt make sense 
,w solve k^2 -k+12=0
,w k+12 = k^2
,w rref {{1,-5,1,-11},{-3,-(-3),1,1},{5,-1,-3,(-3)^2}}
ah because determinant
yea or you look at the rows
here it's fine gives exactly one solution
here infinite cause zero row
yeah one row full of zeros means one variable is free
yes exactly
k=4 and thats it
k=-3
k=4
yesss
with k=4
you can check
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how do I find i1 and i2?
(kirchhoffs junction law)
how does that look?
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How do I graph for the function f(x) = [[x-c]] given c = -1, 1, and 3?
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why's this the case? (last sentence)
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Hello, can someone help me with this?

could you translate some stuff?
doesnt it say a > 1?
The first question says to prove that : a^n+1....
Yes yes sorry
alright
I can prove that it's correct for n=1. But when I get to the second step, I get stuck
the idea is
look at a^(n+1) + 1/(a^(n+1)) + a^(n-1) + 1/(a^(n-1))
(there is no need for recurrence if you're asking)
looking at this, group together the a^..., and group together the 1/a^...
and factor appropriately
I have to use that method
were you told to use that method during the exercise at some point, or for EVERY question?
because I would understand if it were for this
No, not really. The exercise came following that paragraph. So I tried to prove it using the recurrence although it can be done differently.
ur talking about 1). right? show that for all n \in N (recurrence)
Both of the questions actually, but as Rafilou said, 1 can be proven without it.
Are you talking about the 2nd question ?
But for the first one (if I do it by recurrence) I will need to prove it for a^(n+2)+1/a^(n+2)
Really? It's not obvious to me — can you elaborate?
i'm not sure what u mean?
$(a^n + \frac{1}{a^n})(a+\frac{1}{a}) = a^{n+1} + \frac{1}{a^{n+1}} + a^{n-1} + \frac{1}{a^{n-1}}$
LY
P(n) =>P(n+1)
$\implies a^{n+1} + \frac{1}{a^{n+1}} = 3(a^n + \frac{1}{a^n}) - (a^{n-1} + \frac{1}{a^{n-1}})$
LY
but you only need that for an induction?
so by this recurrence, a^2 + 1/a^2 is an integer
and so using the recurrence again, a^3 + 1/a^3 is an integer etc.
I get it. Thank you so much for your time.
nw!
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https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2027832/l-notation-in-linear-algebra
what other commentators?
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ren
and why was c and d introduced xd
thats just what the question said
then the question is dumb xd
ill get rid of the c-d part later
i should be able to do smth like this right?
or is there a significantly easier way
oh you could but induction is significantly easier
induction is pretty easy:
you want to prove some property P(m) holds true for all m in Z+ (or N)
show P(0) or P(1) holds, whichever is the first case
then, show that if P(k) holds, then P(k+1) holds
its kinda like a recursive loop in coding right
kinda
I think of it as dominoes
I want to show every domino is flipped
All I have to do is flip the first domino
and make sure every domino flipped makes the next one flip
i dont think we should be using induction for this cuz we barely learned it monday
if you learnt it i highly advise using it here
we did it for a series but thats it
the structure of the question leads to induction
well at least it leads nicely to it
more often than not a direct proof rather htan induction is harder
ig i can try it rq
ugh ive been doing this hw for like a significant number of hours. its 5 am
so is base case checking m = 1?
I'm only asking because sometimes Z+ and N have different meanings
specifically to include 0 or not
well Z+ is positive integers
positive in the english sense means > 0
yeah so starts at 1 right?
yes
so i gotta show any work for this part or can i just put a is equivalent to b modn and show thats the same as one of the conditions?
a ≡ b mod n because we supposed so
wow thats a fance congruence sign
lemme type smth up rq
so smth like this?
i feel like im doing this wrong
should i be checking divides or smth instead
yk what im gonna take a power nap
you're not supposed to say this
your goal is a^1 equivalent to b^1 mod n
in a proof, you always start off from what you know, to end up on what you want
o
"Suppose m = 1. Then, since it is known that a = b mod n, we then naturally have a^1 = b^1 mod n. Thus the base case holds"
ok i put that in my own words
im unsure what to do for the actual inductive step tho. for the series we were able to set it equal to smth, but can i really do that on this?
all i got but from what we did before im unsure how to precede. again, we barely have done any induction.
so i appreciate u bearing with me
ok so have you proved the ac = bd mod n thing?
yeah
tho i ended up deleting it cuz for some reason the prof wrote ac=bc instead
basic idea was just rearranging so we already have the ac on one side and then subbing the other stuff in then factoring out an n
ok so
if you already proved that
use interesting values of c and d
to prove the induction step
well its not on the paper anymore, but we do have it as prior knowledge so i can use it anywya
when u say that do u mean setting c equal to a and d equal to b or smth
cuz thatd just produce the i+1 naturally right?
does this work?
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✅
am stuck at part (v) now 💀
<@&286206848099549185>
🙏 manifesting solution to come into my mind
So according to question, i should have that $Re(\alpha^{2^{n+1}})= a_{n+1}-b_{n+1}\sqrt{3}$ which is equivelant to $Re((\alpha^{2^{n}})^{2})$. Then i tried letting $\alpha ^{2^{n}} = x+ iy$ but that doesnt really work since idk what $y$ is since $Re(\alpha ^{2^{n+1}}) = x^{2}-y^{2}$ according to the set up i have (placed into 1 message for readability)
Dootud
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put the$ $ around your masterpiece
ur tex needs to be in math mode to be recognised by bot
altaccountinthespotline
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
<@&268886789983436800> troll
viscious term
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Image
Limit at orgin?. My orginial thoughts were no
so tried to show the limit is not unique considering seqeunces which were a subset of R^2
Using f(0, 1/k) i got limit f is zero
now struggling to find another two seqeunces which returns a finite limit which isnt zero to show that the limit is not unique i.e it does not exist
Any thoughts?
I think this one's exist actually
So lost with it man?
If it exist i guess i go about proving it with the formal defonition so ill try that first
Yea or use polar coords + squeeze theorem
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The answer is supposed to be ln(50/27) but I'm getting ln(100/81).. I can't tell what I did wrong. I'm correct up till the point where I put double ticks.
nvm I got it
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@craggy hamlet Has your question been resolved?
yiu over reduced it with the
2k > 0
note that you gave the condition that k>=3
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feel dumb, but i cannot for the love of god solve this, can anyone help?
not sure how i can approach it (never done any modular arithmetic before, which i am guessing this would require)
so a) is meant to be an 'exploration'
so try n=3, n=5
do they work?
i mean 3 and 9 do work, i can see that, but this is intended to be solved within quite a short timeframe, how am i exactly supposed to "explore" wether odd n > 1 is a factor of 2023^n - 1?
the fastest way would indeed be modular arithmetic
but you can do part a without
i'll think abt how u can do part b
but factoring for a would work for n=3
i think you can do part b with induction
yep
lifting the exponent here would be the fastest fastest way to do b but it's kinda an obscure-ish theorem
but yeah notice that powers of 3 work then induct
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nw!
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someone help me pls
!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
3
what have you got
65.9 and 45.2
idk
ive tried to answer it and it was wrong
then i tried apps then it was wrong aswell
i just need to get this done
but how do you get the answer
its the last question i have
to be fair sparx is pretty bugged
for the edges i was confused
for the faces i did 17 squared -8 squared all square root
then i used that height and did bxh/2
but you're finding the angle between AOB and COD
you will need to use trig here
oh no
you have got the height of AOB and COD here
non right angle trig confuses me
you can make it a right angle triangle here don't worry
ok
you see the triangles here are all isosceles
ok
@ruby scarab Has your question been resolved?
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I need help using the shell method to find the volume V generated by rotating the region bounded by the given curves about y = 8. The equations are 27y=x^3, y=0, and x=6. I made a graph, but I need help construcitng the integral.
27y =^3?
sorry, 27y=x^3
i would plug y = 8 to find the other x coord
wdym other x cord?
what?
bro idk
finding the radius and the height of the cylidrical shell are the two things i need help
also wouldnt shifting the curve 8 units down mess with my bounds??
no, if you had the bounds of the x coordinates
but its being rotated around y=8, so i would have the bounds on the y-axis
bro did you read my question😭
<@&286206848099549185>
if you move it down by 8, then you can change the question to being rotated around the y axis
then just find the y coord for x = 6
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*x axis
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4x+9=12

You want to isolate the term with x , i.e the LHS should contain only the x term and the RHS will have a number
please just give me the answer
!noans
The purpose of this server is to help you learn, not to hand out answers. Do not ask someone to give you the answer directly.
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i want to know , what is correct
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
<@&268886789983436800>
Can you give me your reasons?
Better show original question, sometime things gets confusing dealing with fraction/fraction
thank you
Is it
(1/2)/(x+3) Or 1/(2/(x+3))
thank you
No problem
If it was 1/(2/(x+3)) then 2nd answer would have been right
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the answer is tan y= -1/2 but how do i get negative?
Its in Q2 so it's negative
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why cant you just get rid of the 4x by moving it to the other side
they do it heree so i dont understand why they dont just do that with the one above
you just lost a whole solution bcz of this
division by x versus 6 is different
oh is it cuz theres a 6 there
if x = 0
then u are dividing by 0
which is no bueno
whereas division by 6 on both sides does not affect solution
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Hello, I wouldnt mind some help with this. For some reason I am having some issue just plugging in values... One specific question I have is how arccos (-1/2) is actually possible if the range of arccos is only from 0 to pi/2.. Maybe i have some kind of conceptual misunderstanding...
for arccos(pi/2) do we just reflect it over to the positive side?
This is the answer fyi
thanks in advance for help
its from 0 to pi not 0 to pi/2
for what?
for x
arccos can have negative values as its inputs
ok..
also your third step is wrong arccos(-1/2)=2pi/3 also why is there an extra 1/2 multiplied with it?
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try do both possible cases
the abs here implies 3x - 1 ≤ 41 or -(3x - 1) ≤ 41
the vertical lines surrounding 3x-1 basically turns everything inside them positive
so would it be -|3x+1|?
okay
okay how would you do it if it is like this
3x - 1 ≤ ±41
oh
sorry i didnt realize it was on dnd
uhm
i would move 1 to the other side by adding one to both sides
then i would divide 3 to both sides
which leaves me with x<= +-41+1/3
yes
but ± here suggests that it could be positive and negative
so ((±41) +1) /3) has two cases: (+41 + 1)/3 and (-41+1)/3
yea kinda
you have got the first one here
so i got it partially right im just missing the second part?
yes
kinda realised I might have make this a bit complicated
this is also the same as saying
$-41\le3x-1\le41$
VjFaU1dsb3hjRVZhTW1SUFVqQXhibGRY
@elder rock Has your question been resolved?
Im still confused
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,rccw
looks like that's cramer's rule
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does anyone know how to solve this?
i was told to use a calculator (ti84 plus ce) but i cant afford one so is there a way to do it like without one?
What should you do before even trying the quadratic formula or factoring or completing the square
in case i ever get a paper one or anything?
i was trying to like factorise it
but i wasnt rlly sure how to break up 18
First try dividing everything by ...?
3?!
What is the largest number that can divide each of the coefficients
It is larger than 3
Yes
$n^2-3n-4=0$
mari
yup
Can this factor evenly?
and i broke the -3n to .... +n - 4n
Sounds good
ok wait im a bit stuck here
$n^2+n-4n-4=0$
mari
could it be (n + 1)(n +4)?
No
(you were very close
it's almost this, but check again
)
What can you factor out of n^2 and n
Yes
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Is there anyway to prove something by not using induction?
So for example instead of assuming that n=k is true and prove for n=k+1 by using given identity instead we use this identity to prove only n=k case. Or it just not possible?
what?
if you’re asking what i think you’re trying to say, then the answer is you’ll often have to prove an infinite number of cases instead of 1 or 2
because if you want to show something holds for all n>1
instead of proving holding at n=k implies at n=k+1 and n=2, you need to prove n=2, n=3, …, and prove by (physical) exhaustion
@vast shale Has your question been resolved?
I actually have the example but it just too long
So the point is to prove divisibility of certain polynomial by other polynomial after specific operation performed n times
So instead of just using proof by induction I tried to use different definitions to prove base case for n=k instead of assuming it being true . So I actually got curious what induction actually gives you in more formal way.
I just think proving for n=k is just like proving for any other integer while proving for all integers should utilise induction step. So basically I was doing wrong thing all along, since only what I was asked for is to proved that operation is valid for consecutive case and n=1 case.. Ahh sometimes is so confusing where is induction and where isn't
Thanks
non induction proofs would be stuff like direct proofs
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i got up to here, how what? (should also be parallel to the line)
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need help solving this problem, "Describe a sequence of transformations that will map DEF onto GHJ
<@&286206848099549185>
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why do we convert an ODE into a set of linear first order ODEs?
what advantage does that have?
@vast shale Has your question been resolved?
@vast shale you can use methods that apply to first order odes
isnt that good enough 
what methodss?
whats rk4?
In numerical analysis, the Runge–Kutta methods (English: RUUNG-ə-KUUT-tah) are a family of implicit and explicit iterative methods, which include the Euler method, used in temporal discretization for the approximate solutions of simultaneous nonlinear equations. These methods were developed around 1900 by the German mathematicians Carl Runge a...
ohh okay! so mostly when we approximate solutions via iterations it might be helpful to have it as a system?
well, we have access to pretty good methods for first order differentia equations
Does it have any other advantages?
why should we have to give them up
hmm but theyre still coupled
thats fine
thats what kind of confuses me
does it have any other advantages?
besides that it looks cooler
IDK if id count looking cooler, lol
fair enough
thanks tho, i dont think there are more advantages
tell me
but we can make pretty firm statements about simultaneous equations
this would be my thought
but, im sure there are more advantages
just not a lot coming to mind at 9pm on a thursday
In this video we are going to look at how we can use the Runge-Kutta to a system of 1st order ODEs.
anyways
idk what that is
snapchat ai
-
Simplified Analysis: First-order ODEs are generally easier to analyze than higher-order equations. You can use established methods for first-order equations, which can save time.
-
Numerical Methods: Many numerical methods, like Euler's method or Runge-Kutta methods, are designed for first-order ODEs. By converting to first-order, you can apply these methods directly.
-
Initial Conditions: It's often easier to specify initial conditions for first-order systems, which can be crucial for solving ODEs in real-world applications.
-
Phase Space Representation: Converting to a system allows for a better representation in phase space, helping visualize the behavior of the system over time.
-
Stability Analysis: It can facilitate stability analysis, as you can examine the behavior of each first-order equation separately to understand the overall system's stability.
gave me this
ah, sure, stability
you know, i think there are other properties based on spectra
where we'd like it in a system
i did not feel very focused during this course though
if you are curious
youll find stability in chapter 4 and spectral methods towards the end
he gave me 10 more 😭
im currently watching a nice series about them but was just curious what advantage it brings
to me
it is that we may just use plain ol first order method
everything else is gravy
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If 0 < p/n < 1 where p and n are integers with n being odd, and p/n is in lowest terms, then do p/n and 1/n necessarily have shortest repetends of the same length in their binary expansion?
@patent nymph Has your question been resolved?
@patent nymph Has your question been resolved?
@patent nymph Has your question been resolved?
@patent nymph Has your question been resolved?
@patent nymph Has your question been resolved?
is this still available?
My question still hasn’t been answered
Let me try lol hahaha
The answer is yes! FOR ME MY OPINION FOR ME
Both fractions will behave similarly in binary because "n" is odd. When you divide by an odd number, the way the digits repeat in binary will be consistent.
Since "p/n" is just a scaled version of "1/n", their repeating parts will match in length.
So, if p/n and 1/n are in the right form, they will have the same length of repeating digits in their binary forms!
When we have two fractions, like p/n and 1/n
=>This is the part of the fraction that keeps repeating when you turn it into a decimal. For example, in 1/3 =>0.333..., the "3" keeps repeating
=>This means turning the fraction into a base-2 (binary) number instead of the usual base-10 (decimal).
Now, for your question:
=>if we have p/n and n is an odd number (which means it can't be divided evenly by 2), and p/n is in its simplest form like 1/3 is simpler than 2/6 we want to know if both p/n and 1/n will have repeating parts in their binary form that are the same length.
@patent nymphIt's just my opinion, so it's 50/50. I don't even trust myself that it's correct lol
I hope you haven’t used chatgpt lol
For your second point: Consider 1/63 and 7/63 in binary
the fuck is chatgpt? new messanger?
The first one has a repetend of length 6, but the second one has a repetend of length 3
So they don’t match in length, although they are multiples
It’s just that your message seemed a bit like an ai generated one
like the format and how you tell me something I did know already
like gemini type shit
and how you’re a bit vague
and you just rephrased the question at the end
but I suppose it could just be you understanding the question
so forgive me if I’m wrong
it true i am bit vague because i dont want to want to failed you or assume this is correct maybe it right but anyone can just say something super mathematics that little convincing and you assume it is correct hehe
no no no forgive me
hmmmm it seemsssssssssssss some parts of my chat or explanation is incorrect thank you broooo for pointed that out! God bless you
@patent nymph Has your question been resolved?
@patent nymph Has your question been resolved?
Yes. The length of the shortest repetend is the smallest number k such that 10^k = 1 mod n, regardless of what the numerator is (so long as it's coprime to the denominator)
If n has factors of 5 or 2 (ik you said it's even but if it wasn't this would still work) remove them first
I see, how do you prove that?
also should that be 2^k = p since the expansion is binary
oh right
how do you prove that?
one way is examining the process of long division
the other is you know that if you have, say, 0.1100110011001100...
no there's an easier way
hmm
multiplying a fraction by an integer can't increase the length of the repetend
so you can multiply it by whatever integer is p^-1 mod n
but yea examine the process of long division or use the fact that if you have say 0.[1100] where the 1100 repeats forever
that's 1100/1111 = 12/15 = 4/5
so looking at 4/5 we see that k=4 is the first k such that 2^k = 1 mod 5
where was i
anyways the fact that 4/5 has a repetend of k=4 digits is a consequence of the fact that it can be written in the form a/(2^k-1)
which is in turn a consequence of the fact that k=4 is the first number for which n=5 divides 2^k-1
which is another way to say that 2^k = 1 mod n
I don’t see how to show that it doesn’t decrease the length of the repetend though
does that just follow from them being coprime?
that's not part of the final proof i ended up settling on
but yes
if we have an irreducible fraction like 14/27
we can multiply it by 14^-1 mod 27 (in this case 2) to get a number with fractional part 1/27
and that can’t increase the repetend length right
I think I see
Thanks for helping!! @half imp
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np
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I am not sure how to proceed from here. I don't know how to go from there:
forMaths
v stands for y?
well you gotta find the value of C
plugging some known values
and then solve for x when y = 0
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For sequence a(n)=[2a(n-1)-1]/3, a(0)=4x-3, Rewrite a general formula
@hexed kestrel Has your question been resolved?
I would try to expand the sequence by doing something like
$a(1) = p a(0) + q$ where p = 2/3 and q = -1/3
delta
$$a(2) = p a(1) + q$$
$$a(2) = p (p a(0) + q) + q$$
$$a(2) = p^2 a(0) + q(1 + p)$$
delta
$$a(3) = p^3 a(0) + q (1+p+p^2)$$
delta
once you start to see a pattern and introduce the values for p = 2/3 and q=-1/3 and a(0) = 4x-3 it should be straightforward to solve
delta
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How to do this ?
substitute first
which one 、
this
we don't know anything about integral of f(3x+1)dx
but we do know about integral of f(x)dx (or f(y)dy or replacing with any other mute variable)
so how do we change this
into an integral that looks like f(x)dx
just change the inside
3x+1 = a
@hybrid flicker can u try to solve a Variational inequality because i'm not the brightest at it
Yeah it is multi choices question
so 1/3 part
i just threw it at the end
for easier calculation
pull the - sign, and turn upside down the limit ?
???
owh whats this
Lemme check my old highschool book
so i can explain it better
but the main part is that u consider 3x+1 = a
And that pic is wrong btw
it should be 1/3 with that pic
alright
never seen u sub?
$\int_a^bf'(x)g(f(x))dx = \int_{f(a)}^{f(b)}g(u)du$
rafilou is not not born in 2003
you mean u substitution ?
yes
is Differentiable a word in math @hybrid flicker ?
ohh yea i do knew that
alright so do some u substitution on f(3x+1)
to get some f(u)
and use the other integrals you know
okay how to combine with those 2 integral function which is 21 and -15 ?
find the f(u) first
then u can see that how u should combine the first 2 integral
Substitute
a = 3x+1
da = 3 dx
dx = da/3
Figure the limits
when x is 1, u=3(1) + 1 = 4
when x is 2, u=3(2) + 1 = 7
Substract the other two integrals given the value of them
-15-21=-36
Now we substitute
1/3 * (-36) = -12
So the answer is B
chill bro
he is learning
don't give answers
!noans
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I just explained how to do it
yeah but you didn't let the guy work through it, you handed it like an "already finished and ready to be copied" solution
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using x^2+y^2+z^2=1 I have to minimise and maximise x+4y+8z
I think the minimum is -8 but I couldn't prove it I tried to prove it homogenising RHS I need some hints/help
x,y,z is real btw
It's not -8
x^2+y^2+z^2=1 is a sphere (radius 1, center origin)
x+4y+8z=a is a plane, your goal is basically to find the extremum values for a, and that happens when the plane is tangent to the sphere
Think about the normal to the plane
uh I haven't had this I only had like basic inequalities, but it's fine, wait so like I have to find when it is tangent from "above" and "below" the sphere? and it's probably like similar to 2d so I can try doing it
Yes it's somewhat similar
okay thank you
The largest is easier to find btw
@ruby heart Has your question been resolved?
so the normal vector to this plane is (1,4,8)?
Yes
Yes
yayy thanks a lot
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guyz help
altaccountinthespotline
rearrange equation to find x
Substitute your found value back into the equation to see if you arrive at a new result.
!original
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
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claim
split this
k * 2 ^ (k+2) + 2 * 2 ^ (k+2)
alright I'll give it a try brb
nevermind I did not cook
it burned
where do we go from here?
there are 2 same terms
k*2^(k+2)?
add them
like this?
does this work?
you can also simplify this
oh yeah
write 2+1 as 3 please
do I add them together like before
yes
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not k+4
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oh alright tysm
