#help-17
1 messages · Page 200 of 1
yed
yes
and whats tan(180-115) ?
no
this is correct
Isn'titinquadrant
try to get tan 200 from tan 20
oh :p
yeah
now what
yes
try
tan 180+20
yep
what formula
tan(a+b)
?
why do you want to expand ?
why can't you ?
wdym "try" ?
it is
1+1
tan(45+45)=tan90
that is exactly what your question sounds like
2/1-1 = undefined
I have to leave,could you take it from here @nova iris?
Ya sure
thank you
Can you repost the question pls
Tan (a-b) = tan a - tan b / 1 + tana tanb
nvm
ye
It shoudve been that
He did a mistake
how
That's the literal formula
Convert into sine cos
Yes and the denominatior
sin65cos20 - sin20cos65/ cos65cos20
hi @nova iris
It's +
ye
See the numerator is now form sin(a-b)
yee
yes
So what is the number sin45/cos45
tan45
Which is tan 45
1
And that's equal to 1
correct
the question isn't done completely yet
What's left to do?
tan 200 tan 115 = 1+ tan 200 + tan 115
What is tan 200?
180+20
90+25
yes
If it's tan (90+x) = -cot x
ye
This rearranging is clear?
wait
Yea?
Here's the thing if it's sin(n*pi/2 +x) and n is odd it converts
So sjn to cos tan to cot etc
Here n was 1 ie odd
So it becomes cos
And tan cot
in first and third it stays same?
no I mean opposite
Iamconfused
which quadrants does sin become cos
But it really depends on how you do it
You can also change it there
By doing 3pi/2 - x in 3rd quad
To convert
ye clear
Then Now divide rhs on both sides you get your answer
Put it in tan(a-b) you proved it
Write presuming this equality holds this must be true
And we know tan45 = 1 so that equation is correct
Anytime dude
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Can anybody help me with this?
When the area limited by the curve y=x(A-x) and the x-axis is S and the area limited by the curve y=x²(A-x) and the x-axis is S1, find the value of A so that S=2S1. 0<A≤1
Drawing a rough figure first might be helpful
The answer is A=1 but I don't understand how it got to that result
What region do each of the areas represent?
ok i made a graph
Yeah something like this
So you can set up each of the areas as integrals
right so what u wanna do is form the area under each curve in terms of A seperately
Solve the integrals and set S=2S1 and solve for A
and then combine those expressions with $S = 2 S_{1}$ and use that to find A
I think I could use
y-f(a)=f'(a)(x-a)
but I dont know how
Out Of Nosh
first step is to find where the graph crosses the x-axis on the right in terms of A for each curve
so that u have the non-0 limit on your integration
Why would you need this?
This is the equation of a tangent
Couldn't I use it to find the slope of any of the functions at the point (A, 0)?
Why would you want the slope?
couldnt be useful in something?
not really, no
Okay, but we have the areas and with them how can we find the value of A?
I think I managed to solve it
I equated the functions to find the intersections, so it resulted in x=0, A, 1
Can I simply say that A=1 since x=A and A>0?
yes
okay, thank you so much
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what is the statement reason for these two problems?
!status
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1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
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5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
7
what does the given say?
@hollow maple Has your question been resolved?
what's your status that isn't described in options 1 - 6
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$\lim_{x \to + \infty } f(x) = a ; ; ; and ; ; ; \lim_{x \to - \infty } f(x) = a \iff \lim_{x \to \infty } f(x) = a$
ǝʞnsᴉɐꓷ
Is it accurate if these limits exists?
no
arrow doesn't work both ways
limit to inf by itself tells you nothing about limit to -inf
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how can i find the inverse laplace transform of 1/(s+2)^2 using the bromwich integral?
apparently i have to do a substitution here for cauchys formula to work but i dont understand it exactly
oh nvm i found it
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Ahhh
... do you have a question
Yes
This channel is only for on-topic discussion. Please take casual conversation to #discussion or #chill.
which euler number
I hate Euler number
there are like ten million euler numbers
I’m so mad
no
what do complex roots of unity have to do with euler's number?
oh right
My heart is kidnapped by his beauty
you should learn about mod-arg form and de moivres theorem before you can fully understand the video
His innocent look
I understand them
Ahhh
I learned about de moivre theorem
well if you understand that complex numbers can be represented in polar form using e, then the nth roots of a complex number correspond to complex numbers where the angle of the polar form is divided into n parts, forming an n-gon in the complex plane
bro are you asking a legitimate question or just messing around
What’s the e stands for
I’m asking a legitimate question
I just so done with the e, that makes the whole situation becoming complicated
It is unnecessary
To express de moivre theorem using e
the use of e is to take advantage of series to make the notation easier
But what it has anything to do with Euler number
Is the e Euler number
Is the e Euler number
Or just a notation. A abbreviation for the whole shit
just a notation trick
For the whole de moivre that written in the form of trig function
it is
What
Wut
Why
Why
Then Is theee any benefit to use the notation e to express de moivre theorem
note that youre not just using e, youre using e^something
some when you multiply things together, you can use exponent laws to make things easier
I can still live without it right
Without knowing the e
The properties of it
I can still express my shit using de moivre
Without the e
sure, but it makes life harder
And it is totally fine
Where can I learn about e
It seems everything is correlated with e
And it has so many properties
That I’m unable to learn them all
honestly im not sure
2.718281828…
I didn’t know e has anything to do with de moivre theorem until I saw this video
they come up as you go along, just make sure you understand them as best you can so when you learn a new property its easier
then study representations of complex numbers in polar form before continuing in the video
But to be serious you can see the proof that e^itheta = cis theta if you’re interested
I did
..
is your problem that you don't like representing cos(theta) + i*sin(theta) as e^(i*theta)?
He’s so adorable
Yes
that is absolutely standard when working with complex numbers and definitely useful to get used to
As I cannot see any benefit except sparing a few efforts from writing
e isn't just a shorthand for this..
The exponential function just makes lots of things convenient
e comes up in calculus, differential equations
basically everywhere
get used to it
e itself isn't that special
i mean the number does come up
but really it's the exponential function which is super useful
Why it is useful
That’s fantastic
comes up all the time in differential equations because of its property of being its own derivative
the inverse, logarithm, turns multiplication into addition
That’s marvelous
so it lets you convert between the two fundamental operations of arithmetic
i feel like bro's being sarcastic 😭
addition and multiplication
No
i think that's pretty cool
Im speaking the words of heart
What a strange expression
probably one of the best definitions of the exponential function is the power series one
$\exp(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{x^n}{n!}$
Pseudonium
and this lets you exponentiate some wild stuff that you might not think you'd be able to exponentiate
like matrices
or other operators
mhm
If you set x=i*theta and compare the imaginary and real parts you’ll get the series for sin(theta) and cos(theta)
yes
indeed this is how a lot of people define sin and cos
at least in modern math
you can derive angle sum identities easily, they're really just exponent rules (which are easy ofc)
expand each of these as cis and compare real and imaginary parts: $e^{i(x+y)} = e^{ix} e^{iy}$
Mero
well idk about all that, but it can make things done in polar coordinates or 2D geometry kind of fun
another tool in your tool belt
like anything you learn about rotational motion in physics, try redoing them with the complex exponential, like the relations between position, velocity and acceleration for uniform circular motion as a specific example
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how did the area go from e^k/2 - 1/2 - k/2 to k/2 ?????
if you need to see hte original questiotn i can sent it too
it should be this
Since the function passes through (k,k) substitute it in the given function
assuming it passes through (k,k)
so you are left with
area = k-k/2 = k/2
@rough zenith
@rough zenith Has your question been resolved?
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i dont think u can just convert it into that in an inequality
Are you sure it's (-1,0)?
$\log_{-x}$ looks very cursed
Pseudonium
fr
Fr
my first thought would be to use the base change formula
$\log_{-x}(a) = \frac{\ln(a)}{\ln(-x)}$
Pseudonium
Wait if the base is less than 1 then the inequality sign changes ig
So you've to divide it into 2 cases, one where -x>1 and another where 0<-x<1
The first case has no solutions as you've already found
@sand ember Has your question been resolved?
Also, making the substitution -x=u will help clear up the wierd looking stuff
It looks a lot easier to handle, thats it.you want to solve $\frac{ln(u^2+4u+3)}{ln(u)} > 1$
quickdoom
Make two cases, as stated above by sulfur
One where ln(u) is positive (1<u) and one where ln(u) is negative (0<u<1).
In the first case you will be able to multiply both sides by ln(u), but in the second case you will have to flip the sign of the inequality, since you will be multiplying by a negative number.
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no idea how to start
Integrate :))
a= dv/dt
what exactly do you not understand ?
don't forget the c when you integrate
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How to find the inverse of the function above?
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
for $x\neq -1$
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
not yet
Why?
atleast that's not how I'd do it
neon
It doesn't matter
It's because we're using the property of inverse functions:
[ f \circ f^{-1} (x) = f^{-1} \circ f (x) = x ]
Now you can solve for the inverse function
Why is x approaching the inverse of f?
@viral copper ha
go away
Use \mapsto!!
😭
But we haven't found the inverse yet, how can we replace?
This is the not so scuffed way of doing “swap the places of x and y”
(which is valid, we only do this when we know that there exists an inverse)
Hold on
In my lecture they taught what's an inverse function:
Let's say f: A -> B is one-to-one function (where B = R(f)). The function f^-1 : B -> A, f^-1 (y) = x is called the inverse of f: A -> B iff f(x) = y.
How do we find if the function is one-to-one?
ughghghg one way inverses
Well by definition, if $x_1 \neq x_2 \implies f(x_1) \neq f(x_2)$, then the $f$ is one-to-one
neon
Or injective if you're bougie
And how do I find if some function is one-to-one or not?
check if it satisfies the definition
I think I'll not be checking each domain value
you must
It would take all my life
not if you're smart about it
It's probably easier to do with the contrapositive actually
id say your version is the contrapositive 
[ f(x_1) = f(x_2) \implies x_1 = x_2 ]
neon
this is the definition of injective thats usually presented
well
I was given the != one
For all!!!
Wikipedia says otherwise
Yeah wikpedia also uses the != one
What do you mean?
you can check for example that f(x) = x is injective
if f(a) = f(b), then a = b
so f is injective
what's injective?
Oh boy
But how do I check that?
That should work for all the x value
f(a) = f(b) is the same as a = b by the definition of f that i gave
Throw it in and simplify
f(x) = x
horizontal line test?
For light functions - yes
Trying to understand how to find if function is one-to-one or not
Well, I still don't get if function is one-to-one or not
why not
you started with f(x_1) = f(x_2)
and you've shown that necessarily x_1 = x_2
this is what it means for a function to be injective
But if function is one-to-one it should be x_1 != x_2
no uh
neon
It's the definition of one-to-one function from my lecture
@cobalt crypt @rugged orchid take that
yes you have the first definition
equivalent is the second definition
It’s not in English it doesn’t count
you used the second one here
Hold on, are they the same?
yes
A => B is equivalent to not B => not A
Draw out a truth table if you don’t believe it
It truth will reveal itself
Haha I’m so funny
So that's one-to-one function
yes
Then why the inverse to the function is the same as the function?
It's a result we notice
You can verify it
And if you attempt to find the inverse you'll see I was right
,w {{-1, 1}, {1, 1}}^-1
So you suggest to use this rule, don't you?
Assuming you don't need to show your work
Or stuff like that
But try to find the inverse normally first
Look what I get
Let's hope it aligns with expectations
It surely doesn't
you still have a bit to go
I agree
also is that meant to be a 1
looks like a zeta
Yep
,, x = \f {\zeta - y} {\zeta + y}
I don't get what I'm supposed to do next
isolate y
y = -x -xy +1
Al'Jabr well help you
I'm probably the most unteachable guy
Man, there's -(x * y), how am I supposed to do that?
Move it to the other side
Oh damn
Seems I've forgotten algebra
Yep, it's the same as the original function
Alright
Try B-major instead of those 4 notes
Thank you very much
It's better for learning piano
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how to do this
answer is C but how
Opposite angles in a 4 sided figure are always equal to 180
not always
in circle right
@cobalt umbra you know x= 108 since all angle are the same in a regular pentagon
yea that one is good
since you know that you can find angle utp and vqp
and then you also have reflex p
now you get 2 equations
reflex p?
oh the obtuse outer one
Yes
s and r are equal to 108
Yes
so now from RSVU
you get angle V+U=180-108
which is 72
you get this part? @cobalt umbra
angle RVU + VUT?
not rlly
we used angle sum property
since that is a 4 side fig its angle sum is 360
oh
i made little mistake
isnt it 5
then you will get 2 equations for the angle
after that just solve like normal
and you should get y=72
ok
I got it dw
The figure is kinda bad
Why is there a red dot on the rightside
@cobalt umbra
wait i got it
we make a line from p pallallel to TU intersecting VU
from there we get a trapezium
the angle PTU=180-x
and base angle of trapezium are equal
so y=180-x
after that we just add x and 180-x
and get 180
Only if its isosceles
bru
it isnt equal
because the issue with the question is that RV can be extendable
and if it extends than angle y can vary
man idk
and theres no information regarding the length of RV or VU
i dont know
ok will do once someone figures it out
I got it
so it makes right angle triangle V U and new line
i think its impossible
if the rv line can vary without affecting the pentagon etc and there is no information, then it is impossible without any length of RV
What if we continue the line
TP
Continue it to VU
We'd know Q' is 72, we'd know P' is 72
We'd know that in total that would be 72+72+V-(180-72-Y)
@cobalt umbra Has your question been resolved?
i am still adament this is the reason
@cobalt umbra Has your question been resolved?
I also think it is impossible, that's only the case when VU is parallel to RS, which is not given in the problem.
or alternatively, if TU = QV, which would lead to triangles RSW and WUV in this image to be similar, giving angle y=72, but neither this is given.
If we draw line QT here
We'd get an isosceles triangle
And trapezoid QTUV
With 2 base angles equal to 108
no?
Ig we cant prove QT parallel to UV
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Hey, my question is pretty simple, I have an inequalities like -4<x<3 and I want to surround x². How I can do that?
And on ]-infinity ; 0[ x² is decreasing so we reverse the symbols
and finally 0<x²<9, right?
Ooh okay
So you'll end up choosing the inequalities with LESS constraints
So it's 0<= x² < 9 ?
0<x²<16
Yes
Coupled with 0<=x² < 9
We do agree 0<=x² is the less constraining for the LEFT inequality
What about the right inequality? Which one has LESS constraint?
For the right they have the same constraint no?
Oh no okay
I understand
It's 0<x²<16
Almossssst
Yes including 0
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Hey it's me again, I have an inequalities like -5<x<2 and I want to surround 1/x, how I can do that please?
I have separated at 0 but of course we can't divide by 0 so I'm stuck here
Because I can't apply the function
If you want something like a < 1/x < b, you won't get it
Well because around 0 1/x goes from -inf to +inf
You can get something like 1/x < a OR 1/x > b
(or x = 0)
And for my example what will be a and b?
Take -5 < x and x < 0 and make it 1/x < a
I got 1/x < -1/5
Yeah
And what do you do for x <0?
x < 0 is necessary to get 1/x < -1/5
?
Oh yeah
Okay so yes I won't write "and x<0" because it's useless
But what about x<2?
Yes
If it were an "and" you could write it 1/2 < 1/x < -1/5 which is just wrong
When we want to apply the square function and we have the same inequalities
We separate at 0
But why the " <= " is with the positive side?
Is that false to write <= on both side?
Example?
For example we have -5<x<2 and we want to surround x²
I separate the inequality at 0 and I got "-5<x<0 or 0<=x<2"
Why the "<=" is on the positive number side?
Is it wrong to write "-5<x<=0 or 0<=x<2"?
You can do -5<x<=0, it's just redundant
Okay
-5<=x is wrong though
Huh yeah I mistake something ^^
Okay and if we don't write any "<=" it's false
That's right?
Unlike in the 1/x case where 1/0 is undefined, here 0^2 is defined, so you can't just forget about 0
In the 1/x case you'd need to keep a "or x = 0" unless you really don't need it in the future
In the x^2 case you can just have x^2 = 0 as part of something like 0 <= x^2 < 25
It's the same as writing x^2 = 0 or 0 < x^2 < 25

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Consider a trigonometric series $a_0 + \sum_{k \geq 1} (a_k \cos(kt) + b_k \sin(kt))$.
- Prove that the following assertions are equivalent:
\begin{itemize}
\item[(i)] The numerical series $\sum_{k \geq 0} a_k$ and $\sum_{k \geq 1} b_k$ converge absolutely;
\item[(ii)] The trigonometric series is normally convergent over $\mathbb{R}$.
\end{itemize} - Prove that if conditions (i) and (ii) are satisfied, then the sum function $f : t \mapsto a_0 + \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} (a_k \cos(kt) + b_k \sin(kt))$ is continuous and $2\pi$-periodic.
abyssworld
!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
2
so what did you try?
we suppose sum of a_k and sum of b_k converge absolutely, so it means that sum of |a_k| and sum of |b_k| converge. We want to find a sup of the trogonometric series right?
i know that the sin(kt) and cos(kt) are bounded by 1
yep
so it means that the trigonomic function is:
ehm yes i found it thank you!!
latex is not working?
$\sum_{k \geq 1} \left|a_k \cos(kt)\right| + \left|b_k \sin(kt)\right| \leq \sum_{k \geq 1} \left|a_k\right| + \left|b_k\right|$
abyssworld
.close
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I want to graph the line,
y= (x - floored((x+1)/6)) +1
for values of x not divisible by 2,3
I also want to graph multiple other lines, and then see their valid outputs, where the lines all intersect.
How would i go about doing this?
What's floored?
x+1 / 6
I'm basically looking for an online tool that will let me restrict the domain of inputs into a graph, or just give me the output after restricting the inputs by a divisibility
Its okay if there doesnt exist one, i can try to just code it
@last grotto Has your question been resolved?
rounded down to the nearst integer
looks like this
but that's over all x
Yep! but i need the domain to not contain any inputs divisible by 2, or divisible by 3!
Exactly
The problem is i need the intersections between many of these lines
well, u'd want to graph ur other lines and then see the intersections
they are all like this
all 5 lines i need to graph need to be domain limited
are you graphing by hand
No, anything is fine i just need a list of these numbers that would be outputted
quickly that i can test
I just am verifying that my statements are true
in that case i'd just feed your answers into the function part of your caclulator and see if y changes
i thought about it again, what would also suffice is just showing me all outputs that are shared by both functions.
@last grotto Has your question been resolved?
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I'm still confused with side splitter (triangle proportionality) theorem
and angle bisector theorem
so here I do 15/(x+15)
so the side of the small triangle divided by the side of the large triangle
=
8/12
so the same thing
15/x+15 = 8/12
cross multiplyy
8x+120=180
8x=60
x = 7.5
ok
but yeah, its correct
but angle bisector you dont use here
how do I know what to cross multiply
is it like x/4 = 9/6
or
6/4 = 9/x
idk
https://www.varsitytutors.com/hotmath/hotmath_help/topics/angle-bisector-theorem reading this might help
If a point is on the bisector of an angle, then it is equidistant from the two sides of the angle.
ok
how do I know what it says
for the image above
wdym?
like
how do I know what the angle bisector theorem says
a/b = c/d
I know that
but how do I implement that into my uestions on homework and tests
look at the bisector angle
so
if I look at the angle bisector
the numbers to the bisected angle are on top
and the other are on the bottom
you can rewrite this to d/b=c/a
in this case should a be 4, b be x, c be 6, and d be 9
if I go by his video
where a and b are the bottom side
yes
thats correct
yep
it is
:D
when are they giving you helpful role fr
I see you helping people like 24/7
they holding me back fr
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i know this is a simple question but im kinda struggling
can you rewrite tan as sin and cos?
@elder delta Has your question been resolved?
do you mean as in tan = sin/cos in a unit circle?
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i mean then the exact value of cos would be 15 no?
Flappie
then write this as cos =?
hmm
let me try...
hmm what do you mean is that not just 15 still? and does sin(thaeda) < 0 actually mean anything?
do you know how to cross multiply?
yeah but why would that be necessary here?
well i mean i just dont understand if sin/cos is equal to 5/15 wouldnt cos just be 15?
but sin is not 5?
yeah thats true
\begin{align*}\frac{\sin}{\cos}&=\frac{5}{15}\15\sin&=5\cos\\cos&=\frac{15}{5}\sin\\cos&=3\sin<0\end{align*}
Flappie
ok well thanks a lot 👍 👍👍👍👍👍👍👍👍
@elder delta Has your question been resolved?
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v is a constant vector
d/dt (v.v)
