#help-17
1 messages · Page 183 of 1
78 is not the answer
why
:,))
you just found the 78 part
no
we're looking for the green part
yes just you need to find the angle measure rn
i think to find the solution would be 180-12
no
don't forget that every quarter part has 90°
if you notice, we do this on a circle
Is that 900?
no 90°
Oh wait no it’s 90
it is 90
lol
so what should we do with these angles if we want to find the green part?
Add them
of course
78??
yes
Wait whaaaatt
I am looking
covers all these angles
Yes
Ohhhh
so 90+90+78 = 258 must be the answer
yesss
315
yes
AAAAAYYY
Give me one more plz
i have to go rn
O
Okay (:
see you later Frog
Thank you for helping me understand bearing, I appreciate it so much
you're welcome
I hope you have a good day
you too
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need help with this trigo qn
In a triangle all the angles together= 180
You can find the angle ACB by doing arctan(12/5)
And you know that the angle ABC is 90 degrees
so I inverse tangent 12/5 to find angle ACB
then I take 180 degrees - 90 - angle ACB to find angle CAB
then I find the value of sin CAB
then I take 180 degrees - angle ACB to get angle ACD then I cos the final value right?
Yep
there is
what is it?
to the sides of the triangle
I don’t get what you mean
like you can say AB = 12k and CB = 5k
thus
tan(ACB) = 12k/5k
= 12/5
becuse if you look carefully tan(ACB) = AB/CB
yeah I know that
is it because of Pythagoras theorem
x² = 25k²+144k²
ok
then for sin CAB I take CB / CA
I think I get it now
tysm
you're welcome
I was waiting for someone to help me 😂
ahaha
can I add you bro?
thanks
np
I sent a request
i accepted
okay see you later
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see you
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Help
should be correct
how
How so
Question 176 right ?
yeah
175
300×0.87^4x
It would still be 0 to +inf for 176 though
didn’t he circle 176?
No
@dim stirrup Sry i was speaking of 176
The range for 176 is still 0, +inf
Yeah i didnt use -ve
if your working is for 175, I think its wrong
What is -ve
should be negative gradient
as you can see in your desmos graph, the gradient is going downwards
That means range would be -
Range is still (0, inf)
yes
why do you say that?
Possible values of y still range from 0 to inf
f(-inf) = inf
f(inf) = 0
the range could be from any negative number to 0
the function 300(0.87)^4x cannot output a negative number if x is a real number
however, if the y value is 0, there would be no gradient as its undefined
Was there anything else I missed for the problem before I go back to 176
I believe the base should just be "1.05"
Other than that, everything in this image looks fine
Thank u
yup
@brisk cape Has your question been resolved?
should be fine
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np
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Need help with D
!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
1/4!/2
at first glance i got ||1/5||
don't give answers
I just did one over the number of arrangements
that's wrong
you sure buddy?
you shouldn't be
so
think about it
there are five starting numbers
with 4, 4, 5, and 6
it can not be less than 40000
3 is the only option
and 1/5 of arrangments start with 3
I mean the topic is permutations
but
it's a counting problem
it does not matter
lisan could you give us the answers for a, b, and c
good how did you solve for those answers
so the first one I did 5!/2!
the second one I did 4x4!/2!
and the third one is 3x4!/2!
know that the probability (or chance) of an outcome is
Probability = number of Favored Outcomes / Total Number of Outcomes
in the case of (d), what is the favored outcome
and how many are there
so how did you get the final answer
so the number of arrangments under 40 000
which is?
over the answer for (a), which is 60
yes
which wields a final answer of
1/5
ok
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Problem: A box contains 8 white balls, 7 detector balls and 5 black balls. Choose randomly until you get 2 black balls, then stop. Calculate the probability of choosing 3 white balls, those 2 balls
(The question was translated directly from Vietnamese to English using google translate; so, there might be misunderstandings with the terminology)
**Given answers: **
A. 147/5000
B. 149/5000
C. 37/1250
D. 73/2500
What I am stuck with: I don't know the solution to solving the problem, I don't know how should I proceed with it.
(My English proficiency concerning Maths is very low. Please use simple maths-related words if possible, thank you.)
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I need answers idk how to do
is this a test?
Review thats do soon
I haven't been in class for like rhe last 2 weeks so idrk how to do and just need answers soon sorry
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what test can i do for convergence here?
i know it diverges by intuition but what test can i use
wait do i just compare it to ln n
nvm got it
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Have I solved it correctly?
,w derivative sin(x)^(log(x))
almost, you forgot to multiply cotx logx by y as well
Thanks a lot.
: )
And you also need to subtract 1 from both sides after multiplying by y
Why?
but I don't know why you wouldn't just subtract 1/y from both sides to begin with
it's 1/y *, not 1/y +
oh true silly me
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@hollow lark
yea?
i'd be happy to help if i can
if we have 5 cards: I, V, X, C, L, and 5 shadow cards
what are the permutations where exactly 1 card from IVXCL matches the shadow cards
haha cheers mate
so shadow cards means the same cards
yeah
so this is what I thought
if we take the same way we solved the previous question
we could have 5C1 to select one card
and that would go into 5 spaces between the other cards
and there would be 4! ways of arranging the rest of the cards
which would give the answer to be: 5C1 * 5 * 4!
but apparently this doesn't come out to be 45
which is the right answer
ok
ok in this order
and at the bottom we have shadow cards
exactly one card should match and the others should not
ok
so 5C1 to select the card that matches
and do dearrangement for 4 cards
do you know about dearrangement?
nope
ah awesome
yup
both named a b c d
we need the permutations so tht no letter would go to its specified letter box
for that we use dearrangements
yes
if dearrangent of 5 then 5!(1 - 1/1! + 1/2! - 1/3! + 1/4! - 1/5!)
i think this is it
$4!(1 - \frac{1}{1!} + \frac{1}{2!} - \frac{1}{3!} + \frac{1}{4!} )$
Emploice Muswashans
and this would be dearangement of 4 right?
this is for four
gotcha
this is for 5
there is also another way to do the question
since its a small question
u can avoid dearrangment and substract the values
u dont want
ur welcome
dearrangement is faster
but u can also do it normally
if u need help doing it in a normal way let me know
yeah i definitely liked this much more
cya!
see ya
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Guys so can anyone explain to me why I'm getting infinity here when applying the formula to make a line?
Ping me if someone wish to help me out.
a vertical line is just x = some value @soft field
Yeah in my note too it says x = 1, but it is in the y axis right? So it's supposed to be y=1 isn't it!
Also why don't this formula work here? According to my teachers they say it works on any two points
I'm really sorry tho I'm really bad at maths
Ik it might be something stupid I'm talking about..
your line is x = 4, and any y. y does not depend on x.
the formula you try to use is for cases where changes in x will result in changes in y, which is not the case here.
sorry, x = 1 not x = 4.
Ah
Like can you provide an example for such case?
for whcih case?
Where I can apply the formula
try C->B
Hmm
or better C->A
A and B have x = 1, this is given.
every point on the line from A to B has x = 1 .
So what if it was like a and b has both x and y axis as 1?
Ah nvm
That's stupid to ask lol
Ok gotcha thanks bud
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Could I get help with a physics thing? I know it’s not exactly pure math but something is confusing me.
So the calculation or formula to estimate how strong gravity is on a planet is dependent on the planets mass/weight and the radius from the core of the planet to the surface yadda yadda.
But… isn’t weight determined by gravity? Like so if you had a planet that was 4x earth’s size but same density etc etc, if you plug in 64x earth’s mass and 4x earth’s radius the gravity going off the calculators I have would make it 3.92x stronger gravity.
But wouldn’t that fact that gravity is stronger then make the planet have much more mass… and thus more gravity… which- you get my point?
Like volume doesn’t change but the weight/mass does. I know weight and gravity are different and all that. But now I’m confused.
@neat spear Has your question been resolved?
No
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can someone explain to me when something is convergent or divergent pre calc
a series or a sequence?
actually that doesn’t really matter
convergent is just when a series or a sequence approaches a certain value
divergent is when a series or a sequence doesn’t approach a certain value but instead approaches infinity or just continues to alternate between numbers
@timid ruin Has your question been resolved?
for some specific things like $\sum_{n=1}^\infty a^n$ there's a condition on $a$ that tells you whether it converges or not, but for a general sequence there isn't really anything better than ``if it approaches something''
bee [it/its]
unless you mean the epsilon-delta definition but that's not really a "formula"...?
how do i know if it is approaching something
i thought if the ratio is less then 1 or greater then 1
well for a general sequence there's a lot of different tactics you can use, there isn't really just one approach
(and sometimes none of them work, like \textit{nobody knows} whether the series $\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac1{n^3\sin^2(n)}$ converges)
bee [it/its]
in the particular case of $\sum_{n=1}^\infty a^n$, which i now suspect is what you were thinking of, it converges if $|a| < 1$
bee [it/its]
we find a using the 1/1-r formula right
...idk what you mean by "find a"?
it's just, if you have a sequence in this form
so for instance $\sum_{n=1}^\infty 2^n$ does not converge because $|2|$ is not less than $1$
bee [it/its]
this is the case where $a = 2$
bee [it/its]
but if you had $\sum_{n=1}^\infty 0.7^n$ (so $a = 0.7$), that does converge because $|0.7| < 1$
bee [it/its]
in that particular case yes
or more specifically if the absolute value is less than 1
$\sum_{n=1}^\infty (-2)^n$ doesn't converge even though $-2 < 1$
bee [it/its]
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✅
.reppen
how does that even make sense
a conversion is when it is hitting to a certain number right?
yep
so any negative numbers will not be convergent
bee [it/its]
ok i get it
it is the number that matters not the the negative or positive
if it -.76 it will converge rifht?
yeah basically
yep
but if it is -3 it don’t combwege
alright i think i get the gist of it
so if it converges i use the 1/1-r?
if it asks
if you want the value it converges to then yes
converges if | r | < 1
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i havent learned how to do any of this, i dont know how or where to start
what's your question?
@static granite Has your question been resolved?
idfk
this is so stressful
i dont even know where to start
it basically defines what linear means
you know when you have an equation
of the form y = mx + n, where m, n can be any value
that is linear, because if you plot (x, y) on a graph you get a straight line
basically steady increase
whereas in a quadratic, it doesn't
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@static granite Has your question been resolved?
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Are there any methods except delta to find how many roots are there and what are their signs for a second degree 1 unknown equation
yes
i mean the reel ones
Their solutions are given with the quadratic formula, and the nature of the solutions from that formula is determined by the discriminant
so you need to check the discriminant to analyze what the solutions are
Yes ik. Are there any other methods?
Nah, not really. Well, if you have access to a graphing calculator you can graph the function and check where it crosses the x axis
but analitically that's about it
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i have following equation $10^{23} - 10^j - 12 \equiv 0 \mod 17$ and next line is $1 \equiv 10^j + 12 \mod 17$. I don't get what happens in between
ta
not maybe 10^32 ?
nope
!original
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
sure one sec
Find the smallest number with a sum of digits of 204 divisible by 204.
in class we discover that it has at least 23 digits and ends with 88, then we prove that there's one 8 among the rest of the digits, while others are 9s, then we get the equation above
also 204 = 17 * 2^2 * 3
the answer is j=5
it can be wrong but unlikely
yeah I dont know from where thats supposed to come
but is the answer correct at least
no
well the starting equation was good
10^23-10^j-12=0 mod 17
or 10^23 -12= 10^j mod 17
now you can compute the left side
oh and then i can take mod 17
because 10^23 mod 17 is 5
i think
so 10^j = 10 mod 17
and now it's easy
well j=1 doesnt work
OH right j > 2
but still easy, I didn't even notice it lol
I was looking for powers that satisfy this and it seems to be j=20
wait no
17
is this the correct answer
yes
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im not picturing this well enough
i dont understand
Eh... not quite
Getting warmer
Why do you assume that e^x grows to infinity before reaching 1
y do we say it starts at one? is that what e = when x is 0?
Now we also know that this shape has a square cross section in the direction of the x axis at all points
this is a bit difficult to visualize
unit 8 is on the ap calc ab exam?
yes
Well you don't really have to visualize it at all
you just have to calculate it I guess
let's look at one of the cross sections
what's the area of that cross section?
for some x
Think of this a series of squares that get progressively larger
by the rule of e^x
the sum of the areas of these squares will give you the volume essentially
assuming they're infinetly thin
hmmm, well it would be x^2 where x would change as the x value grows, so
x^2 is equation for cross section
waitm how do we know this
Yes we do
See the purple square
Emm.. "square", don't mind my art skills
it's located at 0.5
but it goes up to the graph of e^x
yes yes
so it has height e^x
and since it's a square
it also has width e^x
so it has surface e^x squared
now since we have a series of surfaces and we need to sum em together to get a volume
assuming they're infinitely thin, that is, dx thin
we have element volumes (e^x)^2 * dx
so if we integrate then in the bounds of 0 to 1
we will get the value of the volume
mate
ye?
Okay so the surface is e^x squared
because the shape of e^x
determines the height of the square at each cross section
and since squares have equal sides the width must also be e^x in that case
Each square goes from the x axis to the graph
but it tell us that y = e^x
btu now we are setting volume to (e^x)^2
Well we need to find the volume of the shape right?
And we know that the shape is made up of a series of squares
since the cross sections are all squares in the x direction
so let's slice up this volume into those infintely thin slices of squares
ok ok
the volume will be the sum, that is the integral, of the surfaces of those squares multiplied by their individual thickness
since they are infinetly thin that thickness is dx
alr
Are you sure you understand?
I could pull out some more graphics
So let's look at some cross section of the shape in the x direction
it's height is e^x
which means it's sides are e^x since it's a square, assuming the squares aren't twisted in some way
so the surface of that cross section is e^x * e^x
and the thickness, being infinitely thin, is dx, because that's what we do when we deal with infinite thin things
so the volume of this cross section segment is therefore
e^x * e^x * dx
or
(e^x)^2 dx
This is basically the elementary volume of some cross section
since this holds true for all cross sections of the shape
the total volume of the shape will be the integral of these parts
that is
the integral of (e^x)^2 dx
in the bounds of x
which are from 0 to 1
so solving this integral gives us the volume of the shape
Did you understand it now?
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Plz someone good at physics
hmm
It just follows from that, do you know how to set up the integral
not really
I assume you have a cylindrical magnet moving across some surface
nah it's rotating
Oh so you rotate a cylindrical magnet over a conductive plane
approximately yes
Recall that your flux is BA*cos(theta)
where theta is the angle between the plane normal and the b field
you sure you understand?
and about this ?
pretty
Ok
The second one is just massaging some formulas
You already have your U
From 61
yeah ?
you just plug it in and that's it
but why would it be R.U² instead of U²/R ?
because P = U*I
but I = U/R and not U.R
that's what i thought, but it seems weird as the paper is serious
mistakes happen everywhere
yeah i thought so
I'm also doing edyn right now so I'm not that good yet
but I'm pretty sure it's a mistake
$$ \Phi = \iint_S B \cdot dS $$
dindu
ok, but how do we know that B is independent from \vec S ?
intuitively you're just projecting the b field to the normal vector of the surface and adding those up
I don't have a sketch unfortunately but try sketching it out
No your b is already given
You're just trying to figure out how many field lines pass thru S
yeah it does
B \cdot dS is just the flux at an infinitesimal area
like i understand the definition and this integral
The flux overall is gonna depend on the bounds of your integration
yeah i'm ok with this
but as B isn't constant with respect to S, one can't just say \Phi = B.A.cos(\theta) right ?
Yeah but it's important to know where that comes from
This only works in a homogeneous magnetic field
Ignore what I said, I was thinking of something else
You're correct lol
But it's good to keep the integral in mind
If your angle is changing with respect to time then it's just gonna be \Phi = B.A.cos(\omega.t)
That's what that means
Since your magnet is rotating, the field lines are gonna rotate with it as well
but wouldn't it remain constant if we have a revolution symmetry axis ?
No, the flux would be changing with respect to time
B field would still have the same components but the angle between it and the surface would change with time
i'm not sure to understand
if the magnetic moment is normal to the surface, and the axis of symmetry is colinear to the moment
why would its orientation change ?
but that's when all vectors of B are colinear, which isn't the case of a magnetic field produced by a magnet
Yeah but even if they're not colinear they flux is gonna change if you change the angle
Infinitesimally taken the field lines are straight, I think
So this is just illustrating what happens in an infinitesimal element of area
but if here the magnet rotates around the South-North axis, why would the flux change ?
(the surface being the black line)
Oh yeah then it wouldn't change
I think I'm just missing something
but then AC motors/generators wouldn't work
¯_(ツ)_/¯
i mean, i'm probably wrong, but i don't see why
Yeah me neither
I think I know what we're missing
The concept of Faraday's Law is that any change in the magnetic environment of a coil of wire will cause a voltage (emf) to be "induced" in the coil. No matter how the change is produced, the voltage will be generated. The change could be produced by changing the magnetic field strength, moving a magnet toward or away from the coil, moving the coil into or out of the magnetic field, rotating the coil relative to the magnet, etc.
It's basically what I said, you just have to imagine the magnet spinning in the N-S axis in 3D
oh ok
I'm still pretty skeptical but it sounds more right lol
now i understand why the flux change, but i'm not convinced about the way to calculate it
yeah same
and even if it was B.A.cos(theta), I don't get where the 2r/v comes from, and his simplification then
Yeah this derivation kinda sucks
I think we're gonna have to get someone more experienced, not sure
2r/v is the period I think?
oh yeah im stupid lol
lmao
Well that'd give you the periodic flux
I guess?
weird
Idk I'd just do this with the dipole approximation
$$ B = \frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \cdot \frac{2M}{r^3} $$
M is the magnetic moment in this case
r is the distance along the axis from the center of the magnet
¯_(ツ)_/¯
and M would be the inducted moment ?
Yeah
dindu
Whoops missed a 2
ok makes sense, but why would M depend from S tho
ok
i'll see it tomorrow in the morning before i get to make my presentation
gotta sleep, it's nearly 2am ;-;
nice
u ?
oh ok :)
ye but it looks so cool
true
i haven't started the class about it tho
You're also in physics?
huh
Are you also a physics student?
I'm in a math-physics study curriculum
uni?
(i don't know if that's how it says i'm shit at english)
no, it's called "prépa", it's preparation for the great schools of engeneering and research
goes well ?
No
😬
half the time I want to jump out of my window but it's worth it because physics is cool
It's extra hard because im lazy
and dumb
yeah thanks I'm not at all surprised that Boltzmann killed himself
statistical mechanics is ass
Well gn and good luck with the presentation!
thanks :)
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How do I find y intercept?
I think I can graph
I am not sure if the degree is correct though
f(0) will give you the y-intercept
okay I see
so 4
I forgot what -2 does in the function
,rotate
Okay so how do I get degree and leading term those turned out to be wrong
,rotate
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where did the *1/x come from?
I understand u use the power rule which gives us 2[lnx] but how is 1/x part of that
Derivative of lnx is 1/x
yea but why add that
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Hey, i was wondering if someone could help me with linear combinations
This is what it is
I got
This as I made u, v and w as the m, n and p
I'm not sure or well I'm lost how to look for m, n and p now
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,rotate
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Yes
Well if u simplify it
Why is it 3x^3?
It's wrong
Do same with this
$\frac{3x^2}{2}-cos x$
Monarch of Eternal Night
Suppose
It's, (ax+b)^n
If you integrate
It'll be
$\frac{(ax+b)^{n+1}}{a.(n+1)}$
Monarch of Eternal Night
Monarch of Eternal Night
@vast shale
kisnar
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im struggling a bit to see why it's just ∑
why isn't it ∑^-1
if i define an inner product on R^n via a positive definite matrix A, then a circle wrt this induced norm would be x'Ax = r
if i imagine having a circle in 2D and applying a (diagonalisable) linear transformation on this 2D space, im sort of squeezing my circle
the 2 opposing points that i push in would be 1 of the eigenvector directions
and orthogonal to that would be the other eigenvector direction
aren't those precisely the eigenvector directions of A?
but here it's got A^-1 (well it starts with ∑ then has ∑^-1 at the end)
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how do i do these types of questions
a function f is continuous at a point a if f(a) is the same as the limit as f approaches a
for 1, your function is undefined at x = -2 since that would cause division by 0, so f(-2) doesn't exist, and if a function doesn't take on a value at a point, it can't be continous at that point
you run into the same problem for 2
actually this doesn't look like it's for a calculus class so pretend that i didn't mention limits
at this level, to show that a function is continuous at a point, just plug in the point and see if your function is defined
and to show that a function is continuous on an interval, show that either there are no points in that interval for whcih the function is undefined, or find some point in the interval where the function would be undefined
for example, f(x) = sqrt(1-x^2) would be undefined when the expression inside the square root is negative, ie when 1 - x^2 < 0
notice that no x satisfying that inequality are contained in your interval [-1, 1], so for the purposes of this class, that function is defined and continuous on that interval
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Hi, there is something i dont have totally clear
\begin{flalign*}
2) \int \frac{x^2 - 1}{x^3 + x} &= \int \frac{x^2 - 1}{x(x^2 + 1)} && \\\\
x^2 - 1&= \frac{A}{x} + \frac{B}{(x^2 + 1)} \\\\
x^2 - 1 &= \frac{\cancel{x}(x^2 + 1)A}{\cancel{x}} + \frac{x\cancel{(x^2 + 1)}B}{\cancel{(x^2 + 1)}} \\
x^2 - 1 &= A(x^2 + 1) + B(x) \\\\
x &= 0 \quad \Rightarrow \quad A = - 1 \\
x &= 1 \quad \Rightarrow \quad B = 2 \\
&= \int \frac{-1}{x} + \frac{2}{x^2 + 1} \\
\end{flalign*}```
Juan
i should have 2x instead of just 2 in the last line
so, what i am missing?
if it should be Bx instead of just B let me know why
you you have Bx + C there but it turns out that C is 0
so i did everything wrong since first steps
ohh because you can convert
to decompose (something)/(x + 1)^2, use A/(x + 1) + B/(x + 1)^2
to decompose (something)/(x^2 + 1), use (Ax + B)/(x^2 + 1)
no this is just identifying decomposition
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Heyy! Same question went unanswered yesterday... I got part 1 and 3 fine but my part 2 answer does not work out with the given answer (I got 9/16, the answer was 17/32)
No working out with me, it's a graph question anyway, if you want to feel free to graph it on desmos (I did eventually and still got the same answer)
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can someone give me a function which:
- is Continuous everwhere expect for x=0
- is Continuous everwhere expect for in Z
- is nowhere Continuous
- is only Continuous in Z
f(x) = \begin{cases}
x^2 & x \neq 0 \
1 & x = 0
\end{cases}
i meant i needed 1 function for every number
- see multiplicative inverse function
- see floor function
- see dirichlet function
- see
legend🙌
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I know how to draw the point but not the lines
um idk
Try graphing it in desmos


