#help-17
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The concept of proportion is equal
oh
on how to solve it
ya proportions are 2 ratios right?
So let me continue to explain this
umm
let me explain more with the picture you sent
So in this identity, what you can understand is: (5/2) / (3/2) = (5/6) / (1/2)
after you calcuate it, it should be the same amount
soo it would be (15/4) = (5/12)???
wtf???
oh god im panicking
how to do that
@acoustic flower Has your question been resolved?
What's the question
Oi am back lol
Ping helpers
I explained to diva
Do I help you doing it or solve it?
Teach him about ratio and proportion
@acoustic flower , DarkWolfBG is here for rescue 
Lol
Well, ratio is just basically fractions.
a:b = a/b
You can write (5/2)/(3/2)
And doing that you will get (5/3)/(1/1)
Multiply the denominator by 2
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Thus that becomes (5/6)/(1/2)
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i dont understand how they got the top x bound = 1 when in the question all it says is x>=0
so the bottom bound is 0
but then cant the top bount be infinity
take the second equation where $0 \le y \le 1-x^2$
MathLover
if you ignore the y you get that $0 \le 1-x^2$. Solving it will get you the upper bound of 1
MathLover
Hope that helped
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Actually
Hello good morning
Could someone help me for number 7
Im not understanding what it is asking for
Here is my work for 7
Isnt the image
Hard to draw on my line paper
How do i describe that without having to draw the visual
<@&286206848099549185>
@whole gulch Has your question been resolved?
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I just began learning about probability distributions for continuous random variables, noticing that most of the distributions were curves because there are an infinite number of values that the random variable can take on. What if the random variable only took on a finite number of values, such as just 0 and 1? Do we have a Bernoulli distribution here that can be represented as a histogram?
yeah
curves are sometimes used for finitely many values as well when there are just so many that a bar graph would look dumb
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Why the blue and red are equivalent
definition of a riemann integral
$\int_a^b f(x) \dd{x} = \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{b-a}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n f \paren{a + \frac{(b-a)i}{n} }$
Ann
in particular when a = 0 and b = 1, b-a becomes 1 and the sum becomes the sum of f(i/n)
by the way the parentheses around i/n really want to be taller
it is possible to prove the equal sign between the blue and red without the definition riemann integral? is there another way to think of it
like through geometry
that is hard to remember tho
ok so you're looking for geometric intuition, not a formal proof.
yes, and i think that is intuitive, the equal sign is explanable by geometry
ok sorry what
now you've confused me
first you ask if it's possible to explain the equality geometrically
now you say you already know how to do that
wtf
i just feeling it, but im not sure how to prove it
?????
by feeling, i can tell that is true
but i wanna know why it is true, why it is working
how to prove the equivalance
Just draw the rectangles for small n, like n=4
What about it
.
besides the i
but im famillar with Riemann sum already
im just confused about the (b-a) that seems came out of nowhere
Apparently not enough!
This is very basic to Riemann sums
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Should eigenvalues of a positive semi-definite matrix always be non-negative?
Yes
This is an xyproblem 
What is the value of a, the function f:R->R, f(x,y) = ax^4+8y is a convex function?
I found the Hessian matrix and checked if the positive semi -definiteness
$H(x,y) = \begin{bmatrix} 12ax^2 & 0 \ 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix}$
det(H(x,y)) = 0
well duh of course its determinant is 0
sure does
So for all a≥0 the function f(x,y) is a convex function?
But the answer key mentions a**>0, and not a≥**0
show them all.
A twice differentiable function f : R^n → R is convex, if and only if the Hessian H(f(x)) is positive semi-definite for all x ∈ R^n.
ok
the zero matrix is pos-semidef.
for a=0 you have a linear function, whose hessian matrix is zero everywhere.
so evidently the answer key must be wrong, but i'd like to see your other 3 definitions
-
If epigraph of a function f: R^d->R is a convex set, then f is a convex function.
-
A function f: R^d-> R is said to be a convex function iff for all x, y in R^d and c in [0,1], f(cx+(1-c)y) ≤ c f(x) + (1-c) f(y).
-
A differentiable function f : R^d->R is convex if and only if for all x,y in R^d, f(y) ≥ f(x) + (y-x)^T grad(f(x))
great
but you're still told that for a=0 your function somehow isnt convex/
even though it fits definitions 1, 2 and 3 even then?
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i dont under why this relation
produce a circle
i thought it would produce two points -1,0 and 1,0
Well all the pairs of x y that satisfy those conditions form a circle
But idk where y is coming from and it’s not specified
substitute 0 in both x and at y once
this is the simple circle formulae
(x-h)2 + (y-k)2 = r2
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I dont know how to do part ii
Pic of the whole exercise, please.
@past badge Has your question been resolved?
its from a paper
also i think its a mistake
so dw
.close
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How to solve $xe^{-x}+\ln x=0$ for x?
YellowZ
@strong river Has your question been resolved?
i think u take lnx to the rhs and take log base e both sides
@strong river Has your question been resolved?
,w solve xe^(-x) = ln x
,w solve xe^(-x) = -ln x
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I tried simplifying this by multiplying (3+sqrt(x+9))/(3+sqrt(x+9)) but the denominator still adds up to be 0
Show your calculations, because your method is correct
There might be a silly mistake, maybe a wrong sign
simplify denominator
it's -x, right?
try factoring out x from numerator and then cancel
oh, so I shouldn't substitute x = 0 at this stage?
It's completely fine that after doing conjugate, the denominator stays 0. The difference is that you can usually cancel something
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!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin
2. I have begun but got stuck midway
3. I got an answer but I'm told it's wrong
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked
5. I have a question about someone else's worked solution
6. None of the above
@worthy lichen Has your question been resolved?
2
Did you do the inequality chain using 3^2, 2^4...?
rafilou2003
yh thats the first thing i did
alright, did you apply log_3 to this whole chain ?
and so you should have found $2 < 4log_3(2) < 3 < 5log_3(2) < 4$
rafilou2003
yes
focus first on $2 < 4log_3(2) < 3$, what inequalities does this give us on $log_3(2)$ ?
rafilou2003
0.5< log_3(2) < 0.75
rafilou2003
0.6 < log_3(2) <0.8
yes
yes !
thanks bro
np
.close
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In other words, given a binomial distribution of n tests, p = 0.3, what's the probability there's at least 0.25n successes?
You'll want to use a normal approximation to do this
@rotund hornet Has your question been resolved?
So the way I’ve written it is correct?
@rotund hornet Has your question been resolved?
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@rotund hornet Has your question been resolved?
yepp
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log _3(log _4(x^2+1)^2+log _8(8x^3))=0
$\log_{3}\left(\log_{4}\left(x^{2}+1\right)^{2}+\log_{8}\left(8x^{3}\right)\right)=0$?
B-eard
Oh you wrote it
are you aware of $a^{\log_{a}b}=b$
B-eard
ya
Apply that here
pls tell me how
Do 3^ both sides
im new to log problems
hmm ok lemme try
B-eard
2log4(x^2 +1) + 3log8(x) =0
are you sure about the RHS?
ya maybe
Okay so you're saying 3^0=0
a term log8(8) will separate out on lhs
so then 1-1 on rhs
hence 2log4(x^2 +1) + 3log8(x) =0
Man, 3^0 is 1
ya i know
so RHS would be 1
then this becomes 2log4(x^2 +1) + 3log8(x) =0
$\log_{4}\left(x^{2}+1\right)^{2}+\log_{8}8-1+\log_{8}x^{3}=0$
B-eard
This is what you mean right
nah
for number in base, use '_'
then 2log(x^2 +1 ) + 1 + 3log8(x) = 1
=> 2log_4(x^2 +1 ) + 3log_8(x) = 0
yes
i am unable to solve after this point
are you aware of $\log_{a^{n}}b=\frac{1}{n}\log_{a}b$
B-eard
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My answer is is this correct?
- 6 appears on both dice+ 6 appears at least one time
(6,1)(6,2)(6,3)(6,4)(6,5)(6,6)(1,6)(2,6)(3,6)(4,6)(5,6)
11/36
you wrote (6,3) twice
wdym
no
probabilities not summing to 1 is a red flag
they seemed to forgot that (6,6) has at least one six
wdym by x=2
Probability of getting 2 six
X=0 probability of 0 six
X=1 probability of getting at least one six
Got it?
well they used Y there,
and defined that as the success of rolling at least one six
and at least 1 six includes anything more than 1 six as well
Y=1 isn't the event that you get exactly one 6
you could set the distribution up like that,
but you'd define Y or whatever differently
They it should be 11/36 no?
yes
The nvert is worse
This teacher is right
In this Videos we will discuss about the following points
Probability NCERT Exercise 13.4 Q1 to Q5
Super easy explanation of probability
Class 12 Maths
Probability NCERT Ex. 13.4 Class 12 Maths
Class 12 Maths NCERT Chapter 13 Probability
Probability NCERT Class 12 Maths
Probability Class 12 Maths
Class 12 Maths NCERT Probability
arvind academy
P...
See the question 5
they defined the event differently
if done properly, the correct result would've been reached
Nope
The event is not the issue
The main issue is the answer to check 6,6
Including or not
i didn't say the issue was with defining the event itself
the issue is that they didn't consider the event properly
yes...
the guy in the video included 6,6
and 11/36 is correct
AND what I'm saying is that the way the book defined the event was fine
but they fked up the calculations by ignoring (6,6)"
which as mentioned earlier
they seemed to forgot that (6,6) has at least one six
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$\int_0^{\infty} \frac{2^{\cos x} \sin(\ln 2 \sin x)}{x} \dd x$
yeah so my answer is π but I can't confirm it anywhere
NEON
Wolfram alpha doesn't seem to accept it
,w $\int_0^{\infty} \frac{2^{\cos x} \sin(\ln 2 \sin x)}{x} \dd x$
Wolfram Alpha doesn't understand your query!
Perhaps try rephrasing your question?
Click here to refine your query online
hmm
Idk where I'm going wrong
$\Im \int_0^{\infty} \frac 1x e^{\ln 2 e^{ix}} \dd x$
NEON
$\Im \sum_{k \geq 0} \frac{\ln^k 2}{k!} \int_0^{\infty} \frac{e^{kix}}{x} \dd x$
NEON
$\Im \sum_{k \geq 0} \frac{\ln^k 2}{k!} \int_0^{\infty} \frac{\cos kx + i\sin kx}{x} \dd x$
NEON
$\sum_{k \geq 0} \frac{\ln^k 2}{k!} \int_0^{\infty} \frac{\sin kx}{kx} \dd kx$
NEON
$\frac{\pi}{2}\sum_{k \geq 0} \frac{\ln^k 2}{k!}$
NEON
$\pi$
NEON
@viral copper Has your question been resolved?
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how do i get c
@tall cosmos Has your question been resolved?
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@tall cosmos Has your question been resolved?
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Hello! Suppose I have a list axis-aligned rectangles of arbitrary length. The width and height of each rectangle are also random. What would be an efficient algorithm to organize the positions of each rectangle around some point such that no rectangles overlap and the perimeter of the shape created by the center points of these rectangles is minimized?
please let me know if my question is not clear
What are the operations you can perform on them?
If I understand you correctly, we can only translate them, no rotation or scaling
no preference
Could you further explain what you mean by this?
thank you
if the resulting shape has a hole, do you include the perimiter of that hole?
yes
Essentially the point around which we are organizing the rectangles should act as a "center of mass"
also there will be a set gap, say 5 pixels, between each adjacent rectangle, but that shouldn't be too hard to implement
I've found this problem rather difficult to approach
Yeah
I don't get what the point of the point is, but perhaps you can put the rectangles on the top and bottom of a line.
like a city skyline with a reflection
hmm
Would you like me to explain the actual issue I'm trying to solve rather than my interpretation of the solution? I want to avoid the xy problem
Sure
I'm tiling computer desktop windows automatically without altering their size so that they don't overlap and look appealing. The point refers to the center of the screen. The end result should resemble the windows "orbiting" the center of the screen with an even distribution.
here, let me show you an example of what 3 windows would look like:
Do you understand?
Oh, nice visuals. Is the sizes of all windows given?
yes, we know the sizes of each window
and the size of the screen
yes
what if they dont fit?
the point of this over traditional tiling is that we are respecting the initial configure size of each window
then they go off the screen
for now we don't care if they don't fit
I'm not quite sure I understand exactly how the skyline approach would work for more complicated setups where there is not a complete horizontal line or there are more than two rows
if you are a programmer, could you convey this approach using pseudo-code?
thanks for your help btw
correct
however, I'm not sure if rows and columns is the best way of looking at this
consider the following arrangement:
I think the biggest disadvantage of the city-skyline is that its very wide.
yeah
The circumference is roughly optimal i think
so its not a math question really
sorry bud, I think you have to use your own artistic skills here
What if we were to instead say that the windows have to fit into a circle of minimum radius?
sorry, I wasn't sure where else to ask this
I still think there is an actual solution to this
I'll return to this soon
ok, thank you for your time
@inner latch Has your question been resolved?
@inner latch Has your question been resolved?
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@inner latch Has your question been resolved?
Here is a greedy O(n^3) algorithm:
class placed_rectangle
vector2 posA
vector2 posB
class rectangle
vector2 dims
class placement_option
vector2 origin
vector2 dims
vector2 direction # either [1, -1], [1, 1], [-1, -1], or [-1, 1]
bool taken
function pack_rects
input rectangles (array of absract_rectangle)
rectangles.sort(by -height*width)
rect1 = popfirst(rectangles)
placed_rectangles = [new placed_rectangle(
posA = rect1.dims/2,
posB = - rect1.dims/2)]
positions = array(placement_options) #here, you need to specify 8 starting placement options
for rect in recangles
maxscore = 0
bestp = none
placed = new placed_rectangle(
posA = p.origin,
posB = p.origin + rect.dims * p.dir
)
for p in positions
if (!p.taken and !overlap(rect, rect2) for all rect2 in placed_rectangles)
score = min(p.dims.x, rect.dims.x) + min(p.dims.y, rect.dims.y)
if score > maxscore
maxscore = score
bestp = p
end
end
end
if bestoption != none
bestp.taken = true
placed_rectangles.push(new placed_rectangle( posA = bestp.origin,
posB = bestp.origin + rect.dims * bestp.dir ))
positions.push(new placement_option(
origin = [bestp.origin.x, bestp.origin.y + bestp.dir.y * rect.dims.y],
dir = bestp.dir,
taken = false))
positions.push(new placement_option(
origin = [bestp.origin.x + bestp.dir.x * rect.width, bestp.origin.y],
dir = bestp.dir,
taken = false))
end
@inner latch It does the perimiter minimization, but hopefully in a more space efficient way 😛
So it uses these placement options which I have colored red here. They are possible places to have corners
It's not completely done.
oh wow thank you. I'll study this and translate it into my project to test
ah, ok
what would those be?
If it places a rectangle here, it does not create any corners in the top left
Don't worry about me. It's a fun excercise.
Wanna use dm instead?
sure!
.close
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how do i do this without a calculator?
Don’t quote me on this but That’s definitely cosine
You want to get X by itself
Do for each equation get X by itself
Or it could be sine
wait so what do i do when i get X by itself?
No
If the answer is positive that means you go to the right and if it’s negative you go to the left
just inspect where the line goes off to infinity
Sine and cosine are identical, just horizontally shifted
you can see that the line isnt at infinity at multiples of pi/2
And no, that's secant and cosecant
now you just go and see which equations are solved for the denominator 0 at pi/2
and you can eliminate those
Ok I’ll go try this out now
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I've been told that the definition of sin/cos/tan changes when you move away from the context of right triangles but I don't understand how it can since it's the same function button on a calculator...please explain that.
There will still always be a leg opposite any angle in a triangle whether it's a right triangle or not.
Well, sides then?
any angle has a side across from it yes
you can make definitions based on the circle that both have the same values for angles less than 90 degrees and are still defined for larger angles
I mean, okay.
but "leg" implies adjacency to a 90° angle
Ah, okay.
the new definition extends the old
So, is sin/cos/tan still a ratio between 2 chosen sides?
in general no.
bitch slaps himself
you can use trigonometry for non-right triangles (law of sines, law of cosines), but it’s not as simple as a ratio between sides
sin, cos and tan are just functions that take an angle and return a number
And what does that number represent?
as far as an all-encompassing representation goes, (cos(θ), sin(θ)) are the coordinates of the point you get by going θ radians ccw around the unit circle.
So the number simply converts degrees to radians then?
no.
this has nothing to do with angle unit conversions AT ALL.
forget about that.
in practice when doing geometry you wouldn't care much for what the outputs of the trig functions represent and instead kind of blackbox them away in things like the law of sines or the law of cosines
right triangle trig isn't obsolete despite this, of course.
Okay, but if (cos(theta), sin(theta)) represent the x, y coordinate of a point on a unit circle then why couldn't we say that translates to a specific angle? That's bizarre to me that we can't.
idk what you're talking about and i don't want to risk opening a third can of worms
Okay, thanks anyway, I'll figure this one out later. It's just not clicking right now.
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PISS ON IT!
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Where did the 5/32 come from?
it's $\binom{-1/4}{2}$
Ann
and what does that become?
$\binom{\alpha}{n} = \frac{\alpha(\alpha-1)(\alpha-2) \dots (\alpha-n+1)}{n!}$
Ann
so $\binom{-1/4}{2} = \frac{-\frac{1}{4} \cdot \paren{-\frac{5}{4}}}{2}$
Ann
$\binom{-1/4}{3}$...
Ann
you know how to read sigma notation, do you not?
no

well that's where your issue is
you should learn/review sigma notation
i've seen you struggle with it earlier today i believe
Did they get the 15/125 by doing ( -1/4 x -5/4 x -9/4 ) / 3! ?
15/128 not 15/125
ye
ok makes sense
I have another question tho
where did the 1 in the beginning come from?
because for n = 0
wouldn't we have -1/4 / 0!
which isn't 1?
Ann
Ah that is standard for all bionomials?
the numerator in $\binom{\alpha}{n}$ is a product of $n$ terms starting with $\alpha$, but for $n=0$ the numerator is the empty product (the product of nothing), and the empty product is 1
Ann
tysm!
yes, look up generalized binomial coefficient
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Dd
No
Uh
Please read #❓how-to-get-help
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@cold flint
@cold flint Has your question been resolved?
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For the property of Laplace transforms: [
\map g t = u_c \map f {t-c} \implies \map G s = e^{-ct} \map F s
]
I understand the procedure on how to go from the inverse laplace transform to the Laplace transform, but not in the opposite way. What I'm asking is how should I deduce [
\map G s = e^{-ct} \map F s \implies \map g t = u_c \map f{t-c} ]
Hm, I guess they are inverses so the first implication is sufficient
Yes, generally you prove stuff from time to frequency since the inverse laplace is not easy to work with if you haven't had complex analysis
I see. My book did mention that there is a way to calculate inverse laplace transforms, but it was relating to complex analysis thus outside of the scope of the book
Well fair enough. I guess I'll just stick to the first kind of implication from hereon
Thanks
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coose moment

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Hi
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No. It shouldn't.
how
How is it -3?
look at desmos
You just plotted points there.
is there a trick here somewhere? why wouldn't it be -3?
im confused too
Why should it be -3? I'm getting -7.
because if it's a parallelogram
oh wait, there are of course multiple parallelograms you could form that include those three points
but ABCD probably wants them to be traversed in that order as you go around the parallelogram
the one you drew would be ABDC
Sure, that works. Although there are easier ways.
You need more. That alone won't suffice.
alright thanks
i wasn't aware of the orders
lol
thank you for the help
i have another question tho
im wondering why it is not Friday
it says By Friday
so it will be done by 11:59 PM, Thursday, no?
aka By Friday
yeah i keep thinking how i got it wrong
but i just don't know
maybe the question has an error
<@&286206848099549185>
Yeah. So, that's thursday night only.
By friday night, it'll rain another 0.75 inches.
@sudden fox Has your question been resolved?
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no when they say Friday
it means
Friday non inclusive
no?
like in English
by is used to say
before something
like lets meet up by 7 oclock
it means
only until before
6:59
so when i put friday
i meant
until
Thursday 11:59
yes?
Well, i think what matters is that you had it right. It's a semantic issue now. Lol
I think that question just meant that by friday includes the day of friday as well.
i see
yes since they didn't specify what time of Friday
it's sketchy
but regardless i got a passing grade
just a weird question
anyways thanks for your help enemagneto!
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@whole gulch Has your question been resolved?
@spice suneres
<@&286206848099549185>
I’m trying to think of how else to do this problem
Your integration order is confusing.
The set up to cylindrical is right but you didn't change the bounds on the integral. Then everything after that looks wrong.
Follow the worked examples here and try again
https://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/classes/calciii/DivergenceTheorem.aspx
Maybe do cylindrical surfaces first
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I get [
\map u{x,t} = \sum_{n=1}^\infty c_n \map \cos{\f{n\pi \alpha}L t} \map \sin{\f{n\pi}Lx}
]
as a general solution but this seems wrong to me
looks good to me whats wrong about it
at least the shape looks good not sure bout the constants
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I completely forgot how to do slope equations where X is already given in this fashion
From the top, what do I do? Find a way to isolate y?
I don't know how I'd isolate this with half of something
y is already isolated
you just plug in the value they give you for x and calculate the corresponding y
for example for the first one it's $-\f12(-2) - 2$
Hayley
Hold on lemme try it
Tried the table function on my calculator and now its staying stupid stuff like -1x/-3/2y
OH
I SEE WHAT YOU MEAN
I'm just so stupid
you can try the table function if you want, i'd recommend just doing each line manually though
Much easier manually
Yeah for the -1 it gives me y = 3/2
Well -3/2 but still I don't get it
That's not a functioning coordinate
What am I supposed to do now?
Frankly, what am I supposed to do with that? Make a slope inside of a slope because that's only adjusting for y
And y can only be a solid number
We aren't dealing with 3 dimensions here
why can't y be a fraction? 
Because I'm supposed to graph it too?
$-\frac32 = -1\f12$ if that helps
Hayley
so midway between -1 and -2

Wait no I'm a space off but still
what did you get for -2?
wait your -1 value isn't right either, what did you do to compute that?
Yeah my first answer was wrong
y = -3 on -2
I told you -1 doesn't make any sense
Its literally asking for a slope within a slope
and then redo that -1 calculation because -3/2 isn't right
yeah
perf
So 0, -2 for the next pair
👍
Yep, thank you
Formatting issue
Thank yo uvery much for your patience with my stupidity
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Hello can someone help me with this problem, idk how to start?
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are you struggling with how to multiply matrices together?
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Everytime I plug the sides into sin, cos, or tan they don't match. Any ideas?
oh i wasn't aware cos sine and tan didnt work on non right triangles I thought it was only the pythagorean theorem that stopped working
this would only work if the triangle was a right triangle
I will try cosine rule
@eager dirge Has your question been resolved?
It’s my first time using the cossine rule, how did I mess this up?
Fossil
a = 16, b = 14, c = 6
16^2 = 14^2 + 6^2 - 2(6)(24)cos(A)
-12cos(A) = 1
cos(A) = -1 / 12
umm
now you do cos^-1(-1/12) = A correct?
umm
not really...
one of the angle should be like 94...
idk
can't help
BRUH
I was wrong
cos(A) = 13/14
sorry for that I alr corrected
Cos A = 21.8
Done
wouldnt that be: A = 21.8 ?
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This is false, right ?
looks like it
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I need help
if the ratio of two roots of equation lx^2 + nx + n = 0 is p : q. Then prove that ROOT(p/q) + ROOT(q/p) +ROOT(n/l) = 0
are there square roots on the LHS?
if so, then notice that square root is nonnegative, hence all the terms should be 0
and so root(p/q) = 0 and root(q/p) = 0 at the same time which is impossible
ah wait no
mhm I've found a solution but
how can I explain why my previous reasoning is wrong then
Okay mb, they can be complex
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question 3 help pls
yea
which is 48 right?
5 6 8 and 9 can b3 first place no?
Multiply by 5
5 choices for first
2 for last
4! In the middle
Are we missing anything
Idts
Should be 240
wrong
Ahm
yes sur
Cant be 1 at first place
If 8 is ending
Number of permutations
4 x 4!
I see
Is it 192
What our mistake is
:0
We considered
6 and 8 in the
Permutations
Did not fix it
Fixing 8
Only 4 can lead
soooo?
192 is correct?
yes sur
ok
Then 4!
bc 1 is taken
And likewise
Same cases if 6 ends
8 *4!
244!
2 x 4 x 4!
Sorry for causing confusion
np
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Hi. This is a calculus question from khan academy. I looked at the how to solve section for these types of questions but still confused.
Limits at infinity of quotients with square roots is the section
The answer is -3/4 but don’t understand where the negative comes from
For which x
The ones in the denominator

I think you can use lambert w function here
