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Yeah
Uh hold on
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Déterminer les valeurs de x telles que : 3A=2(7-x) ; A<x²
<@&286206848099549185>
yes
can u help
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Ok. Today i asked for help, got some, but my head started hurting after a while. Now that it dosent hurt no more..
Could i get help trying to understand linear equations?
I have some tidbits of equalition rules, whatever happens on one side, happens on the other. And if theres mostly numbers without variables, we can have them on one side.
And i can solve the First question.
But honestly? The others my mind is kinda foggy
And since its kinda late. Id just like to get to figure out atleast something before going to bed
Part 1 and 2. Whatever is easier so i can get One part out of the way
Or is 3 even easier?
Again. This is a new world for me
let start with part 1
All you have to do, is to move the variable (x) to 1 side and all the number to the other side
Oh i know how to solve that one
2x + 7 = 4x - 13
2x -4x, and 4x - 4x
-2x + 7 = -13
-2x = 7 + 13.
-2x = 20.
-x = -10
X = 10
A small mistake here
:0?
But u get the idea
So u can solve for all question in part 1?
For part 2
I assume its a system of linear equation
One trick is the select one of the 2 equation, let choose -x+y=5
Oh no
No no.
I mean i solved it but it had so much guidance and assistance from someone else. I doubt i can solve it again alone
Then its a problem of practice
You just need to do it repeatedly
@empty river
multiply the first line by something as when we add the two lines together the x disapear and we only have y left
Here's a very detailed step by step solution, the point is for u to apply it to other solution
Hmmm
In Step 4, do exactly what u did in Part 1
Multiply the -2 term in, so we can get rid of the ()
3x -2 * 5 + x?
You really need to improve ur arithmetic skill
No
3x -2 * 5 + -2 * x.
2 times x Is 2x.
2 times 5 is 10.
3x - 10 - 2x = 12?
If i do the same thing i did the last time...
In the first task
3x - 2x. Is X.
And 2x minus 2x is 0.
X - 10 = 12?
X = 22?
...idk
..man it got quiet in here
....okay then
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can someone help me get the other solutions ive got pi/18 so far
<@&286206848099549185>
part b
ive already got one solution
just dont know how to get the other two
ty
<@&286206848099549185>
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
well by using the expression stated in part a, we can equate sinxtanx=sixtan(3x-pi/9)
solve for x
to get one solution
which is pi/18
but what are the others
you ve got sinxtanx=sinxtan(3x-pi/9) right?
yes
and ive solved it down to x
and got one solution for x
but should be more graphically i think but ive forgotten how to do it
first you have solutions when sinx=0
why its a tan graph im solving no?
how do you get rid of the sinx in the equation?
ah i got rid of a solution didnt i
wait no im so confused
ive found the mark scheme
well in order to divide by sinx you need to know its not 0
alr
lets say
you have
nvm idk
you have
sinxtanx=sinxtan(something)
bring it all in front
sinxtanx-sinxtan(something)=0
ah
yeah go on
thats fine
oh
factorise ity
and for the bracket to equal 0
sinx has to be 0?
for one of them
hello,what is the question
no like generally. what are the solutions
on a equation like tanx=tanθ
solve for x
factor the tan?
no...
god knows then
you didnt just remove the tans did you?
arctan
huh?
what did you do
oh alr
so
an equation like tanx=tany has infinite solutions: x= kpi+y
where k is 0, 1, 2 ,...
you cant get rid of tans as it will only give you one solution
okay im following
alr so if you have tanx=tan(3x-pi/9) how would you solve it
(y is 3x-pi/9)
still not sure lost me again
move everrything to one side?
well an equation like tanx=tany has solutions: x=kpi+y. Your equation is tanx=tan(3x-pi/9) which has solutions: x=...?
are you telling me numbers?
alr lets go back a bit
okay
do you know how to solve like sinx=sin(pi/4) for example?
really? that first question seems a lot more complicated than that
idk i just find this confusing
the rest of the paper has been easy
just this is baffling me
yes but that is just one solution. there are infinite. for example sin(3pi/4)=sin(pi/4)
for reference, what grade are you in so ik what i can say and what not
so it depends on the domain
grade 13
uk
just before university
so bit of calculus trig algerbra
alr so
tanx=tany alr? thats the general form of the equation. you can subtitute anything in the place of y and solve for x
yeah thats fine
the general solutions to this are x=kpi+y
now in every equation
you just need to subtitute the y that you have in the general solutions
for example
tanx=tan(pi/4) sooo x=kpi+pi/4
do you get this?
kinda so the pi/4 is the difference
difference?
sorry im thinking about it how its taught in physics
sure
not really tbh i am not in the right place to do so
so examples:
tanx=tan(pi/3)
x=kpi+pi/3
tanx=tan(pi/4)
x=kpi+pi/4
tanx=tan(pi/6)
x=kpi+pi/6
tanx=tan(pi/2)
x=kpi+pi/2
ohh
wait
i mean kinda...?
you see tanx kind of repeats itself
over and over again
yeah i do
but the thing im confused about
is that
by domain is between
0 and pi
thats not the concern here
we are trying it more general
yes it doesnt.
well it does but not infinitely
ignore the minus 1 this is generally the graph of it
that is not important tbh
we are not on the question yet. we are trying to make you understand the general solution
okay
ok
for all y though
the solution for x is: kpi+y
in every case
you subtitute y for whatever it is
yes
yeah youve subbed it in
pi/9
3x-pi/9
so kpi + 3x - pi/9
yes x= that
yes exactly
then you solve for x
x= kpi +3x-pi/9
so 2x=pi/9-kpi
x=pi/18-kpi/2
you see for k=0 you get the pi/18 that you found
but there are more solutions
for k=1...for k=2 etc
where do i get the value of k from sorry
ive lost myself again
oh number infront of x
k doesnt have a value. it takes the values 0,1,2,3,4.....by putting k=0 you get a solution. by putting k=1 you get another solution etc. its what gives you the infinite solutions
yes yess
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Monica has 3 dice which the sum of oposite numbers is always 7. She positions them side by side so that the numbers touching are the same, getting a 3 digit number in the superior sides. Example: the number 436 can be obtained. How many different numbers can she get?
Could someone explain to me why 6.4.4 = 96 isn't the answer?
hmm
I just thought: well you have 6 options for the first numbers, 4 for the second and 4 for the third
since when u choose the first number in the side, you automatically exclude 2 for the second
i just have a hunch there might be some duplicates
how about the ordering of the numbers? is that valid
(FYI: "dice" is the plural already)
no
wdym
was just trying to think if the ordering of the numbers matters. e.g. 436 vs 346. but maybe you already account for that with 6 * 4 * 4
oh ok
yeah it already counts but somehow there's more numbers you can get
I don't understand where is the mistake with 6.4.4. Really bugging me rn
you can try asking in #probability-statistics , there are people good at combinatorics problems there
thank you
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- Solve the following using small angle approximations:
(i) cosθ + sinθ + tanθ = 0
Answering this question
I got to θ = 2
I havbe the questions but not the answers, can someone confirm if I got it right?
My calculations look like this
O^2 - 4O + 2 is definitely not the expression below
Could I factorise out theta from the 3rd line?
something like
θ(-θ + 4) = 2
or is this a situation I should use the quadratic formula?
You should definitely use the quadratic formula for that
How did you get that quadratic equation
No lol I meant theta^2-4theta+2=0
what identities did you use
even when theta approaches 0 ?
Can someone else try to solve:
Solve the following using small angle approximations:
(i) cosθ + sinθ + tanθ = 0
to see what they get so I can see where I went wrong
@analog wraith Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
these are right
so you get 2theta + 1 - theta^2/2 = 0
which rearranges to ||theta^2 - 4theta - 2 = 0||
quadratic formula gives theta = ||(4 +- sqrt(16 + 8))/2 = 2 +- sqrt(6)||
we discard ||the + solution|| because ||it is too large|| and we get theta = ||2 - sqrt(6) approx -0.45||
so I got it right? 😄
well
I got the solution but didn't specify whcih one
o wait
nvm
rip
got it wrong xD
okay, thank you 😄
wait sorry i messed up the algebra a bit!
thanks alot ❤️
thank you, sorry, I had already seen the edit, that's why I said thanks 😄
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I have no idea how to solve this one and feel as though I can learn from the answer: Let's say you have a bag with a blue and a green marble. You pick one at random. If it's a blue marble you put it back in the bag, then you put another blue marble into the bag. If it's a green marble you do the same but with a green marble. If you do this a very large number of times, what are the odds that the bag will tend toward having an even split between blue and green marbles?
I know that the more one color is picked the more likely it is to be picked the next time, so there's a good chance the same color gets picked the first few times then those odds just run away and it becomes effectively all blue or all green, but the case can exist where the 1/3 chance of picking green second after the first marble was blue, evening it out. If things keep being even - which by law of large numbers they ought to be more likely to - then you wind up with about a 50/50 split of blue and green marbles.
I would still consider it a tendency toward evenness if there are 10000 marbles and 5003 of them are green.
I know that if the number of marbles in the bag goes up evenly between blue and green the odds it gets thrown off get infinitesimally smaller; the odds have to converge somewhere, but where? And how do I calculate it?
<@&286206848099549185>
technically there are infinite possibility for it to be equal, blue majority, and green majority
so unless there a limit, the possibility would require a huge deal of effort to find or its just infinity
sicne there are infinity combination
well i was thinking there are three possibilities over enough time, not infinite:
~ either one of the two colors gets picked a few consecutive times (the odds of one color getting picked increase with the amount of marbles of that color in the bag) and that causes that color to take over completely or
~ the two colors stay relatively even, which gets more likely as it continues to tend to happen
i doubt the possibility of staying at some other ratio, as the bigger color could easily take over before the number gets too large to change, but we'd have to run simulations for that
even if you do it the opposite way, add the color you didn't pick
you get decreasing probability that it's even split the longer it goes
i think
i was under the impression that the longer it goes the law of large numbers keeps it around the specific point wherever it is
that's alos true, but i mean exactly equal
anyway i don't have anything to say
so i;m just googling so far
yeah but it'll never be exactly equal when the number of marbles in the bag is odd, and even if they're not equal if the proportion they're not equal by is statistically insignificant (i.e. 5003 out of 10000) then it would probably just as easily equalize given a few more iterations
so you're asking what's the probability that it will be split at least once
i don;t know what i thought you were asking
is that correct though?
...
I'm asking two things:
First: the accuracy of my conjecture that a system like this will almost always end up in one of the three states i mentioned
Second: given the first conjecture the odds it ends up in the middle state
but what does it mean to "end up"
the status of the contents of the bag after an arbitrarily large number of iterations
it will not be evenly split
even if you add the color you didn't pick back in
i don't understand, it's fine if you can't explain, i almost never can explain anything
so you start with a bag with a blue marble and a green marble
you pick one at random
let's say blue
you put a second blue marble in the bag
so now you have two blue and one green in the bag
yeas but that's more complicated
that was my question in the first place!!!
so i'm trying to understand it on the scenario where it's the other color that gets added
that always ends up even!!!
that doesn't make sense
if you name the number of steps, it's not 100%
if you increase the number it becomes smaller
at least that's my conjecture
if you don;t name the number then it doesn't "end up"
what's not 100%? what becomes smaller as which number increases?
am i being trolled?
after 10th step there are 12 marbles
the probability is <1 that they are evenly split
after 12th step there are 14 marbles
the probability is less than it was after 10th
i'm kinda demanding an explanation, it's trolling in that sense, that you were supposed to be the asker
but i'm acting like it's me
i genuinely don't know i;m not pretending
If you have three marbles (2b 1g) the odds of picking the green marble are 1/3, but doing so resets the odds to 50/50, then you pick an unbalance and with say 3g 2b the odds of them evening out is 2/5, then 3/7, then 4/9, then 5/11, then 6/13, as it edges infinitely closer to 1/2
By law of large numbers, the more marbles are in the bag, the less likely a massive swing is!
how do the odds get "reset"?
it's the difference between a 2/5 becoming a 2/6 and a 500/1001 becoming a 500/1002
the number of each kind of marble returns to completely even
but you still have to account for the probability of "getting there". 1/2 the first draw is blue, times 1/3 the second draw is green, times 1/2 the next is blue, etc. right?
well, they're not independent so I don't think you can just multiply them
cut the 1/2 parts; the unbalance is the same whether you pick blue or green
if I look at the interval near the middle that scales with the number of steps, that seems to be true, it's more rarely outside with more steps
because it does seems like that the number of ways that it ends in same number if marbles for each color gets smaller amd smaller each time
like those pachinko phenomenon
for each draw, there are two possible outcome, or intersection
and at the bottom, there should only be 3 results
for odd numbers of marble there have to be only one
and 3 for even
what are you even talking about
there are two options for when the odds aren't equal (regularize or diverge further) and one when they are (put another marble in)
@turbid sphinx so you're saying that suppose it stayed even after 6 steps, avoiding the runaway that we would expect
the next 6 steps have better chances to repeat this
because now our definition of close to even expanded
yes they would
speed of potential runaway is smaller therefore greater odds of self-regulation
okay
well I don;t understand why there's tendency to self regulate, you're saying there's like an attractor in the middle
and it's weaker than the sides
but then it becomes very strong, even stronger than the sides, as long as we stay near by chance, we will eventualyl stay near by law
i'm not saying there's attraction in the middle; i'm saying as the number of iterations goes up the pull from the sides gets weaker
but that's assuming that the "right" sequence of marbles were pulled earlier on. isn't it?
aha
those are the odds i'm asking about
because if you pull a handful of blues in a row (at the start), it's less and less likely they'll end up even
exactly
like if there's literally a massive body that attracts you, but it only pulls you on average, and due to variance maybe you end up further away
i'm saying due to the volatility of initial conditions the odds that it ends up any way other than those three states is lower than any of those three specific states
but then it's easier to get even further away
you have 100 keys, and you're trying to find the right one for the lock
you try them all in a random sequence
which key is the "average" the one that's most likely to fit?
i'm not sure if it's relevant at all, sorry in advance
I am fed up with the three of you. We are no closer to the solution than the initial conjecture (which has not changed from the initial proposition). I will no longer tolerate your waffling; it is borderline trolling. Contribute or leave.
I genuinely hope you find yourself in a dark place and the people you turn to for help mock your plight. Go away.
no we won;t discuss why that would be good cwatson, that's definitely off topic
<@&268886789983436800> these guys are 100% trolls
you;re confusing one kind of disrespect for another
I just wanted help with a question
um. not sure exactly what's going on here but it seems like frownyfrog you should dip out atp
anyway a random walk goes back to the origin infinitely many times
and i think that's what you're describing
yeah, and i'm wondering the odds that runaway doesn't occur under the initial conditions
0
i thought if it perchance manages to get to like a 10/10 split out of 20 then the odds of it becoming 15/15 out of 30 or a 50/50 out of 100 become much higher
probably is
if you're saying that there are infinite possibilities over an infinite timespan, what of the odds of divergence becoming infinitely less likely over that time?
uhhhh
idk, this looks digestible if you work at it
there's also the wikipedia version https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Random_walk
i mean yeah if you get off to a bad start it'll take longer to recover
but eventually you will
might be after the sun explodes though
yeah but random walks have equal probablility of the options, whereas the question at hand involves diminishing odds
ok lemme reread the question hold on
in my mind the fastest way to answer this is to simulate it
it does seem unstable
you can probably use recurrence relationships to analyse it?
idk recurrence relationships
I dabbled in a somewhat related problem recently -- not quite the same, though, and it's not immediately clear whether the techniques there are still useful when the growth rates are the same. https://mathoverflow.net/questions/470050/a-random-urn-problem-do-the-faster-duplicating-balls-always-dominate
that's the same problem isn't it?
This seems to imply that the system is deterministic
wait lemme check that article rq
oh i see the difference now
that one has the black balls being more likely than the white ones by putting two more in as opposed to just one
ye
Right.
In statistics, a Pólya urn model (also known as a Pólya urn scheme or simply as Pólya's urn), named after George Pólya, is a family of urn models that can be used to interpret many commonly used statistical models.
The model represents objects of interest (such as atoms, people, cars, etc.) as colored balls in an urn. In the basic Pólya urn mode...
Good find.
Also, when there's two numbers in parentheses one above the other like the (n/n.1) in this:
what does that mean?
(this expression is in the Polya Urn article)
That's a binomial coefficient.
just looked it up i recognize the formula
isn't that the one that applies to combinations sampling without replacement?
In the case with one white and one black ball initially (x=y=1), the whole expression seems to work out to a claim that after n steps, every possible count of black balls is equally likely -- which sounds so strange that I may be misinterpreting something.
Hmm, no, actually that does seem to make some intuitive sense.
Suppose that after 99 draws there's an exactly 1% chance of there being 1 black ball, 2 black balls, ..., or 100 black balls. What is the probability of 37 black balls one draw later? That can happen either if there were 36 before and we drew black (with a probability of 36/101) or there were 37 balls before and we drew white (with a probability of 64/101), so the total probability is ((36+64)/101) * (1/100) = 1/101.
Yes. Fairly surprising but it seems to check out.
i was under the impression that given 6 balls seeing 3b 3w was more likely than seeing 1b 5w
Yeah, that's what I would have expected intuitively too. actually I had intuitively expected that outcomes in the middle would be less likely than lopsided ones.
We could probably have worked out the right answer for the x=y=1 case without consulting Wikipedia first, if only we'd had the courage to compute the probabilities for the first few steps by brute force, and then notice the pattern ...
but the odds of landing purely on one side is 1/2*2/3*...*n-1/n => 1/n
Oh, that should in itself have been a clue.
the odds of landing in the middle every time is 1/3*2/5*...[(n+1)/2]/n (given n is odd)
how does that tie in?
OH
Oh right, if you want to know about how the entire history looks, instead of just the distribution of the final counts, then we don't have an answer yet. The "exchangeability" section of the Wikipedia article looks like it could help there, though.
i jujst realized that staying in the middle is just one possibility out of many which would lead to the same end
Indeed.
given 5 balls the odds are equal given there are 4 possibilities, two are calculated to be 1/4 and the other 2 have intuitively equal odds
weird but i get it.
Thanks a lot!!!
before i close, i'd like to ask if you're gonna do anything about someone asking a question and 3 people crowding in all being equally, deliberately unhelpful so nobody else has to deal with that
I'm not exactly sure they were being deliberately unhelpful...
you sure this isn't a troll response?
schrodinger's a-hole, not joking until you're called out on it
I think this was needlessly aggressive though.
anyway i blocked all three
that being said, I do think that perhaps they should've disengaged earlier
@turbid sphinx anyways, if you're done here, you should close the channel 
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hi
In how many ways can 5 different toys be packed in 3 identical boxes such that no box
is empty, if any of the boxes may hold all of the toys?
can i know how to do this by beggars method/stars and bars method ?
Recurrence relation
this might be wrong, but my method is that assume all the boxes have 1 toys in them, so there are 2 possible configurations left, toys that are in the same box and toys that are in diffrent boxes, so 2×5!/3!, ×5! to permute the toys and /3! to remove the permuration of boxes
tho like i said, this is pribably wrong
yeah its wrong
Distinct objects into identical bins is a problem in combinatorics in which the goal is to count how many distribution of objects into bins are possible such that it does not matter which bin each object goes into, but it does matter which objects are grouped together. This problem is often trickier than the related problem of placing distinct o...
what is S
my approach was like
we can write
x1 + x2 + x3 = 5\
since no box can be empty
the boxes are distinct no?
x1 = t1+1 , x2 = t2+1 , x3 = t3+1
cant we use this if the boxes are distinct ?
sorry i meant the boxes are identical
yea but here x1 x2 x3 representa the number of balls in boxes
also im pretty sure your method works for when the toys are identical and the bins are distinct
okk this is reverse situation ig
since your solution does care about the permutation of the bins (ie x1 x2 x3) but doesent care about the toys (which is the value of it
@versed kayak Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
.
@versed kayak Has your question been resolved?
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how do i do question 2F
$$\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}=\frac{1}{x^{\frac{1}{2}}}=x^{-\frac{1}{2}}$$
Skill_Issue
yeq
sorry for the late response
so then i got
-1/2 x ^-3/2
<@&286206848099549185>
hola
hi
@strong jacinth Has your question been resolved?
speak Spanish
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Well, I don't speak much English, nor do I know much, so to speak.
quieres ayuda?
ah
soy un hablante nativo de ingles (pienso que son las palabras correctas)
pero estudie espanol por cuatro anos
probablamente hay una canal especificamente para ayuda en espanol
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b ii
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b ii
@rose cliff Has your question been resolved?
@rose cliff Has your question been resolved?
@rose cliff Has your question been resolved?
Where are you experiencing the difficulty? @rose cliff
I tried solving the question and couldnt get 1 + root7 at all
How did you start? Can you show me your approach?
Difference of the 2 radii is not the length/width of the rectangle
If you notice carefully, the bigger circle is not touching the rectangle at the far edge
i dont see it
AJ^2 + JI^2 <= AI^2 for the rectangle to be inscribable?
If AI was a tad bit shorter, the bigger circle would cut the rectangle
So $AJ^2 + JI^2 <= AI^2$
@rose cliff let me know if you get it
fukwerint
Yea i get that
So just plug in the values
Let small radius be = r
Then bigger radius is 2r
(By previous part)
So
AJ = 3 + r
JI = 3
AI = 2r
Just plug in and solve the inequality
If you have any confusion you can ask right away
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whats wrong? did I miss something?
(x²)² = x⁴ right? then 4(x^4-3) = 4x³
where's 4(x^4-3) coming from
and that isn't 4x^3 either
i don't understand what you're trying to do
idk how to explain to english:(
x⁴ so the power multiply with x become 4x and the power (-) by 1
oh, you're trying to differentiate?
yes
still wrong,
you're trying to do multiple things at a time, some partly
making this a complete mess to interpret
there are two main ways to go about this
so i need to do it step by step?
yes
and make it clear when you're actually taking derivatives
just having
y =
and =
indicates that everything will be equal to y
method 1: power chain rule immediately
method 2: first expand (just expand, don't make any attempt to differentiate in this expansion step)
then differentiate using power rule
whys the (-1) positioned like that
4x^-2?
no, that's not how exponent multiplication works
i mean (2(-1))
still not good
oh i forgot
if x²(x²) = x^(2+2)
then what about x²(4x^-1)?
so x²(4x^-1) = 4x^(2-1) = 4x
yes
tytyty
i forgot about this lol
i confused bcause i remember do the 9^2 = 3^2(2)
@livid hound wait is 4x^-1(4x^-1) = 8x^-1-1 or 4x^-1-1?
neither
then
4 * 4 = ?
yeh
i forgot about index thing 😭🙏
i think its right this time
ty! @livid hound
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i need help with this abomination
alr
:>
starting from (a)?
yea
ok so do you know limits, derivatives and stuff like that or nah?
so i know what to use or not
i know
alr so the instanteneous rate of change of g at 2.5 would be the limit (x--->2.5) of (g(x)-g(2.5))/(x-2.5))
yea
alr moving on to b
thats the rate of change of a function at a point b
g(x)-g(b)/x-b
idk if you know this tho
how do you usually calculate a rate of change
yes for instant
oh
but the limit of that
not just the fraction
lim(x--->b) of g(x)-g(b)/x-b
but if you dont know this maybe you shouldnt at this point
lets see another way
yea
if you look at the graph of g you can that between 2 and 3 the rate of change stays the same. its like a straight line
yea it does
then the instaneneous rate of change at any point will be the same
at any point between 2 and 3?
yea
do you know what the average rate of change will be from 2 to 3?
uh. the slope?
y1-y2/x1-x2
um no
y1 is 4 y2 is 1?
2 and 3
3/-1
so -3
yea
so thats the change of rate at any point between 2 and 3
the different quotient the exercise wants is g(2)-g(3)/2-3
which is -3
yea
so moving on?
wait thats all?
ok
alr so (b)
we need the limit(x-->3) of g(f(x))
we will use a substitution
do you know how?
alr we will set u=f(x)
we need to see what number u is approaching when x is approaching 3
in other words
we need the lim(x-->3) of u so the lim(x-->3) f(x)
hm what?
the x->3
yeah it says so
alr so what is this
ye.
no i am asking like what is lim(x-->3) f(x)
that means that f doesnt take a value there. but the limit still exists. like what value is f approaching when we are approaching 3
3.1?
yes.
so the limit we want
which is
lim (x-->3) g(f(x)) will be the limit (u-->2) g(u)
we delete f completely?
yes because we subtituted f(x) with u (f(x)=u) and we changed the number that u is approaching to 2)
we did not get it from anywhere we just set f(x) to be u
f(x)=u
u is simply f(x)
well has she/he taught you how to calculate limits like that
with substitution?
yes.
i am just too dum to remmber.
i gave up on it after i saw how confusing the questions are.
so uh continue?
sorry i ve got some things irl. i can continue a bit later
ok
no.
wat
oh
-1?
i just realized it wont go on the exam, i dont need to be worried about it.
thx for help tho
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simultaneous equation, 80 = ax^6 10 = ax^3 answer for x = 2. how?
Divide the two equations side by side
can you elaborate
$$\color{red}{80 = ax^6}$$
Alberto Z.
$$\color{green}{10 = ax^3}$$
Alberto Z.
$$\frac{\color{red}{80}}{\color{green}{10}} = \frac{\color{red}{a x^6}}{\color{green}{ax^3}}$$
Alberto Z.
$$\Rightarrow 8 = x^3 \Rightarrow x = \sqrt[3]{8} \Rightarrow x = 2$$
Alberto Z.
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how do i start solving this equation?
Arc tan = arctg?
yeah
yes pls
this is tg(a+a)
the same formula
Use thia formula
like same but not same
im trying to understand this
Ok
Umm
@west path Has your question been resolved?
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i can't find this don't even know how to start
Please don't occupy multiple help channels.
@ancient helm Has your question been resolved?
Have you considered what implications can stem from x <= 1/2 etc?
For example, 2x <= ...
@ancient helm Has your question been resolved?
@ancient helm Has your question been resolved?
anyone?
@ancient helm Has your question been resolved?
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can someone help with this
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
i have no idea what im doing 😭
1
like ik the cartesian eqn formula is Ax+By+Cz+D=0
and ik (A,B,C) is normal to the plane
so i tried using the other plane eqn they gave me
(ABC)=(2,-1,1)
and a point to get the eqn
but idk it didnt work
textbook says this is the ans
u can find the plane uniquely from two lines right
yeas
the first line is the one they gave
the second is the line from the two points given
wdym first line is the one they gave
that plane
does it not matter thats its perpendicular?
the vector (2,-1,1) is perpendicular to the plane
like the plane is defined by that perpendicular line in this case
wait i think im getting somewhere
give me 5s
ok erm i got closer to the answer but
i got the wrong signs
show ur work
uhhh i took the two vectors and took the cross product and got the theoretical normal
and then used apoint
u did it right
its the same
just multiply throughout with -1 to get it in the same form
but its the same
OHHHHHHHHHHHH
🍞
its just the x should be positive thing
THANK U!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
🍞
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How do i do 8? I dont know where to start? I dont want the answer just a start. thanks if you can help 😊
Notice how both terms have a tan
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how do i do this
<@&286206848099549185>
dawg how
in the question they asked us to use technology so does that mean we can use a graphing calculator
yeah
ive been using desmos and im lost
new question
,rotate
what part of this question you are struggling this?
is it that you are having difficulties in understanding the graph?
the whole thing, plotting the points
ok
so this is the graph
ill just explain it to you
do you know that a logarithm can never take a negative value as an input?
no
no
