#help-10
1 messages · Page 337 of 1
btw are u a jee aspirant?
💀
my queston prolly answered urs
lol
any guess ?
12th
bruh how ?
🤔 which coaching
allen. wbu?
whch year
no no im not that stupid
😆 btw 11th me int ?
how much did u get in mains
bruh any guess ?
teeachers are pretty good
good
idk bro after this years mains predictions mean ntg
it was just bad giving this year again 💀
250 marks gettng just slightly more than 99 percentille
i messed up
u took drop ah?
solved integers and ruined
its just depressing ugh
anyways gonna get 99 atleast this time for sure
wdym
nothing long story xd
ATB bro
yea but prolly dont remember shit
sure
close this one
.close
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does anyone know how they got di² in this correlation task?
i dont know how to get di² in this.
: (
<@&286206848099549185> idk how to describe my problem better if thats what is keeping people from answering. if you need more infos from me i can give them. I basically have the problem that i dont know how they got that di² in the screenshot. the 1, 16 and 0. its from my statistik class
@terse obsidian egonimo more like ni||gomino||
?
so i have these tabels for corellation questions. and before i need to get stuff like Pearson's correlation coefficient i need to get di²
If u send me ur pfp I will solve problem for u
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can you help me with some math ? i dont understand and i need it quickly
what is it?
where i can show you this ?
what's the rush?
im doing my homework and i cant do this , i tried like 20 times and it just wrong answer
please i really need it
you can send a picture of the question or type it
sure
picture preferred
wtf is this
i dont know my math teacher did that
You're missing a lot of brackets
did he just send you this?
different shit
yes
thats stupid
if you answer this for me i will give you bułka
are you there ?
the 2 consecutive "/" are killing me
@snow meteor Has your question been resolved?
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struggling with this a lot, i tried getting y and z in terms of x and r and plugging that into the arithmetic series but that gives me a series of 2 equations with 3 unknowns and im not sure if thats possible
the book gives this hint which seems to suggest using some kind of substitution but i cant see how to make it work
<@&286206848099549185>
Write your equations
x + d = 2xr
x + 2d = 3xr^2
been playing around with these but i cant figure out how to get r
wait i have an idea
i might have 0 = 3xr^2 - 4xr - 2x but i dont think that helps either
wait i have something
nvm that doesnt work
here you can divide by x since x not = 0
if x , 2y , 3z is an Arithmetic sequence , 2y-x = 3z-2y
=> 4y = x+3z
x , y , z is a Geometric sequence
y = rx , z = r^2x
4rx = x +3r^2 x
x gets cancelled out
you have a quadratic in r
r = 1 , 1/3
dont post solutions
i dont think thats correct
hm?
Can you verify?
For example if I wanted you to be more fancy, can you tell me for what x you can use? Can you verify your solution(s) for r?
?
ye then it's 1/3 , sorry I didn't read that x!=y
i think i got 1/3 with a slightly different answer
i got d = 2xr - x, so -x + 4xr = 3xr^2, divide by x and thats the same quadratic
I got the same quadratic
None of that is surprising because similar logic should lead to similar conclusions
Both of you are using the same basis, AP and GPs
But if there are any doubts, this should be answered
.close
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Any math problems we can solve together?
@strange fiber Has your question been resolved?
It's used in the lines below it
@strange fiber Has your question been resolved?
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Is it accruate
@regal sequoia Has your question been resolved?
@regal sequoia Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
EF and DF should be (sqrt(2) x a) and rest of the proof is correct
as you calculate ED it is 2a
@regal sequoia Has your question been resolved?
Okay thabks
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hello
trying to solve this problem
turning quadtratic to standard form
what do i do with the -3x when i factor?
probably should've factored it out beforehand no?
I am watching yt vid on how to do it
Sorry didnt mean to tag
Just natural to “reply” to ppl
no you're good. you replied to my comment
But im kinda just following how he did it in examples
Shoulda told that to the other guy who lost his beans over me tagging him in a reply ☠️
Do u have a vid u’d recommend or maybe if ur able to walk me through?
Yes
okay so from the very beginning of the problem then I would first start by factoring out the coefficient of x
proceeding how you normally would from there will get you where you need to be
Okay i’ll try
alright let me know what you get
Dude i had a pre calc exam on Thursday and i think i failed
Might have to drop the course ..
Im a lil preoccupied gimme 10 mins or so
no worries
ok lemme get cracking at this shit
im sorry what exactly does this mean
so factor out 3 from (3x^2+24x)
the number in front of the x^2 is its coefficient
we dont want a coefficient directly in front of x in standard form
but it is normal to have one outside of the parentheses as seen here
i'll try to find you a video too
nah i got it now
so it would be
x^2+8x-16
then i do what i was doing before
so
(8/2)^2 then +16-16 to the equation
well you currently should have something like -3(x^2+8x+16-16)-48 right?
oh
i tht when we divide the 24 and 48 by -3 it cancels it?
you're not trying to cancel anything, just moving things around
that -3 becomes a in this
so factoring it out gives you -3(x^2+8x)-48 right?
okay so then you "perfect square" the inside
how does the 48 stay???
it's not inside the parentheses
lol
shouldnt this be -3(x^2+8x-16)-48
or is it bc u already did the +16-16
the +16-16 was the next step. the 16 isn't there naturally
so basically from here, you need to make (x^2+8x) a perfect square. just focus on that part
so now i just factor 8x - 48?
nvm i see wym
shit
dude
i suck at this wtf
nah you don't suck at this
just takes practice
What do you get inside the parentheses? Don't simplify anything yet
holdon im gonna run out real quick
is this chat gonna close
i'll try to like text so it stays active
If it closes, I'll reopen it
But I've seen channels open here for a full day as long as you respond to the bot so
And if no one responds, including me, feel free to dm me

@next magnet Has your question been resolved?
Thank you sir
Im active otp !!
okay
so
as it stands
i have
-3(x^2+8x)-48
hi @static furnace sorry dont mean to be annoying
@next magnet Has your question been resolved?
yea so -3(x^2+8x) needs to be turned into a perfect square
how would you go about doing that
@next magnet
Im not sure, idk what i need to distribute
you dont need to distribute anything yet
just make x^2+8x into a perfect square
so (8/2)^2=16 right
so -3(x^2+8x+16-16)-48
Yeah hold on im sorry
okay yes
following
i got it
but idk what im supposed to do with
-3(x^2+8x)-48
what happened to the +16-16?
but i put them there to make a perfect square
you see what i'm saying?
okay so -3(x^2+8x+16-16)-48
then -3((x^2+8x+16)-16)-48
and -3((x+4)^2-16)-48
is that legible? i can send it through a bot to make it look cleaner
so -16 - 48
what about -3
divide?
uh
right
wait
ohhhh
ok ok i see
holdon
brain is slow rn
so it should be
-3x+4^2-16+144
you forgot parentheses somewhere
but i dont think thats it
should have -3(x+4)^2-3*(-16)-48
dont i factor -3 ((x+4)^2 - 16) then -3(-48)
-3*-16?
i tht that was already in w the x+4
hmm?
parentheses?
where's your perfect square?
remember we want it in the form a(x-h)^2+k
oh wait
-3(x+4)^2-48-48
meant to do that
woops
so then
i do
-48 - 48
which would be
+48
so
-3(x+4)^2+48
cengage just said im wrong....
gonna go fuck myself
when you multiply the -3 by the -16 what do you get
48
right and 48-48 is
0
mhmmmm
standard form
hmmm
do not use chat gpt
o
uh
yeah
right
lmaooooooo i am trying not to anymore
but anywho chat gpt got it wrong too
i actually wanna learn man
i enjoy math
but not this math
i like finance related stuff
i went wrong when my parents decided to have me
when I factored out a -3 in the very beginning I forgot a negative
should've been -3(x^2-8x)-48
not +8x
you see what i mean?
we originally had (-3x^2+24x)-48
taking out a -3 would give us -3(x^2-8x)-48
from there we go about the same way we did originally
but one of our +'s is now a -
it was -48
-3*-16
its right
we good w that now
thank god
thank you
bro
really appreciate it
yeah no problem!
what is the vertex
yes
what is 4
x = h
so x=4
hm
yes
y=4
the vertex is (4,0)
no?
cengage still saying wrong
it says (4,0) is wrong?
would it?
im looking at a graph of it right now and it's (4,0)
why is cengage saying its wrong then wtf
unsure. but it says that your equation is correct so
at least there's that
thank you again bro
im gonna continue this tmr 🙏
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are you familiar with the rule that sqrt(ab) = sqrt(a)*sqrt(b)?
yes
okay
i just learned it
so the issue is this sqrt(32)
ya but its connected to 4
let's use this fact to make it nicer
what can we factor 32 into?
16 and 2
4
right
so its 4√2
so 4sqrt(32) - 3sqrt(2) = 4[4sqrt(2)] - 3sqrt(2) = 16sqrt(2) - 3sqrt(2)
and you have your answer!
does that make sense?
wait so what about the very start
the 4 at the begining
because instead of 4√32 it changed to 4√2 (which I understand how we got the 4√2)
righttt
so then 4sqrt(32) = 4[4sqrt(2)]
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I understand the derivation leading to the memoryless property, but I cant seem to understand its application in a real scenario.
Let say we have a period $P$, in which no event occurs, if the memoryless property is true, it seem to me that the probability that an event occur at any instance $i$ in $P$ is a constant.
The memoryless property is defined as:
$$\mathbb{P}(T> s+t \vert T > s) = \mathbb{P}(T> t)$$
In case of that $t$ is approaching $0$ (i.e the very next instance).
$$\mathbb{P}(T> s+0 \vert T > s) = \mathbb{P}(T> 0)$$
Meaning, the probability that an event occurs in the very next instance equal to the probability that an event occurs the very next moment after initial time. And you can do the same thing for every instance $i$ during $P$.
Meaning, during period $P$ in which no event occurs, the probability of an event occur in any instance $i \in P$ is equal to $\mathbb{P}(0)$.
If that is true, why even has a CDF or PDF, as the value is equal to the CDF at time $0$ anyway.
This has been bugging me several days now, can someone explain it to me ?
andy
I may be misunderstanding your confusion, but you seem to be unclear on what CDFs over time tell us; they are the probability that an event has happened by now starting from some initial time. Thus "cumulative" probability. So if we have constant probability density, our CDF is increasing.
Sorry i meant the PDF in my last sentence
ah
well the PDF just retains its value
However, over time, as the CDF increases, it eventually hits 1; and by that time the event has to have occurred
So it cannot continue past that
yeah, but considering period $P$ in which no event occur. The memoryless property seem to suggest that the probability of event occuring at any instance $i$ is the same. Which seem weird to me.
andy
It's a bit fallacious to think about the PDF telling us about instantaneous probability
The probability of an event happening at an instant is always 0
yeah that why i used probability, not PDF
But there is no probability of an event occurring at an instant...
There is only the probability of an event occurring during an interval
okay what if the interval is very very small
There's still a probability, just a very very small one (unless of course the PDF is very very large in that interval)
Are you familiar with integral calculus?
yeah
The probability of an event happening during an interval is the integral of the PDF with respect to time over that interval
i meant if i chop the periof $P$ into various interval $i$. The memoryless property seem to suggest that the probability of event occuring in all these invertal $i$ is the same
andy
That is only true if all the intervals are of the same length
Well, you can chop it up into a lot of small intervals...
am i missing something here ?
alright
Memoryless property: waiting does not help, the probability of an event occuring during some interval $s$ does not depend on its past, given that the event hasnt occured in the pass
andy
Given a period $P$, chopped into various interval $i$, whose length approching $0$
andy
Let $s$ be some time between $0$ and $P$.
andy
the memoryless property suggest: $P(T > s + i \vert s) = P(i)$
andy
However, this has a conditional; it's the probability given that it hasn't happened yet
meaning we are constantly updating the PDF to account for the fact that it has not yet occurred; which makes sense as a "memoryless property" if you look at the PDF as scrolling past a fixed playhead (the current time) rather than a playhead moving across the PDF
Does that also meant $P(T> s + 2i \vert T > (s+i)) = P(i)$
andy
yeah you get what I'm saying right
its constant given that an event has not happened
yes
yeah, maybe i shouldnt have given it the condition "had not happended"
But it can also make sense; think of it as you're constantly stuck at t=0
Right now, we can expect events in the future to follow this PDF
But in two seconds, we will expect events in the future to follow the PDF shifted over by 2 seconds, assuming nothing happens
This is a bit of a Bayesian way of looking at it; that probability is the level to which you expect something to happen
okay okay, so you also agree that the is no loop hole in my initial proposition right
yeah after the first event happen, it kinda make sense
yeah your initial proposition is fairly correct, i think the confusion was how you were looking at PDFs as fixed
or at least intuitively expected them to be
does it make more sense now?
I understand PDF and CDF just fine. It just a bit weird when thinking about the interval before the first event happen.
so i brought that cursed intuition to this forsaken land.
anyway, thanks man.
anytime
yeah, probability and intuition do not get along...
@late zephyr Has your question been resolved?
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a dice thrown three times chance that sum of three numbers appearing is less than 11
so whatim doing
how many faces ?
dont do that
no, i meant what does it meant
oh
mb
I took
x+y+z = 11
then i gave
111
So i can use the
Bars formula
Thingy
n+r-1Cr-1
you know latex ?
to write mathematic like this $\mathbb(P)(X)=1/2$
andy
oh this bot
did you write down your approch on the paper
yes
you can capture it and send it to me
okay
x+y+z = 11 , what does that meant ?
you trying to find number of cases where the sum of the rolls is 11 ?
okay
let answeer this first
ill write down 3 number, which is 3 of my rolls
so the first roll i got is 443
the second roll i got is 344
does they count as the same roll ?
same thing
yes
okay what is the set of possible value ?
6^3
you sure ?
is it not
i dont know haha

okay let count the case in which the sum is 3
216 is right ithink
only 1 case right {1,1,1}
yes
how many if the sum is 4 ?
does {1,1,2} and {2,1,1} different ?
aah
if they are the same then there only 1 case
I think if you see it
Pnc way the order does matter
but the qn just meeds the sum to be 11
So ig that way it counts 1
o
ye
so for the two rolls: there sum will be from 2->10 right ?
Can be 12 11 too?
okay for 2 dices, can you calculate the probability of its sum equal 2 ?
1/36
it sum equal 3
and from these, can you count the number of occurences, in which the first roll is 1, sum with the other two less than 11 ?
Imma try
@late zephyr also is there a formula for that series
im not aware of that, im just counting cases here
my hints is, count the number of cases so that two dices sum up to a certain number, then for each value of the third dice. Sum it with the acceptable number of cases in the two dices.
remember to multiply by 3, as the third dice can be anywhere in the sequence
if you want to use undergraduate formula, look up multinomial distribution
But I want to help you build an intuition before using formula.
damn thanks ye
@late zephyr i found no of cases
For 2 rolls
sum
From 2 to 10
sum = 2, sum =3, ..., sum =10 right ?
try it
yup there are formula to delete these repititions
for example in case of sum of two dice
equal 2 we got 1 case right ?
equal 12 we got how many ?
1 ye
equal 3 and equal 11 ?
this is what called a normal distribution
ahh
A visual introduction to probability's most important theorem
Help fund future projects: https://www.patreon.com/3blue1brown
Special thanks to these lovely supporters: https://www.3blue1brown.com/lessons/clt#thanks
An equally valuable form of support is to simply share the videos.
Galton board shown in the video: https://amzn.to/3ZJK8nY
------...
watch this later
now let go back to our problem
okok
which sum have the most cases (two dice)
is it symmetric with the center at 7 ?

continue
is it not?
its 2+12/2 -1
okay
yeye
let step back form our problem a bit
how many number are between the interval 1-10 contain
only integer
10 number right ?
Ye
Ye
yes i know that rule for counting we subtract the extreme and add 1 rigg
the interval and the actual 'mark' is a bit different
Oh
on your hand, there is 5 number
yes
but 4 interval right ?
interval?
the gap between your finger
Icic
okay
if the thrid roll is 1
you sum up the cases for 2-10 right
thrid roll is 2
you sum up for 2-9
ok
thrid rolls 2
you sum up for the cases 2-8
do the same thing for all third roll
and sum them all up
ok wait
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is the reason rolle’s theorem requires continuity on closed interval [a,b] is to have extremum value property of continuous functions on compact sets?
like we can always guarantee existence of maximum/minimum with in the set unlike (a,b)
<@&286206848099549185>
Do you have a proof of Rolle's theorem?
@blissful bane Has your question been resolved?
@fathom flicker yes my proof uses extremum value theorem of compact sets and interior extremum value
Well then there you have it
Examine what would go wrong in the proof if there was not guaranteed an extreme value
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!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
how did you arrive to your answer?
what was the original blood value?
60/11
what was the new blood value?
6
so how did you find the percent change?
hm, it is 0.1 indeed
but the question asks for the percent
not the ratio
so what do you do?
times 100?
the reason they gave this answer was because they didnt use 60/11 as its initial value
but rather its rounded-to-two-decimal-places value: 5.45
hence, 10.09%
the more you know
since the problem asks the value be rounded to two decimal places, i suggest you obey it and dont use 60/11
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I have a question about my proof for this because it feels wrong but I can't find any issues
Let v1, ... vn be a basis of V since it is finite-dimensional, and let 1 be a basis of F.
Then I have a theorem that says there exists a unique linear map phi:V->F such that
phi(v_i)=w_i
and in this case since there is only one w_i and it is 1, we have a unique linear map phi:V-<F such that
phi(v_1)=1
So, my proof states that since v is non-zero, we can use it as the first basis vector of V, so letting v_1=v, and we can extend this to a basis
so we have phi(v)=1
Does that work?
can I ask some questions about this since I haven't taken LA since the age of dinosaurs? :p
Sure
what is V' ? and also what is F in the proof?
every field is a vector space
and in our class F is either C or R, so 1-dimensional
it doesn't seem that surprising that there would be such a function
this theorem nessecitates that V and the space you're mapping on have the same dimension
so it breaks there
no not at all, but my proof just feels way off
and it is so
any better ideas?
isn't V' a vector space too
i mean its not unique right
like if you set phi(v_1) = 1, you could also set phi(v_2) = whatever
well it actually does

but you just stated some details which arent quite right
the theorem I used is false here
My idea:
||Complete v into a basis then let phi be the projection on the first coordinate||
what exactly does this theorem state
the uniqueness is false
if v1, ..., vn a basis of V, and w1,... wn a basis of W, then there exists a unique linear map T:V->W such that T(v_i)=w_i
@fathom flicker
The answer is literally simple
Think harder
Lol
It way easier than you think
Blud...
I figured it out in less than 1 minutes
He's already aware that it fits in 2 lines
In my head
This isn't a lemme-flex-my-math-speed server
No i'm just sayings its easier
Hopefully it helps
if you have any linear map T that has some vector v1 that isn't in the nullspace then T(v1) = f where f is nonzero right, then wouldn't the linear map 1/f T(v1) = 1
ok
i figured it out in less than -2 years
For anyone familiar with linalg, the answer should be "yeah it's obvious" in 5 seconds so you can process the question
Let's end this
that theorem only guarantees uniqueness if they have the same dimensions but if one is lower dimension than the other it should still work right?
@fathom flicker i'm assuming you're a beginner since you posted a very basic question. i didnt mean to come off as rude, sorry
you are not being helpful.
who is this clown
@polar fossil They're obviously trolling look at message history, do I need to tag mods or just you
A newcomer that doesn't quite understand how positive helping works
i doubt he knows any linear algebra either
no. leave this channel.
im being falsely accused of trolling
ok
@fathom flicker also if you wanna use that theorem you mentioned, could you consider the span(v1) as a 1 dim subspace of V and consider then the linear transformation that the theorem guarantees from span(v1) -> F then extend it into a LA defined on all of V
That's my proof but longer
it was a theoretical question.
please read the context before using any of my messages against me
you can pick where each basis vector ends up, right?
like independently of each other
i think so?
this has a fancy name called the "universal property of vector spaces"
that edit changed nothing
it actually changed two words
Okay
so albeit with some inspiration from everyone
I have a new proof
Which hopefully works
definitely not
Since v is in V and v !=0 span(V) is a 1D subspace of V with basis v. We can let 1 be a basis of F. Then by previously mentioned theorem there exists a unique linear map phi:span(v)->F such that phi(v)=1. Now we can extend v into a basis of V using w1, ... wn. Then we can extend phi to map all w_i ->0 and we have that phi:V->F has phi(v)=1.
This seems better, does it work?
idk why you want to use uniqueness
the question doesnt say that phi needs to be unique
okay but using this theorem I dont have to justify thats a linear map
that theorem is specifically for vector spaces of the same dimension
span(v) and F have the same dimension
you should know that for vector spaces, specifying where the basis maps to defines a unique linear map
i mean that's exactly what the proof is asking
so you clearly can't assume it...
It's my proof yes
why can u map v to 1
because its part of the basis
this is basically what i was thinking, map one basis vector to 1 and the rest to 0
why can u map any part of the basis to 1
Because there's a map made specifically for that purpose
because thats what vector spaces are
a map of vector spaces is uniquely determined by what happens on the basis
so my answer should be "this is what vector spaces are, let phi(v)=1 q.e.d"
thats why matrices work
@fathom flicker what about this:
extend v to a basis for V: {v, v2, v3...v_n}
for some vector w in V let {c1, c2,...c_n} be the unique coefficients of the linear combination of w in terms of the basis: i.e. w = c1(v)+c2(v2)+...c_n(v_n)
define phi(w) be the function where phi(w) = c1
you can verify this is a linear transformation V -> F so it is in V' and it fulfills the property phi(v) = 1
it pretty much should be
I think that also works
But Bezier thinks mine works too
so we're all having fun proving this
except Snow
😄
this is all just spelling out the fact that a linear map is determined by its values on a basis
isnt linear algebra all about expressing the same thing in like a zillion ways
No it is about y=mx+b
We call those projections
That's affine algebra
note that phi doesnt need to be 0 elsewhere