#help-10
1 messages · Page 296 of 1
But we don't know po or or
They add to 26, so po plus Or i'd 13
Which is 13
After you find PR
You can deduce one of the sides
And the subtract that from the radius which is 10
So like
Find OR
And then
10 - OR would be BR
And then do the same on the other side
10 minus PO is AP
And then for BA is just the quarter of the perimiter of the circle
Yep
You have the radius so u can find it too
You can find PR right
And you know that the angle PRO is 45
So OR would just be PR times cos(45)
And for OP
Its the same
But
Sin instead of Cos
Wait a min
Im dumb
OQ is the radius right
And RP = OQ
So RP is just 10
RP is 10 cos 45
Wait what how is rp the same as the radius
And RO is sin 45
Both diagonals of the rectangle are equal right?
QO can be considered as the radius of the circle
Because the quarter circle is AOB
Yup
And Q is a point on the outer edge
And since RP is also a diagonal
They must have equal length
Since
Its a rectangle
Yea yea but wait
I made a mistake
The angles arent 45
Its a rectangle not a square
So
Both angles must add up to 90 but they cant be equal
Aight
Nah cause
Wait what
RP is 10
Weve proven that
And RP is the hypothenuse so its the longest side
So RO isnt 10
Nbm it's sin
Theyre not 45
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how can i solve this to show that there is a value of n where sn =0
n+3-2cos(4n^2)=0
then
actually hold tht
nvm
stop holding it
help.
actually now im just confused
the graph shows no solutions in positive x
also i understand the answer for the actual question, im just curious
yea
Then 2cos(4n^2) is an integer.
oh
right
i see
there are no solutions tho, however i do understand waht you mean
You would need 4n^2 to be like pi/3 or pi for this to happen, but that would mean pi is rational :c
Bless.
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I am not sure that i understand how the proof for the injection works as well as how to prove that it is surjective
what is the definition you've got for injective functions?
cool, you can consider using the contrapositive too
f(a) = f(b) ⇒ a = b, for all a, b ∈ Domf
So for an injection proof you consider 2 elements in the Domain such that their images are equal, you have to show that those 2 elements are the same
so for this specific example here where they have already proven that the inverse of the function is an injection
its saying
x1 and x2 are part of b
the inverse of the function using x1 and x2 are the same?
what do you mean using?
what are you stuck at?
by definition of the inverse functions, (f ∘ f⁻¹)(x) = x
would that be the bottom part of the definition there ?
or i guess f(f^-1(x)) = x
Sorta, but the definition it's used in the proof states that if f⁻¹ is the inverse function of f then (f ∘ f⁻¹)(x) = f(f⁻¹(x)) = x, for all x ∈ B
what is this part
(f ∘ f⁻¹)(x)
Alternatively, f⁻¹ is the inverse of f then (f⁻¹ ∘ f)(x) = f⁻¹(f(x)) = x, for all x ∈ A
but since the proof requires to show they are in B, you don't want to use this other part of the definition
composition
i have not learnt composition yet
i am supposed to be able to do it without that supposedly
okay let me try to explain maybe how im seeing this
this means that if i take a value x1 and a value x2 from b and pass it through the inverse function the result obtained from the function would be the same?
yes
okay so this next part here is saying that if i take x2 and put that in the inverse function and then take the obtained value and put it in the original function i would obtain x1
or x2 since they are the same
and since this works then the function is injective
yep
really, this would be clearer if it said $x_1 = f(f^{-1}(x_1)) = f(f^{-1}(x_2)) = x_2$
aldo booze
so by what definition is this injective? i thought that injective meant that every value in a could be mapped to a unique value in b
ok i understand this part now
One definition of injective is that a function $g$ is injective if $x_1 = x_2$ whenever $g(x_1) = g(x_2)$
aldo booze
We showed that here, with $g = f^{-1}$
aldo booze
so when passing two different values in the same function the same result is obtained
A function is injective if what you said here cannot happen, i.e. two different points always give two different values
maybe im seeing this wrong but im seeing g(x1) = g(x2) as if i pass a value x1 into the function g and i pass a value x2 into the function g then they are equivalent
Yes, you're right
Injectivity is saying that whenever this happens, $x_1$ and $x_2$ are the same
i dont understand how that shows that every value in a can be mapped to a unique value b
aldo booze
Yes, whenever they map to the same value
okay i understand now
so when passing the same value in the inverse function and then that value into the original function you obtain the same value that you started with
how would it be possible to prove that it is a surjection "by definition" then
i guess i would start with x1 and x2 being part of b
For surjectivity, you only need to start with one point in B
so i need to prove that every value b can be mapped to by a value a correct?
Yes
or in this case would it be the other way around since im trying to prove that the inverse is surjective
so every value a can be mapped to by a value b
Yes, since $f^{-1}$ maps from $B$ to $A$
aldo booze
The general way to show surjectivity is to fix some value $a$ in $A$, and find some value in $B$ which $f^{-1}$ maps to $a$
aldo booze
So with what you just said, you would have to establish that there exists an $x_1$ which maps to $x_2$
aldo booze
But I suggest using the notation $a$ and $b$ rather than $x_1$ and $x_2$ for this part
aldo booze
so let a be part of A
f(a) = b
f^-1(b) = a
Exactly
so i could write a statement like the injective proof provided and say
Let a∈A such that f^-1(b) = a.
Then by definition of inverse we have a = f(f^-1(b))
or i guess the last part wouldnt work
that was just for injective i suppose
You've almost got it but it's a bit backwards
You don't want to assume anything about a -- what you wrote here is essentially the whole proof
We want to find b such that f^-1(b) = a
so i could say something like
"let a be part of A such that f(a) = b. By definition of the inverse f^-1(b) = a and so every value b can be mapped by a value a"
or is it still backwards
im not sure
Essentially, yes, though the last bit is still slightly backwards
But your idea is right: the value f(a) in B maps to a in A
backwards in the sense of that not being the definition?
You say "every value in b can be mapped by a value a", when I think you mean to say "every a in A can be mapped to by a value b in B"
oh because its the inverse
i see
if it was A -> B then every value in b can be mapped to by a value in a
Yep
thank you so much!
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u sub
!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
.close
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can someone help please
@abstract marlin Has your question been resolved?
i dont know how to do this graph
you want the equation of the hyperbola right?
the vertex of a hyperbola is (a or b,0)
the foci are points +-(ae,0)
where e is the eccentricity of the hyperbola
as all the points are already given to you
you can find the eccentricity
and then use the fundamental definition of a hyperbola
considering a point (h,k) on it
distance of a point lying on the hyperbola is eccentricity times the distance from its focus
this is what i got but its wrong
would you be able to write out the numbers for me
the step by step?
yeah 1 sec
that is wrong because you considered the axis of the hyperbola to be the x axis
which is visually not possible
as the centre of the hyperbola is (1,3)
this is the standard result for a hyperbola
see
the centre of the hyperbola is 1,3 right
and the focus is 1+sqrt 5,3
so the distance between the centre and the focus is sqrt5
which is the eccentricity of the hyperbola in simple terms
the distance between the centre and the vertex is the transverse axis length of the hypebrola
did you understand now?
if you do ae-a
you get the eccentricity
as we know the value of a already
and the formula for its eccentricity when x axis is the transverse axis is as follows
i didnt learn it this way, so i dont know what is ae
Yes
the intersection of the axes there is the centre of the standard hyperbola
marked (0,0)
the point of the intersection of the bow of the hyperbola with the x axis is the vertex of the hyperbola
and the point marked further ahead is the focus of the hypberola
1 second let me send you the solution
k
lmao
we didnt learn this with our examples
did you now?
yeah just remember this thing
it really helps
if you know any of the two parameters
like a or b or e
you can get the entire equation of the hyperbola
we havent learned e so thats the confusing part
thats probably why i didnt understand you
but if the axis of the hyperbola (which is the x axis here) is not parallel to the coordinate axes you have the get hte equation of the curve by its definition
that is a little complex for you maybe right now
you dont know what is eccentricity?
how did you learn hyperbola then?
no i dont
bruh
lol
wasnt in my lessons?
where are you from?
i learned ellipse and then hyperbola
yeah ellipse and hyperbola are pretty much similar (i like ellipse more though)
do you have time to help me with two other problems
uh sure
assuming its (-5,0) amd (5,0)?
ok let me see
i dont have ig 
for this one i just knopw x^2/25
so far lol
i dont know how you find b if i wasnt given a foci
can anyone else help?
.close
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Could anyone please help me with this?
.close
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Any hints on how to solve this? I don't want an answer please. $(4ab - 1) \mid (4a^2-1)^2 \iff a=b$
7aman
I tried substituting x=a-b and didn't find a clean way to divide by x that clearly shows x is 0, and I'm about to try induction rn
Are a and b given to be coprime?
@vocal shell
And just to be sure you need to prove a=b if (4ab-1)|(4a^2-1)^2
Right?
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I'm having issues with axis of symmetry I think. I wasn't able to get the right outcome.
particularly I am not sure if I am doing it wrong with line 4 where
x=-((-2+4)/2)
I'm not sure if the first minus symbol on the outside of the parenthesis is supposed to be there.
You're finding vertex of parabola?
correct
If so then quadratic's 2 roots are 4 and -2 then you casually find it's average
Not extra -ve sign
Which is 1 so vertex's x coordinate is 1
And then you put x=1 in main equation getting 9
So (1,9)
Yeah
You can get the x from -b/2a and the y from plugging x back to the equation
oh ok
Where b is x's coefficient and a is the x squared's coefficient
I thought that if a was negative you had to put a negative in the axis equation
my materials are a little confusing on this
because they sometimes put a - there
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Can you please explain what do they mean by discontinuous here?
I didn't get the idea of branch cuts of argz function
These are the figures
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$3^{2tlog_3 4} = 4^{2t}$ this is true yeah?
Yanek
im not sure if i can use this property of logs like this
here is the equatation im trying to solve:
$x^{2log_3 4} - 7 \cdot 2^{log_3 x^2} + 12 \leq 0$
Yanek
and i substituted $t = log_3 x \implies 3^t = x$
Yanek
so i have this
$3^{2tlog_3 4} - 7 \cdot 2^{2t} + 12 \leq 0$
Yanek
and then: $4^{2t} - 7 \cdot 2^{2t} + 12 \leq 0$
Yanek
can someone confirm whether im doing this good?
@hollow igloo Has your question been resolved?
yes that's good and all correct so far
this is true cause a^(bc) = a^(cb) = (a^c)^b
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@mighty barn Has your question been resolved?
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hi im kind of confused on what b) is asking?
i got the maximum number of the population which was 500/e at t=10
what does the max rate of increase and decrease mean?
at some point the rate of change dN/dt will be at a maximum (or a minimum)
so am i finding the max?
hint: time can't be negatuve
so like this?
yeah, but I also don't think your derivative is right
oop
e shouldn't be giving you multiple terms in its derivation
d/dt of f(t)g(t) = f'(t)g(t) + f(t)g'(t) for f(t) = 50t and g(t) = e^-0.1t
but online calculator got this thingy
oh
thats what i did i think
and what is d/dt of e^(-0.1t)
d/dt of e^(-0.1t) with the chain rule h(t) = f(g(t)) and g(t) = -0.1t and f(t) = e^t gives f'(g(x))g'(x)
f'(x) = e^t (it's just the same)
g'(x) = -0.1
h'(t) = -0.1e^(-0.1t)
so dy/dx of 50t*e^0.1t
=50 x e^0.1t + 0.1t x e^0.1t x 50t?
f'(t)g(t) + f(t)g'(t) for f(t) = 50t and g(t) = e^-0.1t
f'(t) = 50
g'(t) = -0.1e^(-0.1t)
derivative of N is then -5e^(-0.1t)) + 50te^(-0.1t) = e^(-0.1t)(50-5t)
f'(t)g(t) = 50 * (-0.1e^(-0.1t)) = -0.1 * 50
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differentiate 1/(1-10x) ' = the series
when I do derivative I gain one term?
We’re talking taylor and mclauring series
Here
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Find range.
I 1st devided and got y= x²+x+1
It's +ve "a" so open upwards.
Then searched how to find vertex of parabola. Couldn't find how.
So I differentiated it for it's minima. And put it's value to find y in that minima.
Then my range came out to be [7/4, ∞)
Is this technique and answer ok?
i don't have the answers for these questions...
sorry, it's [3/4, ∞)
divided
careful... there's a hole in the graph now
bcz there's an invalid value for x
Oh yah...
Thanks for the point.
But do we still need to consider it after we just divided the lower part off—
Like, if I want to minus the y value for when x=1, do I do that for the original function where I dunno how to do it.
Or I put x=1 in the quadratic that came out after the factorization?
the point is that we can't divide by 0
so x=1 is a hole in your function
to see what the y value "would have been" you can plug x=1 into your quadrativ
[3/4, ∞) - {3}
Is considered complete answer?
@pulsar charm Has your question been resolved?
@pulsar charm Has your question been resolved?
@pulsar charm Has your question been resolved?
@pulsar charm Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>, I just need confirmation of is my answer correct. I don't have the answer.
oh yes it's quadratic...
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Hi I have a quick question about Real Analisis.
If a metric space X, or subspace of a metric space X, can be entirely contained in a fixed radius ball centered in X, is that space totally bounded?
For example, is a space with 0-1 a metric always totally bounded? and why?
Or the space of all functions R -> R such that sup( | f(x) |) < 1. Is that totally bounded as well? With uniform metric for functions.
Srry for english.
For the first question, take any infinite set with the discrete metric and choose your ball radius to be strictly less than 1 (e.g. say 0.5). Any ball with radius strictly greater than 1 will contain the whole space
Assuming by 0-1 metric you’re referring to the discrete metric which is 1 when the points are different and 0 when they’re the same, that’s the second para for you
So it would be totally bounded?
yup!
The definition of totally bounded is that the space is a subset of the union of a finite amount of epsilon balls
Nope! Remember total boundedness means that given a radius of your choice, you can cover the whole space with finitely many balls with that radius
But you cannot cover an infinite set with the discrete metric with finitely many balls of radius 0.5, because each of those balls contain only one element, their center
The closed ball would, the open one wouldn’t
oh yeah
Any ball of radius strictly greater than 1 would contain the whole space though, whether open or closed, which was the point here!
Wait is it a radius of my choice?
I thought it had to be an epsilon radius balls
(In other words, boundedness doesn’t imply total boundedness in general)
And a finite amount of epsilon balls and all that
Well as in for whatever radius you choose (you can denote the radius by $\epsilon > 0$), you must be able to cover with finitely many balls that have the radius $\epsilon$
@unreal musk
It isn’t enough that you can find one epsilon that works (similar with convergence etc etc), it has to work for all of them
so wait, is this true of not?
Is it enough for total boundness there to find a radius that works?
Such that there is a finite amount of N radius balls?
Nope, it isn’t enough, you need to be able to show it for all possible radius choices
For example, any compact set, call it $A$, is totally bounded: choose whatever $\epsilon$ you want, and then the set of open balls ${ B_{\epsilon}(a) : a \in A }$ form an open cover of $A$, compactness implying there’s a finite sub cover of that
@unreal musk
wait, so [0, 1] isn't totally bounded?
(A proof you’ve probably seen - and you’re likely to see compactness being equivalent to closure and total boundedness)
oh yeahyeah
seen that
As an interval of the real numbers with the standard metric, it is, but if you take, for example, the discrete metric, it isn’t
Why is it totally bounded with standard metric?
srry haha
But why?
Is it the union of a finite amount of epsilon balls?
One thing is that under the standard metric, boundedness does imply total boundedness (a consequence of Bolzano-Weirstrass if I recall correctly)
Matter of fact, it’s easier to visualise in that case - take an $\epsilon$ of your choice, then consider $k = \ceil{\frac1{\epsilon}}$
@unreal musk
You can cover [0,1] with finitely many intervals (intervals being the same as open balls)
Argh I’d have to write it out but it isn’t too challenging to create the cover of intervals
no worries! Key point overall is that in general boundedness doesn’t [necessarily] imply total boundedness
As for the last question you asked, I’m not too sure and would have to think about it, but I’m in bed atm 
See ya later 
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how to write this in a mathematical way?
i mean i got an answer
where x1 = -6, x2 = 3, x3 = 2
i figure there must be others that are possible
do you need entire solution or ?
not exatly
sure it would be easier, but i kinda want to be in the process of figuring it out
just some kind of pointers or something
idk😅😅
anythign you know about matrices ?
yoru exercise is typical
for matrices methods
1 method i suggest is Cramer's rule
to us ei tyou nneed know, determinants
eventually, you may use Gaussoan eliimination as well
or inverse matrix method
unless you are pupil in school
then us e school methods
im in school, yeah
not sure for this type of exercise which is recommended by the school, i think we have freedom in what way we solve
then, for example, determine x2 from the third equation and substitute the expression for the first and second equations, then you will have a system of two equations
$x_{2}=x_{3}+1$
Joanna Angel
so:
x1+2(x3+1)−2x3=−4
2x1+4(x3+1)+x3=2
now i just need to find a way how to write it as in the other exercise, where it was a lot easier to figure out a relation between the x1,x2,x3 values
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I don't really know how to start here
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can anyone help me solve this for a family member?
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can someone help me with finding the interquartile range pls? thanks
ohh okay i see thank you
yeahh ive got it now thankss :)
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5 boys (B$_1$,B$_2$,B$_3$,B$_4$ and B$_5$) and 5 girls (G$_1$,G$_2$,G$_3$,G$_4$ and G$_5$) are to be seated around a round table such that boy and girl sit alternatively and B$_i$ does not sit beside G$_i \forall$ i $\in {1,2,3,4,5}$. Find the total number of such arrangements.
Normed
i am confused
Now wlog there are 10 options for position 1,4 options for position 2,3 options for position 3,3 options for position 4
6
?
But can't say anything about positions 5,6,7,8,9,10 as the number of options would depend on the previous positions
So how do I solve it?
hmm I see but how do you make sure that B_i and G_i do not sit besides each other?
I'd subtract the cases where they do
Oh mm
wait let me think about that
You could find the number of pairings and then order them
The graph theoretic way to do this is to consider a bipartite graph between the vertex set of boys and the vertex set of girls then count the number of ways you can form a cycle and remove the duplicates.
Nah haven't studied graph theory yet
@spring steeple could be a bit cumbersome, but how about inclusion–exclusion?
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@spring steeple are you here?
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I believe the answer is A can someone check I just found dy/dx and plugged in x=1
<@&286206848099549185>
hallo
hi can you check my answer
can you show any work
and you found y?
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I can't seem to figure out how to prove this
all work present, happy to elaborate on anything if its not clear!
this, the second line is an issue
the numerator for example is actually, with what youre trying to do,
1+(1-cos^2)*1/cos^2
you only applied the /cos^2 to the cos^2
you completely ignored the 1
$1+(1-cos^2)*1/cos^2$
Bestower
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✅
but I am still kinda lost, I get 1+ (1-cos^2)/cos^2 all over 1+ (1-sin^x)/sin^2x
not really sure what to do next
I could make 1-cos into sin squared
oh then I could make the top into 1+tan^2
and the bottom into 1+cot^2
when I kept going it seems like that doesn't really help me, still lost 😔
This is what my teacher did for the solution but I don't really understand how she went from the first line to the second
they put the numerators and denominators over a common denominator
the numerator for example:
$1+\frac{sin^2(x)}{cos^2(x)}=\frac{cos^2(x)}{cos^2(x)}+\frac{sin^2(x)}{cos^2(x)}$
AℤØ
denominator follows a similar process
ahh I see
ya thats prob a much better method then what I did, Ill try to solve using that now
would you not have to multiply both terms by cos^2 to put them over cos^2, one becomes cos^2 but how does sin^2x not become sin^2xcos^2x
Also how do you even write latex that fast :<
just a bit o practice lol
im not too sure what you mean
the sin^2 was always over cos^2 already
there was no need to do anything to that term
Bestower
good lord that looks bad
AℤØ
that?
$\frac{(cos^(2)(x)(1+sin^(2)x)}{(cos^(2)x)}$
Bestower
good lord
1+a/b = b/b + a/b, it wouldnt make much sense to make a/b into ab/b would it
you get the idea, if both 1 and sinx are over 1 you would need to multply both terms by cosx^2
wdym? if we are adressing the numerator by itself then sin^2 is just over 1
$sin^2(x)\left(\frac{1}{cos^2(x)}\right)=\frac{sin^2(x)}{cos^2(x)}$
oops
😭 welcome to my world
AℤØ
and this comes into play
you only needed to change the denominator of the 1
since the sin^2 is already over cos^2
oh wait
ya youre right
😭 forgot to multiply the sin^2 to 1 to make it over cos^2
oops
multiply the sin^2 to 1?
okie dokie, still not too sure what you meant by this
like, sin^x(1/cos^2x) is sinx^2/cosx^2
aha, yeah alright
really simple concept, just forgot it while looking at it 😭
it seems snazzy yes
my sheer refusal to put the x needs to stop 😭
snazzy is a great way to describe it thanks
no worries
don't suppose theres a much snazzier way to prove this
never hurts to know it, even if I don't use the method its good to know
hmm, (1+tan^2)/(1+cot^2)=tan^2(1+tan^2)/(tan^2+1)=tan^2=sin^2/cos^2=sin^2sec^2
just randomly threw that one together
this is going to look intresting in latex
$(1+tan^2)/(1+cot^2)=tan^2(1+tan^2)/(tan^2+1)=tan^2=sin^2/cos^2=sin^2sec^2$
Bestower
lmao, i can write it if you want
$\frac{1+tan^2}{1+cot^2}=\frac{tan^2(1+tan^2)}{tan^2+1}=tan^2=\frac{sin^2}{cos^2}=sin^2sec^2$
AℤØ
thats kinda sick to see just from looking at the question
amazing stuff, thanks man!
no worries
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angle rtc would be 90 degrees because it is a rectangle
90-42=48
48= 2x+6
solve for x
42=2x
x=21
hope that helps 🙂
As a helper, please do not give out answers that could be copied as a homework solution. Have the student work through the problem themselves and guide them along the way.
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first find a function that tells us how much money Roshaun has at $t$ weeks
PajamaMamaLlama
then do the same for Keegan
where these lines meet will be the week they have the saem amount of money :)
ok wait
so r = 150 + 10
and k = 25
well i forgot to add w
with 10 and 25
but im now stuck
so we have 150+10w and 25w, so now these two lines tell us how much money each person has
so when they have the same amount of money
this will be 150+10w=25w, no? :)
wdym? 
like how does 150 + 10w = 25w?
well 150+10w tells us how much money Roshaun has at some number of weeks, right?
yes
wait so are these both slope intercept equations?
not rreally
alright
when Keegan's money = Roshuan's money that will be 25w=150+10w
why should we do that tho
because we are interested when they have the same amount of money :)
do you know how to solve linear equations?
linear equations
like equations that represent a line?
slope intercept
standard
like 150+10w=25w
what equation is it then
there's no line, just a number
yep! precisely what you do here

yep so we get 15w=150
theres no more 10w
now, how do we get w to be alone?
so now, w=? :)
10

so we found the number of weeks they meet
oh wait its coming together now
now we substitute all the w values with 10
close, we actualy only need to put w=10 into one of the equations, but yep pretty much :)
so we could choose from the 2 equations from the starts
yep! and I just chose Teegan's cause his is easier to deal with
well it doesn't matter, because w=10 is where their equal

and now B is
$250
for section B
not what it equals to
you think you could help with another equation
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can someone explain the steps?
@lavish steppe Has your question been resolved?
Notice that for all values of y, y= sin x is always 90° ahead of y= cos x
Hence we can deduce that sin x = cos (x-90°)
90° equals to π/2, and what is given in the question is -π/4. If we substitute x by 2alpha, into
sin x = cos (x-π/2)
You will get the first statement
Second line : take out 2 in the 2alpha - π/2 , to use the double angle formula where the angle is (alpha - π/4)
should the second line be -1 instead of +1?
Yes 🤣
ok thank you i get it now
I have another way to solve this, but I don't know what you prefer
do you mind telling me it
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have you attempted putting it into vertex form?
howd it go
nice
but i meant the y=ax^2+bx+7
this isnt entirely correct either
well
factor out a first
$$a[x^2+\frac{b}{a}x]+7$$
AℤØ
just get this into vertex form
well, its not done
you have to do the rest of the work
what would you normally do
what do you normally do to get something into vertex form
dont let the fact there are letters everywhere make you think its any different to normal
no it isnt
that x shouldnt be there
but its just b^2/4a
quite a wild ping
what? why
why
youre not showing me any work
leads me to believe youre just guessing

why
what makes you think that is the case
well, youre wrong
b/2a=-4
youre welcome
how can i correct you if i dont know how youre even getting stuff
that right
i never gave you an answer to copy down
what do you think the point of my 'random questions' are exactly
the point of my questions is to get you to the next step of the work
when i asked you to show your work its because you pulled some equations from nowhere and i wanted to see how you were doing it
anyway
you got to the point of using ((b/a)/2)^2
so i presume you got to the point of completing the square on a[x^2+b/a x] +7
or at least thought of doing so
plus i dont really appreciate your attitude, im sat in my room helping you at 5:40 in the morning, im not under any obligation to do so
its voluntary
Yo Azø can you help me out rq in #help-32
I’ve been waiting 40 mins
My question is very short
lmao, alr, good luck with your work man
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!original
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
what is the problem
√x² = -x x=?
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welp
type .reopen
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how to deal with exponents where it is powered by a negative fraction, and the numerator is not 1
that’s not a negative fraction
You could make the numerator 1
For ex if you have
2^(-2/3), you could rewrite it as (2^(-2))^(1/3)
${2^{-2}}^{(1/3)}$
mb
Lorentz
so, (1/4)^(1/3)
Yeah
Cube root*
Yeah
then rationalize since radicals cannot be in denominator and all that
Yeah you could do that
thanks
Np
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not really sure if im doing this right, also dont know where to go from here, any help would be greatly appreciated
I mean I assume you are done by that point
,w Laplace transform y'' -4y' +4y = t, y(0)=1, y'(0)=0
i think im supposed to do the inverse laplace transform like i did iin this question, although im also not sure if this is correct
no
it's $\ds \m Fs= \cm\LL{\m ft} \tss{and} \m ft = \cm{{\LL}^{-1}}{\m FS}$
what you did is fine
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guys I need your help. i really dont know how to find this answer :
34 + 46 = 80 million
46 = 10 cash, 36 deposit
is there a way to find out how much is the 34 consists of in cash or deposit with mathematic formula ?
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whats wrong with doing this?
$$a^3 + b^3 + c^3 \geq 3abc$$
a^3 + b^3 + c^3 >= 3abc by AM-GM
so if we prove 3abc>= a^2b+b^2c + c^2a
wouldnt that solve the problem?
we don't know the ordering
is it
$$a^3 + b^3 + c^3 \geq 3abc \geq a^2b+b^2c + c^2a$$
or
$$a^3 + b^3 + c^3 \geq a^2b+b^2c + c^2a \geq 3abc$$?
,tex test
huh
anyways
if we try to prove that x>y, and we find that x>z, that does not imply that z>y
agreed
but
if we know x>=z
and we find out z>=y
why wouldn't that imply x>=y
it would but that isn't what you have here