#help-10
1 messages · Page 273 of 1
[
\map \log{a + b} \c r \ne \map \log a +\map \log b
]
What should I do?
okay so this is much more elaborate now. You're trying to evaluate[
\lim_{x \to \infty} \parens{4^x + 5^x}^{\f1x} -3
]
hmm
Here
maybe factor out 5^x?
I think so too
It is I think, I can't read everything, but you can also factor out $5^x$, so you would get $$\lim_{x\to\infty} 5\cdot((\frac{4}{5})^{x} + 1)^{\frac{1}{x}}$$
Jelle
it looks more complicated
but I can see you just took common 5^x inside what will we do next?
Well, the 5 can go out of the limit
and the inside goes to (0 + 1)^0
which is just 1
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need help
not sure where to start
derivative represent rate of change
thus when f'(x)>0, f is increasing. when f'(x)=0, f is stationary and when f'(x)<0, f is decreasing.
I told you no
bruh then wtf am i supposed to do
f'(-2)=-1 which is negative
from the graph you can see f'(x)<0 in interval B
thus f is decreasing in B
yes
critical point is where f'(x) = 0 or f(x) is not defined
a critaical point can be a local maximum, local minimum or saddle point
yep
whats relative maximum points
so theres none
no
for f'(x) there's not
but we want maximum of f, not f'
to figure out if a critical point is max or min, first calculate f''
how
differentiaite f'
2x+4
if f''(x)>0 then it's minimum and vice versa
we know critical points -3 and -1
we just need to find out which is maximum and which is minimum
plug in the critical point to f''(x)
then ^
correct
then what
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not sure where i went wrong in this
maybe i got an implication confused with an equiavalence?
oh i see, if the curl is zero, there still might not exist a potential for that vector field?
yes
but the rest that i have ticked are true?
@vast musk Has your question been resolved?
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Both of these questions are confusing me
For 6 my answer was 5 but it says 2.5 in the answer key(??)
For 7 how do we get the probability when it says nothing about travel insurance in the info
,rccw
@sleek wagon Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
Yes
also the Empirical Rule i'm guessing
126 minutes right
how many standard deviations is that from the mean
2
correct
so let's write this variable rq
X ~ N(mean = 120, standard dev. = 3)
we see "more than 126 minutes" right ?
Yep
that means you need to find the probability of the charging time being more than 126 minutes
P(X > 126)
do u agree?
Yes
could you use the complement's rule on this?
for normal distribution it's also very good to draw a graph
Yea so I originally did 100-95 to get 5 but the answer is 2.5
you were almost there
the 5 is the extremely low charging times and the extremely high charging times
we only need the extremely high ones, so to speak
so you divide by two
always draw a graph, best tip ever
True
got me through normal distribution easily
so you'll see what probabilities you need etc
Yea
Ill try
Bro how hard is it to make a venn diagram with 4 circles that makes sense
@sleek wagon Has your question been resolved?
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how do i show this
g(x)=f(x^2)
what is g and what is f
Its that the taylor expansion
4th order taylor expansion equals the second order taylor expansions
Have you already calculated all derivatives of g up to 4th order?
Well if you differentiate the first line again, you get two terms: The first one is correct, but the term where you diff. f'(x^2) you have to consider the inner derivative aswell
Im not sure what u is, you have to use the chain rule
i am using the chain rule
nvm im not
what two functions do we have here then?
f'(x^2) and x^2?
Yeah f'(x) and x^2
so f'(g(x)*g'(x)
yes
yes but you already have 2x in front
now we have to differentiate this
that was the first term
this will be quite difficult though
So what is your second derivative now?
Not quite, the 2 f'(x^2) term you had first was already correct, only the second term was missing an additional 2x
you play chess?
rly?
youu sure
Very sure
Yeah you have to use the product rule first and then apply the chain rule when you differentiate f'(x^2)
yes that looks good
yh i get the same now
didnt know you used the product rule first and only the chain rule for the ones that needed it
Okay nice, now you have to calc. the 3rd and 4th derivative
Haha maybe
you high rated?
Not really, I have like 1200 online
i might be doing it wrong again
ill try and see if we get the same
1 sec
how do i differentiate f''(x^2)
just 2x*f'''(x^2)?
yes
Almost, the second term is correct, but the third term should have x^3 and the first term f''
You are missing one ' in the first term
yeah i see
i move 2x down to 4x^2 and get 8x^3
oops
i didnt write it, but it is supposed to be x^3
Haha dw I know what you mean
what do i do after i have done this 4 times
You must have some formula for the Taylor expansion right?
One should be enough :D
Yes but you can simplify that
nice
now onto g(x) or?
Well you just calculated the derivatives for g(x)
Hm maybe, I mean we want to show that T^4(g)(x) = T^2(f)(x^2) right? And if you now plug in the derivatives in the formula for the taylor expansion we have the left side
yh
uhm left side sorry
yh but i thought we had to do something to both
but if your method makes it right (which it is supposed to do) im sure its correct
at any rate, lets proceed
There is nothing to really calculate for the right side, the left side is the hard part
okay so what do you get if you plug in all the derivatives?
yes actually
so i do put on both?
yes
If it is not stated that f(0) = 0, we have to leave it like that
Yes you are not supposed to set these terms to zero
in this term for example
it matter which term i apply the x^2 to
or is it supposed to be in parentheses
You apply x^2 to both terms in the enumerator yes
Looks good
We know have to write down the righhand side explicitly
explicitly?
What I meant is you have to write down what T_2(f)(x^2) actually is
Okay so what we've done so far is the calculation for the lefthand side (T_4(g)(x)). The goal here is to show the equality T_4(g)(x) = T_2(f)(x^2) right? So we know what the lefthand side is, now we use the definition for the taylorexpansion again but for the right hand side and hope that it actually is the same. Note that T_2(f)(x^2) is NOT the taylor expansion for f(x^2), but for f(x) where you plug in x^2 instead of x in the end
Yes T is for taylor
The problem is that the way it is written here is a little ambigous. T_2(f(x^2)) means taking the taylor expansion for f up to second order (so f(y) = f(0) + y* f'(0) + 1/2 y^2 * f''(0) ) and then AFTERWARDS, you plug in x^2 in the argument (so y = x^2)
The derivative of f(x) is just f'(x), there is now way to further simplfy that since we dont know how f(x) looks like
Well normally we have an x^2 term in the second order taylor expansion right? But now what we do is we replace all x with x^2, so the x^2 term suddenly becomes x^4
Maybe this helps:
what is mcavs
If we compare your result for the left side with what i wrote I would say they are both equal, or what would you say?
Yes
Ahh then you misinterpreted my bad handwriting
the late term has f''
f
i thought we were done now
Yeah we are done
If you say it's fine for you then yeah ofc, I just wanted to emphasize that g and f are not equal with this😅
it is just the thing we've just made
I know it is written in danish, but i the math is the same
Dw I can partly guess what is written there because I'm German. Looks good overall
actually
have we not made a mistake
when you differentiate the first time you get 2x*f'(x^2)
if u put in 0 here you get 0*f(x^2) which is 0
Im not sure to which line yo are referring to
Ahh okay
But remember we set a = 0 in your formula for the taylor expansion, but the x stays as it is
Maybe it would be better if you replace the x's with a's when you calculated the derivatives
so how should i write it instead
you write 2a f'(a^2) for the first derivate, 2 f'(a^2) + 4a^2 f''(a^2) for the second derivatve and so on
so you replace a with x only were you calculated the derivatives
ok so in the first,second, third and fourth
yes
in my pdf
if you scroll up to when i insert a=0
have i not missed some x's
that i havent inserted a=0 on
This is exactly why it's better to replace the x's that were used for the derivatives with a's because we set a = 0 and not x = 0
yes
my question is though
or tryign to understand rather
when we calculate the left side
we just insert a = 0 and the first term goes away
but on the right side
we suddenly cant do that?
why
@steel blade
We played by the same rules on the right side, we used the formula for the taylor expansion for f(x), set a = 0 and then replaced x by x^2
but should the first term not be equal?
you mean x^2 f'(0) ?
in the first
we say that the first derivative is 2x*f'(x^2)
or rather 2*a
when we insert 0
entire thing becomes 0
why doesnt the same thing happen on the other side
The right side is this f(a) + x^2 f'(a) + 1/2 x^4 f''(a) right? We then only set a=0 but NOT x = 0. So they dont vanish
The reason why it vanished on the left side is because the term 2 a f'(a^2) has an a in front so it vanishes when we set a = 0
Yes but one the right side we dont have that. We only have a's in the argument, NOT a^2's, so we dont need to apply the chain rule
No problem, I hope it will make 100% sense after some time :D
sure why not
i just wrote you just follow server rules
i dont think you can idle cha here
.close
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Let $f(x)=e^x\sin(x)$, then integrate $f(x)$,
$$
\int f(x)dx = \int e^x\sin(x) dx
$$
For this, we will use integration by parts,
$$
\int udv = uv - \int vdu
$$
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Let,
\begin{align*}
&u = \sin(x) \implies \frac{du}{dx}=\cos(x) \implies du=\cos(x) , dx \
&dv=e^x \implies v=\int e^x dx = e^x + C
\end{align*}
where $e^x$ is the family of functions $\mathbf{F}$, and C is any abritrary constant $C \in \mathbb{R}$
Integration by parts:
\begin{align*}
\int udv &= uv - \int vdu \
\int \sin(x)e^x &= \sin(x)e^x - \int e^x cos(x) dx
\end{align*}
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Again, we notice we have to apply integration by parts on the $\int e^x cos(x) dx$ term. Let,
\begin{align*}
&u = \cos(x) \implies du=-\sin(x) , dx \
&dv=e^x \implies v=\int e^x dx = e^x + C
\end{align*}
So,
\begin{align*}
\int udv &= uv - \int vdu \
\int \cos(x)e^x&= \cos(x) e^x - \int -e^x \sin(x)dx \
\int \cos(x)e^x&= \cos(x) e^x + \int e^x \sin(x)dx
\end{align*}
I feel like im in an endless loop?
SimonWin
I will just keep doing integration by parts forever, by I notice now that I have gone a full "round" i am back at the original integral
Lemme just underbrace what i mean
Let $f(x)=e^x\sin(x)$, then integrate $f(x)$,
$$
\int f(x)dx = \int e^x\sin(x) dx
$$
For this, we will use integration by parts,
$$
\int udv = uv - \int vdu
$$
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Let,
\begin{align*}
&u = \sin(x) \implies \frac{du}{dx}=\cos(x) \implies du=\cos(x) , dx \
&dv=e^x \implies v=\int e^x dx = e^x + C
\end{align*}
where $e^x$ is the family of functions $\mathbf{F}$, and C is any abritrary constant $C \in \mathbb{R}$
Integration by parts:
\begin{align*}
\int udv &= uv - \int vdu \
\int \sin(x)e^x &= \sin(x)e^x - \int e^x cos(x) dx
\end{align*}
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Again, we notice we have to apply integration by parts on the $\int e^x cos(x) dx$ term. Let,
\begin{align*}
&u = \cos(x) \implies du=-\sin(x) , dx \
&dv=e^x \implies v=\int e^x dx = e^x + C
\end{align*}
So,
\begin{align*}
\int udv &= uv - \int vdu \
\int \cos(x)e^x&= \cos(x) e^x - \int -e^x \sin(x)dx \
\int \cos(x)e^x&= \cos(x) e^x + \underbrace{\int e^x \sin(x)dx}_{\text{this is the same as the original integral}}
\end{align*}
SimonWin
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
SimonWin
Let $f(x)=e^x\sin(x)$, then integrate $f(x)$,
$$
\int f(x)dx = \int e^x\sin(x) dx
$$
For this, we will use integration by parts,
$$
\int udv = uv - \int vdu
$$
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Let,
\begin{align*}
&u = \sin(x) \implies \frac{du}{dx}=\cos(x) \implies du=\cos(x) , dx \
&dv=e^x \implies v=\int e^x dx = e^x + C
\end{align*}
where $e^x$ is the family of functions $\mathbf{F}$, and C is any abritrary constant $C \in \mathbb{R}$
Integration by parts:
\begin{align*}
\int udv &= uv - \int vdu \
\int \sin(x)e^x &= \sin(x)e^x - \int e^x cos(x) dx
\end{align*}
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Again, we notice we have to apply integration by parts on the $\int e^x cos(x) dx$ term. Let,
\begin{align*}
&u = \cos(x) \implies du=-\sin(x) , dx \
&dv=e^x \implies v=\int e^x dx = e^x + C
\end{align*}
So,
\begin{align*}
\int udv &= uv - \int vdu \
\int \cos(x)e^x&= \cos(x) e^x - \int -e^x \sin(x)dx \
\int \cos(x)e^x&= \cos(x) e^x + \underbrace{\int e^x \sin(x)dx}_{\text{\Large this is the same as the original integral}}
\end{align*}
SimonWin
Don't know if i am supposted to use that?
Otherwise, I feel like I'll keep doing integration by parts forever
You can call the original integral I
Then say you have a bunch of stuff + I
Pretty sure it should be a different sign though
But that seems magical?
You should probably get - I on the right side
Why can I just say okay now we're arrived at the same, so the original integral is now I
Hi
Aah..
Then you add I to both side divide by 2
Aaah, yes so I will cancel out
And you can solve for I explicitly
Yeah read integration by parts on Wikipedia
Go to the tabular section
I have already done integration by parts
There’s a method to do this quickly
Yeah there’s a fast method for repeated integration by parts
Just a tool you might want to add to your tool belt
Yeees!
Definitely
Is it just this you mean?
I will read it after, I am just going to trey this real quick
Yeah
See the example with x³ cos x
Wait no
The eˣ cos x one
Pretty much the same as your question
It's exactrly the same right?
Have a read if you have time
Isnt it integration by parts??
Just try it
Yeah
thats the whole point we're making right, that they're repetitive
Just try and see
it makes sense!
Yep
yes
will do
Let $f(x)=e^x\sin(x)$, then integrate $f(x)$,
$$
\int f(x)dx = \int e^x\sin(x) dx
$$
For this, we will use integration by parts,
$$
\int udv = uv - \int vdu
$$
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Let,
\begin{align*}
&u = \sin(x) \implies \frac{du}{dx}=\cos(x) \implies du=\cos(x) , dx \
&dv=e^x \implies v=\int e^x dx = e^x + C
\end{align*}
where $e^x$ is the family of functions $\mathbf{F}$, and C is any abritrary constant $C \in \mathbb{R}$
Integration by parts:
\begin{align*}
\int udv &= uv - \int vdu \
\int \sin(x)e^x &= \sin(x)e^x - \int e^x cos(x) dx
\end{align*}
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Again, we notice we have to apply integration by parts on the $\int e^x cos(x) dx$ term. Let,
\begin{align*}
&u = \cos(x) \implies du=-\sin(x) , dx \
&dv=e^x \implies v=\int e^x dx = e^x + C
\end{align*}
So,
\begin{align*}
\int udv &= uv - \int vdu \
\int \cos(x)e^x&= \cos(x) e^x - \int -e^x \sin(x)dx \
\int \cos(x)e^x&= \cos(x) e^x + \int e^x \sin(x)dx
\end{align*}
So going from this
SimonWin
This ones a bit complicated one
It also gives you a better idea what to choose for your derivative
Because the column you derive you want it to go to 0 at the end
SimonWin
Let $f(x)=e^x\sin(x)$, then integrate $f(x)$,
$$
\int f(x)dx = \int e^x\sin(x) dx
$$
For this, we will use integration by parts,
$$
\int udv = uv - \int vdu
$$
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Let,
\begin{align*}
&u = \sin(x) \implies \frac{du}{dx}=\cos(x) \implies du=\cos(x) , dx \
&dv=e^x \implies v=\int e^x dx = e^x + C
\end{align*}
where $e^x$ is the family of functions $\mathbf{F}$, and C is any abritrary constant $C \in \mathbb{R}$
Integration by parts:
\begin{align*}
\int udv &= uv - \int vdu \
\int \sin(x)e^x &= \sin(x)e^x - \int e^x cos(x) dx
\end{align*}
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Again, we notice we have to apply integration by parts on the $\int e^x cos(x) dx$ term. Let,
\begin{align*}
&u = \cos(x) \implies du=-\sin(x) , dx \
&dv=e^x \implies v=\int e^x dx = e^x + C
\end{align*}
So,
\begin{align*}
\int udv &= uv - \int vdu \
\int \cos(x)e^x&= \cos(x) e^x - \int -e^x \sin(x)dx \
\int \cos(x)e^x&= \cos(x) e^x + \int e^x \sin(x)dx
\end{align*}
Now we see that we're arrivated at the same original integral, hence we can define $I=\int e^x\sin(x)$
Can anyone tell me the question maybe i will be able to help
There’s not much to do
a second, i think maaaybe we got it 😂
SimonWin
Just getting him to try tabular IBP
i think i might have it tbh
i see it for me now
im him right now
Let $f(x)=e^x\sin(x)$, then integrate $f(x)$,
$$
\int f(x)dx = \int e^x\sin(x) dx
$$
For this, we will use integration by parts,
$$
\int udv = uv - \int vdu
$$
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Let,
\begin{align*}
&u = \sin(x) \implies \frac{du}{dx}=\cos(x) \implies du=\cos(x) , dx \
&dv=e^x \implies v=\int e^x dx = e^x + C
\end{align*}
where $e^x$ is the family of functions $\mathbf{F}$, and C is any abritrary constant $C \in \mathbb{R}$
Integration by parts:
\begin{align*}
\int udv &= uv - \int vdu \
\int \sin(x)e^x &= \sin(x)e^x - \int e^x cos(x) dx
\end{align*}
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Again, we notice we have to apply integration by parts on the $\int e^x cos(x) dx$ term. Let,
\begin{align*}
&u = \cos(x) \implies du=-\sin(x) , dx \
&dv=e^x \implies v=\int e^x dx = e^x + C
\end{align*}
So,
\begin{align*}
\int udv &= uv - \int vdu \
\int \cos(x)e^x&= \cos(x) e^x - \int -e^x \sin(x)dx \
\int \cos(x)e^x&= \cos(x) e^x + \int e^x \sin(x)dx
\end{align*}
Now we see that we're arrivated at the same original integral, hence we can define $I=\int e^x\sin(x)$ hence,
$$
\int \cos(x)e^x&= \cos(x) e^x + I
$$
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Now we can start substituing the integrations by parts backwards,
\begin{align*}
I &= \sin(x)e^x - \cos(x) e^x + I \
I - I &= \sin(x)e^x - \cos(x) e^x \
0 &= \sin(x)e^x - \cos(x) e^x \
\end{align*}
SimonWin
LaTeX source sent via direct message.
```Compilation error:```! Misplaced alignment tab character &.
l.1426 \int \cos(x)e^x&
= \cos(x) e^x + I
I can't figure out why you would want to use a tab mark
here. If you just want an ampersand, the remedy is
simple: Just type `I\&' now. But if some right brace
up above has ended a previous alignment prematurely,
you're probably due for more error messages, and you
might try typing `S' now just to see what is salvageable.```
How can u even type this😨
Let $f(x)=e^x\sin(x)$, then integrate $f(x)$,
$$
\int f(x)dx = \int e^x\sin(x) dx
$$
For this, we will use integration by parts,
$$
\int udv = uv - \int vdu
$$
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Let,
\begin{align*}
&u = \sin(x) \implies \frac{du}{dx}=\cos(x) \implies du=\cos(x) , dx \
&dv=e^x \implies v=\int e^x dx = e^x + C
\end{align*}
where $e^x$ is the family of functions $\mathbf{F}$, and C is any abritrary constant $C \in \mathbb{R}$
Integration by parts:
\begin{align*}
\int udv &= uv - \int vdu \
\int \sin(x)e^x &= \sin(x)e^x - \int e^x cos(x) dx
\end{align*}
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Again, we notice we have to apply integration by parts on the $\int e^x cos(x) dx$ term. Let,
\begin{align*}
&u = \cos(x) \implies du=-\sin(x) , dx \
&dv=e^x \implies v=\int e^x dx = e^x + C
\end{align*}
So,
\begin{align*}
\int udv &= uv - \int vdu \
\int \cos(x)e^x&= \cos(x) e^x - \int -e^x \sin(x)dx \
\int \cos(x)e^x&= \cos(x) e^x + \int e^x \sin(x)dx
\end{align*}
Now we see that we're arrivated at the same original integral, hence we can define $I=\int e^x\sin(x)$ hence,
$$
\int \cos(x)e^x= \cos(x) e^x + I
$$
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Now we can start substituing the integrations by parts backwards,
\begin{align*}
I &= \sin(x)e^x - \cos(x) e^x + I \
I - I &= \sin(x)e^x - \cos(x) e^x \
0 &= \sin(x)e^x - \cos(x) e^x \
\end{align*}
Wdym?
Like how
SimonWin
Ye
or how i know it?
we have like 30 pages reports every week
so you're like forced to just learn it
😂
Oh lol
- i have invested a lot of time in making my own latex-template
with like cool boxes etc
Damn
These types of boxes
So cool 😂
you made some sign errors
Let $f(x)=e^x\sin(x)$, then integrate $f(x)$,
$$
\int f(x)dx = \int e^x\sin(x) dx
$$
For this, we will use integration by parts,
$$
\int udv = uv - \int vdu
$$
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Let,
\begin{align*}
&u = \sin(x) \implies \frac{du}{dx}=\cos(x) \implies du=\cos(x) , dx \
&dv=e^x \implies v=\int e^x dx = e^x + C
\end{align*}
where $e^x$ is the family of functions $\mathbf{F}$, and C is any abritrary constant $C \in \mathbb{R}$
Integration by parts:
\begin{align*}
\int udv &= uv - \int vdu \
\int \sin(x)e^x &= \sin(x)e^x - \int e^x cos(x) dx
\end{align*}
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Again, we notice we have to apply integration by parts on the $\int e^x cos(x) dx$ term. Let,
\begin{align*}
&u = \cos(x) \implies du=-\sin(x) , dx \
&dv=e^x \implies v=\int e^x dx = e^x + C
\end{align*}
So,
\begin{align*}
\int udv &= uv - \int vdu \
\int \cos(x)e^x&= \cos(x) e^x - \int -e^x \sin(x)dx \
\int \cos(x)e^x&= \cos(x) e^x + \int e^x \sin(x)dx
\end{align*}
Now we see that we're arrivated at the same original integral, hence we can define $I=\int e^x\sin(x)$ hence,
$$
\int \cos(x)e^x= \cos(x) e^x + I
$$
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Now we can start substituing the integrations by parts backwards,
\begin{align*}
I &= \sin(x)e^x - \cos(x) e^x + I \
I - I &= \sin(x)e^x - \cos(x) e^x \
0 &= \sin(x)e^x - \cos(x) e^x \
\end{align*}
did i? where 😿
SimonWin
So u guys actually type it
I = sin(x)e^x - (cos(x)e^x+I)
Or some ai thing do it
no im literally sitting and typing it rn 😂
its taking forever
Aa-
and im typing in discord too so no autocompletion pain
I shouldnt be here i guess
Coding is not my cup of tea
am fine with learning about medic
Let $f(x)=e^x\sin(x)$, then integrate $f(x)$,
$$
\int f(x)dx = \int e^x\sin(x) dx
$$
For this, we will use integration by parts,
$$
\int udv = uv - \int vdu
$$
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Let,
\begin{align*}
&u = \sin(x) \implies \frac{du}{dx}=\cos(x) \implies du=\cos(x) , dx \
&dv=e^x \implies v=\int e^x dx = e^x + C
\end{align*}
where $e^x$ is the family of functions $\mathbf{F}$, and C is any abritrary constant $C \in \mathbb{R}$
Integration by parts:
\begin{align*}
\int udv &= uv - \int vdu \
\int \sin(x)e^x &= \sin(x)e^x - \int e^x cos(x) dx
\end{align*}
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Again, we notice we have to apply integration by parts on the $\int e^x cos(x) dx$ term. Let,
\begin{align*}
&u = \cos(x) \implies du=-\sin(x) , dx \
&dv=e^x \implies v=\int e^x dx = e^x + C
\end{align*}
So,
\begin{align*}
\int udv &= uv - \int vdu \
\int \cos(x)e^x&= \cos(x) e^x - \int -e^x \sin(x)dx \
\int \cos(x)e^x&= \cos(x) e^x + \int e^x \sin(x)dx
\end{align*}
Now we see that we're arrivated at the same original integral, hence we can define $I=\int e^x\sin(x)=\int \sin(x)e^x$ hence,
$$
\int \cos(x)e^x= \cos(x) e^x + I
$$
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Now we can start substituing the integrations by parts backwards,
\begin{align*}
\int \sin(x)e^x &= \sin(x)e^x - \int e^x cos(x) dx, \qquad \text{ recall $I=\int e^x\sin(x)=\int \sin(x)e^x$ }\
I &= \sin(x)e^x - (\cos(x) e^x + I) \
I &= \sin(x)e^x - \cos(x) e^x - I \
\end{align*}
SimonWin
I still dont know what is the question😅
Let $f(x)=e^x\sin(x)$, then integrate $f(x)$,
$$
\int f(x)dx = \int e^x\sin(x) dx
$$
For this, we will use integration by parts,
$$
\int udv = uv - \int vdu
$$
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Let,
\begin{align*}
&u = \sin(x) \implies \frac{du}{dx}=\cos(x) \implies du=\cos(x) , dx \
&dv=e^x \implies v=\int e^x dx = e^x + C
\end{align*}
where $e^x$ is the family of functions $\mathbf{F}$, and C is any abritrary constant $C \in \mathbb{R}$
Integration by parts:
\begin{align*}
\int udv &= uv - \int vdu \
\int \sin(x)e^x &= \sin(x)e^x - \int e^x cos(x) dx
\end{align*}
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Again, we notice we have to apply integration by parts on the $\int e^x cos(x) dx$ term. Let,
\begin{align*}
&u = \cos(x) \implies du=-\sin(x) , dx \
&dv=e^x \implies v=\int e^x dx = e^x + C
\end{align*}
So,
\begin{align*}
\int udv &= uv - \int vdu \
\int \cos(x)e^x&= \cos(x) e^x - \int -e^x \sin(x)dx \
\int \cos(x)e^x&= \cos(x) e^x + \int e^x \sin(x)dx
\end{align*}
Now we see that we're arrivated at the same original integral, hence we can define $I=\int e^x\sin(x)=\int \sin(x)e^x$ hence,
$$
\int \cos(x)e^x= \cos(x) e^x + I
$$
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Now we can start substituing the integrations by parts backwards,
\begin{align*}
\int \sin(x)e^x &= \sin(x)e^x - \int e^x cos(x) dx, \qquad \text{ recall $I=\int e^x\sin(x)=\int \sin(x)e^x$ }\
I &= \sin(x)e^x - (\cos(x) e^x + I) \
I &= \sin(x)e^x - \cos(x) e^x - I \
2I &= \sin(x)e^x - \cos(x) e^x \
I &= \frac{\sin(x)e^x - \cos(x) e^x}{2} \
\end{align*}
So, maybe this is correct?
repeated integration by parts
Oh i zee
Differentiate it to check it
Let $f(x)=e^x\sin(x)$, then integrate $f(x)$,
$$
\int f(x)dx = \int e^x\sin(x) dx
$$
For this, we will use integration by parts,
$$
\int udv = uv - \int vdu
$$
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Let,
\begin{align*}
&u = \sin(x) \implies \frac{du}{dx}=\cos(x) \implies du=\cos(x) , dx \
&dv=e^x \implies v=\int e^x dx = e^x + C
\end{align*}
where $e^x$ is the family of functions $\mathbf{F}$, and C is any abritrary constant $C \in \mathbb{R}$
Integration by parts:
\begin{align*}
\int udv &= uv - \int vdu \
\int \sin(x)e^x &= \sin(x)e^x - \int e^x cos(x) dx
\end{align*}
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Again, we notice we have to apply integration by parts on the $\int e^x cos(x) dx$ term. Let,
\begin{align*}
&u = \cos(x) \implies du=-\sin(x) , dx \
&dv=e^x \implies v=\int e^x dx = e^x + C
\end{align*}
So,
\begin{align*}
\int udv &= uv - \int vdu \
\int \cos(x)e^x&= \cos(x) e^x - \int -e^x \sin(x)dx \
\int \cos(x)e^x&= \cos(x) e^x + \int e^x \sin(x)dx
\end{align*}
Now we see that we're arrivated at the same original integral, hence we can define $I=\int e^x\sin(x)=\int \sin(x)e^x$ hence,
$$
\int \cos(x)e^x= \cos(x) e^x + I
$$
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Now we can start substituing the integrations by parts backwards,
\begin{align*}
\int \sin(x)e^x &= \sin(x)e^x - \int e^x cos(x) dx, \qquad \text{ recall $I=\int e^x\sin(x)=\int \sin(x)e^x$ }\
I &= \sin(x)e^x - (\cos(x) e^x + I) \
I &= \sin(x)e^x - \cos(x) e^x - I \
2I &= \sin(x)e^x - \cos(x) e^x \
I &= \frac{\sin(x)e^x - \cos(x) e^x}{2} \
I &= \frac{1}{2}(\sin(x)e^x - \cos(x) e^x) \
I &= \frac{1}{2}e^x(\sin(x) - \cos(x)) \
\end{align*}
SimonWin
,w integrate e^xsin(x)
I did it!
💪
and plus constant
😂
Let $f(x)=e^x\sin(x)$, then integrate $f(x)$,
$$
\int f(x)dx = \int e^x\sin(x) dx
$$
For this, we will use integration by parts,
$$
\int udv = uv - \int vdu
$$
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Let,
\begin{align*}
&u = \sin(x) \implies \frac{du}{dx}=\cos(x) \implies du=\cos(x) , dx \
&dv=e^x \implies v=\int e^x dx = e^x + C
\end{align*}
where $e^x$ is the family of functions $\mathbf{F}$, and C is any abritrary constant $C \in \mathbb{R}$
Integration by parts:
\begin{align*}
\int udv &= uv - \int vdu \
\int \sin(x)e^x &= \sin(x)e^x - \int e^x cos(x) dx
\end{align*}
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Again, we notice we have to apply integration by parts on the $\int e^x cos(x) dx$ term. Let,
\begin{align*}
&u = \cos(x) \implies du=-\sin(x) , dx \
&dv=e^x \implies v=\int e^x dx = e^x + C
\end{align*}
So,
\begin{align*}
\int udv &= uv - \int vdu \
\int \cos(x)e^x&= \cos(x) e^x - \int -e^x \sin(x)dx \
\int \cos(x)e^x&= \cos(x) e^x + \int e^x \sin(x)dx
\end{align*}
Now we see that we're arrivated at the same original integral, hence we can define $I=\int e^x\sin(x)=\int \sin(x)e^x$ hence,
$$
\int \cos(x)e^x= \cos(x) e^x + I
$$
\noindent\rule{20cm}{0.4pt}
Now we can start substituing the integrations by parts backwards,
\begin{align*}
\int \sin(x)e^x &= \sin(x)e^x - \int e^x cos(x) dx, \qquad \text{ recall $I=\int e^x\sin(x)=\int \sin(x)e^x$ }\
I &= \sin(x)e^x - (\cos(x) e^x + I) \
I &= \sin(x)e^x - \cos(x) e^x - I \
2I &= \sin(x)e^x - \cos(x) e^x \
I &= \frac{\sin(x)e^x - \cos(x) e^x}{2} \
I &= \frac{1}{2}(\sin(x)e^x - \cos(x) e^x) \
I &= \frac{1}{2}e^x(\sin(x) - \cos(x)) + C \
\end{align*}
after all that work you can't forget the constant 😮
Damn bro is a pro
SimonWin
I know at the exam i would
and then id fail
id get 1/2 point for it because i miss the + C
Lmao yeah it happens
Forgetting constant is a sin in integration😭
Instant reason to fail them 😂
ggs guys
thanks
❤️
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I'm stuck here, my professor talked about getting the product of z1 and z2 to find z but there's nothing in my notes about finding another solution out of an equation and z1
I was thinking of finding z from the equation which would be sqrt(i) but im not sure where to go from there
@jade summit Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
@jade summit Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
@jade summit Has your question been resolved?
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the second root must stay in the unit circle
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reopening
this
@alpine bison sorry i went afk could you explain more
ok
is it clear to you?
geometrically multiply some unit complex number by itself give to you the complex number with a doubled angle
is this something i need to do w/ drawing a circle or am i able to do it mathematically
yes it comes from that $(e^{i\theta})^2=e^{2i\theta}$
everg
okay
now in your case z is a unit vector
so it has that form $e^{i\theta}$
everg
i was guessing it would have to do with the fact that sqrts have plus or minus
so like the opposite
or something
don t use sqrt in with complex number ... it isn t a well defined function here
yes
it isn't?
you have to chose which sqrt you are using
so which is angle such that $e^{i2\theta}=i=e^{-i\frac{\pi}{2}}$
everg
can i ask what that is in relation to the z in the equation
because $|z|=1$ in this case.. are you ok with that ?
everg
im not sure how 1 is the modulus of z no could you go into that a bit more
everg
everg
beacuse if you use the expation of $e^z$ you get that $e^{i\theta}=cos(\theta)+i\sin (\theta)$
everg
from the last line its obvious that you can write every unit vector of the plane
ok?
mm alright
polar form and exponential form
now in polar form its much easier find the behavior of complex multiplication ...its just doubled the angle
so you have only to find the only two angle such that when dubled you get the angle associated with -i $(-i=e^{-\frac{\pi}{2}i})$
everg
first solution
second solution
the first one is given from the problem
the second one its easy ...it is in a midway between 1 e -i so its $\frac{-i+1}{\sqrt 2}$
everg
have you some doubts ?
ill try to make some more sense of it and review it for the question
thanks for the help
np
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If x = (1+t)e^5t, prove the following
What is it you are stuck on?
i dont know how to start
just do derivatives
do i just derive x = (1+t)e^5t twice, minus 10*deriving it once and add 25 of it to prive its 0?
yes
ok so
so I derive x = (1+t)e^5t once
using the product rule
giving me
t * e^5t + (1+t)*5e^5t
which is
te^5t+5e^5t+5te^5t
finish what you started
oh thanks
after deriving it again
i got
35e^5t + 25te^5t
is this correct?
no
again (1+t)' = 1
derivative of this is 5e^5t + 25e^5t(1+t) + 5e^5t
im confused
if we try and simplify this
or say expand it
its 10e^5t + 25e^5t(1+t)
expand the second term
25e^5t+25te^5t+10e^5t
would this be considered correct?
becuase u can make that 25e^5t + 25te^5t
if thats correct
this is your second derivative now you replace it in your formula
alright
10e^5t + 25e^5t(1+t) - 10 * (e^5t + (1+t)*5e^5t) + 25 * ((1+t)e^5t)
10e^5t - 10e^5t = 0
25(1+t)e^5t - 50(1+t)e^5t(1+t) = -25(1+t)e^5t
thank you!
thanks
I have another question how would i do this
After n years, the value (V) of a principle of P dollars that is invested at a rate of r% per year (with r expressed as a decimal) and compounded continuously is given by V=Pe^(rn)
show the dV/dn = Vr
how do i approach this
derivate it but your variable n
what do you mean by your variable n
im confused
do you know formulas of derivatives?
V is function that depends from n. It mean you need to use same derivatives formulas but instead of x there will be n
yse
im still confsed
so fiest you dervie e^rn
to become re^rx
but then what does the other part have to do with this?
+6544
you have V = P*e^rn
and you replace P*e^rn with V
ok that makes sense
but what do you mean by v = v(n)
V is function that depends of n
this is just for clarity
ok so can we do this step by step
V = Pe^rn
we start with the equation
then we derive the equation
e^rn
giving us re^rn
yes
and then dV/Dn = P x e^rn
and then this can be rewritten as
r * pe^rn
which is r * v
but why dont we diff the P
at the start
nvm im stupid
P is a const that multiply e^rn
you can use formula of derivative of multiplication and see.
i understand now
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I'm working on this problem:
I have this as my total arrangements :
and this when the 2 red balls are next to each other
Is it correct to interpret it in this way
or would total just be 10! (I'm not sure when to apply which one)
I treated the red balls being together as a group, hence the 9!, and multiplied by 2 since there are 2! ways to arranging the two red balls
you can't say for sure, it's a guessing game
10! is the less likely one
in this case it should give the same answer anyway
the x2 is an error
so iss this the correct setup for the problem
why
isnt there 2 possible arrangements of red balls (could be left or right)
yes, and you should count them as the same thing
everything else you do tries to count arrangements that looks the same once
if you count arrangements "as many times as possible"
if you count them once only
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hi i am really having trouble with these odd power graphs
like x^5 and x^3
How does a horizontal shift to the left make it look like any of those options
ALso if anyone knows a video that can help explain this concept for these odd power functions plz
Thanks very much
@tawdry vortex Has your question been resolved?
if its just x^n
the even n's all have the same shape
and the odd n's all have the same shape,
they just get flatter in the region |x|<1 and steeper in |x|>1 as n gets larger
why are you confused on the horizontal shift?
is it because the example graphs are all quite zoomed in compared to the options?
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hey did i do this correctly? this is for precalc
@versed ferry Has your question been resolved?
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@versed ferry Has your question been resolved?
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It is better to add it to clear any confusion if something weird happened without it being there
Weird way to do long division
But it is correct
I didn't meant easier way
I just said that the way itself is a bit weird
oh ok
yea synthetic division is easier for me, but i wanted to practice long division as well
Oh no problem
Long division in my opinion is better than synthetic division
As it can be done whatever the dominator is
i think i did? 4x-3
What does it mean to say
D(x) • Q(X)
multiplied?
i dont know how its graded but my teacher woudl remove a few marks because you didn’t move the negative sign to the front for the remainder
and some software are very picky
im just assuming
You need to Express the function P(x) using the function D(x) and the division result Q(x) + the reminder R(x)
In the way mentioned above
P(x) = D(x) • Q(x) + R(x)
You just need to say
(4X-3)(X²-1)+(-3)/(4X-3)
@mighty pilot understood?
okay yea i think i understand that now
But I think there is something off here
im just tryna backtrack it and figure out how to start doin it myself, im a bit slow today lol
the +R(x) wouldnt that just be -3
You put the reminder like that
the remainder
Yeah
yea thats what kinda confused me a bit
Is it correct?
No problem
It is normal though to be slow
Nothing weird in it
You just take your time to understand and to solve the questions correctly
Don't forget to close the channel using .close
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Lol solving things before deadline is something all students love LOL
haha fr, youtube all day so far
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Aren't these the same and if not why so?
try expanding both and see
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any idea why its coming out wrong?
im sure its correct, i double checked with a calculator
What's the graph/equation given?
$3x^3+x^2-7x-5$
x927373
And what about the graph? The graph should assist you with the zeros
Those are correct
It doesn't say to list the repeated roots
it does
You can
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Hey guys, so I'm stuck on how to factor this expression, specifically that first step where the two middle terms are split. I understand how to factor by grouping, but I don't understand how I would figure out how to split the middle terms so I can factor by grouping.
i usually do synthetic division not sure if grouping would work for all cases
like 3x^3 + 12x^2 + 5x + 3
how would you use synthetic division on this expression? im familar with the concept but only when i have a factor for the expression
This precalculus video tutorial provides a basic introduction into synthetic division of polynomials. You can use it to find the quotient and remainder of a division problem with polynomials. This video contains plenty of examples and practice problems.
Algebra 1 Review:
https://www.video-tutor.net/algebra-for-beginners-basic-introduction.h...
you first start out by picking a factor c such that f(c)=0
in this case c=-1 works out
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my brain fried, need help
Ratatatat
a tautology is supposed to be true for all possible values no??
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.close
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can someone explain how to solve these?
@native portal option 1: what is the least number of basis vectors you need to represent matrices of the form $\begin{bmatrix} a & b \end{bmatrix}, \quad a,b \in \mathbb{R}$?
Kaiser
clearly, you need two vectors, one for each entry, ${ \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \end{bmatrix}, \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} }$ and thus $\dim(M_{1 \times 2} (\mathbb{R})) = 2$
Kaiser
@native portal Has your question been resolved?
then ig for M(3X3) we would have dimension 9 ? instead of 3
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bro elaborate
💀
lmfao
.close
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<@&268886789983436800>
ugh...
<@&268886789983436800>
bro that was disgusting thank god it got removed... send it again.

yeah looked ai af
nami it was on screen for like 3 seconds 
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Could anyone point out my issue here? I’m trying to use integration by parts but my answer is wrong
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What general formula can be for this sequence? I found 60*36^(n-1)/2 only for odd "n", but can someone help me with finding out general formula for all natural "n" with recursion and without recursion?
,w factor 504
,w factor 2160
,w factor 18144
so it's $2^{n+1} \cdot 3^{n} \cdot$ {{5 if n is odd, 7 if n is even}}
artemetra
I thought task requires general formula without such conditions of if n is odd or even, like formula for any n. Is it possible, or only your formula is the final possible one?
you can get rid of even/odd branches in general by playing with (-1)^n, if you want
but i don't think its particularly helpful to do so
for example
if you want a function $f(n)$ to produce 5 for odd $n$ and 7 for even $n$, you can achieve this by $f(n) = 6+(-1)^n$
Kaiser
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!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
@daring salmon
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UU^tx
Whats the order of multiplication where x is a vector and U is a matrix
Do I get dot of u^tx or outter uu^t first?
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