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ah
Lol
any advice on j simple sketching the surfac
like something that someone grading could see
and interpet as correct
I'd say maybe start by sketching z = sqrt(x^2 - 1)
and then to sketch z = sqrt(r^2 - 1), take that sketch and sort of rotate it around the z-axis if you know what I mean
yeah like I like to imagine one of those pottery lathes
but what about for x^2+y^2-z^2=1
ohh
That was for that
haha
yeah!
and then rotate that around
idk whether it's concave up or concave down but I don't care enough to check
yup
if you wanted, you can check by taking the second derivative
no problem!
do you have any other questions?
I think I have to go now
but someone else can probably help
awesome!!
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Is it true that f(some limit)=lim f(inside)
where f is a function
only if f is continuous
does it only have to be continuous at the limiting point
Yes
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I’m getting different y values depending on how I calc them
I feel like this shouldn’t be happening is my math going wrong somewhere or I need to understand this?
(i) and (ii) not equivalent
Yes
Ok but can u explain further?
Neither one of those equations are correct for temperatures.
typographical thing - please don't write 9's like g's.
ohk
Yea conversion went wrong
when I write g, I put it on the line (w/ cursive which ik I shouldn't be doing)
If you want to test whether equations work for temperatures, try 0°C -> 32°F, 32°F -> 0°C, 100°C -> 212°F, and 212°F -> 100°C. If all four of those don't work, you don't have the right equations.
Yea I may have flipped the operators 😅
I tend to mess up notations
quite a bit
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I got the derivative of 1/sin(2x - 2pi/3) and set it equal to zero to get x = pi(k)/4 + pi/3, what do i sub in for k this time?
Is it still the first negative value and first 3 positive values?
leave k as a variable
Ah oke
1 moment I will try to finish this
How do I even solve sin(2x-2pi/3)*sin(5pi/6-x) = cos(5pi/6-x) 
I mean, it just says to show that these extreme points are common points
not to prove that they're the only ones
so you could substitute in the points
and show they satisfy both functions
Oh so just sub in pi(k)/4 + pi/3 for x and I should get the same number on each side?
yeah
Oke seems easy enough
I think I know what im doing now but this will take a long time so I will close this thread haha
But thank you!
Again
❤️
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Hi, how we could evaluate $\lim_{x \to 0^{+}} (e^x)/x$ systematically ? I know that the limit of denominator is 0, so the solution is infinity, but how to solve it mathematically using limit theorem?
Fikri Mulyana Setiawan
What limit theorem are you referring to?
I don't know. I mean, is there any limit theorem that we can use to evaluate that limit instead of just solving it intuitively?
You can probably use the squeeze theorem.
Can you explain more?
Do you know the squeeze theorem?
If you don't, you can probably turn it into the limit for eˣ times the limit for 1/x.
Yes, i know. The theorem say that if $f(x) < g(x) < h(x)$ and $lim \ f(x) = lim \ h(x) = k$, then $lim \ g(x) = k$, right?
Well, less than or equal, but yes.
Fikri Mulyana Setiawan
Chai T. Rex
$\lim h(x)$
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imagine a 3d surface
the gradient and u will be on a 2d Plane
let's just say this graph with origin at the minimum
u can be pointed anywhere, and del f is in "a certain direction"
the proof above says that by letting del f and u be in the same direction, it gives the direction of steepest ascent. Why? To me, this is circular reasoning and seems to assume the direction of del f gives the biggest change in the function to start with.
i.e. how do you know the direction of del f is giving the biggest change in f? How do you know there is not other vector that moving in another direction that might lead to a steeper change?
assume there were such a vector in another direction leading to a steeper change, (the vector u)
find the change along that direction
ig
yes, which points in a certain direction
yes so assume there is a direction that is indicated by the unit vector u such that the directional derivative along that direction is maximum
which seems like they are already assuming direction of gradient of f gives biggest change in f
but when people "prove" this, they just say that "u and grad f are in the same direction!!"
well we are changing the direction of u and looking at the derivatives along those different directions
well there is a way of calculating del f right
ig it has as its components the partial derivaties along the axes
ok, this is true, but we can't assume its direction for a general proof
so in a case like this, del f at a certain point would be a vector with components partialz/partialx and partialz/partialy
and if we assume its direction to be the direction of steepest ascent, then thats my point
we do not assume this
it is just something we calculate and later find out is indeed the direction of steepest ascent
hmm
coz we see that if we take the derivative along any direction other than along del f, then the change is lesser
yes, i see what you mean if we had a specific example
but let's say this proof is "in general"
what does proving "u" and gradf point in the same direction do?
*if we dont assume gradf points to direction of biggest change in f
okay so we are standing on some terrain. i do some analysis or whatever, and point to a direction ( i do not tell u it is the direction of steepest ascent; i just show u this direction )
how would u know if the direction i pointed is the direction of steepest ascent or not?
hmm I would probably try it and time myself 😄
u cud look in all possible directions from where we are standing, and find the derivatives along all those directions
yeah?
yes
and find which direction gives the maximum change?
okay so u look in some direction that makes an angle theta from the direction that i pointed
the one that looks the steepest
and then in terms of the derivative along the direction that i pointed and theta u can find the derivative along this new direction
and it will be less
yes, u will find out that it will be when theta is 0 that u find a maximum change
but in this scenario, i know the steepest ascent from looking. i dont have that in maths
lets say u dont know that
u just have to calculate it
u cant just look and tell
u must maybe take some measurements
so partial z with x and partial z with y is a vector (i and j) that gives the direction of steepest ascent is what we are trying to prove
if i calculate the gradient, i am maybe assuming the above
if ur calculating the gradient, u r just calculating partialz/partialx and partialz/partialy
u know nothing about whether this is the dir of steepest ascent or not
if u know the derivative along some direction (not necessarily of steepest ascent or anything; just some arbitrary direction), and u wanted to find the derivative along some other direction that made some angle theta to this first direction
u can do that by taking the dot product between the derivative along the first direction, and a unit vector pointing along the second direction
are u okay with that?
yes
so we then say that if they point in the same direction, the change in f is biggest
along that arbitrary direction
well i would put it this way
so our first direction is fixed. we are only changing our second direction (that is theta)
using our first (arbitrary) direction as a reference we can find the derivative along any other direction
okay?
yes
well so we can take the direction of grad f to be arbitrary and then vary theta around it
im kinda starting to realize that something is wrong in what im saying (like any arbitrary direction can be called the dir of max ascent)...u might need to wait for somebody who knows more about this than myself...
🥲
sorry if i took ur time for nothing 😅 😕
xD all good, this thing has been stuck in my head for days
whenever i ask or look around i just see people rattle off this proof
I think the point is that grad f gives a method of picking some direction vector
we don't know a priori that this is the dir of max ascent
but we can compare any vector pointing in any other direction to this specific vector that grad f gives us
and we find that this comparison using a dot product means that it's proportional to the cosine of the angle between them
you're basically showing that a vector pointing in any other direction is going to be at most this particular choice of vector that grad f gives us
if you can show that some vector v has the property that the derivative in the direction of any other vector u is at most the derivative in the direction of v, then v is the direction of steepest ascent; this doesn't really rely on grad f or anything, it's just from the definition of maximal.
The proof is then that the vector given by grad f always has this property.
silver's analogy is right
the terminology is just a bit confusing since we have so many vectors about 😭
suppose we start with the derivative along a different direction than the direction of grad f
how would we use this to find the derivative along grad f?
could I also argue this: imagine i give you something called "grad f (that is not the real grad f)" which is not pointed in the direction of steepest ascent. Then I revolve some vector u in a circle around that. If u and the fake grad f are in the same direction, it maximises the change of f the most, right? (Due to costheta)
you need the real grad f to calculate the change of f though
and if the fake grad f isn't aligned with grad f, then the angle which maximises the change in f from u will be exactly the angle between the fake and real grad f
the costheta relation is coming from grad f
that was also my thought but fake grad f dot u cos theta, if theta is let's say 30 degrees, it decreases the change in f
but that equation only works for the real grad f
the definition of directional derivative (which is where that equation is from) is defined in terms of the real grad f
it doesn't hold for arbitrary vectors, even if you call it "fake grad f"
the equation is from dot product though, "fake" dot u
you're just dotting two arbitrary vectors
the directional derivative in the direction of u is specifically the dot product of u and grad f
not just the dot product of anything
you're comparing the components of the vector u in the direction of fake grad f
but that has nothing to do with the directional derivative
if we go back to this for a second,
if you can show that some vector v has the property that the derivative in the direction of any other vector u is at most the derivative in the direction of v, then v is the direction of steepest ascent
to calculate the derivative in the direction of v or u, we do grad f dot v and grad f dot u
the point is that if we pick v to be grad f, then v always has this property
what if v isnt grad f
then it won't have this property (and proving this is kinda just the contrapositive of the proof you linked)
so this all comes back to the definition of the directional derivative
fxi + fyj
so the proof is true because it has to be the gradient you are dotting u with?
uh, well
that's what the proof is showing
if you want a vector with this property, it has to be the gradient
the directional derivative is defined by dotting with grad f; the fact that grad f then has this property is kind of a side effect of this, if that helps
I am not a calculus person, so I might not be explaining super clearly
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I'm really not familiar with differentials, so I wanted to ask if this substitution is "proper"?
Like I am guessing constant factors don't affect anything here?
$\dd t \overset ? = \dd{(t-c)}$
if $\sigma = t - c$ then $\dv{\sigma}{t} = 1$ yes
Ann
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hi im recreating a landmark for my own personal entertainment but ive hit a snag
how do i find out the radius of these circles? been too long since i did any geometry to remember a good way to do it
@high ferry Has your question been resolved?
Hmm
The easiest way I know is to measure the diameter with a ruler and see if you have a scale in the image
Or a given dimension
And from there you can work out the approximate radius
A more precise way is to measure the pixels and then work out from there
Or you can use a program like AutoCAD or LibreCAD to measure the circles
Here is a quick method:
1: Construct chord BC
2: find perpendicular bisector and let it intersect the curve at D.
3: diameter = h+BC^2 / 4h
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could someone help me understand how these two areas made up by the graphs on the picture have the same area? https://gyazo.com/94b085cdc424759eeafb35c0a89e86b8
Did you try doing the integrals
yes. It make sense mathematically, although I can not visualize it in my head
like I do not understand how the area is the same, when clearly the area on the left has a much larger positive part than the area on the right
Why is that clear
Write out the math that you found
Areas are not the same as integral
Integral means signed area
Iknow and that is what confuses me
That means area underneath the x axis is negative
which area are you even trying to find? Above x axis?
So what's confusing then
IG it is not that clear, although the two areas are not equally much over the x axisis, so how do they have the same area?
the area between the two graphs
then wdym by they have the same area
IntegralBetween does not give you a positive number so it's not the right answer to this question
the question in the books says: show that the two areas made up by the two graphs have the same area for every k>0
ah nvm i see
the 4th block should have IntegralBetween(g,f,...) instead of (f,g), no? Since g > f
likewise for the other, you should swap them i think
true
thx
hmmm I do not really understand how you can show that the area is equal by using integration, becuase integration
an area is always positive
you can always do the parts with positive and negative y separately
Reverse the sign of the negative part and sum both parts up
yeah, I guess that would be more visually clear
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\textbf[Question:] Find the solution to the initial value problem: [
y'' + 2y' +2y = \map \delta{t-\pi}, \quad \map y 0 = 1, \map{y'}0=0
]
\textbf{My attempt:}
\vs{3 mm}
We take the Laplace of both sides to get: [
(s^2 +2s +2)\map Y s -(s+1)\map y 0 - \map{y'} 0 = e^{-\pi s}]
Where $\ds \cmap{\mathcal L}{\map f t} = \map Y s$
\vs{3 mm}
Solving for $\map Y s$:
\begin{align*}
\map Y s &= \f{e^{-\pi s}}{s^2+2s+2} + \f{s}{s^2+2s+2} + \f1{s^2+2s+2}\
&= \f{e^{-\pi s}}{(s+1)^2+1} + \f{s}{(s+1)^2+1} + \f1{(s+1)^2+1}\
&= \f{e^{-\pi s}}{(s+1)^2+1} + \f{s+1}{(s+1)^2+1} \underbrace{-\f1{(s+1)^2+1}+\f1{(s+1)^2+1}}{=0}\end{align*}
By considering both terms separately:
\begin{align*}
\map{Y_1}s &= \f{e^{-\pi s}}{(s+1)^2+1} \implies \map{u{\pi}}t e^{-(t-\pi)} \map \sin{t-\pi} = -\map{u_{\pi}}t e^{-t}e^{\pi}\map \sin t = \map {f_1}t\
\map{Y_2}s &= \f{s+1}{(s+1)^2+1} \implies e^{-t}\map \cos t = \map {f_2} t
\end{align*}
Which means:
[
\map f t=e^{-t}\map \cos t-\map{u_{\pi}}t e^{-t}e^{\pi}\map \sin t ]
My question is whether my working and logic here are complete
@timid silo Has your question been resolved?
@timid silo Has your question been resolved?
DM me this and I can check it when I get home in an hour or two
Ok
I think it should be -(s+2)y(0) after taking Laplace transform
,wolf y'' + 2y'+2y=delta(t-pi), y(0) = 1, y'(0)=0
Ahhh that explains why I have been missing that extra sin
Okay
Thank you so much
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why are these bounds just known?
this is for spherical coordinates
it was just introduced and im not too sure why any of this is given just with the information that E is a hemisphere
except theta
i also looked online about the spherical coordinate system and it doesnt make much sense
youre only looking at values inside the sphere with radius 1 so 0<p<1 is the radius, theta you understood, and for phi you "sweep across" the z axis getting only the part of the sphere above the [xy] plane
shitty image
because then youre counting everything twice
why is 0 to pi/2 counting everything once?
the point at phi+pi/2 is like at phi with theta+pi
setting phi constant is like integrating over a circle in 2 dimensions right? so you want to integrate all the "layers" by integrating over phi from the top at pi/2 to 0
if theta was between 0 and pi, yeah you could do phi between 0 and pi too
ill try to find a calculator to play around with to see how phi changes
The other thing to note to the problem says it's a upper half of a sphere, and phi is measured from the z axis. Since the upper half stops where the xy plane is, from the z axis to the xy plane is 90 degrees or pi/2
OH I thought it would be like the curvature of the sphere
alright that makes sense i was completely misinterpreting it
thank you guys
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I am struggling with getting correct signs for this type of calculation, for derivatives
how so
so when I expand the brackets, for the value 2x (keep in mind divided by h so 2xh becomes 2x):
i get 2x - 4x
correct should be positive 2x
lemme take a pic of calc
think my problem is related to not treating the right term as a parenthesis
sorry for messy calculations
$-(x^2 - 2x + 7) = -x^2 \green{+}2x - 7$
Hayley
You didn't distribute the negative to all the terms in the parentheses
The -(x^2 - 2x + 7) part
oh
okay
i see
-2x should be flipped
and aahhhhhhh
-7 too
thats why they cancel
yea
makes much more sense
the book didn't even bother writing the +7
exactly
i wasnt 100% sure why they cancelled i just accepted it
in general , is there a nice way i can think of negative signs like this. Okay, i understand if negative sign in front of parenthesis it should be distributed. but how can i conclude that the right term should be treated as parenthesis in the first place
is this just based on the derivative definition of f(x+h) - f(x) and thus the negative sign in front of f(x) and thus we can think (f(x+h)) - (f(x))
maybe its related to some laws of functions i guess, that makes sense
erm
yeah i mean you treat f(x) as a unit, you subtract the whole thing
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Yes
no
tyvm that was perfect
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I get no satisfaction
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bit of a weird question, but are there some derivatives of functions that are impossible
for example if the derivative is discontinous at a point I feel like it also has to be undefined at that point
even though you can generally define functions that are defined at points where they're discontinous
Riemann function is differentiable almost no where
not zeta, there's another one
$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{\sin(xn^2)}{n^2}$
MrFancy
that doesn't really answer my question, I'm familiar with the idea of non-differentiable functions
then what do you mean by derivatives that are impossible? 
my question is more like, is there any function f such that f'(x) = 2 for all x > 0 and f'(x) = 1 for all x <= 0
emphasis on <= as opposed to <
because my thinking is if the derivative jumps from one value to another then the function must be non-differentiable at that point
$[\begin{cases}2x,&x>0\x,&x\leq0\end{cases}]$
MrFancy
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wouldn't that be the function?
lemme go graph it rq
ok but at x = 0 the function is non-differentiable, right?
cause the tangent line doesn't really exist
so the derivative would be 2 for x>0 and 1 for x<0, but it couldn't be 1 for x<=0 cause it's not defined at 0
@fiery shell Has your question been resolved?
The derivative doesn't exist at 0 but the function is certainly defined at 0
Look at the condition that f(x) = x for x <= 0. this implies f(0) = 0
when you say "the function", do you mean f or f'?
because I was talking about f'
Referring to this..
You said "it" also has to be undefined?
What's "it"
Right
Lets think about an ordinary function
f(x) =
0, x < 0
1, x = 0
2, x > 0
Is this continuous at 0?
I would say not
yes
Indeed
So let's say this random function is your derivative
It certainly can be discontinuous but still defined
so what I'm suggesting is that f(x) as you defined it can not be the derivative of another function
because the tangent line at 0 wouldn't exist for that function
maybe your correct I'll actually have to think this through
so the derivative can't be defined at that point
furthermore I'm pretty sure any f'(c) is undefined if f' is discontinous at c
for any f
I think you're right
I think
Sorry my brain wasn't working haha
But maybe I'll wait for someone cuz I'm not sure I'm p sure ur right tho
ok sure
Yes, the derivative has to satisfy an intermediate value property
This is called Darboux's theorem
In particular this isn't possible because f'(-1) = 1 and f'(1) = 2, so there needs to be some x in between -1 and 1 so that f'(x) = 1.5
Does this answer your question?
If the function is continuous on [a,b] though, there's always some function which has it as its derivative (just take the integral)
That's gonna take me a second to parse
feel free to ask any questions!
Hmm
So it seems like what this is saying is basically, if f is differentiable over a whole interval, f' must be continuous over that interval?
Not quite
It doesn't have to be continuous, but it does have to satisfy the intermediate value property (it turns out that this doesn't imply that it's continuous)
There are some cursed functions which satisfy the intermediate value property but aren't continuous 
But you can think of this requirement as having to be at least almost continuous, maybe?
Do you have an example?
this one is pretty terrible https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Conway_base_13_function
The Conway base 13 function is a function created by British mathematician John H. Conway as a counterexample to the converse of the intermediate value theorem. In other words, it is a function that satisfies a particular intermediate-value property—on any interval (a, b), the function f takes every value between f(a) and f(b)—but is not continu...
Gimme a sec
That wikipedia article also links to this stackexchange post https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/75589/open-maps-which-are-not-continuous/2933144#2933144
but yeah it's messed up and not easy to visualize
That is a pretty cursed function
xD
so basically the answer to your question is: any continuous function can occur as a derivative, and any other non-continuous functions that occur as a derivative are cursed
Would sin(1/x) also be an example of a function that isn't continuous that follows the intermediate value property?
You mean on the interval [-1,1]? I think it would be yeah
Assuming you define the value at x=0 to be something like 0
But the whole point is that it's undefined at x=0 which makes it discontinuous
Is f(x) = x/x continuous?
yes
well, on what domain?
I assume the domain you mean is R minus {0}?
If so then yes it's continuous on that domain
Cause I thought having a point where f(x) isn't defined is like one of the main ways a function can be discontinuous
This is a common misconception
Like a point discontinuity, it's in the name
A point discontinuity doesn't happen because a function is not defined
It happens because it's defined, but not in the place that you'd expect
So for example if (f : \bR \to \bR) is defined by [f(x) = \begin{cases}1&x\ne 0\0&x=0\end{cases}] then (f) has a discontinuity at (0)
eir
A function can only have a discontinuity at a point where it's defined
Huh ok
For example if (f : \bR \setminus {0} \to \bR) is defined by (f(x) = \frac1x), then (f) is continuous
eir
Because it's continuous at every point in its domain
If you try to assign f a value at 0, oops it's no longer continuous because it's not continuous at 0
Does the blackslash mean "excluding"?
Also, would you still say f(x) is continuous over say, [-1, 1]?
Yes
No, that doesn't make sense because 0 is not in the domain of f
So the function is continuous over it's domain, but not for all real numbers?
Or would you say the question of whether it's continuous or not is unanswerable somehow?
yes, it doesn't make sense to say that it's continuous at a point not in its domain
it's just not a logical question
it's like asking for example "is B less than 76"
It doesn't make sense because you can only compare numbers, not letters
Hmm
I feel like it's a question you need to ask sometimes though? Like there are properties which apply to functions that are continuous over an interval
Idk if what I'm saying makes sense
This only makes sense if the function is defined on that interval
Like for example if I have (f : \bR_{\ge 0} \to \bR) defined by (f(x) = \sqrt x)
eir
Then I don't ask something like "is f continuous at -1?"
Like it's a meaningless question
Ig that makes sense
yeah, sometimes people learn the informal definition of continuous as "you can draw it without lifting up your pen" and it can be misleading once you work with the actual definition
The formal definition is that the limit as x approaches c of f(x) is equal to f(x) for all c in the domain of f, right?
is equal to f(c), yes 
Oh right
Anyway I'm gonna go to bed now, thank you for answering my question! (And then some)
This has been very enlightening
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i don't know graph theory, but i looked up adjacency matrix
and then i think i had to square it to get 2 stage matrix right?
is this correct for this undirected graph?
the adjacency matrix, that is
that's not symmetric
undirected graphs have to be symmetric?
but also i kinda feel like you're overthinking this
ah i see
really?
I'm not sure how to fix it tbh and i've not learnt this yet
you're just trying to do (a) right?
I just figured it out by googling
nah youre thinking correctly
No b)
oh then yes carry on
Hmm okay, so could you help me with what values i might have to change
All the diagonals are correct right?
A-> A, B-> B, C-> C, and D-> D = 0
yeah
yeah
i think it's just row 1 col 2
the adjacency matrix would be uh [[0 2 2 0],[2 0 1 1],[1 2 0 1],[0 1 1 0]]
i believe
A->C also needs 2 paths
okay thanks i'll cross check with what i fix
oh wait
after fixing A-> B and A-> C it is symmetric
I have this but i don't think it's right
because A-> D should be 7
iirc
is 3 step supposed to be 3 stages?
yeah like going A->C->B->D
ah okay makes sense
would i have to make an adjacency matrix for that?
or is there a way to get to 3 step from the 1 step
since i got 2 stage path from adjacency matrix without manually computing
so i'm guessing there's a way to get 3 stage path from adjacency as well
there's 8 3-step paths from A-> D right?
I just assumed if A is the adjacency matrix then A^n is the n step path lol
hopefully that's correct
what do i do now?
sum the answrs
i have the 2 stage path and the 3 stage path
maybe the graph is just shit - try turning the twos into ones and see if you get 7
ah okay let me try
it probably would
yeah no
it's 2 for 2 and 3 path
so 4 not 7
are you 100% its 7?
it's not really my question
I just wanted to learn how to do it
the OP said it was 7
which OP
If you guys are sure it isn't 7, i can live with it
12 seems like your best answer
OP as in it was somebody else's question but i wanted to learn so i was just using their question
Ah makes sense
btw since we did B
I guess A is easy to do right
it's just the adjacency matrix
row 1 column 4
yep
thanks~
do you think it has to do with the question being "trails" and not paths?
uhhh not sure what the difference would be
okay i used dfs
and the answer is 7 at least on my program
so i guess it has to be 7
i think A^n gives n step paths
but it can cross same edge multiple times
i think for trails, we don't want to cross the same edge multiple times
id trust dfs more but weird because i cant see any paths that cross the same edge twice from A to D with3 steps
indeed
i think the answer is most likely 7 now that i checked
idk how we convert to trails from paths mathematically though
oh
anyway thanks @polar fossil and @stiff umbra
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need help with part (ii)
u need to find k so that f(x)=g(x), not g(x) > f(x)
function h? make a new function?
find when the discriminant of h is positive
yea
then find the discriminat of f(h)?
so i got k^2+12k+36-16+4k
b^2 - 4ac should give you
(k+6)^2 - 4(4-k)
yeah looks good
and you need to find when this is positive
k^2+16k+20
what does that mean?
solve:
k^2+16k+20 > 0
i cant use factorization
should i use the quadratics formula?
wait im gonna use completing the square
sure
is it plus minus root 44?
yea
and then minus 8?
so you should have:
k + 8 > sqrt(44)
AND
k + 8 < -sqrt(44)
yep
thats the final answer?
yea
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Okay so a few things here
first I was hoping someone could let me know if my negation is correct
$f(x) \not \to L \in \mathbb{R}$ as $x\to \infty$ if $\exists \varepsilon >0$ s.t $\forall M \in \mathbb{R} \hspace{15pt} \exists x \geq M$ where $$|f(x)-L| \geq \varepsilon$$
Austin
notation soup O-|-(
is that early?
i need to add a for all L in R at the beginning instead of just writing L in R where I did in the few words
Im just stupid
your negation is correct
i use colons : to separate my existence / universal clauses, you might try that
instead of janky hspace
I don't know what a universial clause is
santa?
the forall and eixsts
me neither, dw
f(x) is an epsilon ball of L
think more about the meanings of the words than the symbols
and we wish to show that there exists a ball of some kind of radius
that where we can go along however far we want
there will be an x a little bit farther
okay nvm
maybe I just try it
let epsilon=1/4
then anywhere we are M in R
we need to show there is an x greater than or equal to M
such that |sin(x)-1/4|>=1/4
and this is obvious
because we can find a point where sin(x)=1
anywhere
nooooooo
|sin(x) - L| >= 1/4
i tend to think of these proofs like a two-player game where one person produces an L, the other produces an epsilon, the first one produces an M, etc
anywhere we are x=M in R
we need to show there is an x>=M
such that |sin(x)-L| >= 1/4
Sounds right to me
@fathom flicker
yeah
L-1/4 <= sin(x) <= L+1/4
it needs to be outside the box
the ball
|sin(x)-L| >= 1/4
no, you just flipped the direction of the ineq
nah it would be from (-infinity,-1/4) U (1/4,infinity)
.coose
froose
sorry im late
.foose

what
,w |x| > 1/4
anywhere we are x=M in R
we need to show there is an x>=M
such that |sin(x)-L| >= 1/4
bro
yes, we need to show that no matter how big our x's get, it will still leave the ball again at some point
1/4+L <= sin(x) <= L-1/4
either less than (-1/4 + L) or greater than (1/4 + L)
not and
o
yeah "or"
okay, remember that the abs val thing is what you have to show
ya
one of those has to be true
I'm not sure how to continue
there are just too many things that can change
L can change
M can change
showing an x>=M
it justs seems like a lot
-1<=sinx<=1
why did you pick epsilon = 1/4?
I thought it would be useful
it should be
I thought it would give me enough wiggle room because it is an 1/8th of the range of sin(x)
like 1 or 1/2 would be nice too but just wanted to try to be safe
so if i pick an L to be, say, 1/2
it has to be the top ineq
so how is that a failure
❔
okay sorry i was still thinking of "fail" as in "fail to be within the bounds given"
they will both *work
yep
Now take L arbitrary
you can split it up into cases if you want
so for us
well
heres the thing
looking at
sin(x)<=L-1/4
sin(x) max is 1
so
1<=L-1/4
5/4<=L
and the other case
sin(x)>=L+1/4
sin(x) min is 1
so
L+1/4<=-1
Just saying that sin(x) max is 1 is not sufficient, you have to show that there exists a value no matter how big your M is such that the max is attained
L<= -5/4
because sin(x) is periodic
for all x in M
there exists an x >= M
such that sin(x) achieves its maximum
because
sin(x)=0 when x=pi *n
and we can make this big n as needed
and use min/max theorem
this is the core idea
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idk what im doing, can someone help🥲
@zealous stag Has your question been resolved?
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Is this mathematically acceptable?
is it because of the 1?
in your case
M, L -> inf (not real numbers)
so what you did doesn't follow the limit law
furthermore application of L'Hospital is wrong, limit of "x" isn't 0/0 or inf/inf
if I just did (x^2+1)^1/2 I would just get x/(x^2+1)^1/2 again
in order to solve this problem I recommend taking out x^2 inside the square root
it is going to cancel out with the upper one
how can I just do that tho
bro whaaaaat
thats a hack
so if I just apply the limit I get 0
i got 1 more question though
0 is wrong
1, sorry
okay
if you need help feel free to ask
can I split up the limit like this?
remember that infinity is not a number
no it is not
so according to the limit laws, no - you can't do that
Look at this once again, slowly
to split limits
(use these laws)
some conditions have to be satisfied
Oh
the limit of f(x) must exist
but since infinity isnt a real number, it doesnt exist
the main one is that both limits exists (results are real numbers), not infinity or -infinity !!!
yes, multiply by conjugate
however, the limit laws dont apply after that
thing is we often use them subconsciously without even realizing it
but they do
what did you get after simplification?
okay,
what I had before, but both radicals are added together instead
$$\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{x^2-x}{\sqrt{x^2+1}+\sqrt{x+1}}$$
Modus
yep
now you can take out x^2 under both square roots in the denom
but bruh
this wasn't necessary I realized
we could take out x^2 at the beginning
so l'hopitals rule isnt even needed
@dry egret Has your question been resolved?
not zero
$$\lim_{x \to \infty} \Big(\sqrt{x^2+1}-\sqrt{x+1}\Big)=$$
$$=\lim_{x \to \infty}x\Big(\sqrt{1+\frac{1}{x^2}}-\sqrt{\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{x^2}}\Big)$$
Modus
now you can "plug" infinity and you'll see it is
inf * (sqrt(1 + 0) - sqrt(0 + 0)) = inf * (1 - 0) = inf * 1 = inf
@dry egret Has your question been resolved?
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I'm unsure how to get the answers of 18.9 to 20.9 using the t distribution table
Because there's only 80 on the t distribution table and no 83
Also, is there a table like this but for t? I'm looking for it on my e-textbook and on Google but I can't seem to find it
you usually use a table yeah, let me see if I can find one
Thank you so much!
Will keep that in mind
especially if you use standardised normal distributions
My prof. said I can have these tables on the formula sheet in future tests
yeah, they're not super easy to calculate
Noted hehe
ah, z is t
they're called z-values or t-values
but more commonly z-values in the context of standardised normal distributions
p is the probability
Is there a chart like this except replace the z with t under the critical value column
