#help-10
1 messages · Page 47 of 1
Yeah
i thought he was taking the integral there too
like it's supposed to be equivalent to the prior statement
im like how is c gone here
thanks man
@cedar lichen curious, u a uni student?
Senior in high school
Praise me more
actually ig it was a simple problem but def not hs level
I'm self taught up to calc 3
american?
Yea
i decided today i will abandon my 2nd major in maths
i also was self taught to a advanced level
but in linear algebra
@cedar lichen
actually im not sure about G(B)-G(A)
what do next
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for a graph transformation f(ax+b)
do u do the stretch first or the translations
in your opinion is calc 3 easier than calc 2
Hi sr here also self taught to calc 3, most of it is easier yes
But some of it is less intuitive because its harder to visualize
Do the stretch first
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Physics .
so ive seen the right angle
You know $y = x$
And
$$ y + 60° + x = ???$$
Pluton
im already confused
Or just very simply
$$30 + x = \textrm{right angle}$$
Pluton
thanks i think i understand
yep thanks alot
i cant even get the first part
i understand 180-31 which gives me 149 but i cant tell the other 2 angles between f and the other one
<@&286206848099549185> can you assist me i dont understand the rest.
@pearl python Has your question been resolved?
@pearl python Has your question been resolved?
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Can someone explain why this works
you want an intuition or a proof?
Proof
Like an example
Bc my friend says it’s false
But from what I remember reading it’s true
Yea I thought so too, just wanted a second opinion
i'm indeed missing something
sounds like monotone convergence theorem except somewhat poorly stated
Wait so it is false
er wait no
yeah but the inequalities are not in the right way
the sequence is increasing and bounded below
yeah
take a_n = n lmao
So it’s wrong?
Increasing implies bounded below so that's unnecessary
Yes
the statement is false, yes
its probably a typo though
A_n should be less than or equal to M then right?
That’s the only thing I could think of that’s off
if the inequality said $a_n \leq M$ then yes this would be the monotone convergence thm and it would be true
Ann
So yea it’s that inequality that’s flipped for some reason
Like you guys said prob a typo?
Oh wait
what were the instructions
this statement isnt even ambiguously false its obviously false so i'm pretty sure it wouldnt be a very interesting exercise
Maybe the person who wrote was just wrong? Depends on the context
A_n+1 should also have the unequaliyy flipped
were they "Prove this" or were they "Determine if this is true or false"
okay then no typos
or maybe it is but you can answer it this way properly
even if theres a typo
so w/e
Sorry what’s w/e
what ever
Ahh okay
Genuinely seems kinda pointless to think about what the guy who wrote this meant
this
so answer false by giving a counter example
They want me to prove how it’s false
something like m < inf, a_n < M, and a_n+1 < a_n
Correct?
no
if your statement is
A=>B
a counter example should be
A and not(B)
so here its
(an+1>an and an>M)=> (an converges)
Wait so an should be less than M?
no you should have an example where A is true but not B
here A = (an+1>an and an>M)
B=(an converges)
So A is the original statement and b is the counter
@twin sapphire sorry I’m slow, but can I not just flip the last 2 inequality signs to correct the statement
I think I remember seeing that’s how it worked in the textbook
well its not asking you to correct it does it?
its asking you if its false or true
True
And asks for a counter example
But does correcting it not count as a counter example
well no
correcting would be stating that some other statement is true
(even if this true statement is somewhat close to the original one)
Ic so what you stated above a -> b is a counter example that works?
no
its how you should think about counter examples
because you told me something that wasnt a right counter example
so i gave you the rule
on how to do it
you have to give a counter example to a statement
Ah ic thanks
of the form A=>B
so you want an example for which
A and not(B)
so a sequence an
such that
an>=m
and an+1>an (A)*
but does not converge (not(B))
it doesnt prove or disprove a or b
A is true for such an example
and B isnt
A(example)=True
B(example)=False
A and B depend on your sequence
Sorry by any chance can you give me a simple example
think about it
its really easy
a_n+1>an so it must increase at each step
and for all n, an>M
with M some number
do you have an idea?
Gonna try it in my notebook rq
give me an increasing sequence
Sorry I was confused bc I was always under the impression a_n+1 was always less than a_n
Bc that’s what we’ve gone over the most
One sec
@civic magnet Has your question been resolved?
Sorry back, Does (n+1/n)^n work?
whats N?
Sorry didn’t mean to capitalize
So now I just plug in n and show how it disproves the statement?
@twin sapphire
Oh I have to put in m somewhere
yeah but you went for something very complicated
I did
Oh fr
n>=0 for any n
Okay thanks
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So for BD the gradient is 1/4 right? But for DB would it be -1/-4 or is that just trying to trick me and its always what direction the lines facing for if its negative or positive?
-1/-4 and 1/4 are one and the same
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can anyone help me understand this problem? why was A^4p equal to the identity matrix?
im havin trouble how to start this
Because $i^4 = 1$
dldh06
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how did you do the first step?
it was given
i mean how do you go from the first line to the second
oh w=dy/dx
and that's why Im here. Idk if I did the integration right
I was just doing whatever to get the proof
You didn't, or at least didn't justify that step Benjamin is asking
Can you just show the original problem
oh yeah
so thenn you just have to differentiate both sides
with respect to x
start by doing this
you'll replace dy/dx later
Use FTC
is that it? if you dont know just ask
that's what I recall. What is it?
well f(b)-f(a) is noot a theorem it doesnt even state anything
its just a value
FTC makes the link between derivatives and integrals
for f differentiable over [a,b]
2 sec idk latex gotta draw
In this section we will formally define the definite integral, give many of its properties and discuss a couple of interpretations of the definite integral. We will also look at the first part of the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus which shows the very close relationship between derivatives and integrals.
Scroll down. Part 1
learn it, ur green D:
@alpine kraken Has your question been resolved?
okay so the idea is there
for the left part I cant just turn dydx into w and distribute the d/dx into it?
yeah I used it but now idk what to do
it doesnt seem like you did
I honestly have no idea
says differentiate both sides in terms of x and thats what I tried to do with the left side
yeah thats what u did but u made a mistake while differentiating
welp
@twin sapphire thank you for your patience and help. Now I understand how it works
the arrangement really confused me and the concept in general
you get how (x-1) * dy/dx differentiates?
yeah derivative product rule
YEAH
but the part where I messed up was failing to recognize that I could get dy/dx when distributing d/dx into y/B
where I previously deleted it in its entirety
its not really distributing
i know it seems like it
but its just that differentiation is linear
like d/dx shouldnt be thougth of as a number
or a value
its more like a function
or an operation
when you think of it as a number you make mistakes and forget about product rule and chain rule
I thought of partial differentiation and deleted y cuz I was thinking of it as a constant with differentiation in terms of x
and that too
@twin sapphire I think the left side is correct but not sure about the right
well you did nothing on the right side appart from using FTC right?
yeah
I watched a video on the FTC and the derivative of the integral is the integrand(b)-integrand(a)
or maybe I didn't understand it correctly
this is it
and now differentiate with respect to b
which is similar to our case
do it
what do you get?
just write it out
d/db (f(b)-f(a)) = d/db(integral)
theres almmost nothing to do
what is d/db(f(a))?
is this always the case though? What if f(a) contains the same variable as f(b)? This case would only apply to this problem specifically right?
or do I simply disregard the limits of integration and see them as simply b & a, where d/dx is d/db so f(a) gets eliminated when f(b)-f(a) is the result?
this is always true
here b is the variable
and a is a constant
like the last line
if you replace x with y
and b with x
you might like it better
Thank you so much for putting in so much effort and time into explaining the FTC to me
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How to find the anti derivative of this????
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hello, I've been given this problem and I don't know where to start. I have to solve for a, b, and c. Thanks!
$a+b+c=6,$
$a^2+b^2+c^2=14,$
$a^3+b^3+c^3=36$
MePushp
@split carbon Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
(a+b+c)²= a²+b²+c²+ 2(ab+bc+ca)
36=14-2(ab+bc+ca)
ab+ bc+ ca= 11
now, a³+ b³+ c³-3abc= (a+b+c)(a²+b²+c²- ab- bc- ca)
abc= 6
👍
same way i was gonna say
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Hey everyone, Dont really understand this; I asked for the answer and it was just like
"use the squeeze theorm"
and then gave me the answer
the only issue is I don't know really how it works at all
oh no
i might have to look at my textbook for an answer 😔 😢
i hate that thing they try to make every possible sentence as confusing and complicated with the least amount of context possible
the easy thing to do here would be dividing everything by t and using common limit rules
lol
sure, but i dont really know what sin/x and cos/x as x approaches inf is
that's where the squeeze theorem comes in to play
it's a very useful thing when evaluating some trig limits
you essentially use the fact that sin(x) and cos(x) are always between -1 and 1
so, for example, if you have $$\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{\sin(x)}{x}$$, you could say that $$-1 \leq \sin(x) \leq 1$$ now you can manipulate every part of this equation to get to what you want... like dividing everything by x
$$-\frac{1}{x} \leq \frac{\sin(x)}{x} \leq \frac{1}{x}$$
what the squeeze theorem says is that if the leftmost side and the rightmost side converge to the same value, then the middle must also converge to that value
a disappointing son
i should revise, if the limit of the leftmost side and rightmost side converge to the same value*
so wait
hmmm
I see how that would be 0 when we take the limit
but one more question
what if the limit approached 0? not inf?
I know its supposed to be 1 but I dont see it in that demo
do you know lhopitals yet?
that's alright, lhopitals is just the proof of the lim -> 0 sin(x)/x = 1
di u mind using the squeeze theorm to demo
honestly that's just a limit you need to memorize, no explanation is really needed whenever you use it
what do you mean by that exactly
this
but in here if x approached 0 wouldn't it break everything
in that way, yes
proving that limit using the squeeze theorem requires a lot more steps, as far as i'm aware
uses geometry
yeah i remembe
my prof doing something with a unit circle and drawing a whole bunch of stuff on it
lol it was pretty fast so I dont exactly remember the explination
I just hope he doesen't ask prove it
then I would be sad :(
anyways what about
cosx/x as x approaches 0
that limit doesn't exist
it does have one sided limits though if you have learned about those
i have
but since the one sided limits aren't equal, the limit does not exist
you can break the tan(x) into sin(x)/cos(x) and use limit rules to manipulate your limit
ooooh cheeky cheeky
note that you can break it into $\frac{\sin(x)}{x}\cdot\frac{1}{\cos(x)}$
a disappointing son
$\tan(x)=\frac{\sin(x)}{\cos(x)}$, therefore $\frac{\tan(x)}{x} = \frac{\sin(x)}{x\cos(x)}$
a disappointing son
which is equivalent to this
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"enter vector answers in terms of i and j"
speed sure is a vector hoo boy 💀
but for a
isnt it the magnetude
speed is a scalar
unless they misused the term
how did you get sqrt(45)?
find the x and y components of the velocity
as
yes but you don't want the magnitude of the r (position) vector
you want the magnitude of its derivative
yep yep thats what i did
what's the derivative of t^2 - 3t + 4?
velocity can be expressed as a vector, it is just the derivative of position wrt time
i don't think they mean that you should enter speed as a vector, they mean that for those answers that are vectors (like the acceleration), that's the format to use
yeah i barely read the question before i said that
2t-3?
right, and what does that give you when you plug in t=2?
1
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Hey! I have the following problem: Present the following by not using any set-theoretic operations. Prove the equality of these sets.
I have no idea where I should start from
have an idea what the answer should be?
not really
well that thing there, you have some idea what it is maybe?
like descriptively
whats in that set
well the x should be a real number
well that is the thing that confuses me. Can I just take any real number?
and if it is any R then how do i find the specific set
in words
uh
you have a union over all possible x in R
ie. for all real numbers, your set contains that algebraic expression
thats what that union means
,,\bigcup_{x=\bZ}{3x}
let me give this example
#❓how-to-get-help can u not see this is occupied. delete pls
Oh sorry :/
i understand the example yes
,,\bigcup_{x=\bZ}{3x}
sorry back
yeah so whats in this set
do you by any chance meant x in Z?
union for x in Z, so every integer times 3?
yes every integer times 3
ie the multiples of 3
,,\bigcup_{x\in\bR}{3x}
what if i gave u this
every R times 3?
yes which is?
the whole set of R?
yes
you can think of it like that
including the original question
maybe thay will help?
,,\bigcup_{x\in\bR}{|x|}
you can do it step by step starting with this say
hmm
what if x = 0
wont it be (0, inf)
no
im not sure then
what if x = 0?
still gonna be 0 no?
but u havent included 0
and 0 is neither positive or negative
no
and subset, do u know how to prove?
so u need to show $A \subseteq B$ and $B \subseteq A$ to show $A = B$
ie. this set and the union
yh do u know how to show a set is a subset of another
well i probably would normally but the union thing is messing with my head
shouldnt do
to show
A subseteq B
you need to show all elements in A are also in B
So your proof should start 'Let x be in A'
and eventually end with something like 'Therefore x is in B'
yeah im not really sure what to do. Let x be in A, but what next? Do I bring an example of x and show that it is equal in both the union and the set?
no example
you need to show a general x
is also in tbe other set
to show $x \in \bigcup X_i$
ive probably done this a little differently in the past so its hard for me to understand. I really have no idea how im supposed to show it
,,\bigcup_{x\in\bR}{-|x|^2} = (-\infty, 0]
is what u need right
yeah
,,\bigcup_{x\in\bZ}{2x+2} = evens
so lets say u try this as first step ok?
So we first take n an even number
so n = 2k for some integer k
you then need to show 2k is in that union
with me?
yes
ok, so how do u think u can do that
let 2k be in said union?
no
u need to show 2k is in it
ok lets be concrete
take 4
an even number
how can u show 4 is in that union
,, \bigcup_{x\in\bZ}{2x+2}
huh
2(1) + 2 = 4
{2(1) + 2} = {4}
?
,,4\in{4}={2(1)+2}\subseteq\bigcup_{x\in\bZ}{2x+2}
3 steps of working here, see if they all make sense to you
,,4\in{4}\
{4}={2(1)+2}\
{2(1)+2}\subseteq\bigcup_{x\in\bZ}{2x+2}
yes i get that
yh so ive managed to show 4 is in that union
how about in general
if you needed to show 2k is in it
,,2k\in{2k}={???}\subseteq\bigcup_{x\in\bZ}{2x+2}
you need to think about that middle step
you need to write 2k in the form {2x+2} for some x (that is in terms of k)
2(k-1)+2
therefore the evens are a subset of the right thing
Let $y\in\bigcup_{x\in\bZ}{2x+2}$
Then for the other direction, you need to start like this
well letting y be in there is the same as choosing some x
in this particular union
choosing some x in Z so that 2x+2
and then u can proceed
The original question is done similarly
okay
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f(11) = 11
f(x+3) = (f(x)-1)/(f(x)+1), f(2006) = ?
things ive tried = noticing that f(20) = -12/10 and f(26) = -12/10, which means the next occurance of -12/10 is 6 ahead, so f(32), f(36), ...
other than that, im stuck
Actually im wrong
@long briar Has your question been resolved?
isn't it f(23) = 11
yeah i mad a mistake but there is a cycle
annd idk how to abuse it
f(14) = 5/6
f(17) = -1/11
f(20) = -6/5
f(23) = 11
f(26) = 5/6
f(29) = -1/11
f(32) = -6/5
f(35) = 11
Result:
166.25
And consequently f(x + 12n) = f(x) for any integer n
so 166 cycles later you will end up at f(2003) = 11
so the answer is 5/6 ?
what i did was basically 2006 = 14 + (n-1)3 and n = 665, and i did 665 mod 4 which is 1 so i assumed that 1 means the first position which is like 5/6
@long briar Has your question been resolved?
So is it 5/6?
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can anyone help me in proving trigo identities
@dull hornet Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
@dull hornet Has your question been resolved?
so you have to show them as equal ?
the tan to cot part is easy
right ?
just write tan@ = 1/cot@ , simplify and you're done
expand using the identities
then divide numerator and denominator by cos(theta)cos(phi)
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✅
you're multiplying, i asked to divide
im gonna multiply the reciprocal of cos(tetha)cos(phi)?
no
and how can you do that
you can't multiply by any number like that
if there is
a+b=c
then you have to multiply as well as divide, add and subtract the same value, so that the expression remains the same
2(a+b)/2 = c
a+b + 3 -3 = c
YES FINALLY
i thought that when dividing the nr and dr with cos(tetha)cos(phi), i would have a /1 on the dr hahaha lol
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How do I calculate the curved surface are (M) and the surface area (O)?
Using trigono
haven't that yet in the school
Can you give all the information then? Or there is only this picture?
one pic
Where is the question?
there are some formulas, but they will be of no use since we are calculating with angles and nothing is said about this in the formulas
There is no height information or anything?
the task only says "calculate O and M of the pyramid" more not
Where is the O and M
of height, ofc there are some ^^
And look at the 60°
M and O are areas
yes
So you're asked the area of the triangle?
bro no, of a pyramid
Yep now you can you get the height
and the angles are the same
Wait the height doesnt matter
how. show me how to put the values in a formula or something
You know phytaghoras formula right?
But the height doesnt matter to find the surface area
ok
I want you to draw the net of the shape
you mean this?
tell me
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You can calculate surface area by multiplying base length with height
So O=a*h in this case
what is h?
a is 90m
but what is h
where are the helpers?
Sorry had to do smth
Do you know side S?
Ok so when there is an angle of 60° and one of 90° this rule applies: longside= 2x, side on the side of the 60 percent is x and the one on the side of 30° angle is x√3
This rule is valid on every triangle with these angles so you only need 1 value to calculate all sides
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ok guys let me guess if i get a bound of 0 <= y <= 1/0, which is undefined, can i interpret as infinity, and then do lim b-> inf integral b to 0 ....
@stone raptor Has your question been resolved?
Context?
@stone raptor Has your question been resolved?
context is i gotta set up equation
for surface area around y axis
so its integral 2pix * arclength function
and i was given 0 <= x <= pi/2
function is: y=tanx
however i need to set up both interms of x and y
right so when i get bounds for y its 0 <= y <= 1/0
i assume 1/0 approach infinity
so did limit as b-> infinity for that integral
would that be correct to say?
@simple marsh
@stone raptor Has your question been resolved?
@stone raptor Has your question been resolved?
Help anyone? Either one
@stone raptor Has your question been resolved?
you should use a linear system solver for these
if you have no idea how to solve it
#❓how-to-get-help what the hell is wrong with u ppl lol
My bad gang
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Bit confused on the definition of a neighbourhood of an element. Say $X$ is a topological space. Is the neighboorhoud of $x \in X$ an open set $U$ that contains $x$? Or is it a set $U$ that contains an openset $V$ that contains $x$? My book states the first one
Yeetus
this might vary from author to author
Okay! I will assume the first one then. Thank you! Quick follow up question: I assume that given a finite set. If I take a finite subset then the completement is finite too since well infinite subset is simply not possible?
Asking because I assume that the cofinite topology has all sets open?
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Hello! Not looking for the answer, more just a nudge in the right direction
- "Prove or give a counterexample: If p is a prime, then 6p + 1 is a prime"
just as a general note, primes are not easy. claims of the form "this and that is always prime" are rarely true
Fair enough; I started going down the list of primes, plugging and chugging, (I got to 6*17 + 1 which is prime); should I continue that route?
yes
it surprises me that it even holds for this long tbh. then again for small numbers anything can happen
facepalm 6*19+1 115.
stopped 1 step before the finish line
...would have saved myself a lot of time had I gone one further about 2 hrs ago
🤷♂️
Thanks though!
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@twin folio Has your question been resolved?
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what did u try?
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hey i wanted to know is there was a way to express k with n given these values of both
There is always a way
for any finite list of these pairs there is always some polynomial that fits them
that said, here we probably don't have a polynomial relationship
think factorials
i tried (n!-n+1) works for the first 2 but not the rest apparently
huh?
You kinda have the right idea
Try to modify it
Hint: try to involve more factorials
Yea
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Hello! I'm trying to write the functions 5cos(3t) - 12sin(3t) on the form
C*cos(ω(t−t0))
I have figured that it should be 13cos(3(t- ?))
but i can't figure out what t0 is. I know that it is arctan(-12/5). But I only get -1,18 which is not in the interval (π,3π/2)
Anyone?
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how do i get rid of the powers like ^5 ^6\
want to make it quadratic so i can factorise
wait I am confused which ones are x's which one's are n's and which are m's
i just want to know if there is a way to factorise them
you don't need to though
i remember my teacher said smth about dividing them with smallest x power
i knoww cause my denominator nto gonna be 0
just curiouss
yea in questions where x---> inf you can divide both sides by the highest x power, then everything cancels besides the highest powers
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I know i have to subtract cos(4pi/5 - 3pi/5)
so you want to calculate cos(pi/5)
you can use cos(2 *pi/5)=-cos(3 *pi/5) , to solve cos(pi/5)
where did you get 2 from
im a little confused
you can refer to https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/113466/show-4-cos2-frac-pi5-2-cos-frac-pi5-1-0?noredirect=1&lq=1
ok, I can explain my method
first, can you understand
$\cos \frac{2 \pi}{5} = -\cos \frac{3 \pi}{5}$
秋水
yes
then use double angel formula and triple angle formula
so 2sin x cos x
set $\cos \frac{\pi}{5} = m$
秋水
$\cos\frac{2 \pi}{5} = 2m^2-1$
秋水
bro u dont need to find the value of cos(π/5)
The question only asks u to rewrite the expression as a single trig function
cos(π/5) is the answer
$\cos\frac{3 \pi}{5} = 4m^3-3m$
秋水
you can solve
$$2m^2-1=3m-4m^3$$
to get m
秋水
oh, you just need to write cos(pi/5)
if you do after this,
$$2 m^2 - 1 - 3 m + 4 m^3=(1 + m) (-1 - 2 m + 4 m^2)=0$$
秋水
you can get
$$m = \cos \frac{\pi}{5} = \frac{1+\sqrt{5}}{4}$$
秋水
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hi! can someone explain this to me?
specifically, why doesn't A infinity+1 count as a part of the set?
but that wouldn't be the definition of the set, right? like it would be incorrect to equate any set as an empty set even if it contains some elements
if the set is empty, then it is the empty set
How did you define the infinite intersection ?
as i see it, the issue is that the thing above says there is no m+1 that is true for every set An
e.g. you can't say, idk, 4 is a part of it bc A5 wouldn't include 4
but surely all of them include Ainifnity+1
A_inf probably doesn't exist
and if it does, it isn't part of the question anyways
you're talking about things that don't exist
huh?
why does it not exist?
this isn't part of the question...it's just a statement from a book, i'm asking a question
what's A_inf ?
{inf, inf+1, inf+2, inf+3...} so on
no
i'm not sure why it would be wrong
btw n is a natural number, forgot to mention
but still so is a countable infinity
so
first time seeing an infinite intersection/union ?
yes actually :(
i'm not sure why it would be wrong, i don't think "it seems wrong" really answers things for me
$\bigcap_{n=1}^\infty A_n = \bigcap_{n \in \mathbb{N}} A_n = {a, \forall n \in \mathbb{N}, a \in A_n}$
themateo713
well...yes, that's what the set is, but i still don't know why this wouldn't include infinity or inf+1, etc etc
sorry if i'm being dumb, i just genuinely don't get it
not necessarily
why can it not just mean an actual countable infinity?
it does
but it's like in a series: the sum up to infinity means the limit as n goes to infinity of the sum up to n
here it's the same thing, but you can't use the notion of limits
but it's the same thing of it having to hold true for all n as you let n go to infinity
so infinity+n would be considered...not an option?
the 2nd equality actually defines the intersection of a family indexed by another set
what would inf+n be ?
inf+n = inf
i get what you're saying now partially, but i still don't understand why the limit has to be infinity and not inifnity+n
which...i guess would approach inifnity
ohhh
i kind of
get it now i think
so inf+n (inf as n inclusive) can only be used like
conceptually? but not as elements to a set
for instance, what's $\bigcap_{n=1}^\infty [-\frac1n, 1+\frac1n]$ ?
themateo713
maybe 0 ? but
even though i understnad the question i asked
i still dont fully get why this would be 0 intuitively
it isn't
oh
if I said [-1/n, 1/n] it would be
wait
but I said [-1/n, 1+1/n]
is that right ?
okay
again, i get it but i dont intuitively get it
would you mind explaining why it's [0,1] ?
(so sorry)
it does :)
all the intervals contain [0, 1] so this interval is included in the intersection
if I take x < 0: there exists n big enough (here n = -floor(1/x) - 1) such that x < -1/n, so it isn't included in the intersection because it isn't in the nth interval.
If I take x > 1: same argument: I find n such that x > 1+1/n, meaning x isn't in the intersection because it isn't in the nth interval
therefore [0, 1] contains the intersection, so by double inclusion the intersection = [0, 1]
(i promise ill get it soon-ish) but any n larger than 0 would make the first term (-(1/n) smaller than 0 and the latter larger than 1
ill read your explanation, maybe it'll clear it up
yes
therefore [0, 1] is in the nth interval, for all n. So it's in all the intervals, so it's in their intersection
what does floor mean?
themateo713
so x would always necessarily be n ?
the floor function is useful to talk about things that aren't integers
so no, in general x isn't equal to n
actually, you have the equivalence x is an integer <=> x = floor(x)
thats so cool
still trying to comprehend your explanation, sorry for the wait

