#serious-discussion
1 messages · Page 433 of 1
Not that I doubt you, it just wasn't something I'd really considered.c
Oh yeah it can definitely be misused to justify like conversion therapy or shit like that
Because people will use it to justify conversion therapy?
Oh yeah I was gonna say
or they didnt admit it before
I mean not in a "force people to change their sexuality against their will"
But in a like
no of course not
Yeah obviously
People change over time and there's no reason their sexualities shouldn't change with them
its just a dangerous thing to study given today's climate that it could be used for that
My headcanon is that 90% of "straight people" are somewhere in the pan-to-ace spectrum but are straight passing enough and satisfied enough with straight stuff that they don't question it.
wouldnt everyone be in the pan to ace spectrum

See I think people don't understand the difference between "can change over time", "can be changed with effort", and "can be changed at will"
I guess technically, but I meant like somewhere not 100% heterosexual
ah
Like, the sheer number of "straight" girls I know who have acted more attracted to girls than "straight" guys I know, for example
As far as my family's concerned I'm straight and just single, but I'm probably very (somewhere between demisexual and graysexual)
I feel like most women I know have some level of sapphic vibes to them
Maybe it's because I only hang out with the queers though
Yeah I think maybe 75% of my real life friends are lesbians now that I think about it
honestly im pretty positive im 100% straight
like i have given it enough thought
tried it
didnt like it
valid
Yeah, that's valid.
What I mean is, like, bi men who have only been with women and consider themselves straight even though they're also attracted to men but just never act on it or even introspect on it, for example, I think are way more common than actual straight people.
Are they?
I maybe wouldn't say this is more common than "actual straight people" but yes I agree this is relatively common
I mean, if we take a brief look at ancient history, say, ancient Athens or Rome, we see 95% of the population is bi.
oh sure, but those things can change over time
I also wonder if there's something to be said for the fact that society puts more pressure on women to care about their appearance leading to more people being attracted to women overall
still
where is this data coming from
and did you forget to wipe after producing some of it? 🤔
there's no reason to expect that sexual proclivities are going to be distributed in the same way across societies and across history
From Achilles and Patroclus being straight best friends.
Tokidoki Lokidoki 
I mean i know julius ceasar was a bottom
he took it in the rear 😏
now kith
It's the being a bottom that was stigmatized by the way, not the being attracted to men
yea so I mean the actual number is pulled straight out of your ass but the whole phenomenon is very very well documented in that society
Basically
yea that's the other thing too
kith
they conceptualized this differently than we do, as you say
I think only until you were married
im pretty sure in rome it was okay to be a top with a man until you were married then it was wrong
ill have to double check that
I thought married men would still keep men (of lower social standing) on the side as adulterous partners fairly frequently without too much stigma, but I could be wrong
At the risk of being vulgar though, in Roman society, the act of penetrating was deemed as masculine regardless of who you're penetrating, and being penetrated was feminine, whether the person being penetrated was a man or a woman.
But yeah I wonder how the sexuality distribution would change if men started actually caring about their looks.
So men would top for men of lower social standing and bottom for men of higher social standing, because it was one of the most patriarchal cultures in history
ye
There seems to be a pattern I've noticed of men going out of their way to look like they don't care about their looks
eh i havent noticed that
I have noticed this
I think care too much
do they invest as much time into it as women do?
i think too is a very operative word
I feel like shaving legs, nails, makeup, etc takes a lot of time by comparison
of course not but I dont think that means they dont care
I was thinking cargo shorts and/or pajamas and also crocs to formal things
There just seems to be a lot more things with women's fashion
but fashion is societal so if thats in thats in no
have you actually meant someone who did htat
met
Caring about your appearance as a man is more or less just working out, getting a decent haircut and some trendy clothes
Multiple people, both friends at college and family members and professors and just people out-and-about.
Like with men's fashion it's basically just shirt+pants but with women's fashion you also have dresses and skirts
that honestly suprises me
I will say yea loki mens fashion just hasnt changed as much
how long has a good fitting suit been in for
like 100 years?
How long has a good fittting suit been out for
If you don't have an office job
I mean that has changed through out history the def of "good fitting" but men's fashion i think has been mroe static than womens
pre-french revolution apparently clothes were more colourful
I've seen a lot of crop tops on men recently
KEK
we are reaching back a bit there
Like, I'll go through the effort to put on a tie, a nice jacket, match my stuff, do my nails (don't judge, I like it), but that's like 10 times more effort than most men do and less effort than most women do
So it's not quite just shirt and pants
if i could do my jails without being judged I would
the weird thing here to me is that you haven't bitten off your nails
Either way it feels like there's more options with women's fashion
Honestly just do it. Maybe it's because all my friends are queer but I've gotten nothing but support when I did my nails at college.
Then I use nail polish remover whenever I visit family or family visits me.
Doing nails just seems like a lot of work
Fair enough
I actually find it relaxing.
just to much headache nothing but respect for those who do
dont really feel like being judged for it
That's valid
I don't think I started until I saw a couple other guys I know do it once for a gag.
@neat lintel please don’t offer cash for hw answers
this is clearly a covert way for ryam to offer money for homework completion
banned
I would be as willing to accept this offer as I would be to give the Nigerian Prince who keeps emailing me my bank details. It's clearly a scam for that amount of money.
If someone offered me 1mil for homework answers I’d happily get banned from here
with or w/o 5k upfront?
I mean if it was legit and they were able to prove that it was legit I'd take it. It's a lot of money, and I'd do much worse for much less.
@everyone if anyone has 1 million dollars and unfinished homework my dms are open
Actually his DMs are closed, rather mine are open
Lol? 🙂
Hi im the clay math foundation ill give you 1 million to do my unfinished homework. please prove a millennium problem please thanks
If anyone has a solution to a problem worth $1B I will suddenly know LaTex.
here you go: https://vixra.org/pdf/2105.0073v1.pdf
how can I collect the $?
Oh cool @rigid mango this is from your school right
this is the proof, for people too lazy to open the link
Anyway, I'll reach out to you by the email address you provided in the paper
when the references are longer than the proof
actually this doesn’t seem that unusual
maybe for a math paper yea
What is this?
A disproof of the riemann hypothesis.
also I'm playing the natural number game on stream
this “proof” is still more legitimate than that one indian guy who claimed to have proved the riemann hypothesis
Come join if you wanna hear me explain lean :)
it's a fun game go watch
@forest jackal wait
Someone proved Riemann?
What
No someone's trying to sack the whole hypothesis??? That's new
i thought lean was a programming language
nah its just crankery, and crankery is nothing new.
hi guys
POG
EESTIMAA EESTIMAA
i knew my country would make it
how is the average real analysis/advanced calc class conducted? do they teach you the proofs then test you on those same proofs, or are you meant to intuitively derive proofs on the spot during exams?
im assuming its a mix of both, but i'd like to know for sure
It varies on school, professor, and class
Some profs like to throw you things you haven't seen
Others like something you've seen before
kinda figures 😐 hope i get a fun class when i finally take it
Also advanced calculus is historically distinct from real analysis
oh? thought it was just a rename
You used to have your calc 1,2, 3, linear algebra and differential equations class
Then you had an advanced Calculus course that was a step above Freshman Calculus - you actually do some theory, and maybe some numerical estimation/applied stuff
Then real analysis was what you took in grad school after advanced calc
But somewhere in the 70s-90s advanced calculus classes died out at big name universities
And they just started teaching Real Analysis
Some universities still teach advanced calculus instead of real analysis
Like CSU Fullerton
my school does advanced calc yeah
So they aren't quite the same, historically
so when referring to advanced calculus, we're just simply going past what we've covered in calc III and DEs, whereas real analysis would be the "prove calculus" course?
for reference, the advanced calc course at my school is the "prove calculus" type
so it covers limits, differentiation, continuity, series+convergence, Bolzano-Weierstrass, but all done rigorously
What text are you using?
They're usually both prove calculus courses
But real analysis often will have an element of metric space analysis in it
(see chapter 2 of rudin's principles of mathematical analysis)
haven't taken it yet, but the text is P.M. Fitzpatrick, Advanced Calculus, 2nd edition.
from my looking around i've also seen rudin used a bit
in the counterpart class for other schools around mine
fitzpatrick is kind of an analysis text
its not particularly hardcore
but i'd certainly consider it closer to rudin than it is to stewart
Where would you place fitzpatrick on the stewart - spivak - ross - rudin spectrum?
Wat r the prerequisite classes for combinatorial optimization?
why do authors feel the need to use big words man
like we know you are smart you wrote a textbook
Sometimes a big word is just the first word that comes to mind
Help
How does complex analysis work
For $a,b\in\C$ and $\abs{b}<1$ calculate $\frac1{2\pi i}\int_{\abs{z}=1}\frac{\abs{z-a}^2}{z\abs{z-b}^2}dz$
Unbroken Durindana


That looks awful
Indeed
Then maybe your name is bad, because it's certainly longer than the words you are complaining about 
Maybe partial fractions to get two cauchy integral formula parts
And one which is the z - b bar
In the denominator
But the top function isnt holomorphic 
This isn't even a real complex analysis integral
It's a mess
Can you always split into holomorphic and antiholomorphic parts
Only if harmonic
What does harmonic mean? I only remember harmonic real function implies its the real part of a complex holomorphic function or something
u is harmonic iff laplacian u = 0 iff sum of second partial derivatives in each coordinate is 0
not mixed partials
Antiholomorphic functions are harmonic as well is the point?
(so u need harmonicity to split? Oh ok)
Conjugate commutes with laplacian
Im guessing this thing ange wrote is not harmonic then? Lol
I doubt it
It kinda feel like it should be though? Like you are just writing it in terms of z's and zbars?
I guess the point is that z zbar isnt wven harmonic? Me confuso
Let f be an entire function with $\abs{f\qty(\frac1n)}=\frac1{n^2}$ and $\abs{f(i)}=2$
Unbroken Durindana
For n in N of course
From the first statement you conclude that $f(z)=az^2$ for $\abs{z}=1$ via the uniqueness theorem or whatever it's called which contradicts the second part...
Unbroken Durindana
Wait.. What is this uniqueness thm?
Are there no assumptions about existence/not of poles?
If two holomorphic functions agree on a set of points that has a limit point, then they agree everywhere
f is stated to be entire
Oh ok
Maybe i still dont see whats going on, can you tune the parameter a to match the phases correctly?
Why would it be 
Laplace(uv) is not laplace(u)laplace(v)
The product rule exists
No idea, i thought ecerything written in terms of z and z bar is nice
You need to write it as a sum of a function in z and a function in zbar
It seems like you could choose the phases of f(1/n) so that it doesnt match up with any az^2? Maybe im crazy
But abs(a)=1
As in, to get your conclusion it seems you need az^2 to match up with f(1/n), how do you get the phases to match?
And $\abs{f(i)}=\abs{ai^2}=\abs{a}=1\neq2$
Unbroken Durindana
I mean they match in modulus
The magnitudes match clearly ya
That... Doesnt mean that their phases match tho? Lol
complex analysis
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I don't see how you are applying any uniqueness theorem to draw the conclusion you claim, |f| is not holomorphic. For an obvious example to show modulus of an entire function on an accumulating set does not determine it uniquely, look at exp(iz) and 1 along the real line. For a specific example satisfying your hypotheses you could have something like 2^(-iz)z^2.
Oh
@rancid echo interesting
lol
I'm going to focus on frege and i think I want to do a what if analysis of his philosophy of mathematics in a sense such as how frege would have reacted if he saw the incompleteness theorems. I mean how his philosophical project would react
I don't want to say anything to my advisor before I have a better skeleton of it
I don't even know if that is good enough for a PhD thesis
It would be modern logicism yes
I thought so
Ugh
I want to do something with Frege but i have no ideas
I feel as if everything has been done
what department is this for
Philosophy
oh ultra did you end up reading any of liam bright's stuff
his stuff on like scientific lying and cheating are really interesting to me
Hmmm I honestly had an idea that's interesting to me connected to frege and Wittgenstein and that is pretty controversial. Wittgensteinian theory of reference in late Wittgenstein. Most Wittgensteinians disagree with me that late Wittgenstein is still a a linguistic referentialist in his late writings
But that also seems a bit unoriginal
Meh you're the only one here that knows about it except me afaik
Ty ultra


I was



I am being overly dramatic intentionally

oh god this yikes emoji is the new worst thing about ange

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Kolmogorov complexity and prim...
LETS GO
those don’t look like integrals
yes 
nah it's useful


my research has had applications the whole time
at no point have I claimed I am proving useless results

it's time to make a math-videos channel
and surprise kontorovich at the end wowee


I have a video idea
Elliptic Curves are Doughnuts
Elliptic Curves are COFFIS CUPS
I think it's a really beautiful story. The Weierstrass p function is the "pillowcase map" from topology
ah yes this is a lovely picture
there is a little subtlety about what happens at the corners of the pillow
(Sorry if I'm a imprecise in my formulations, I am new to math.)
I recently discovered algebraic structures and they seem quite fundamental, I'm wondering whether Peano arithmetic could be expressed as the set {0,1} with the operation +, if yes this would constitute an algebraic structure.
Is there something I'm missing there ? I think this is incorrect because then 1+1 would be outside the set {0,1}. However if we take the set N (natural numbers) with the operation + then we get Peano's arithmetic but we had to define N first using Peano's arithmetic.
Does this mean that sets and operations are first defined using whatever means (logic, other fields of math, ..) and then those "constituents" are used to define algebraic structures ?
Zermelo-Frankel set theory is a very common axiomatic system
you can construct the natural numbers using ZFC or peano arithmetic
peano arithmetic itself is a collection of axioms about symbols
it's not a 'set' really
Can't you
Frame it as a set of some elements with a relation (function) "++" on itself
No axioms and any set can work
Even empty set and empty relation
Axiom 1
0 is a natural number
And then any set containing 0 works and any relations on that
Etc
i thought you said no axioms
Yeah like without any axioms "Natural Numbers" can refer to anything
oh i misunderstood your phrasing
Srry
you're saying that you can frame the arithmetic as a set of elements with a relation satisfying certain properties?
Yep
I would agree
"Natural Numbers are a set of elements with the relation '++' and satisfy the following 5 axioms"
Rather than symbols
Tho the 5th axiom is weird
it's just the induction principle
what are the children learning at school when they learn to add on their fingers, would it be fair to say they are learning the monoid {N, +} or would it be more proper to say they learn Peano's arithmetic ?
Yeah but it doesn't conform cleanly to the set theory I based stuff on.
Everything else was a statement about the set itself or the relation itself
I think
Peano arithmetic is more proper I think
I was thinking of Peano's arithmetic as the formal definition of N, how would you define N if that's not it ?
Yeah with the 5th axiom it leans into logic and things not in the same space as set theory. And that can be weird.
I disagree
I guess my question boils down to is Peano's arithmetic an algebraic structure ?
it's still very much set theory
peano's arithmetic is a collection of axioms it's not really a structure
I would say N is the algebraic structure
Yeah ^
Algebraic structure is all about behaviour
Not the elements themselves
For example a clock has the same structure as N I think
are you saying it feels like logic? because it can be expressed in the language as set theory
Both
Children seem to learn the algebraic structure and not the peano thing. Kind of whack now that you point it out
This seems dumb
according to wikipedia an algebraic structure is a set with operations, so in my understanding {N, +} would be an algebraic structure, but first you have to define N and +
the axiom is equivalent to "forall sets S, if 0\in S and n\in S implies s(n)\in S, then S = N"
Kids are just learning random number concepts. You can put your big words on it and pretend that they represent the sort of mathematics they’re doing but it’s just pictures in a kids head
i'm using the term algebraic structure loosely
Words 🥱
this is strictly in peano arithmetic
no
Oh okay I get it
The definition I had for axiom 5 is. A bit different
Yours is talking about 0 and if n then also n++
And strictly only about belonging
yeah i was wrong it isn't equivalent to the "regular" induction principle
but same structure
But axiom 5 is sort of infinitely many of those
And apparently you can’t even show axiom 5 gives you N is one of them
It just says some exist, you can’t pinpoint N as being one of the ones given by it
I don't get what you mean
Prove N is a set
Wasn't this sufficient to create N???
And it is an application of the axiom 5 I had in mind
Which application
the reason I'm confused is because there seem to be some kind of conceptual overlap between Peano's arithmetic and an algebraic structure such as {N, +} but I can't really wrap my mind around that
Consider a statement that uses the variable x.
if the statement is true for X=0 and also whenever the statement is true for X=n then the statement is true for X=n++. Then the statement is true for any natural number as X.
You can define and talk about the same thing from many different foundational viewpoints and it depends on what you're trying to achieve. Usually what happens afterwards is that the definitions are linked.
What’s your definition of N?
@calm vessel
If this is axiom 5 the statement can be just about belonging
the existence of the algebraic structure {N,+} comes from PA
The one Jon presented
i don't see the issue
Or rather from whatever axiom system you are working in
(the way I prefer rn, is to call N a set with a relation ++ on it that satisfies the 5 peano axioms)
not sure who you ask to @chilly smelt I would define N with the Peano's axioms
max I think they were trying to reconcile the existence of two identical mathematical objects in different axiomatic systems
But lots of things satisfy those axioms
I was wondering whether {N, +} was equivalent to {0,1,+} but I don't think it is the case because 1+1 would be outside the set
There isn’t a unique thing which satisfies those axioms so how can you define N as the thing which satisfies them
huh
Can you give me an example
Of what?
Different things that satisfy the peano
this isn't how peano arithmetic works
Although the usual natural numbers satisfy the axioms of PA, there are other models as well (called "non-standard models"); the compactness theorem implies that the existence of nonstandard elements cannot be excluded in first-order logic.[16] The upward Löwenheim–Skolem theorem shows that there are nonstandard models of PA of all infinite cardinalities. This is not the case for the original (second-order) Peano axioms, which have only one model, up to isomorphism.[17] This illustrates one way the first-order system PA is weaker than the second-order Peano axioms.
well I think {N, +} is somewhat equivalent to Peano's arithmetic, although the Peano's arithmetic is more logically explicit
Dang
It's all Cantors fault?
No it’s zumbino and frankies fault
by PA you mean Peano Arithmetic, right ? could you elaborate on your statement, why does {N,+} structure come from PA ?
You cannot talk about the set N or its addition operation unless you can build it from your axioms
basically you build N with PA and then you can use this "constituent" in the algebra structure theory to build an algebraic structure such as {N, +}
algebraic objects are just sets and functions (which are sets)
alright, then i still have a question
algebraic objects are just glorified sets.
lol
PA already has the "addition" + right ? it's the successor s()
additions is induced by iterated succession in N
so what's really the difference between the algebraic structure {N, +} and PA
are those two concept equivalent but expressed "differently" ?
addition*
I think there is some misunderstanding
one is a set of axioms
the other is just a set paired with a function
but isn't it a set of axioms (PA) that describe the same conceptual reality as the set paired with a function ({N, +}) ?
Nope
in my mind those two concept seem to point to the same "thing" but I may be wrong
by thing I mean the natural numbers on which we can perfom addition
The group theory axioms don’t point to a single group
These axioms don’t point to a single “N”
It’s just some random cousins of N that have some of its properties
@chilly smelt according to wikipedia algebraic structures are broader than just group theory, algebraic structures can be : Group-like, Ring-like, Lattice-like, Module-like, Algebra-like (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Algebraic_structure)
In mathematics, an algebraic structure consists of a nonempty set A (called the underlying set, carrier set or domain), a collection of operations on A of finite arity (typically binary operations), and a finite set of identities, known as axioms, that these operations must satisfy.
An algebraic structure may be based on other algebraic structur...
Why are you telling me this
what's part of the confusion is if you scroll down in the "examples" section they even put arithmetics there
Right
i tell you this because you speak of group theory
(just to point out N is not a group)
It’s because it’s a familiar example to compare this with
When you have a collection of axioms there are many things that satisfy those axioms
You have some axioms that you think describe N but they sadly describe more than just N
The group axioms don’t isolate individual groups.
The arithmetic axioms don’t isolate N
let's say N would be at least included in the set described by PA
Lol honestly it is good that PA doesn't uniquely describe N
If it did computability theory wouldn't exist
could you elaborate why you said no by the way ?
(about PA and {N,+} pointing to the same conceptual reality)
Lol sorry I was confusing PA with a different axiom set for a second
Well a good reason is because there are nonstandard models of PA
How do you know N is a set tho, surely to say it’s a model it has to at least be a set
@chilly smelt check the video of 3blue1brown about the monster group, at one point in the video he mentions groups with infinite set vs groups with finite sets
Also saying it describes the same conceptual reality is too vague for my taste
The short answer is it doesn’t, they’re playing make believe
@dense belfry fair enough, it's certainly vague I guess that's how I'm experiencing those concepts in my mind haha
I don’t know what you want me to learn from his video
okay I'm too fucked to read the whole thread above what are you confused about
well why N wouldn't be a set ?
how do you know N is a set
you actually need to enforce this by axiom
in ZFC set theory there is a "natural numbers set" axiom
I'm confused about the seeming conceptual overlap between Peano's arithmetic and the algebraic structure (N, +)
Which axiom is that
that essentially describes what N is, you need an axiom to ensure the set exists
otherwise like
Not really, there is an infinite set set axiom
you can have models of ZFC minus the natural numbers axiom that only include finite sets
okay sure
It doesn’t describe N
depending on how you formulate the axioms
The axiom says that an inductive set exists
Then you can show that a smallest inductive set exists
Now it’s up to you to show that it must be the N you know and love
ehhh that might be a weird way to define it
But it isn't necessarily the N you know and love
^
Checkmate set theory, waste of my time
well
so the "standard model of the natural numbers" is minimal among these models
so this is fine
there are nonstandard models of the natural numbers that are weirder, and indeed these are all models of PA
it's just there's a minimal model that is the one we know and love
it's an interesting angle of attack you have there, my mind is satisfied with calling the PA inductive set N
How do you know N is a model of PA
if it looks like a duck
Bad definition

by this I mean
you write out the definition of your model of standard natural numbers
you then verify that this model satisfies the PA axioms
which is essentially by definition, since in the model you're imposing like
What’s are you referring to when you say “N”
the minimal possible thing you need for these axioms to hold
PeAno axioms
when I say N I mean standard N
there are other nonstandard models N' of PA that are weird
The minimal possible thing might not be the thing I mean when I say N
but standard N is minimal
oh hmm
okay well then you're talking about something possibly different
which is fine, there are interesting things you can study that involve nonstandard N
but "standard N" is an unambiguous statement
When I think of the standard N I think of finite applications of the successor on 0 and then putting them all in a bag. I want to know exactly what you have to do in order to prove it’s a set. Otherwise the minimal thing might be weird
@vivid halo would you say it is fair to say that Peano's arithmetic points to the same conceptual reality as the algebraic structure (N, +) ? By conceptual reality I mean natural numbers that we can add ?
yes and no
yes in the sense that like
you're specifying these axioms and from this you can obtain a minimal model that does what we intuitively expect these axioms to be capturing
no in the sense that without this minimality assumption you can't pin down one model, so PA is really about a richer class of structures (of which the familiar standard N is the simplest)
I’m claiming you need some secret sauce to actually prove the minimal thing is N
you don't
You can call the minimal thing N all you like, defining it as such is cheating because I already have a definition of N
that doesn't make sense though
Call the minimal thing M. Show N=M
great this discussion settled me a bit thanks to all :)
okay but you're simply redefining what N is now
which is fine, but like
then we're simply talking about other things
No, I had the definition first
Truly based
if you look at ZFC set theory
there is also a minimal model, and this is sort of the one that people have intuition for, namely Godel's constructible universe L
there are of course other models of ZFC!
now in this case there is something more subtle going on, there's some arguments you can make that the minimal model is not the one that you want to use
in some sense this subtlety still exists in PA, as you are arguing for a nonstandard N to be the preferred one
however the main argument against this perspective is one of intuition: we have an intuition for what natural numbers "should" be in some platonic or philosophical sense, and the minimal model is precisely this
whereas we don't have enough intuition about sets to cleanly distinguish which models do "what we expect" and which don't
this is why, for instance, the axiom of choice is largely uncontroversial among set theorists, since we have some idea of what sets should be in our head and they obviously satisfy this axiom
what's not clear is, for example, do sets satisfy CH
so this is where the ambiguity begins and we have to think harder
but for natural numbers things are more or less fine philosophically speaking
I have a very clear picture of what I expect the minimal model of N to be. It’s the thing I learnt when I was 6 and it’s the thing I’ve been using for my whole life since that point. Then set theory comes along and defines N as the minimal model, it’s now up to it to demonstrate in a convincing fashion that it is the thing I expect of it. ZFC isn’t much of a foundation if it isn’t even describing the thing 99% of mathematicians consider N to actually be in a platonic sense
well so the thing missing from this is like
you can literally construct "standard N" in the way you expect, you can construct this "minimal N" and then you can prove within ZFC that these are the same
How do you do that, that’s the thing I’m missing
ah okay great
there's a nice explanation of this here: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2257984/are-the-standard-natural-numbers-an-outstanding-model-of-pa
Just so I am clear, what do you mean when you say standard model
to me "standard N" means "minimal N" in the model theoretic sense explained here
there are philosophical arguments you can make that "standard N" should be taken to be a different, non-minimal model of PA but I don't think these are particularly convincing
I want to make my position clear
by analogy a lot of people take "standard ZFC" to mean "minimal ZFC," that is Godel's constructible universe. There are philosophical arguments that "standard ZFC" should be taken to be something different, and now the difference is that these arguments are somewhat convincing
What im calling N is a platonic definition. It’s not defined as a minimal anything, i can define it outside of set theory as the bag containing 0,1,2,… where you know what I mean by …
okay sure
How do you know THIS THING, whatever it is exactly, is the minimal thing
So of course it depends on how you define N "platonically," however you are doing this
You know what it is
but I think most sensible "platonic" definitions will give you something that matches "minimal N"
Just as much as I do
(that's what i call conceptual reality btw)
It better match the minimal thing, that’s what I want
right so if we're saying "we take N to be what everyone knows N to be, it behaves in the way we expect"
like in the way that we all kinda know without getting argumentative about it, you know what I mean
then this definition agrees with "minimal N"
Not behaves the way we expect, because many things behave like it
sure
but yes most sensible platonic definitions give you the minimal model
again by analogy there is a similar issue in set theory where we have a platonic idea of what a set should be
a "bag of elements"
the ZFC axioms are all derived from this platonic idea
the big issue is there are other axioms like CH where our platonic idea of what sets should be isn't clear or unambiguous enough to decide whether this should be an axiom or not
so this requires a deeper exploration into how these models are related and what happens much much later down the road as consequences of these axioms
e.g. you might have an axiom that seems compatible with this platonic idea but maybe you can derive a consequence that is clearly contradictory of this idea, or deeply undesirable in some sense
people joke about the axiom of choice in this way, since the actual statement is very intuitive and "obviously true" but a consequence like the well ordering theorem is really weird in some ways
I guess what you do with that conflict tells you a lot about what type of mathematician you are. If the axioms cause weird things to happen, is it the ideas themselves which are broken or just the particular system you’ve used to express those ideas
I’m on the side of my platonic view. If the axioms can’t pin point N in a way I’m satisfied with (not claiming they can’t) then I blame the implementation of the foundation, not my idea
I don’t change my actual concept of the natural numbers because the foundation would prefer I think of it that way. I see the foundation as a map and the natural numbers as an object that is being drawn by the map
Well right so it is very rare the axioms can indeed pin down infinite objects like this
So you’re left with one of two choices
One is to be satisfied with the minimal model and argue that it is ontologically satisfying because it has the least baggage
CTMU pins down GOD
That or you need to keep putting more and more axioms into your model to filter down the models
If one man can do it with GOD then a whole team of nerds should be able to do it for N
It’s also worth pointing out that even though we don’t have a specified model of ZFC The basic axioms are still enough to do the vast vast majority of mathematical arguments
So in some sense the fact that we can’t pin down a model isn’t as philosophically worrying as you might think
I wonder why they can’t just define the actual N to be a set, they’ve left themselves wiggle room on purpose for some reason
You can though
One version of ZFC Literally does this for the axiom of infinity
In either case you can write down an unambiguous set which agrees with this minimal model
Do you support that a linear algebra book talks about rings without teaching them, knowing that the first time you study linear algebra you haven't studied yet anything about abstract algebra?
This can be a useful perspective yes
I mean
It’s certainly good to talk about fields in abstract
Theorem:
$(\mathfrak{M}_n(\mathbb{K}),+,\cdot)$ is a non-conmutative ring if $n > 1$
And nowhere in the book a "ring" is defined
Reduced row echelon form
I mean that situation which is basically what I'm referring to
You may want to know which book has that
It's "Álgebra lineal con métodos elementales"
What is this??
Art
Also how can you ever connect a "platonic" concept with mathematical theory??
It just has to satisfy me, this doesn’t just yet
At best you can construct math theory that looks similar enough to what you would recognize
Also It seems the non standard models involve introducing elements that satisfy the axioms but arent there usually
What's CTMU??
It’s not even about non-standard. I can’t tell that the standard one is the one I am thinking about. I need a clearer picture to see why it is the one I know already
I searched what it was, the IQ thing is certainly off putting, sounds like a scam, but the few review on his book and votes on his videos are good so idk
Keith Ranierith also liked to advertised heroic IQ
My name is not actually Karen
Sure Karen
Is grifting the thing with the branches
Like in jojolion
They grifted the branch or smth to a tree
Speaking of frauds
You guys know that guy on YouTube who invented new calculus
He claims several things
Wildburger?
Not sure
He says that pr/qr ≠ p/q which is like saying that there exists an intrinsic meaning to the fraction other than the ratio
That's grafting. You're welcome 🙂
R = 0
I want to hear more about this
probably some drunk guy
john gabriel?
@cold needle this is what i was talking about
In Cauchy’s and Sylow’s arguments, the group G was taken to be a subgroup of a symmetric group on some [n]. The first proof of Sylow’s theorems without this assumption is due to Frobenius

For r ≠0
Yoooo I think that's it
He is the only mathematician since archimedes to understand math
jgtgmsa 
🕯️
guys can someone explain how a sequentially closed set is different from a closed set?
sequential properties can only examine sets in a countable number of points at once
this might be insufficient in topologies with sufficiently rich open sets
a closed set is always sequentially closed
but the sequential closure of a set can fail to be sequentially closed
let alone closed
in a closed set, every convergent sequence in this set converges to a point in this set right
are you asking for a definition?
ah my internet was bugging
so if A sequence in this set converges to a point in this set, it is sequentially closed?
we dont need every convergent sequence to converge in this set?
all convergent sequences need to converge to elements in the set
wouldnt that make it a closed set?
no
but a set is closed iff every convergent sequence in this set converges to a point in this set right
that's for metric spaces
in metric spaces closed and sequentially closed is equivalent
the difference between closed and sequentially closed seems like the difference between using nets, and sequences?
yeah the only example I had at hand was omega_1+1 in order topology and I hesitated to bring that up
if you use nets, you're all good?
yeah nets can be "long"
yeah for all small enough spaces its probably fine to forget the distinction lol
I've always wondered but never cared to check
can the kind of limit that you take in the riemann integral be expressed as a net limit
btw that is a nice cat gif in ur profile thing mniip
like, you would need to construct a filtered category out of partitions of an interval
filtered category ~~ directed set
except it can be thick
but in this case I think it makes sense to be thin
that looks degenerate though
if tau_1 and tau_2 are partitions with choices of points on each segment and l(tau) is the longest segment,
we connect tau_1 -> tau_2 whenever l(tau_1) >= l(tau_2)
this is a thin filtered category
yeah I guess this is it
it looks really odd though
wait how do you take a limit
is it "for any neighborhood there exists a final set?"
yeah I'm just used to filtered categories looking more like lattices/DAGs
this is more like flow in a pipe
morphisms go from left to right

Just have mathematica open instead
middle schoolers doing algebra with polynomials looking down on graduate students doing algebra with polynomials
wolframalpha and all of its consequences have been a travesty for the human race
I use it to factor polynomials
synthetic long division

This is what category-brain does to you
wolframalpha is a liar
true
True, let's go back to doing exhaustive calculations on paper
Analysis is not calculus. Complex analysis is calculus. There is algebra that is not HS algebra, but the ring theory in a groups rings fields course is ha algebra.
Wanna numerically evaluate an integeal but don't know how to program hold on bro lemme just draw a bunch of rectangles

imagine being a greek mathematician whose lifes work is literally just that you drew a bunch of rectangles and added their areas
Imagine your most notable achievement being fucking killing someone for implying not everything is a ratio of 2 whole numbers

Greek mathematicians were the original "omg math is so beautifal fibonnacci in flower!!" people
So many ancient greek mathematicians were complete hacks.
Fr tho
Archie Meaties, Pythagorean, and Euler. All hacks.
Platonic solids? More like elementary particles
The best way to evaluate a definite integral is by weighing pieces of paper
Ah yes. Play doh.
We call aristotle arastool in urdu because we realize how shit he is
Oh and can't forget finitists
And ababou
How to tell someone is practicing for complex analysis quals
Oh dear.

all integrals are 0
Ange angy.
for large values of 0
hmm
this got me thinking
if you consider the set C([0,1])
what is the measure of the set of all functions whose integral is 0
What is the measure on this set
What measure?
Yeah I mean
Putting measures on infinite dimensional spaces is always gonna be bad
Obviously if you use the counting measure the measure will not be 0
Since you can't inherit some fubini thing from [0, 1]
Define the measure such that that set is 0
Ok use the 0 measure
just googled
Nah, the trick is to make it just nontrivial enough such that it looks interesting at first glance but it's actually extremely boring and formulaic
C([0,1]) doesn't have a natural measure
so yeah my question doesn't make much sense
I imagined it didn't
You are reminding me about something when it comes to structures and stuff in algebra.
Since most of the concrete things people work with early in math are numbers it feels uncomfortable when taking a first algebra course because a lot of the objects are talked about abstractly straying away from concrete examples. Im not sure if its just me, but it looks like a lot of higher math just talks about properties of these abstract constructions rather than examples. Is it just more or do most things in higher math have concrete motivating examples?
Angy ange.
Just do applied math and not abstract algebra
Then your concrete motivating example is reality
Numbers are a methamtician's worst enemy
I get the feeling that in general the deeper down the rabbit hole the more things are generalized
There are layers of abstraction.
Abstraction of an abstraction of an abstraction
I find it useful to try to find intuition in the more concrete case while first learning the generalization
though that doesn't always work
Does it ever become concrete is there a motivation,
Is it really just abstraction for abstraction sake?
Depends on the particular thing you're studying
Usually there is some particular reason for considering an abstract definition
the good thing about generalizing is that it covers the more concrete case by definition
if you want to study some property of R^3 but you know all about R^n just set n = 3
Honestly a lot of times generalisations can help understand some deeper structure behind the object you were originally studying
When you.pull back the curtain so to say
I would argue that there are a lot of concrete examples to pretty much any any widely used math object that you'll ever encounter. The reality is, not all math things admit concrete realizations (a lot of times, this is when you have some super abstract tool for understanding something that is rather concrete)
The problem here is that "concrete" is in the eye of the beholder. To some people, it may not be very concrete to say "this math fact manifests itself really clearly through collections of matrices, or through examples in quantum mechanics"
But to someone working in the field of
, that's a very nice concrete way of thinking.
Note the use of "almost every widely used you'll ever encounter". There are people who spend their time on crank shit like arithmetic geometers or Ultraproduct and you'll just never have any clue what they're going on about.

Sully farming while telling not a single lie.
Lol
arithmetic geometry is crank shit
This is literally one of the most popular areas of math lol
My point is, sometimes you have to look hard for the concrete realization, and sometimes it's a waste of time to do so, but usually something exists.
Sure
Yes, popmath is what we should all aspire to model our careers toward

Sullies for preposition at end of sentence?
Sorry!!!
*Yes, popmath is that toward which we should all aspire to model our careers
Dang the way you are pretending to be a moron is extremely likable and endearing, keep it up

Yes 
🤨
Honestly every area of math has nice concrete examples that clarify things, except for the exact fields that ultra studies for some reason
"physicist"

What does ultra study
Foundations
"Everything"
Also ultra at least cares about
and those are plenty concrete
See?
Just present the pauli spin matrix example
Yea that stuff is fine
That's how you explain to a high schooler what that field is like
Foundations of QFT have no applications
Physics is an application 
Do physicists care about foundations of qft
The impression I got was no, they don't care
do physicists care about physics
Ultraproduct does, they are a physicist.

I suppose you also need to be clear about what level of specificity you want when trying to find concrete examples for things
Yes
Yea you answered me perfect, I was thinking of concrete realizations just being tools that could find a wide use in math and not something super duper specific to a certain field.
Like, if you just want to get a good idea for why people care about homology, it's not so hard to explain. But if you want a good idea for why people care about sheaf cohomology, it won't be as easy.
There are levels of abstraction 
Like seperatricies
Yeah
In mathematics, a separatrix is the boundary separating two modes of behaviour in a differential equation.
But even then this is concrete enough to have wide use in diffeq
People care about sheaf cohomology to understand when local solutions can be glued to gather to get global solutions

Sure
My point is that unpacking the definitions toward something concrete is going to take a little more time than if the person is just happy to hear something about triangulating surfaces.
Is a little an understatement?
I haven't been sully farming for a while by the way 
I'm being political to try to find common ground.
👍
It's harder to explain because people haven't caught up to it
Hard to explain to a child why anything is interesting
Physics is cool
😌
Wrong
I respect your opinion, but also disagree
not sure about that
I think my grandma didnt exactly grasp the nuances in poincaré-hopf when I explained it to her

is the icon of this server related to the rotating donut?
I guess it seems to be a rotating donut
Coffis cup.
Aka the 1-donut
so the n-donut is (S^1)^(n+1) now 
Weird thought, but is posting copyrighted pictures here in Discord actually allowed? 
I can't see how it's different from putting a copyrighted image onto one's blog, which isn't.
Can I put copyrighted images in my youtube video
Of course not.
Well, I guess it could differ depending on the country you're currently living in.
strictly speaking no but there's absolutely zero way for this to be enforced, so nobody cares
e.g. people stream movies through the discord screen sharing feature all the time

lol
Lmfaoooo
based
honestly more people should be told this
yea honestly that's a good answer
yes, in public 
oh nGroupoid and ultra you guys should listen to this https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Jzmuq2Vu-U8
Group Ongaku album: Music of Group Ongaku (1960 and 1961)
1/ Automatism -00:00 to 25:51
2/ Object 25:52 to 33:49
3/ Metaplasm - 33:50 to END/FIN
Track 1 & 2:
performed by
Takehisa Kosugi, Chieko Shiomi,Yumiko Tanno, Yasunao Tone, Shukou Mizuno
Track 3:
Takehisa Kosugi,v,sax,tape
Chieko Shiomi,p
Mikio Tojima,vc
Yasunao Tone,sax,tape
Genichi T...
I am going to try and find avant garde nagauta and hayashi-kata ensembles

idk it annoys me when people ask questions that could have immediately been answered by a simple google search
" Basically, I would like to know what the definition of the elements of the shape group is."
like idk
I care less when people do this on discord since it's like, something that would be okay to do in a casual mathematical conversation
Wait this reminds me theres something i wanted to ask on MSE
even if the question were changed to like
here's the definition I looked up, what is the reason for defining it this way? How did people come up with this definition in the first place?
That's a good question 
MonkaS
oh man lmfaooo
Tyler is my grad student. When he informed me that Shape Group is not standard terminology, I was a bit curious to how he could have come to that conclusion. While searching for a citation to prove him wrong I came across this entertaining discussion on StackExchange. If either Tyler (the original poster) or Pece (the other grad student who claimed this isn't standard terminology) would have taken the time to search the term 'shape group' on MathSciNet before posting on StackExchange they would have avoided wasting each other's time -- and mine. Typing 'Shape Group' into the search field of MathSciNet yields numerous paper on the subject. Since I've apparently already spent the time doing what they should have done, I think it would be appropriate for me to suggest that they look at these two papers written by people that Tyler has actually met, talked to and drove a van for not two weeks ago :
Oh my god
wow, are you a professor?
yes. i sent this message on mse.
This was pretty mean
What a prick goddamn
guh i hate students who go into math classes and then whine about writing proofs
lmao
I feel like they should teach more proofs (especially during earlier math classes), so everyone doesn't immediately start crying
[they] do depending on which courses you take
lol
some people just havent gotten out of the HS mindset of doing math
etc.etc.
Probably depends on what type of class that is
If it's a class for math majors then grow up
Im asking an MSE question about how to show that points above a k-rational point p in X in the base change to the algebraic closure have trivial stabilizer in pi_1(U_bar{k})
What should i tag it other than algebraic geometry
Actually let me just rephrase what should i tag questions about etale pi_1 as
like K-12 education lol
tag them as @vivid halo please help
@vivid halo Pls help
okay
yea so what are U and X here?
let k be a perfect field, X a proper normal integral curve over k, U an open subset of X, p in U k-rational (my defn of this is that the residue field of p is k idk how standard that is)
let tilde{Q} be a point lying above p in the pro-etale cover tilde{X} of X
let bar{Q} be the image of tilde{Q} in X_bar{k} the base change to the algebraic closure
my goal is to show that the stabilizer of bar{Q} in pi_1(U_bar{k}) is trivial
hold up
I feel like majors like engineering should be taught actual math proofs though instead of trying to ignore proofs altogether so they roughly know where all the stuff comes from (although I know everyone will hate me)
I'm a little confused by the use of the pro-etale cover, I don't know that this is totally necessary
yea so here's how I think about the exact sequence 0->π^et_1(X)->π^et_1(X_0)->Gal(\bar{k}/k)->0 for X_0 over k and X over \bar{k} (this is the notation I usually use so forgive the change of notation)
think about what each group classifies in terms of its finite quotients: Gal(\bar{k}/k) classifies finite extensions of k, π^et_1(X_0) classifies finite etale covers of X_0, π^et_1(X) classifies finite etale covers of X
(i think i get the exact sequence, like the absolute galois group measures the extent to which etale maps over U lose etaleness when base changed to bar{k})
Like everything makes sense to me except the claim that the stabilizer is trivial
well right so what the sequence is saying is that there's a specified class of covers of X_0 that are just base changes of X_0 to a finite extension of k
these covers, once you base change to \bar{k}, all become trivial
Yeah
Like pi_1(U_bar{k}) accounts for the etale covers over U that are just base changes
Right
right okay so now there's one additional piece of content, we haven't produced our splitting yet

shh
anyways
let me think about this for a second, I really don't like the proof that Szamuely gives for this

I dont really get it tbh... like the claim is that if i take the compositum of all the extensions of K of the form K L where L | k algebraic any automorphism of that stabilizing bar{q} is trivial
yea this is written in such a stupid way
should this go in one of the advanced channels lol
nah it's fine
No i am too based for those
If i use them it makes my score increase faster i have to stay here so its hard to tell that im a no lifer
The role is hidden by honor
Irrelevant
anyways my advice is to just move on and ignore the issue

Yeah I did that
I went back to try to understand it but then I didnt understand it
guess ill just ask on MSE
well hold on
May I ask a question here?
sure yea I think the current conversation isn't going anywhere
Lmao
@blazing pawn oh let me say a word about these splittings that don't come from rational points


