#serious-discussion
1 messages Ā· Page 42 of 1
Matrix multiplication is a very well studied problem
Especially if you know things about your matrix
Like is it sparse
Or symmetric/hermitian
Etc..
ok, this will give me something to look into
i will read up on MPI, thanks š
Also, things parallelize differently if you have shared or separate memory
Communication between separate memory pools takes a really long time
And things like matrix multiplication fall into a paradigm called "embarrassingly parallel" where there are no intermediate dependencies so if you do it in a shared memory (openmp) framework, you can essentially get linear speedup
i see
Openmp is also definitely easier to do because it's almost entirely done via compiler directives
#pragma omp .....
You may also look into kokkos, which is a performance portability framework
The idea behind kokkos is that you rewrite your code in kokkos and then it handles all the parallelization
your chess skills are equivalent to carbonated fecal matter

@long matrix omg death!!
he lost btw
Only took like 15 episodes
come to stream
Nono I binge watch
ok whatever, dont spoiler me
Also I canāt unmute now, so that takes out all the fun
i havent finished it.
Have you finished the first season?
yes, i did.
So youāre still quite a bit ahead of me
So I will look up spoilers instead
For you <3
what show
āQuantumās momās crazy adventuresā
psychopass
quantum's mom

hi quantim
hi
I'm binge watching quantum's mom
peter and the wolf is so fun
who the fuck are you

Hi, so the topic of my slogan is how to defend human rights
is my text for it good?
- Each voice is a shield for everyone's futures, a sword against everyone's foes -
thanks
if I can ask for a bit of help
- Human rights, pretty cool imo -
cat rights where
Good morning slurp!
Good morning DarQ!

Imagine a new color
wdym
Try to imagine a new color
and?
Add see if you can find that color in that 3d map
and?
Can you?
why does this matter
@fast moat bc it does
@alpine kindle @bright hill I'm free now, tell me when you're ready for some calculus on manifolds
Sure
Sadly, i can't chime in today 
cool
I promised neamesis we'd do rudin together
Np, DarQ, just finish Spivak 
Oh, that's also fun
I will 
I'm doing algebra now tho lmao
Thanks for pinging me tho 

any online resources to prepare for accuplacer math college freshman
Calculus on manifolds sounds so fun
nice pfp
@true bough hi Deepy
still up for it?
2 secs need to do laundry
i think i'll join in a bit as well if that's alright for you
yeah he had some questionable past tweets
Apparently 

RUDIN IS CRINGE
No u
@rocky shuttle are you still awake
it's diff form time
Lmfao
A differential $k$-form is an alternating multilinear form $$\omega\colon\mathrm{T}_p{M}\times\dots\times\mathrm{T}_p{M}\to\mathbb{R}$$ with $k$ copies of the tangent space $\mathrm{T}_p{M}$ of a differentiable manifold $M$ at $p\in M$.
texit is down
uh
https://mathb.in I guess
yeah
So, how familiar are you with tangent spaces and classical vector analysis in general?
not very familiar
Really?
why are you doubting that
Your aka is the Exterior Algebra
btw why is the quadratic form missing from your aka
Because it's not a (general) Clifford Algebra
oh okay
Lmfao
anyways, perhaps we should restrict ourselves to integration of differential forms on submanifolds of R^n first, if you don't mind
Okay, so is the alternating multilinear form thing clear to you?
yeah i know what those are
like where f(x0,x1,...,xn,xn+1,...) = -f(x0,x1,...,xn+1,xn,...)
Yeah, and if you put two linearly dependent vectors, then it's zero
Alright, so let's assume that the k-dimensional manifold $M\subset\mathbb{R}^n$ can be parameterized by a singular k-cube $\varphi\colon[0,1]^k\to\mathbb{R}^n$.
zan mathbin
How should I do it? Send the link everytime I tex something?
You can also just copy my texts into mathbin
yh
That's faster
So, for such a manifold $M$ (with the parameterization $\varphi$) the integral of a $k$-form field $x\mapsto\omega(x)$ defined on a domain in $\mathbb{R}^n$ containing $M$ is defined by $$\int_{M}\omega=\int_{[0,1]^k}\omega(\varphi(\xi^1,\dots,\xi^k))[\frac{\partial}{\partial{x^1}},\dots,\frac{\partial}{\partial{x^k}}]\mathrm{d}{\xi^1}\dots\mathrm{d}{\xi^k}.$$
dd still not working
gotta be honest i have no idea what's going on in that integral
Yeah, we're going to discuss this now. So, I wanted to start with the objective
Yeah, but it turns out to be not basis dependent!
Man I wish texit was working
(also isn't x |ā Ļ(x) just Ļ)
It's a differential form field, which assigns each point on the ambient manifold a differential form $\omega(p)\colon\mathrm{T}_p{M}\times\dots\times\mathrm{T}_p{M}\to\mathbb{R}$.
Usually, the term field is omitted though
Hmm, yeah, I need to be consistent with the notation
I thought differential form was the term for the field, and an individual was simply a form
Yeah, that's common in the literature,
I like to distinguish between differential forms (alternating multilinear forms, where the vector spaces are tangent spaces of some manifold) and differential form fields though
So, to understand the above formula, maybe we can look at line / path integrals in R^n first
so omega(x) is a linear map from \bigwedge^k T_x M to F
Yeah, multilinear and alternating
yes
cool
I think that's the point
what's the sinplest nontrivial case
that usually helps
Yeah, so, for path integrals, our manifold is a curve (1-dimensional) in 3-dimensional space. Given a coordinate chart $x$, The space of differential 1-forms $\Omega^1(\mathbb{R}^3)$ is spanned by $\binom{3}{1}=3$ basis vectors: $dx^1$, $dx^2$, $dx^3$.
So, we can write a 1-form $\alpha$ as $\alpha=\alpha_1 dx^1+\alpha_2 dx^2+\alpha dx^3$.
so dx^n is Ļ_n basically?
Basically yes
what's pi_n?
nth projection morphism

More formally, the tangent space is spanned by the coordinate frame $\frac{\partial}{\partial{x^1}},\dots,\frac{\partial}{\partial{x^n}}$ and $dx^1,\dots,dx^n$ are the dual basis vectors to them
nice and simple
Given an $n$-dimensional manifold $M$ and a chart $x\colon M\to\mathbb{R}^n$, the $i$-th coordinate basis vector is given by the tangent vector $\frac{\partial}{\partial{x^i}}\in\mathrm{T}p{M}$ corresponding to the derivation $$\frac{\partial}{\partial{x^i}}f(p)=\lim{t\to 0}\frac{f(x^{-1}(x(p)+te_i))-f(p)}{t}.$$
A particular basis formed by a coordinate chart
zanarkand sory to interrupt but what the f
what?
calculus on manifolds, read what's been said before now
start here
wait hold on isn't x the identity function
in R^n, yes
Are you familiar with the definition of a manifold?
Ugh math
i thought that was just a notational shortcut
I wish I could partake
yes
Wanna do algorithms with me?
I have to sleep now tho 
what???
gn (dar)^3
Every point has a neighborhood that is homeomorphic to some open subset of R^n
yeah
A chart x at p is such a homeomorphism
I like this one lmfaoo
gn kyuu
ok sorry it just wasn't clear what x was
nvm
I'm blind i didn't see you defined it earlier
Okay, let's look at a simple example
yes
Let $M$ be a curve in $\mathbb{R}^3$ parameterized by $\varphi\colon[a,b]\to\mathbb{R}^n$.
oh wait so is \pdv{}{x^i} a vector field
Yeah
cool
And $\alpha=\alpha_1 dx^1+\alpha_2 dx^2+\alpha_3 dx^3$ be the 1-form we want to integrate over $M$.
(I need to find out how to disable formatting in discord)
Does it work now? (still with the hidden backslashes)
not really
Hmm okay
has a bunch of underscores
I removed them
So, the integral would be
$$\int_{M}\alpha=\int_{a}^{b}\left\lbrack\alpha_1(\varphi(t))dx^1(\frac{\partial{\varphi}}{\partial{t}})+\alpha_2(\varphi(t))dx^2(\frac{\partial{\varphi}}{\partial{t}})+\alpha_3(\varphi(t))dx^3(\frac{\partial{\varphi}}{\partial{t}})\right\rbrack dt.$$
Or short
how do you get that
$$\int_{M}\alpha=\int_{a}^{b}F(\varphi(t))\cdot\dot{\varphi}(t)dt$$
that's worse
where $F=(\alpha_1,\alpha_2,\alpha_3)$ is a vector field with the components of alpha
the notation and terminology is different, but I recognize everything
the second one is much harder to get
I think it stems from the fact that the dx^i are covector fields
Hmm
and in finite dimensions a covector is isomorphic to a dot product with a fixed vector
Yeah, so this is the usual definition of a path integral in classical vector analysis that can be defined without knowing about differential forms
lmao
nicer?
You're quite the character
it makes more sense
okay, let's look at the integrand
of what representation
The whole idea is to flatten / pullback the curve M to the interval [a,b]
like parameterizations (?)
sth related to categorical limits iirc
I've seen the definition
I don't know the relation to pullbacks in category theory
I'm not used to explaining things by text only 
sorry
f(y(x)) = g(x), g is a pullback of f
that as an example
of the categorical notion
hm
So, our differential form $\alpha$ is defined on the curve $M$
yes
The pullback $\varphi^*\alpha$ is defined on the interval $[a,b]$
that relation isn't relevant for your cause rn anyway
Okay
how is phi*alpha defined
I'm getting to it
So $\alpha$ at the point $p\in M$ takes a tangent vector $v\in\mathrm{T}_p{M}$ and maps it to a real number $\alpha(p)[v]$.
yes
The pullback $\varphi^\alpha$ at $t\in[a,b]$ takes a tangent vector $u\in\mathrm{T}_t{[a,b]}\simeq\mathbb{R}$ and maps it to $$(\varphi^\alpha)(t)[u]=\alpha(\varphi(t))[D\varphi(t)[u]].$$
texbot my beloved
$D\varphi(t)[u]$ is the differential / pushforward of $\varphi$ at $t$ in the direction of $u$.
ok yes I'm imagining this equation and it makes sense
So, essentially, the integral of $\alpha$ over $M$ is given by the integral of its pullback over the interval
$$\int_{M}\alpha=\int_{[a,b]}\varphi^*\alpha$$
And yeah, the very first integral I showed you was just the pullback
for a curve, yes
In general, we have singular k-cubes, that is, $\varphi\colon[0,1]^k\to\mathbb{R}^n$.
Then $$\int{M}\omega=\int{[0,1]^k}\varphi^*\omega$$
wait what if our curve is unbounded
For a k-form omega
would you just go over all R^k instead of [0,1]^k
So far, we have been talking about manifolds that can be globally parameterized by a singular k-cube
In general, it's not possible
Dphi is a function [0,1]^k to the set of linear operators on R^n right
To the set of linear operators from R^k to R^n
yes ok
ok yeah that makes sense
takes it to the corresponding tangent vector at phi(t)
Yeah
don't the boundaries deal with themselves
wdym?
like how do you take the derivative of phi at the boundary
I mean between two adjacent k-cells in the manifold, along their shared boundary, between orientation and measure the boundary values vanish
of the k-cube
is this the part where you cheat because bla bla smooth
For the integral over the k-cube, the values on the boundary do not matter since the boundary is of measure zero
see that guys, measure zero
I was right
this is just a more general claim than I made
really? 
ok so
Anyways, my exposition was not very structured, but is integration of differential k-forms over singular k-cubes clear now?
what does singular mean
I think singular here comes from https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Singular_homology
In algebraic topology, singular homology refers to the study of a certain set of algebraic invariants of a topological space X, the so-called homology groups
H
n
(
X
)
.
{\displaystyle H_{n}(X).}
Intuitively, singular...
u could give us a talk on differential forms
galwah first
i have a long week ahead of me, but maybe the weekend
I mean I could've also done a vc
And do some doodles, but I forgot my pen tablet in the office
i couldn't have vced idt
Np

It's hard to structure all of this...
the previous bit was easy to follow
Alright, maybe we can continue with integration over chains first?

So, a chain is just a formal sum of singular k-cubes
ok
(free Abelian group generated by the singular k-cubes)
this is an awfully large group 
how do you define this group
when comparing this to differential forms it's fine to use R coefficients, so if you like you can instead think about the R-vector space with basis given by singular k-cubes
?
what the fuck
what
I mean it's infinite dimensional but that's fine
lmao nG
elements are finite linear combinations of singular k-cubes
sure but when you compare singular cohomology to de Rham cohomology it's with coefficients in R
oh okay, I didn't know that
can someone explain what a formal sum is
you're just adding them formally
I mean, a polynomial is also just a formal sum
yeah but a polynomial isn't a group is it
right?
polynomials form an Abelian group! you can add them
yeah but a polynomial on its own isn't a group
a polynomial is an example of a formal linear combination here
it spans one doesn't it
there's nothing deep going on here
yeah
you can count each k-cube
if you have a set S you can form the free Abelian group Z[S] whose elements are formal Z-linear combinations of elements in S
so expressions like a_1s_1+...+a_ns_n
you don't need any addition on S for this to make sense
i thought this was saying that a formal sum of k-cubes is an abelian group in and of itself
no, it's an element of the free Abelian group
yeah i get it now
Anyways, the integral over a chain is then obviously defined as the sum of the integral over each singular k-cube with multiplicities
you can
if you have a single k-form \omega and you know how to integrate it over a single k-cube, then you know how to integrate it over a linear combination of k-cubes
how do you integrate a 1-form field over a surface
the diff form fields are defined in the ambient space
for example
you don't
oh is this derivatives
you integrate k-forms along k-dimensional spaces
wait that's a hard limit?
it doesn't really make sense to integrate if the dimensions don't match up
why does it not?
you can't integrate over arbitrary chains?
what about integrating surface flux?
what about it
I mean maybe what you're referring to is how like in R^3 there's some way you can conflate 1-forms and 2-forms
no
that solves what I'm talking about in R^3
what I'm talking about is before the conflation
nG

what i thought was implied earlier is that you can integrate over any chain
I don't think this is strictly true
what is true is that you can integrate any k-form over k-chains
so this is a sharp distinction between GA and Forms then
you can't integrate over [0,1]^k + [0,1]^(k+1) tho
yes this is one reason why GA is bad
right
this doesn't make sense for forms
How is this a negative?
integrate what?
idk
like you can't integrate a k-form or a (k+1)-form on these domains
nvm
anyways the cleanest definitions come from integrating k-forms over k-dimensional regions
so what is the basis for the set of k-chains
all the singular k-cubes
all of them how
it's quite literally like
for every continuous map \sigma:[0,1]^k->X
you get a new basis element
the main point is this just gets you talk about expressions like a_1\sigma_1+...+a_n\sigma_n
call this space C_k(X), this huge vector space spanned by k-chains
the boundary of a k-cube is a formal linear combination of (k-1)-cubes, so you get a linear map C_k(X)->C_k-1(X)
since we're in a very infinite dimensional setting it's like
kinda hopeless to actually compute very concretely with this
thats actually my favourite saying
this is sort of the problem with introducing singular homology first, it's not very computable but it has nice formal properties
so this is where cohomology comes in
and exterior derivatives
well so you can define the singular homology H_k(X,R) in terms of these C_k(X)'s and this boundary map between them
the definition is like
like
you have these two boundary maps d_k:C_k(X)->C_k-1(X) and d_k+1:C_k+1(X)->C_k(X)
the homology is the kernel of one modulo the image of the other
H_k(X,R)=ker(d_k)/im(d_k+1)
the immediate problem is that both ker and im are infinite dimensional so this isn't really computable
if the sequence is exact you get the trivial group
but it does work as a definition and you can show this has nice properties
?
right yeah
idk when that would happen
so it's measuring the failure of the sequence C_k+1(X)->C_k(X)->C_k-1(X) is exact at C_k
when things are boring and sad
well so what would it mean if it's exact there it's like
somehow this is telling you about k-dimensional holes in your space
nah this stuff is all very well understood
What is the (topological) Chiral Homology?
the way things are defined with singular homology makes things sound impossible to compute, but for instance if you fix a triangulation of your space there is another definition that only involves finite dimensional vector spaces and gives you the same answer
āMuh topological arms are so continuital!ā Smh do probability problems instead
you kind of actually need topology to do probability
the tradeoff is like, okay great now you have a theory that involves finite dimensional objects but now it's not so clear how this depends on the choice of triangulation, it doesn't work for topological manifolds that don't admit triangulation, maybe you're working with a space you don't understand well enough to fix a good triangulation, etc
So you say Iāve been doing topology all this evening?
hm
the same kind of tradeoff happens for de Rham cohomology also: the spaces of differential forms there are also infinite dimensional since they involve spaces of smooth functions
so how does our boundary homology relate to the exterior derivative
So math not only has smooth brains, but smooth functions?
the relation is like
please stop disrupting the conversation
we defined homology H_k(X,R), cohomology H^k(X,R) is dual to this
ah
you play the same game in reverse, you have cochain groups C^k(X)=C_k(X)* (dual space)
counting down the seconds until this somehow becomes nG explaining sheaf cohomology
and coboundary maps going the other way
so
Iām too interested in smooth functions
what's a cochain
a cochain here is a functional on chains
hm
so an element of the dual space C_k(X)*
that is a linear function C_k(X)->R
the main example of such a linear function is integrating a k-form \omega
you get a linear function sending k-chains to the integral of \omega over that k-chain
sure, but we only care about what happens on cohomology in the end
the claim is that we've produced a map H^k_dR(X)->H^k(X,R) that sends the class of a k-form \omega to this linear function defined by integration, and this map is an isomorphism
for the boundary maps on cochains
H^k_dR(X) you also do the same kernel modulo image thing, now with the exterior derivative on differential forms
or something to that effect
a priori these two groups H^k(X,R) and H^k_dR(X) have nothing to do with each other
we've defined a map from one to the other using integration
oh i see
H^k_dR(X) is the kernel of d:\Omega^k->\Omega^k+1, modulo the image of d:\Omega^k-1->\Omega^k, so elements are equivalence classes of k-forms
ohh
so these live in very different spaces
so it's sort of a miracle that you end up with the same cohomology theory in the end
what does this equivalence relation look like intuitively
or is it not intuitive
no no it's intuitive it's like
two k-forms \omega_1 and \omega_2 are equivalent if they differ by an "exact k-1 form", that is there exists a k-1 form \alpha such that \omega_1=\omega_2+d\alpha
hm
I mean this is what it means to take the quotient by im(d)
yeah
it might not be easy to verify this in practice!
like how do you actually find this \alpha, idk

H^0_dR(X) are precisely the locally constant functions on the manifold
and the homology group corresponds to the connected components of the manifold
it's kinda hard to visualize
as you've noted for functions it's essentially the derivative
yeah
this is sort of dodging the question but idk that I usually go about trying to visualize this in general
the other answer is like, you can say what d\omega is if you can say how to integrate it
and then yeah the relation between the exterior derivative and the boundary map is exactly Stokes's theorem
wait what is the coboundary
for singular cohomology we have the coboundary maps C^k(X)->C^k+1(X)
that are dual to the boundary maps on C_k
I'm going to sleep, thanks all for the discussion!
so what's so bad about being able to integrate 2 dimensional quantities on 3 dimensional manifolds?
I don't get how you're defining it lol
simple, the same way we defined it with reals way back in the beginning

you have a value for the function over a sufficiently small area
and you multiply it by the sufficiently small area
okay
idk I've never run into a situation where I was like "dang if only differential forms could do that"
like can you give me an actual example
where you would use this

I mean I can come up with an example where k and m don't match, but not with 2 and 3 like I said
I mean one thing that's bad about this is that it's very clearly not compatible with cohomology
unless you want a bunch of things to be 0
yet another L for GA!
Is the GA joke about how elements of a GA can be non-homogeneous and that has no physical meaning?
in classical mechanics the faraday field is non-homogeneous

bro are you doing ok? all the sonnets youve been submitting in sonnetchat have a tone of sombre resignation
10750
1295
idk ng, it seems to play out the same way in cohomology
Anyone here good at chem
There is a chemistry server linked in #old-network
worst case scenario we just agree to be as weak as differential forms and then we can do the cohomology stuff
again I don't think I've ever run into a situation where this is necessary
I'd love to hear of a situation where this actually matters
so that's why you guys only integrate k-forms on k-dimensional spaces
to do anything else requires a metric
right, and GA is sort of a sneaky way to try to avoid this
What? Metric is in the name
I mean, I see what you're saying, why someone could be misled
You need a quadratic form to construct a Clifford algebra lol
$\operatorname{Cl}(V)\coloneqq T(V)/(v\otimes v-q(v))$
I hate Clifford algebras I hate Clifford algebras I hate Clifford algebras
Icy001
My Lie groups class did spin geometry
And these dudes were like the bane of my existence
Classify all of them over R 
yes
Something you can learn from that class is to say that the spin group is the double cover of the orthogonal group over and over
Yeah
^ is this a bot shilling NFTs
yes
banned
ty for the report
as an fyi: do not invest in anything, crypto-related or otherwise, that you found on discord.
and i mean absolutely anything.
even if it isnt a scam (which is very very unlikely), have you seen the intelligence of the average discord user? you really expect these people to have good financial advice?

crypto?? isnt that the ice type pokemon
(please do not ban me i am not an nft bot)
Ima nft bot
cope
no
I just wanna vent that uni calculus is obliterating me. I already started my course with little confidence in my math skills because my foundations suck and I get anxious around math. Now my class is pulverising the little foundations I did have 
I got by in high school but I wasn't a stellar or olympiad student
I'm trying to assess my situation and from what I can tell I'm ill equipped with math study skills itself
I can see how the problems are different in high school vs now as well. It's much more rigorous now and less "mechanical"
olympiad math has nothing to do with uni math
People are using them as a metric for our exam difficulty "even the Olympiad kids found it hard"
lmao that's stupid
Honestly the issue with most calc courses is that the teachers don't put in the effort to make good lectures
The content isn't even that bad
It's just poor profs / TAs
I feel that, they make lectures on how to solve very small individual pieces but exams and hw are just a palimpsest of materials in a small amount of time. I guess they could argue they don't want to be handholding us?
As a grad student who has taught calculus, a lot of people struggle because of poor foundations
That seems to be my problem
You can use khan academy to brush up
Khan academy doesn't work for me unfortunately but I do like textbooks and professor Leonard
Oh ok as long as you have the resources
It's a combination of both
I've seen some awful calc profs / TAs
Lack of foundation is an inevitable issue considering how poorly we pay elementary/middle/high school profs
Yeah a lot of students experience this learning curve of a transition from mechanical thinking to more creative and problem-solvingy thinking. It's a tough hurdle to cross and the best things you can do are talk to a lot of people (this is a good space for that, also study groups and such with your classmates) and practice. it does start to feel natural and instinctive! but there's no way to avoid the time it takes to get that way.
Poor foundations do not make a profs life easier tho, I agree with that part
The study group part is so important
Cause very likely you aren't the only one struggling
Also take advantage of office hours (meaning start your HW early so that you have the opportunity to go to OH)
And I hear that it's so awkward to ask people if they want to get together and work on stuff especially if you feel behind, but literally every time i do this the person is like "omg yes im so glad someone else asked"
Lol
I really want to join a study group but y'all the institute at my uni makes us sign with ink on paper that we will not be sharing any part of our homework and will not ask for any form of help from another person or calculator
And also we can't share course materials
Even the module screenshots
your institute is dumb
That's so fucking dumb lol
Hello
Hi
How are u
Fine, what about you?
Great
Welcome to the math cat server
category theory
not excluding that
none of this is (not) abstract nonsense
it's general abstract nonsense
could anyone whos good with graph theory here send me a dm pls

what theorem is that actually? it kinds reminds me of the 1st isomorphism theorem
the... 1st isomorphism theorem

wow
Lol
otherwise better known as discussion's greatest moment
hey don't blame me I still haven't taken a full algebra course
Discussion question: The real functions of a variable that express the displacement (velocity or acceleration) of a body as time passes defined on the interval "A", A included in R, are all these functions continuous?
For example, if f is not continuous at x=a because , in this case, f(a) is different than lim x-> a+ , we would be saying that "the body teleported" since the displacement.
(assume that the function is the sign function, the domain is all R positive and zero) The image of 0 is 0, but the image of values āāgreater than zero start to be 1. This means that the body has moved 1 meter (or 1 inch, the units don't matter). So we would be indicating that the function represents an impossible phenomenon (that the body has teleported).
Another case to analyze:
If we assume that all functions are continuous we could now ask what happens with differentiability.
We know that continuity is a necessary condition, but it is not enough that f is continuous to say that it is differentiable.
In many cases, there are graphs that represent velocity or displacement (lines with slopes 0, other lines with positive and other negative slopes). These graphs can come from a function defined by parts, where each part is a line. The function is continuous but not differentiable. It is not differentiable because it is not differentiable at some points, those points where each part of the graph begins and ends (if we study lateral derivatives we see with the naked eye that they are different, and if we do it analytically we arrive at different derivatives too)
:eeyes
hey quick question
how do you give someone kuddos on this discord? There's a bot command that gives someone some points
someone just helped me out in a big way and I want to recognize them š
I don't think there is one
Yeah, there isn't a mechanism in place for rep
oh I gotcha
Yeah the Helpful role is the only award for helping out
Do you have to be a Helper to get the Helpful role?
no
why do we say mathematician and not mathologist?
Because we are considered artists not scientists
Or something idk thats the pretentious answer
Physicists aren't physologists
dam youre right
Chemists
Im sure this is partially historical too
like being "a person who does math" has been around for a lot longer than some other fields
Probably similar to how physician comes from physiology, mathematics to mathematician
I think this is close to the truth. -ist means practicer rather than researcher and itās likely the case that math was initially seen as a tool rather than a field of study
mathematician seems pretty unique though, I can't think of any other fields where a practicer or expert is an "atician"
Aesthetician
quit disproving by counterexample 梦å¢åęµ
Statistician
god damnit
I think the -atic- part shouldn't be taken along for the ride since it's part of 'mathematics'
Lol
im a swagician
Physician ends in -ian, wouldn't make sense to call them Physaticians
ah true yeah
It could be a relic from Latinās mathematici
mathist
Is MIT 18.01 a good introduction to calculus?
yes
MIT is a dodgy institution but that course is good š
Why is MIT dodgy
bottom tier
weird students
lots of their funding comes from making bombs to explode in other countries
MIT is dogshit
oh
when i was a highschooler
MIT was the pinnacle
good to know i didnt miss much
in terms of reputation

@bronze pelican I was being sarcastic
Ryc wasnt
Huh
hi
Hi
tony stark moment
Unfortunately weapons have to be made.
Human race isn't a Kardashev type I civilisation.
Another MIT simp joins the masses.
@deep mango I think the most interesting things I've seen come out of universities in Japan and Nordish countries
Japan seldom brags though.
MIT just likes to brag constantly.
I agree with that
I mean I'm mostly thinking from a perspective of their undergrad program, the people I know who went and the policies I know they have
It's obviously good but it is put on an unreasonable pedestal
I would suggest that I don't care where research comes from so much as who it comes from (in terms of research groups and academic networks). I don't feel like MIT is connected in any way to any of the fields that I interact with, which is odd, because they have faculty working in those fields.
I don't like FAANG companies at all.
To me that says something about the school.
Yes I mean, I can't say a ton because I went to Berkeley which is a silicon valley feeder and now I'm at NYU which is a wall street feeder
I'm aussie our universities operate very differently.
But I didn't feel like berkeley was elitist at all. Stanford gets that mantle
Ive heard
There isn't really any "curriculum" most of your learning forces you to be absolutely independent.
You are given due dates, tutorial material, lectures
If you show up or not they don't care.
It's a bit like British education system
Harsher and less emphasis on getting rolling pissed as a nit
Also you aren't allowed to pad your course with useless shit like in America.
Plenty of lazy dead beats though.
Oh I've read my fair share of what happened when the rich kids were all incredibly dumb and had a smile on my face.
Lol
Yea you can definitely do that
And it was written in black and white by the FBI's internal offices (Rich kids dumb)
Here
Even though the cheating they did, said they were super smart.
Getting a car because you passed Precalc lame.

Whats your field of research?
I couldn't be bothered with a PhD...
Also it doesn't pay well...
I'll stick to Software and Computer engineering.
Wtf, people go to mit to go to FAANG?
Famazon
Amazon
Amazon
Nozama
Gamazon
And any creative or technical work you do on company time they can appropriate.
Amazon has literally stolen from people who worked on company systems at work
And they found out about "their project"
and stole it.
FAANG companies are parasites.
Mathematical fluid dynamics
I don't understand people that go to top schools just to have a regular ass job in industry
What else are you supposed to do with a bachelor's lmao
Grad school?
Some people need to get jobs for financial reasons
Well yeah but there are lots of people who don't want to go to grad school
I'm more an applied math / physics / engineering type.
Yeah, but like
Don't group physics and engineering with applied math š¤
Couldn't they have gotten the same thing with a school that's less expensive?
Probably
it's not always a choice
Anyone good at physics here?
no one
Really good engineers actually understand the math.
Unlike a lot of them that say "I took differential equations and have no idea what I learned"
Are people who want jobs not allowed to get high quality educations
Also important to remember that a lot of people think they want to do research before undergrad because they have no idea what they're talking about decide they don't once they actually do it
Maybe I am just referring to the old benchmark for engineers, many gears ago back in the 50's where it was a very high benchmark for engineers at the time.
Engineers proving things: take Taylor series and set everything but the first term to zero
@bronze wedge I like the theoretical things I just care about their physical application.
Unless I can "do" something with it, I don't want to know.
Taylor series is used a lot in CS
For proving Algorithmic complexity.
Infinite series and closed / open form equations for function growth.
(Don't tell the computer scientists complexity is just analysis under the hood)
It is...
Not only diff equations but the whole course lmao
Doesn't bother me, spade is spade, shovel is a shovel.
Time to apply nonstandard analysis to complexity
do we use volumetric density for 3 dimensional objects?
Volumetric density? What in the context of material / atomic weight?
and space between the atoms?
it's dead š
X for doubt
Oh it's for fluid dynamics.
I thought ivies and such didn't necessarily have a higher educational quality
Objects? In what way, density refers to the amount of stuff in a given volume
It was mostly just prestige
They probably have a better education experience
And networking
Like smaller class sizes
Higher the density more mass there is in a smaller volume
They also don't necessarily have trashy education quality, fwiw.
I mean, obviously
@midnight prairie Same thing, density is volume in a given mass.
E.g a block of lead is heavier than say a block of steel for the same volume
Volumetric mass density is mass per fluid unit volume.
So if it's a cube it's still going to be the same, then again it would be dependent on the properties of whatever you are putting in that liquid as well
So just general volume
Yep
density = mass / volume
Re-arrage the equation d = v* m/v dv = m/d
so v = m/d mass / density
Rho is the symbol you were looking for
YES
Isn't rho also used in electricity
@neat lintel hello
@neat lintel is impulse I= F . delta T
Or change in momentum= F . Delta T
Oh wait fuck both the are the same things
bruh
@flat harbor where r u š¢
Literally 3:30 am blo time
Lol
Common sense and courtesy
no i wont leave my favourite people alone
its 330 tho wut?
Dummy
+8 only? damn
For Christmas I can wish for many books from Springer. Which ones would you recommend?
why the sully...
Asking for random books?
Asked it there.
noice
I feel like this is a perfectly valid discussion topic lol
Basically yes. Especially books for undergrad meaning from say second year to masters sixth year. I'm looking for the absolute classics almost anyone would recommend.
Absolute classics? Every Bourbaki book š¤”
Yes, because (1) I can filter and (2) I can make a big wishlist.
EGA
@jovial ember might unironically learn french for ega
You donāt need to learn French
You just read EGA
And learn how to read French math by reading French math
dang
Iām completely serious
tried reading hartshorne but the exercises were killing me with the little exposition
might try that then
This is how I've learned English and how I'm currently learning French maths.
Reading EGA isnāt really gonna fix that
If you want a companion to Hartshorne try Mumfordās red book or Bosch Algebraic Geometry and Commutative Algebra
EGA is not easier than Hartshorne and the idea that it is because it doesnāt have exercises and that the proofs are complete are by ppl who havenāt tried reading it
Thereās kinda no getting around just struggling for a while
how long did you spend on problems before giving up
Like days
oh
I would regularly spend over like 4 hours on one
chm is where the biggest problems at
i need to just put my head down and try harder then


Unironically yes, sorry
I mean
Try some other things too like
Theyāll have some useful stuff that really shouldāve been in Hartshorne
But at a certain point you just have to do hard math
And struggle
yea i agree
chm wheres the m gone in your name
I gave it to Shamrock
Yeah
cool
We went to university together
oh thats nice
how did he convince you lmao
Well he started an algebra study group I joined
Before this he helped me when I was starting off in my analysis class cuz I didnāt know how to prove shit
Then at the end of the year we decided to study something, him, me, and another friend
I think he wanted to do homological algebra actually?
But the other friend wanted to do AG so I just went along with it
I hated AG at first btw
Lmfao
Homo alg would have been boring for you ptobably
if youre not seeing applications
No wait he wanted to do AT
I had already seen homological algebra
That group was very weird
The second quarter had module theory and ring theory and Galiās theory
And I ended up like, proving the snake lemma with Sham
Chmonkey lore
@hollow sundial you didnt help me btw my friend showed me the steps taken instead of giving me math lore from wikipedia
Lmfao
What does this mean
@hollow sundial not doing what hes paid to do
got me more confused than before
Does riemann use he him pronouns
but my friend sent the work so now i understand it
I went through and read it
Who cares his name is male
?
Lmfao
tldr?
Iām pretty sure Riemann is he/him
What does this mean
that guy is mad cuz bad
And the question was factoring
And Riemann said it didnāt disappear, it just was factored
how not
Thatās a single operation
ax + ay = a(x+y) ?
Yes
rip
Thereās no intermediary step
idk what my friend showed m then but its correct still
ax + ay = ay + ax = a(y + x) = a(x+y)
In mathematics, the distributive property of binary operations generalizes the distributive law, which asserts that the equality
is always true in elementary algebra.
For example, in elementary arithmetic, one has
One says that multiplication distributes over addition.
This basic property of numbers is part of the definition of most algebraic ...

ill send that to everyone that asks for simple math steps and compliment myself
waw, history right here
anyways, ax + ay = a(x+y) is indeed a property
that you kindof take for granted
you can verify it with some actual numbers if u want.
@red kelp why are you still talking about me. You're just being rude or obsessed with me
@hollow sundial come to discussion more often
i thought the convo ended
riemann do you use he/him pronouns
helping ppl >.>
Says conversation ended. Still proceeded to send 10 messages about me
Yes
Man they really teach lore in all the math classes.
You see, the conversation with did end
But they wanted a conversation with the manager
Change your name DarK.
Why?
Because itās not funny.
Are you aggravated?



