#math-pedagogy
1 messages · Page 17 of 1
Well, in the category I’m thinking of
It just says that if m and n are nonnegative integers, then $m | n \iff \forall d \in \mathbb{Z}_{\geq 0}, d | m \implies d | n$
Pseudonium
We’ve applied this with $m = \text{gcd}(a + 2b, 2a + b)$ and $n = 3$
Pseudonium
can you explain what the lemma is in general and how you're applying it to this problem? just for my own edification
um…
it’s gonna be a little difficult to explain what it is in general
unless you already know what categories and functors and natural transformations are?
If you’re comfortable with category-theoretic terminology I can say
Using $\to$ for divides for the moment, #math-pedagogy message says
[(m\to n)=\prod_{d:\bN}\prod_{d\to m}d\to n.]
More generally for any contravariant functor $G$
[G(m)=\prod_{d:\bN}\prod_{d\to m}G(d).]
This formulation is sometimes called the Ninja yoneda lemma using ends (which I wrote as products)
( https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Yoneda_lemma#In_terms_of_(co)end_calculus )
In mathematics, the Yoneda lemma is a fundamental result in category theory. It is an abstract result on functors of the type morphisms into a fixed object. It is a vast generalisation of Cayley's theorem from group theory (viewing a group as a miniature category with just one object and only isomorphisms). It allows the embedding of any locally...
Icy0
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ok im back
and lets pretend i have no clue what a category is
is there an eli5 to help me understand why thinking about it in terms of categories is useful or generalizes to other applications?
hmm so
im not sure how else I would’ve done the problem by the proof method I presented
without using universal properties?
because we had to convert a single divisibility statement into 2
and also convert 2 into 1
which is exactly what the universal property talks about
though - I didn’t explicitly mention categories, did I?
nope
the idea of a universal property is the takeaway, I’d say
also the universal property sounded like you just pulled it from thin air, but to me it feels like a common sense statement about gcd that is "obviously true"
ahhh ok so this problem motivates the idea of a universal property?
it sounded like I pulled it from thin air?
yeah like you just started with it
in the sense that given the eli5 definition of gcd, it follows logically almost trivially, intuitively
yes
ok that’s good
it turns out like
loooots of things in maths have a universal property
and you can use it to help you in problems
e.g. the universal property lets you define gcd for multiple integers
say for 3 integers
given m, n, k, the gcd is the unique integer satisfying
$\forall d \in \mathbb{Z}_{\geq 0}, d | m \wedge d | n \wedge d | k \iff d | \text{gcd}(m, n, k)$
Pseudonium
and in fact, using the universal property, you can show this exists
gcd(m, n, k) = gcd(gcd(m, n), k) = gcd(m, gcd(n, k))
and you can extend this to arbitrarily many integers too
ok but what other kinds of objects have this universal property thing
all i have right now is gcd
that is quite an underwhelming example
the lowest common multiple is the unique nonnegative integer satisfying
i would be surprised if it didnt have a universal property if gcd has one
$\text{lcm}(m, n) | k \iff m | k \wedge n | k$
Pseudonium
You also have union and intersection of sets
Also the product of sets
And groups
And topological spaces
As well as the disjoint union of sets
The free product of groups
ok, that one is slightly more interesting, and seems to draw a more clear picture of what a universal property is
So for union
The universal property is $A \cup B \subseteq C \iff A \subseteq C \wedge B \subseteq C$
Pseudonium
So, given groups G and H
You can form a group called the “direct product”, G x H
it satisfies the following universal property
take some other group Z
then group homs Z -> G x H correspond bijectively to pairs of group homs Z -> G and Z -> H
what G x H “does” is let you collapse 2 group Homs into one
much like how gcd lets you collapse 2 divisibility statements into 1
and also go back
$\cap$
Pseudonium
the universal property of intersect is $A \subseteq B \cap C \iff A \subseteq B \wedge A \subseteq C$
CosmoVibe
Exactly!
and the reason these "universal properties" are cool
isnt just the generalization of them
but also that they can help syntactically attack proof problems
Yep
Mhm
seems reasonable
is there a more like elementary math example of them besides gcd/lcm
and union/intersect
lets say pre univ or at least undergrad
cartesian product of sets maybe?
Yep
i have no idea which topics are "pre-univ or undergrad"
Also the universal property of subsets and quotients
ok sureeeee but now im wondering what kind of problem involving cartesian products would benefit from this
Well I have a classic one from topology
quotients?
For Cartesian products of topological spaces
Yep these have a universal property too
how about ``$(A \times B) \times C \cong A \times (B \times C)$''?
bee [it/its]
oh! interesting
they're isomorphic because a map from a set $Z$ into either of them is just maps $Z \to A$, $Z \to B$, $Z \to C$
bee [it/its]
Proving gcd(m, n, k) = gcd(gcd(m, n), k) = gcd(m, gcd(n, k))
It’s basically the same proof
gcd and Cartesian products of sets
Are very different things
But it turns out they “do” similar things
Let you interconvert between 2 arrows and 1
yeah the associativity of gcd/lcm, union/intersection, cartesian product of sets, even disjoint union of sets, are all actually special cases of the same theorem
Mhm
i have an intuition for this, but the form of the proof is not something im used to, would you be able to write up a very clear explanation of this?
ah wait im confusing myself
i need to first figure out the univ prop of cartesian products
Right
It’s the following
Given sets A and B
You can form the Cartesian product A x B
It has the following universal property
Given some other set Z
Functions from Z -> A x B correspond bijectively to a pair of functions Z -> A, Z -> B
ahhhhhhhhhh ok
You can use this to show preimage preserves every set operation you could think of
Union
Intersection
Complement
Set difference
Symmetric difference
There’s one proof that shows these are all stable under preimage
In fact, the same proof shows that any collection of Venn diagram regions is stable under preimage
...well given that that's not true i'm now rather curious what proof you're imagining
Wait it’s not true?
i was gonna say that it sounds fishy
wait no hang on maybe i'm wrong
surely there are nonreversible set operations
Give me an example?
Lol
ok the counterexample i had in mind doesn't make sense (i was taking the preimage of something that's not actually a function)
ok i can see it now but
still seems pretty abstract
and i definitely dont see any point of bringing in yoneda for that problem
we solved it without it
solved what without it?
Oh, preimage also satisfies its own universal property
Which connects it to direct image
namely, that $A \subseteq f^{-1}(B) \iff f(A) \subseteq B$
Pseudonium
why is that a universal property
that doesnt look like combining or splitting of statements
A universal property in general means
“Arrows into your object have a nice alternative description”
Or “arrows out of your object have a nice alternative description”
At least the way I use it
ok i guess thats the category theory talking
So, arrows into the preimage have a nice alternative description
As arrows out of the direct image
It’s a kind of “mutual universal property”
You can use this to show direct image preserves unions
Let me know if you do find a counterexample
But uh given that I think I have a proof
I don’t think you will..
im also happy to give the proof if you want
-_-
Is it fair to say that one of the main reasons fractions are hard is that it’s the first time you might meet an equivalence relation?
In the 1980s, A&W tried to compete with the McDonald’s Quarter Pounder by offering a bigger, juicier ⅓ lb. burger at the same price. But confused consumers wrongly assumed that ¼ was bigger than ⅓ (You know, because 4 is bigger than 3) and the whole experiment went down in history as a huge marketing fail.
Well, Rooty has been crunching the nu...
not really
i do agree with you that this is one of the first times that an equivalence relation is taught in school, but I think that fractions are just hard because students don't understand that finding sums and differences and products of fractions are extremely connected to that equivalence relation
I am just speaking from my anecdotal evidence here^ I used to tutor students who were behind in algebra 1, and some of them really had a hard time adding fractions, and I found that showing them a picture and having them do practice adding them with the visual aids often worked
what kind of picture? pies? or number line
boxes with dividing lines, you can make this as interactive as you want, but I find fractions as literal objects to be nice as well, get scissors out and cut them up with the student yk
or split up chocolate etc
oh right ok so sorta like number blocks
yeah i think if one had disposable number blocks that you could cut up or found an appropriate way to separate them to think about fractions that could work. I am partial to chocolate because I really like chocolate, and students find it fun
🍫
Hmm, so without the picture, what problems arise when adding fractions?
i posted an answer that you responded to previously, and based on what i wrote i disagree, because i think its due to the fact that even say adding/subtracting fractions requires a huge number of technical steps that require both conceptual understanding and muscle memory (memorizing times tables)
but even if your answer does get to the heart of labeling the most difficult aspect of it as an "equivalence relation", i think especially when referring to a more basic concept like fractions, it helps more to describe what is happening in the brain than the math itself. none of the students learning fractions will understand what an "equivalence relation" is, so it is not helpful in describing what is hard about them. we dont say that students struggle with counting because it's the first time they encounter recursion on omega
trying to describe whats going on in the students' heads helps you more clearly understand what is it about an equivalence relation that you think is so difficult for students to grasp
i also dont think it is the first time they encounter equivalence relations, pretty sure equivalence relations start as early as addition, as (a,b) -> a+b, dont see what makes division special here
Well it’s like
Addition can also be viewed as a function
Fractions feel more like an actual equivalence relation
Oh yeah, I wouldn’t start by saying “ok everyone you’ve gotta be careful about the equivalence relation we’re using”
It’s more for discussing amongst people who teach fractions
At the elementary school level, the rationals should not be presented as something we create with equivalence relations and whatnot. They're just points on the number line that are already there, which we find a useful (?) way to speak about as the result of certain division operations. In that view it shouldn't be more mysterious that 4/6 = 6/9 than it is that 2+3 is also 4+1.
Right, so you’d recommend thinking of fractions in terms of lengths?
Yeah, I think that's the primary intuition.
Got it
Yeah, and I don't think most people teach fractions in school in terms of equivalence relations, but I think it's a valid point the equivalence relation is still there even if we don't talk about it explicitly.
So different symbols will represent the same fraction, such as 3/6 and 1/2
I'm not exactly familiar with the order of elementary math education, but this might be the first time students encounter this kind of situation.
Yeah whereas with integers, there’s always a canonical base-10 way to write them down
Do they usually teach division before fractions?
And you don’t really need to convert to a different representation before adding, subtracting or multiplying
Whereas for fractions, sure there’s a canonical representation where the denominator is positive and coprime to the numerator
But you can’t just use this representation for doing fraction arithmetic
yeah, and then it's division with remainder.
Hmm I think I dimly remember when I was in primary school there was a sequence in the textbook entitled "number names" which tried to teach us that "2+3" could itself be a name for the number that "5" is also a name for.
I suppose that was an attempt to prepare us for the situation with fractions where the only way to speak about some numbers is to state an arithmetic operation that produces it.
Sounds clever, because the general thing that's needed here is being prepared to express the same thing in various ways.
Whether or not that's how it's done will probably hugely depend on country and generation
The difficulty in distinguishing between a number and its representation is very common, as evidenced by the recurring "is 0.999.... the same as 1" discussions.
Also it only just occurred to me, after all those years, that the Polish word for "fraction" has exactly the same etymology as in English ("ułamek" from "łamać", which is "to fracture")
Neat
It helps that even among the naturals there are usually numbers that you can only speak about by describing a canonical computation that computes them. E.g. if you add nine to twelve and want to speak aloud the number you get in German, you'll find yourself saying, quite literally, one+twenty.
really think this should be emphasized, because i think this is not only useful for fractions, but also expressions in general
i cant even begin to describe how many times i got students who were able to distribute
c(a+b)
but not
(a+b)(a+b)
just because they couldn't yet understand to treat (a+b) as a "name" for c
really really excellent tip
This is fascinating to me
I think there was a convo here a while ago about how “substitution” seems to be a difficult concept to grasp
It’s actually related to a few things
Difficulties with substitution make function evaluation hard
It makes what you said about distributivity hard
And it’s also related to that lemma i talked about recently where all you needed to do was substitute d = m, but the student was unsure whether this was allowed
I think maybe I’ve heard this come up with the injectivity definition?
$\forall x, y, f(x) = f(y) \implies x = y$
Pseudonium
Where students are confused because “if x and y are the same, why did we use different letters for them”
So perhaps lots of this comes back to issues to do with variables and substitution?
Yeah I find that students really struggle with "dummy variables" from theorems. E.g. if you had a theorem involving two arbitrary functions f,g, and then you were given a problem to solve using that theorem but the functions in that problem are also called f,g and perhaps not playing the same roles as the f,g in the theorem. I've seen many students implode when faced with this
I see i see
Yeah i had an instance recnelet where a student here was confused about dummy variables in limits
Say in $\lim_{\Delta x \to 0}$
Pseudonium
Where they thought that this meant delta x was “infinitely small”
I said no, it’s always finite
Petition to teach first order sentence manipulation in high school
But their confusion was “if it’s finite, you should be able to quantify it. So how small is it?”
I’ve found that explicitly expressing things in terms of functions often helps eliminate confusions like these
To a quite surprising degree
Which comes back to my general suggestion to just use functions more as a tool for expressing ideas when teaching
I’ve always thought working with quantification (universal and existential) was thrown under the bus in math education for no good reason
Well I know the reason now; it's partly because it's unprecedented for appearing on a standard and partly because it would take creativity and original thought to figure out how to test it, whereas it doesn't take creativity and original thought to test a mechanical skill
And partly because, being precedented, there would likely not be consensus on the proposed ways to test it
What do you mean by this?
Universal quantification = for all [dummy variable]
Existential quantification = there exists [dummy variable]
oh I know what universal and existential are lol
i mean, in what sense do you think they’re thrown under the bus?
and what would you prefer?
It's never taught, only left implicit and for the (top x% of) students to infer, if lucky
it’s never taught?
Implementing a change like that would take some thought but
teach first order sentence manipulation in high school
might be a place to start
what is that?
I won't try to speak for @modern trench
mhm
So pinging him
but - say you were tutoring someone
how would you explain universal and existential to them?
Through examples, probably
right..
Can't really say more, the path depends on how quickly they pick it up and where they get confused
Depending on path you'd move onto dissecting an example, showing more complex examples, playing games, or whatnot
i wonder if viewing it as a function could help too
Since the central new idea for the student to grasp here is dummy variables in language, what are you proposing to view as a function?
So
For both existentials and universals, you have to start with the idea of “proposition with a free variable”, right?
Yeah
Once you have that, you can then bind the variable to a quantifier to make a new proposition
So the idea is - a proposition with a free variable is a function $X \to {0, 1}$
Pseudonium
Where X is the collection that the proposition ranges over
You can substitute an input, and you get an output of “true” or “false”
Then, just type-wise, the idea of both existentials and universals is
A function $(X \to {0, 1}) \to {0, 1}$
Pseudonium
The input you have to give is a proposition with a free variable
And the output is a truth value
I’ve found a few times that replacing dummy variables with “take a function as input” helps more than you’d think
What universal does is look at the function and “AND” all the outputs
Whereas existentials “OR”s all the outputs
It's a nice proposal. Textbook writers should run A/B tests for it instead of doing nothing
For example, this is how i fixed the student’s confusion with limits
Instead of using dummy variables, i phrased it in terms of taking a function as input
This is the kind of thing i mean with using functions as a tool to express ideas
curious, what do you by it requires creativity and original thought to figure out how to test it? isnt it pretty easy to test?
(your opinion is probably more valid than mine since I have not taught)
I think first order sentence manipulation is pretty much mechanical though
What is this
Maybe it's easy for us but at the very least you can't use old test items as a template, for example
Like,
Given that [1st order sentence], [1st order sentence], and [1st order sentence] are true, which of the following must be true?
I'm doubtful it would do much good to teach first-order manipulations as a mechanical skill without also stressing the meanings of the sentences.
Ok what is a 1st order sentence
∀∃∧∨~φ()
Huh..
so for instance $\forall x (P(x) \to Q(x))$ is a first-order sentence
bee [it/its]
What makes it first order
Possibly with basic number theory or sets mixed in
the fact that there's no quantifiers over predicates or functions
that would be second-order
What’s a predicate..
φ
for instance $\forall P \exists x : P(x)$ is second-order because of the $\forall P$
bee [it/its]
well because, uh, $\forall$ and $\exists$...?
bee [it/its]
But why does first order matter
Because it helps a lot with logical thinking
I don't think anyone is proposing to teach the term "first-order", since students are not going to see higher orders anyway.
Isn’t this not first order by your definition
Yes this is one problem that teaching first order logic will solve
Huh…
...well almost all actual mathematical reasoning is done in first-order logic, given that afaik there isn't any sensible proof system for second-order logic that isn't actually first-order logic
Functions are sets not predicates
the functions are the objects in the domain
I’m just getting more and more confused..
ZFC is a first-order theory where the objects happen to be sets
And you say this is supposed to help with logical thinking…?
Nobody is saying that knowing the meaning of the term "first order" will help anyone with logical thinking.
Because logic is much much broader
I guess I just don’t get why first order is special
I'm specifying first order logic as the logic you need to do math
Because someone thought they were speaking to an audience who also knows higher-order logic and they wanted to reassure them that the higher order logic was not what they were proposing to teach in school.
So what about this is not math
The logic taught in any first year proofs and logic course is called first order logic
I don’t get that
I'm just trying to refer to that by name
You quantify over functions all the time
am i being adressed or are you making a point to someone
Oh sorry i may have accidentally pinged you
that is maths, being done in a first-order theory like ZFC, where there are objects that we happen to sometimes call "functions"
what's actually happening there is just quantifying over objects
“For all continuous functions f and g, f + g is continuous”
and then the theory also has a predicate named \in
Yes, and I'm saying we should teach quantifiers properly
That’s quantifying over functions
You. Are. Misundestanding. Their. Purpose. With. Saying. "First-order".
To be clear this is the definition of first-order I am using
Because it’s the one you gave me
They were just trying to say they were not proposing to teach the other hairy stuff that appears in techincal formal logic courses.
from the perspective of the logic, these things aren't functions, they're just objects
So functions aren’t functions???
You're not even listening, are you?
Functions in the usual sense is not predicate in the logic sense
ok let me give a different definition
It seems like you’re trying to tell me that functions aren’t functions
first-order logic is logic where the only type of quantifier is over objects
So I don’t know what you mean by function
Ok
So what counts as an object
A predicate isn’t an object…?
Ok..
first-order logic doesn't have a notion of "a thing not being an object", the objects are all that exists
Then why is it not all logic
This system is called first order logic
Because there's also a formalization of logic that treats functions and sets as distinct from obejcts.
Ok
There are many other logics
That is the formalization Arki was explicitly proposing not to teach.
This is a little difficult for me to grasp…
Then why’d they bring it up
Sigh.
they didn't, they brought up first-order logic
as the thing they were proposing to teach
But like why make the distinction that it’s first-order
Sigh.
Sigh?
It's the name of the system with ∀∃∧∨~φ, with excluded middle, modus ponens, etc
to indicate they are not proposing teaching higher order logic?
also "first-order logic" is a useful technical term even if you're not trying to distinguish it from higher-order logic
I thought that would be obvious
There are many different logics, and first order logic is one of them
Nobody is proposing teaching higher-order logic in school.
I guess I still don’t quite understand what the adjective “first-order” is doing there
like something like modal logic isn't exactly "higher-order", but it also isn't what the name "first-order logic" refers to
SIGH
But that’s fine im not a logician
it isn't
the entire name "first-order logic" is doing something
that's not the adjective "first-order" applied to the word "logic", that is a single morpheme, that sequence of words is itself a technical term
Why do you keep complaing about that word after you have been told a dozen times now what it means in the context?
That’s so weird..
just like someone might say we should teach more "naive set theory" in schools, it might be obvious to some that they dont mean ZFC set theory if they dropped the naive, but its a weird point to be stuck on that just because its "obvious" to some the adjective should be left out
Cause I thought it was an adjective
Whereas what they were describing just sounded like
Logic
I’m not even really sure what you mean by “a logic”
"logic" is used to refer to so many different things, and "first-order logic" is a useful way to refer to actually a very tiny slice of the things that people call "logic"
They were specifying which of the many kinds of logic they were proposing to teach!
nobody is, that's why we didn't just say "logic"
There are many kinds of logic?
The average proofs and logic class teaches first order logic and just calls it logic
there are so many things that get called logic and there isn't really any formalised common feature between them afaik
it's as vague as a word like "number"
I think maybe you were assuming I knew a lot more than I actually did
And your use of technical terms just confused me
Ok anyways, I'm proposing we teach manipulation of symbols ∀∃∧∨~φ in high school
how about $\to$ as well
bee [it/its]
Or hmm, could you be more specific with what you mean by “manipulation”?
And - maybe try to avoid first-order..
Yes, but you have been spending an inordinate amount of energy complaining about the words it was said with.
If not even rephrasing it to not use the words you object to will satisfy you then what on earth will?
Know what the sentence intuitively means, and whether or not there is an implication between two sentences
Lol why are you so annoyed
An example…?
Sorry what you’re saying is just
A little abstract for me to grasp
You're the one who has been spending half an hour on throwing a tantrum about "first-order", and you call me annoyed?
What counts as a “manipulation”?
I’m not throwing a tantrum?
I’m just asking what first-order meant
.
would you propose simple deductions?
yes and you spent half an hour asking it
Ok could you give an example of this?
Cause I was confused for half an hour?
And ignoring all the explanations you get?
I wasn’t ignoring?
The issue was that you said you’re not allowed to quantify over functions
ah i just saw your own msg you replied to
But your use of function was different to my understanding of the term
And to be honest im still not sure what you mean by the term function
"Does ∀x∃y.φ(x,y) imply ~∀x∃y.~φ(x,y)?"
Yes, perhaps at an appropriate level of difficulty
I don't want people memorizing names like modus tollens or disjunctive syllogism though
(i don't
i don't have a definition that classifies all things into "function" or "not function", there is a type of thing named "a quantifier over functions", which obeys different logical rules to "a quantifier over objects", and which does not exist in first-order logic)
I think I remember modus ponens
Otherwise it's just circle geometry all over again
Ok then maybe you can see why I was confused
If you can’t even tell me what the words you’re using mean
...
modus tollens: given "if p then q" and "not q" infer "not p"
disjunctive syllogism: given "p or q" and "not p" infer "q"
Oh ok cool
it doesn't really matter what exactly they are though, the point is that they're technical words for extremely obvious principles and memorising them is not useful at all for actual reasoning
in fact i had to look up what the second one was, which really illustrates how pointless memorising it would be
So I guess… what you’re saying is that in order to teach quantifiers, we have to make questions involving quantifiers…?
We have to teach how to manipulate them at least
In order to each anything you need to have practice questions involving it?
Cause to me this seems obvious
But it seemed like maybe you had something more specific in mind
Yes, that is to teach quantifiers at all
Right
In high school
given that this took us half an hour i'm not convinced it was obvious actually? but alright sure
I think we can agree on that..
It seems more like a failure of communication between us
I think the statement “in order to teach something you should ask questions about it” is obvious
But it wasn’t clear to me that’s what you were saying
Mostly cause I didn’t (and probably still don’t) understand what first-order logic is
So I got hung up on that
Anyway I guess I should not look into logic lol
Seems like it’d just confuse me
Too category theory pilled
Probably the opposite
Does category theory make you worse at logic?
I mean, based on your explanations at least
Perhaps there are others which would work better for me
Nah was in jest
I see
clearly I have some communication issues with members of this server..
Anyway
So perhaps we should teach quantifiers and their manipulation in school
Seems to be the upshot
Yeah I mean the current system in the UK (atleast from my uni experience) was to bombard students with naive set theory in every module in first semester and prefix the first analysis course with baby first order logic (truth tables and whatnot)
I'm not sure we really ought to teach symbolic quantifiers in school, but perhaps more focus on navigating their natural-language equivalents might help some.
Hmm…
I remember going to the logic and set theory course at my uni in 3rd year
And they mentioned truth tables there
Otherwise I’m not actually sure they mentioned truth tables at uni explicitly
It was kinda just assumed knowledge?
Assumed from where?
Like school
I also remember that course did
Propositional logic vs predicate logic
But tbh I don’t remember the difference..
Though maybe that’s an example of what you mean of like
Different kinds of logic
Predicate logic has quantifiers, propositional logic doesn't.
See the issue is now like
I have an idea of what quantifier means
But im not sure if the way you’re using it is the same
So maybe im not sure what you mean by quantifier
Quantifiers are the \forall and \exists symbols.
After all I thought I knew what functions were but apparently there’s a different definition
Ok
And… ok so I guess predicate logic is the only kind that could be
Uh, first or higher order
Correct.
Since the other one doesn’t even involve quantifiers…
I don’t remember what order we did
To me first order just means like
First term in Taylor series
If you didn't learn a distinction, then without a doubt the predicate logic you learned was first-order.
How do you know that
Maybe I’d have to see an example of what higher-order logic even means..
Because I know higher-order logic, and it makes very little sense to teach it without explicitly contrasting it to the usual first-order logic.
Right
I guess I’ll probably never know what higher-order logic is
But apparently I don’t need to…?
First order = use quantifiers on variables
Second order = use quantifiers for sets
Third order = use quantifiers for sets of sets
Etc
The same way I can say "if you remember you learned some geometry, but you didn't learn of any distinction between solid geometry and plane geometry, then it was without a doubt plane geometry you learned".
So for example the least upper bound property is a second order property because it is a statement about "all sets of real numbers"
It's confusing Pseudonium that ZFC can quantify over sets and sets of sets just fine using just first-order logic.
(Which is not an unreasonable confusion, by the way).
Yeah
Yeah, ZFC has its own little internal idea of what a set is
There’s an idea of sets outside ZFC…?
I see I see
I mean you have a model for ZFC.
And if you want to reason about that model you kinda have to be outside it
Maybe we should move this to foundations
Probably. Tropos would probably also do a way better job at explaining than me
(moved to #foundations)
could you elaborate? i dont follow
Since there are no old test items on quantification they can base new questions off of, they will have to create some questions from scratch
we don't have any existing test questions about it
so you have to do at least something original, which is harder than copying what you were doing last year
ah i see
in that case though, is it really that difficult to make test questions for that?
Like I said, not for us
ahhhh
i actually had a massive pet project i was going to work on where i would create through both manual curation and custom tailored scripts and meta-scripts to collect and/or generate all kinds of math questions of all kinds
gonna at least add this topic to my notes in there
So what are your opinions on skipping pre-alg? Just learned that someone I know is planning to do so
imo that is a highly contextual question
it really depends on an individual basis
math, imo, is more of a "chain of prerequisites" than most other school subjects, so falling behind is pretty detrimental
so as long as they know the basics, should be fine
in general, however, i think pre-alg is more acceptable to skip than say geometry or pre-calc
Ok.
quite the opposite
categorical logic is really interesting. Moreover there’s curry howard lambek.
Oh wait yeah I remember hearing about categorical logic
why to not teach abstract definitions first (for example, some abstract algebra definitions, or more general theories) ?
and then go for examples by teaching the basic courses
namely to teach first real analisis, and then , with the foundation of real analysis doing more calculus ?(problem solving)
(assuming students have a good foundation in mathematics , and mathematical maturity , like math olympiad students)
Uh well i definitely know I would’ve struggled if it was done this way
I much prefer going from examples to abstraction than the reverse
Because it tends not to work that well
Why would you? I think learning things mostly as it has been historically evolved is alot more rewarding
Than going the other direction
Also the same problem I have for learning proof writing or reading them (like embrace the mistakes instead of hiding them)
Hmm is this really to do with history tho
No not at all, but I mean mostly how a certain concept evolved is better viewed sometimes historically imo
You get a sense of what motivated the people to study it
And sometimes even a better perspective too
Right that’s fair
I am thinking in this analogy,
suppose you are going to a safari and the definition of a fierce is given, then , when you are on safari, you see a tiger , and you are able to deduce is a fierce, then if you want to know more about a tiger you study the tigers,
then you continue going and you find a lion, know you know a lion is also a fierce, and so on and so on.
so , at the end , it doesn't mean not meeting lions or not meeting tigers, but once you meet, you dont memorize them as lions, or tigers, you memorize them as fierces, then if needed you make the distinction between a tiger , lion ,etc
I has been studying abstract algebra before university , so when I encountered function composition in a class, I realize in certain cases it is just a binary operation, so in this analogy fierce equals binary operation, lion equals composition
it is for some cases
Monoids!
Well I would not recommend teaching binary operations before function composition
why not?
Cause the former is too abstract
but what's the problem of being abstract?
In the same sense learning the generalized stokes theorem is too abstract if you haven’t learnt the prior stuff
If anything you’re losing stuff by doing this
why losing?
You might miss subtleties that for most people is only realized with small steps rather than taking big generalizing steps so to speak
As you may know, often when solving a problem, it’s easier to handle a smaller but easier problem
It’s hard
I think this is analogous to this
yeah abstraction can be helpful but i think you do also need to see concrete examples
yeah , but I am don't mean to skip less general theories, such like skiping what is being generalized , but , instead a proccess of
definition --> examples --> generalization
like you can often get intuition from playing with actual objects that you wouldn't come up with just by staring at a definition
Seeing definitions before examples often makes them feel unmotivated
instead of
examples --> generalization --> definition
At least for me
Like “why should I care about this definition”
So in your case, id be “ok why should I care about binary operations”
It just feels plucked from thin air
but if the students does know the teaching strategy, I mean, trusts that the work al ready done may be important
Welllll
Ironically I would say this process of dealing with it more concretely first actually helps one to later on start becoming more comfortable with not having intuition of abstract objects, I guess this is common for grad students
Didn’t work for me
i think it makes sense to put the definition "first" in the sense of like, "higher up the page", just so you have available the language you need when you then immediately start giving examples
In part this is why I switched to physics
Like I totally trust my professors knew what they were talking about
Just didn’t mean I knew what they were talking about
and also , despite being abstract, its still concrete, more concrete than intuition for example
if you try to give examples of binary operations without even having said what a binary operation is then it's going to be less clear what exactly the commonality between them you're trying to highlight actually is
i think "how concrete is intuition" is a type error
Sure, I get this
you can have intuitions about anything
But I feel like you would’ve seen lots of examples of binary operations beforehand
And then it’s just about giving a name to a pre-existing concept
Like you’ll at least have seen addition and multiplication
And subtraction
Sometimes the issue is not parsing the definition but understanding the definition
I am very familiar with this from trying to learn category theory
well that's what the examples are for
you parse the definition enough to know what type of object the examples are going to be, then look at examples to understand what the definition actually means
Right…
or, well, depends on the area
I guess I just prefer examples first
sometimes the thing you want to do with a definition is actually just prove some properties about it
But I know there are some people who genuinely prefer abstraction first
I met a bunch in my category theory class
imagine if I tell you a function is a machine , for example , or thinking it like a metaphor, like some physicist do,
vs telling you that a function is a type of set.
one is more intuitive and the other is more abstract, but functions as sets are more concrete , at least i think they are
Lol I prefer the first
I am a physicist after all
I think they’ve secretly grown to have this attitude thanks to being very concrete and so fourth early on, and built the comfort to think like this(?)
some objects are extremely difficult or impossible to give an example of in any useful sense
I have no idea how their brains work
Damn
Maybe it’s just too different to how mine works
why ? I mean which object?
Lol
Well I guess it’s just one aspect of mathematical maturity tbh
I guess I never reached this then
inaccessible cardinals (if any exist then you can define a canonical one, the first one, but this does nothing to help with building intuition)
free ultrafilters on N
Hm what if you’re overestimating this ability?
in general a lot of set theory is objects that exist but that you can't exactly write down
Wdym
Like, I don’t think there’s a level you reach so to speak, but only grow to get better at it if I can put it that way
but you can define them?
Well I always prefer concrete to abstract
sorry still havent studied set theory in so deep
So in that sense I’ve made no progress
yes
well in the sense that you can define what "an ultrafilter on N" is
then you have something concrete
you can't necessarily give a definition of any particular one
the definition
that's a very strange definition of "concrete"
that object is exactly what the definition is talking about
has any mathematician ever done anything that wasn't concrete, according to you?
Definitions don’t really feel concrete to me
I would say metaphors aren't concrete, but i dont konw if metaphors are really made by mathematicians , (instead of standard definitions)
also like, being able to give one particular example of a thing doesn't mean that the way it's specified is useful for anything whatsoever
Maybe our ideas of concrete and abstract are different. Casually using function terminology for people not used to them or even category theory lemmas on problems not meant for them certainly seems to highlight your skills; unless your overestimating the abilities of the ones you’re helping. Since to me atleast that’s a flavour of being abstract
for instance in L, there is a well-ordering of the entire universe, so for any type of object that exists, there is a first object of that type, by any particular choice of global well-ordering (there are several possible choices that behave quite similarly but are technically different)
I don’t think that counts as abstract though
but afaik there isn't anything useful you can say about, like, the $<_L$-first bijection between $\mathbb{R}$ and $\aleph_1$
bee [it/its]
it's a bijection between R and aleph 1, ...and that's about it
or that's not everything you can know but like, if you want to work out what value this bijection has at 0, i would be surprised if the answer is actually provable in ZFC, and also it would depend on how you defined the reals
this is not a concrete example in any sense that's useful for human intuition
isn't that a little extreme example?
this is pretty normal for set theory
there are a lot of types of object that, if you're in L, you can technically "give an example of" but in a way that leaves it completely unclear what any of its properties are, and in some other universes there are just no definable examples ("definable" in the formal logic sense of "specified by a formula" - so essentially you can't describe them)
but that's the reason why you can't just rely on definitions
but I was trying to say , that if you know what a possible definition could be.
then when you see it (in action) , maybe you are able to recognize it. (find examples)
so in terms of time, you can understand better a definition , just for knowing it before
it's the reason why you have to, sometimes, because sometimes examples don't usefully exist
Like I think I’m a little uncomfortable with the assertion that mathematical maturity = more abstraction
I don’t think abstraction should just be pursued for its own sake
Or that abstract = better
It’s just one aspect, it’s a lot more than that of course
I agree, mathematical maturity should mean you're more comfortable with abstraction and see where it's valuable, but abstraction isn't a goal I consider intrinsically worthy.
Right
I guess… I am a little more comfortable with abstraction than before
But it’s still easy for me to get overwhelmed by it
See, uh, people trying to explain higher-order logic to me..
like some things technically arguably "construct" the object that they claim to be proving the existence of, but with the resulting object being so complicated it's not actually useful for understanding the definition, except in the sense that any use of a definition helps with understanding it
Adjoint functor theorem comes to mind
I think human minds seem abstract in nature, the fact that we have something such as mathematics is amazing, and I think it’s due to the idea of abstraction in some sense
For me, it’s much more about the ability to choose when you want to be abstract and when you want to be concrete
And the ability to translate between them
Rather than saying “X perspective is the correct one”
but in the example you give, why to define something you dont know anything about , and you are not even sure if you are going to find it?
its like to define an animal which you are not going to see in the safari? right?
Surely part of the goal is to investigate an interesting definition
But how do you know the definition is interesting
well using things can still be useful even if you can never write down an example of one
Nonprincipal ultrafilters are very interesting
Because…?
it's like defining an animal that you will never see in the safari but that is still there and interacts with other animals
Historically the definitions usually come at the very end of some interesting particular concept or idea
Ultraproducts, stone cech, etc
then why you say it isnt concrete , for example that definition
even if you're only interested in the other animals, it's still useful to be able to predict how they respond to an animal that happens to be invisible
It is?
Definition and explicit construction are two different things
because i'm using the normal definition of "concrete" that's actually useful, instead of the definition by which all of mathematics is concrete
ohh
One can define the reals as "the unique complete ordered field"
But constructing (via Cauchy sequences / Dedekind cuts) it is another matter
Without a construction, it’s not clear to me such a thing exists
Another example might be real numbers that can't be described
Yeah though then you have to be careful
I keep hearing about these models where every real is describable

then , if there are objects which is hard to find examples, what different makes to begin with abstraction or not?
Beginning with abstraction feels unmotivated
(without skipping examples , same content , different order)
Is a big thing for me
We can prove objects exist and deduce properties about them without having to construct them explicitly
...well you have to begin with abstraction, because, what else is there? you can't give examples if that's impossible??
I mean in a sense this is already how it’s done in a math degree
Definition theorem proof definition theorem proof definition…
I don’t particularly like this way
But it’s the standard way
That's another matter though
but you doesn't beggin by mathematical analysis , then calculus, rather you do calculus then analysis
Otherwise why would you care about analysis
cause you priori know that it gives a better structure for calculus (or at least you trust)
How do I know that
If I don’t even know calculus
I think… maybe I have issue just trusting things blindly
I thought that’s not what you have to do in math
In math you can actually see why things are true
The scale of a whole course in analysis?
like on a smaller scale
sometimes when you read a proof it just starts doing something and you have no idea how it's relevant to the statement being proven
but if you just trust that it's going somewhere, you read through the proof and then you can see what it was all for
I guess..
I think sometimes it’s reasonable or possible to motivate an abstract definition through pure theory.
But in general this is not possible. Often definitions require elaborate constructions that do not build on previous theory motivations in any obvious way. Instead they are the abstraction because they work to describe all the examples we have in mind and not really for any other obvious reason.
Sometimes we can rationalize an “obvious” theoretical reason after the fact in an elegant manner. But the effectiveness of this is debatable, and by sheer fact of being afterwards is often ad hoc.
So very often, it is really good to start from the examples in mind then abstract away later.
I don’t tend to like those proofs much though
no , but i dont mean a big change or something like that, but instead, for example knowing from the beggining of calculus , that lebesgue integration is a thing, idk
Oh gosh
Constructing the lebesgue measure is awful
Riemann integral is so much simpler
I think both are hard.
It's simpler in principle, but so much more tedious to work with.
Yeah I don’t disagree
I just know that I would not have understood integration
If lebesgue was done first
In hindsight, I like the lebesgue measure better tbh. I’d start with riemann integral first since it’s simpler.
But I’d only do it for singlevariable then move on to lebesgue later.
Definition of Lebesgue measure:
The completion of the measure generated by μ([a,b]) = b-a
The idea is "simple" in the same sense as this
Yeah I don’t like that definition of the reals either
Lebesgue measure permits a very satisfying theoretical description once you have the concepts in place.
The unique translation invariant measure on R^n which evaluates to 1 on the unit cube.
Sure but I don’t know such a thing exists
Yeah that’s why we have to construct it.
The completion of that probably?
Idk who you heard it from
Some friends who did measure theory
I don’t think the outer measure construction is that awful. It’s just a particular variant of filling up a space with a bunch of little boxes.
but I dont mean to begin directly with abstraction , but instead, beginning with the purpose of abstraction, but intentionally, I mean warning students about the more general definitions first , so as the go in their studies , they can find the generalizations by themselfs
Lebesgue integral is very intuitive and pleasant to define and work with, the Lebesgue measure is a bit of a pain.
Right but the measure is necessary for the integral
Specifically, the outer measure is a very nice definition, but showing that it's a measure on a certain sigma-algebra, that's where the effort is
I can agree with that
But taht's the only tedious part really
Like I don’t want to have to take 5 lectures just to integrate polynomials
Outer measure is satisfying imo. Proving it has the properties we want can be difficult.
And you only need to do it once
But that’s just rigorous mathing lol.
Then you can just bask in the joys of Lebesgue integration
Proofs aren’t always easy
Does that description really force us to use the entire Lebesgue measure?
Is there any situation where you actually need to interpret reals as "Dedekind cuts" / "Cauchy sequences" rather than just "complete ordered field"?
Other than proving existence
I’m not sure what you’re asking.
Also you still need to prove that such a measure exists
~~ Proving existence. ~~
you said other oops
E.g. the restriction of the Lebesgue measure to the Borel sigma-algebra is also translation invariant and maps the unit cube to 1.
One could define reals as "complete ordered field" and shove the proof of existence into the appendix
I wouldn’t like that though
Yeah, If I was using the uniqueness characterization I'd say it's the unique Borel measure that's translation invariant and has the prescribed value on the cube.
If you're talking abstract measures on a topological space you're unlikely to not be talking Borel anyway
Taking completion afterwards if you really need it
Yeah to be really pedantic we would take completion lol
But isn't the Lebesgue measure defined on a strictly larger sigma-algebra than the Borel one?
Yea it's the completion
I'd say it's a bit unclear, I wouldn't have problem with the term "Lebesgue measure" being used even for the restriction to Borel sets.
On a pedantic level it's not the same measure as the complete Lebesgue measure because the domain is different, but it's a level of pedantry that I can't imagine being impactful
But the "standard Borel measure on R^n" has a name
Especially because Lebesgue-measurable sets are "almost" Borel anyway
it’s a harmless abuse that even my favorite analysis book does.
Like it’ll define lebesgue measurable sets. But then it just proves every theorem about borel measurable instead lol.
Is that name not "Lebesgue measure"?
Lebesgue measure is the completion of that
Unless you want to be cute and talk of Haar measure
It's been a looong time since I took measure theory, but as far as I recall, the major complication in defining the Lebesgue measure was that it needed to be extended to that larger sigma-algebra (and I got the impression that this was necessary for the Lebesgue integral to be as well-behaved as we wanted it to).
To be fair I don’t know much measure theory
But from what I’ve heard, I know I wouldn’t have coped with it in first year
Certainly not, completion is generally a simple operation.
Which is when they introduce the Riemann integral
It's proving that the Borel sets are Lebesgue-measurable, that's the hard bit
The completion of a σ-finite measure is the minimum extension to a measure such that subsets of measure zero sets are measure zero
Huh. I thought "Lebesgue measurable" means "in the Lebesgue sigma-algebra" which by definition was an extension of the Borel sigma-algebra.
The way Tao does it is singlevariable does Riemann.
Multivariable does lebesgue. Which imo is the right way to do it. Multi is a pain to do rigorously regardless of if it’s riemann or lebesgue. So may as well put in the work for the more useful one imo.
Oh yeah I think for multivariable it’s fair
And you literally do it by taking your original sigma-algebra, adding all subsets of sets of measure zero, and generating a sigma-algebra based on that
But not single-variable
It turns out that what you get is sets that are unions of sets from your original algebra and subsets of measure zero sets.
Yea so the Lebesgue measure is the completion of the standard Borel measure
And this lets you straightforwardly define the extended measure on them
Sure, but this is genuinely the first time I'm seeing someone quibble with using the term "Lebesgue measure" even when the domain is the Borel sigma-algebra
(There was a discussion a few days ago saying that the extension could be in a simple way or a complex way that includes Caratheodory something).
The hard and significant part of Lebesgue measure really isn't the completeness
It's being defined on Borel sets, it's the measure of cubes being equal to their volume, and it's the translation invariance.
Perhaps I'm misremembering. ¯_(ツ)_/¯
Since this is a pedagogy channel. I’m just gonna put in my vote that the best sequence for Real Analysis is Tao’s Analysis I and II books. Followed by Axler’s Measure, Integration and Real Analysis
But I still think I remember a fairly easy first part that defined a measure on the Borel sets, and then a weird and hairy second part that extended it to some non-Borel sets, which (in a way I absolutely don't recall how) was imporant -- and only the final result got to be called Lebesgue.
What you remember really doesn't sound like Lebesgue measure.
Or at least if you can recall that "easy part that defines a measure on the Borel sets", I'll be very interested to see it.
It's 20+ years ago.
And was this the way you were taught at first or some opinion after the fact of some particular book you had before?
The easy part is the definition of outer measure using infima of total lengts of countable covers by intervals.
Then the gnarly part is showing that this is in fact a measure on a certain sigma-algebra, which is at least as large as the Borel sets.
Then the final easy part is showing that this measure is complete.
well that’s anti-climatic
With a gnarly additional bit of showing that the measure of an interval is equal to its length
Yep, as I said, all Lebesgue-measurable sets are essentially Borel
The difference being null
I’ve only taken a single basic undergraduate level analysis course that used Lay’s book.
I learned analysis from these books on my own before taking that course and I’ve taken a peek at many other books including Rudin. And this is my opinion after that.
I'm not even sure by now what "complete" means in this context.
Subsets of measure zero sets are measure zero (in particular measurable)
I don't have an opinion on Tao (haven't read him), but Axler is my default recommendation for first contact with measure theory.
Folland for the more ambitious reader, the kind of person who enjoyed Rudin's PMA
Would a probability route be wise for a first contact with measure theory?
A rigorous course in probability basically is measure theory with a focus on a specific class of measure spaces, at least early on.
So in some sense, this gives practical motivation?
But you'll be learning the probabilistic terminology so you might eventually need to learn to translate it into standard measure-theoretic terminology
"Event" vs "measurable set", "random variable" vs "measurable function", "expected value" vs "integral" etc.
Ah i see
i was recommended the Jacod and Protter book Probability Essentials
Which is supposed to lean into the more measure theoretic aspect
I have not read the rest of this conversation, so forgive me if I'm saying something very redundant, but I'm much in favour of using examples to motivate concepts. I think that dropping a high level of abstraction and then going onto more concrete examples often misses the point: it tells the reader nothing about why this definition is even needed, nor why this particular definition was chosen. I also feel like authors should more frequently set the stage before introducing higher abstraction, and one of the best ways to do that is with concrete, but useful, examples.
Yep, I've already said it but I'll say it again that I agree with that point of view
There are occasional exceptions where too much specificity can obfuscate the essential ideas, but they're exceptions

One such exception is the (extensively discussed above) Lebesgue integral; where I'm very much against starting with Lebesgue integration specifically (as in, integration of functions from R to R with respect to the Lebesgue measure), but rather with general theory of measure and integration (albeit with the Lebesgue measure and integral as an important example that receives a lot of focus)
The jump from Lebesgue integral specifically to general measure and integration is comparatively small, and gives you incredible scope and flexibility for this small inconvenience.
Lollllll i managed to namedrop monads in #prealg-and-algebra
But also it was again genuinely surprising how much phrasing things in terms of functions helped clarify things, even to someone completely new to them
For interest the convo starts here #prealg-and-algebra message
it seems that functions are an easy enough concept for people to just pick up on-the-fly
even at very early levels of math
I mean from that particular convo, I remember being confused during school whether “squareRoots” would even count as a function
There's some cases in which I don't see how this is feasible, like with the definition of Topology. I don't see how you can motivate it well via examples without at least going first through metric spaces, but even then
I remember that the fact that addition is a function shook me...
ooh really?
that’s fascinating to hear
I exaggerated a little, but knowing that everything in math could be united within the boundaries of set theory (category of sets with functions as morphisms) was fascinating
right right
i think maybe this comes from the emphasis on graphing functions?
which kinda restricts you to functions which take in a number, and spit out a number
and addition isn’t that
Yes, it disturbed me back in middle school
We didn't give formal definitions
that’s also probably why squareRoots wouldn’t count as a function in school
cause it doesn’t give back a single number
so what are you suggesting?
I'm not a teacher, but I suggest students be given a proper definition, or work with diagrams (arrows)
Work with different representations of functions
The graph is only one of them
so for a proper definition, you’d mean defining relations between sets, and then a function as a special type of relation?
Yes
but it might be slightly ambitious
i usually just do “a function is an input-output machine” for the first time
i was going to reply that
It is good enough
Let me give an example
$f : x \mapsto \begin{cases} 0 \quad &\text{if} \quad x \not\in \mathbb Q \ \frac 1 q \quad &\text{if} \quad x = \frac p q, p \wedge q = 1\end{cases}$
Valentin
I had this one for an oral interrogation
Needless to say it is hard to graph on a piece of paper...
ah, the popcorn function!
it has a name ?
Thomae's function is a real-valued function of a real variable that can be defined as:: 531
It is named after Carl Johannes Thomae, but has many other names: the popcorn function, the raindrop function, the countable cloud function, the modified Dirichlet function, the ruler function, the Riemann function, or the Stars over Babylon (John Horto...
Are you teachers ? What level are you teaching ? just out of curiosity
i just graduated
from doing a math degree
And you want to teach ?
hmm
im going on to do a phd in condensed matter physics atm
so not explicitly teaching
although as a grad student i’ll be a TA for some stuff ofc
So you also graduated in physics ?
Anyways what year did you start doing "real math" (I mean with formal definitions) ?
Me too but I heard that calculus was introduced without being formalized in the US system (although I don't quite understand it well)
im not in the US system!
ok that explains a lot! where are you from ?
well, i did my degree at a European uni
Europe is pretty large you know
mhm
I'm from France, in the equivalent of a 1 year of uni but in a high school (it's very specific)
ok
idk if i only feel this way because my mathematical maturity isn't high enough
but i often feel that the contents of textbooks have very little to do with the exercises at the end of each chapter
namely, chapters will dedicate dozens of pages to proving some standard result
but when it comes to the problems, all that matters is the result itself
the proof technique of the result presented in the chapter is completely irrelevant
for example:
Hatcher (and likely most other standard texts in AT) dedicates many many pages toward proving excision via barycentric subdivision
however, when it comes to the problems, all that matters is the excision property itself, and the concept of barycentric subdivision itself is completely unneeded
I guess most authors would feel unsatisfied with giving a long list of results without proof.
But yeah, usually the results, examples and they're applications are more important than the exact details of each proof.
though in my experience it’s often useful to know the proofs very well
because the strategies that get used in proving them also appear in other problems
Oftentimes they do, but I think the results are chosen more on their relevance than the relevance of its proof
I guess I wouldn’t really know
Since the start of university I haven’t really learnt math from textbooks
That's very true for example in analysis
Oh right
Yeah analysis is probably my favourite part of math
So maybe that’s where I got that from
At least for early courses, I feel the proof techniques needed are often a little more advanced than the ones expected of students to reproduce
I guess it varies
Less true for like proving that the Eilenberg-Steenrod axioms apply to a given homology theory
yeah way over my head lol
right this is exactly my point
having to read so many pages proving that simpicial homology is indeed a valid homology theory
by sorting out the intricacies of simplicial complexes
but then every problem is just like
i think the other thing that proofs can be useful for is intuition? both about the result itself and about the area in general
not always true but like
if you just look at a result sometimes you just go "what. how"
whereas with a proof, sometimes you get lost because it's too long and can't really string it all together into what feels like a single coherent reason, but it's still something
and you can do things like feed in a particular confusing example and see how the proof handles that specific case
you can try to construct a counterexample and then have the proof point out exactly what you did wrong that makes it not actually a valid counterexample
etc.
some things are just unhelpful technical details sometimes (although which things varies between people - when someone excludes things that they think of as technical details and you don't, that's how you get proofs where you just can't follow what's going on, that seem to make big leaps between steps)
but also in a sense a proof of a statement is a reason that the statement is true
though even then there’s like
the reason something is true and the moral reason something is true
but a very strong form of reason, it's not some fuzzy concept that if you try to drill down you see it is just a heuristic ("this arithmetic progression probably has infinitely many primes in it? the primes are basically distributed randomly right?"), you can keep poking it forever and it will keep explaining itself in more detail and you can go all the way down to the axioms if you want to
sometimes, but... also sometimes not
this might just be that my intuition is really well-calibrated on how proofs work, but i can't really think of any reasoning that i would regard as actually trustworthy (and not just heuristics) and that doesn't have an obvious translation into a proof
maybe i'm just failing to think of one...?
no what I mean is
("obvious" as in, it's allowed to be annoying, but it shouldn't require introducing genuinely new mathematical ideas)
you can have a fully rigorous proof of a statement
but it might not be the “moral” reason why it’s true
yeah i can't really think of any examples of that
i guess that's fair, but i'd also say like
what this is establishing is more, "p -> p" is provable from those axioms
I think she discusses it more coherently than I can
this is a part of demonstrating that these axioms actually capture anything resembling what we think -> should mean
and i think this just is a pretty good explanation of the reason that "p -> p" is provable from these axioms
bruh
well maybe you’re just very good at logic
cause I can’t parse that proof at all
i didn't say it was easy to read