#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 309 of 1
That's what I mean lol
So how exactly do i show the nullity here?
It's a previous years exam
I have the answer, so I know it's 1
show null space is span{u}
^, by showing that u is in ker(P), and knowing that ker(P) is a subspace, we have span{u} is contained in ker P. Now show the reverse containment
It's the same as the solution lol
I'll keep thinking :)
Thank you for your help 🙏
Ahhhhhhhh

This matrix is projecting to the Orthogonal space
yess
So then kern p = Span u
If were trying to find a equilibrium vector E for a 2x2 matrix A for a markov chain, we can solve the equation EA=E
just set E=(a, 1-a)
but what would E be if A was a 3x3 matrix? or higher ?
eigen vector corresponding to ev 1
yeah but wouldnt solving it as en equation be easier?
you will get an equation
finding eigenvectors for matricies with so many decimals is pain when i dont have a calculator to solve for eigenvectors
don't have any other method
:(
hi, i have A a n* n matrix so that : A^2(A − I𝑛)^2 = 0 (I𝑛 the n*n matrix with 1 on the diagonal)
knowing that (A − I𝑛)^2 ≠ 0 and A(A − I𝑛) ≠ 0.
I'm looking for the specter of A, I know that spec A ⊆ {0,1} but i don't know what to say else
you mean the spectrum right?(It‘s just so that I can help you, not tryna correct)
I think you can follow, that A^2 has to be the 0-Matrix
But because A(a-In)!=0 is A!= 0
So I‘d say that A is nilpotent
Do you know what the spectrum is?
are you sure that A^2 has to be the 0 matrix?
unless I'm making a mistake we could for example have
A=
(1,1,0;
0,1,1;
0,0,1)
edit: I think I made a mistake here
or we can have
A =
(1,1,0;
0,1,0;
0,0,0)
so edit: ~~both spec A = {1} and ~~ spec A = {0,1} are possible
A={0} clearly not as then A is the 0 matrix
I said that, because this (A^2(A − I𝑛)^2 = 0) has to hold right?
But still I'm not sure
yes but this doesn't mean that A^2 has to be 0
if 0 is not in spec A, then A is invertible and therefore from A^2(A-I_n)^2 we get (A-I_n)^2=0 which is a contradiction
so yeah spec A = {0,1} is the only possible option
What are some good resources for learn linear algebra ?
I am once again asking this playlist be pinned.
On a different note, Im looking like five practice problems proving such-n-such is a inner product, ranging in difficulty from easy to medium .
proving something is an inner product
medium
do you know of any more advanced linear algebra playlists? which cover topics like quotient spaces, dual spaces, tensor product, annihilators
That is an excellent question
I can't understand the image
For A a square invertible matrix, we have Ax ≤ b, then does x ≤ A^(-1) b?
yes
So do you flip the sign?
well in this particular case yes but in general Ax ≤ b does not imply any relation between x and A^-1 b
What if A is a positive matrix
I know that we looked at M-matrices in numerical analysis for PDEs which have some properties which look similar to this. so I would assume that just being positive is not enough
some other key words were inverse monotone and inverse positive matrices
well, in general the answer is going to be no
take any invertible A with positive entries and at least one negative entry in its inverse
then take x to be zero
My matrix has all positive entries
right, your A has all positive entries
are you assuming the inverse also has all positive entries?
No my bad I didn't read the inverse part please continue
anyway, from here it's simple, you can just pick b to be zero everywhere and one in a specific entry so that A^{-1}b has a negative entry, leading to a counterexample
What if b is positive as well
then you can just do the same construction but add a very very small epsilon to each entry of b
and you still get a counterexample, although writing the proof is more of a pain
Hmm I see
Here's another question, is there any other positive orthogonal matrix besides the identity?
yes
My thought is no because the determinant would be greater than 1
oui
how about a positive orthogonal matrix with all entries non-zero
Now I'm pretty sure it's no
no, and you just need to look at the definition for why
Oh yeah it's obvious
meitar5674
Y'all
If a set of n vectors does not form a basis for R^n
Does that mean that those n vectors do not span R^n OR those n vectors are linearly dependent
Both
I understand that a set of 3 vectors forms a basis for R^n if either of the conditions is true
3 or n?
N*
They don't span R^n because the set is linearly dependent
Ah i see
There's just smthng that i'm failing to understand
Evertime it's explained to me i just don't get it
When we test a set of vectors for spanning
Why is it enough to show that the det of the matrix whose columns are those vectors is zero
To prove that this set does not span R^n
Well the det=0 implies the matrix is not invertible
True
Which is same as saying linear dependence of columns
Oh i see
What if we have 4 vectors tho
And we're checking spanning for R^3
The set could be lin dependent and spans R^3
Well you remove the redundant vector first
We wouldn't know tho
Like if the det is zero
Then yeah sure the set is lin dep
But it may still be spanning R^3
So why do we conclude that it doesn't span R^3 if the det is 0?
Not on my final exams tho 😭
Oh hol on 💀
I just realised
That a matrix with 4 vector columns
Would have no det
What a dumbass i am
Sorry 💀
Yeah got it now
So if the det is zero (assuming the matrix is square)
The column vectors are lin dep
And there would be absolutely no way they span R^n
yes
the problem with testing using the det is that it doesn't tell us how linearly dependent the columns are. they could still either span a space of dimension n-1 or they could span a space of dimension 1. either way the det is 0. also calculating the det for huge n takes ages
you could instead also do something like row reducing
yes sorry I worded it badly
row reducing also takes ages but it at least tells you more than just calculating the det
and can be done even ifthe matrix is not square
Hey, all, how is everyone? I need to prove this:
$dimImT^* = dimImT$ as well as this $dimkerT^* = dimkerT + dimW − dimV$
Can't I just say that $dim(Im(T^)) = dim(Im(T)) dim(F) = dim(Im(T))$ and then use the fact that
dimImT + dimKerT = dimV?
meitar5674
Why do you think you can claim that @vestal magnet ?
T is a map from V to W while T* is a map from W* to V*
Not sure if this is the right place to ask im working on a question and i end up with this expression and I’m wondering if this simplifies into an expression or not
isnt this (1 + z/n)^n
How do Insel/Spence, Hoffman/Kunze and Axler compare?
I'm taking a second course in LA next semester. So, I emailed my prof asking for a book to work through over the summer, he recommended Insel/Spence or Dummit/Foote (which seemed odd), but he also said he heard Axler was good.
I bought a copy of Insel/Spence and it looks way thicker and more detailed than Axler.
The prereq for this course is our first semester abstract algebra course, which basically covers all of the groups chapters of Fraleigh.
they cover basically the same material with different points of view
axler restricts to real and complex fields, and avoids determinantal arguments
axler's view of stuff like the characteristic polynomial is pretty strange, since he avoids determinants
the treatment in FIS is much easier to use
Are they comparable in terms of depth? Like, is one more elementary than the other or are they both roughly the same?
pretty much the same
Do you have a personal preference for any particular book at this level?
FIS
i don't agree with axler's treatment of determinants and related stuff
it makes sense to try not to use them if you're going to do stuff like functional analysis (which axler does), but for introductory linear algebra it does not matter
I see I see. I'll probably give FIS a shot. Thanks for the advice!
Would you guys recommend Serge Lang's Linear Algebra book for a first timer?
Gilbert strand got a good book
Could someone explain the jump between the first system of equations to T(\alpha, \beta, 0, \gamma, \phi - \gamma)?
it says find A_0
what does [L_A]_B mean
is it just A multiplied by the matrix vector made of B basis
and L_A is just the linear transformation of A?
yeah
from R3 to R3?
yeah given by that matrix
Never seen that notation before
Could you give a full translation of b
Maybe I could figure it out then
but could someone still tell me this
the rest of the text says just to show that A_0 is invertible, unrelated to acutally finding it
Let L_A: R^3 -> R^3 be given by L_A(x) = Ax
find [L_A]_B
yes but _B is supposed ot mean A in beta coordiante system
haha its ok
i wish i could :(
what is T
Transformation
Check the picture, sorry for the lack of clarity. It's the transformation of the vector of size 5, right in the middle of screenshot
i know it's a transformation, i want to know its definition
Oh my bad one second
That's MathJax let me convert it
Old MathJax too, its from the website
This is scuffed ima screenshot
Very top
Sorry I'm running on fumes today
the line with T(\alpha, \beta, 0, \gamma, \delta - \gamma) is just them checking that the solution to the system of equations is indeed a solution
But this question is about proving the surjectivity of the transformation.
Yes
How did they determine that is a possible solution out of the set of infinite possible solutions
it's impossible to know exactly how they landed on that solution
Okay second question
just looking at it, you already know what a must be, and c shows up a few times, so killing c by setting c = 0 simplifies things a bit
i guess that was their thought process
alternatively, you could write that system of equations in terms of matrices and do all the row reduction nonsense
is the transformation surjective because the coefficient matrix of the system of equations above that line with the transformation of alpha, beta, etc. has an infinite amount of solutions?
I think I am starting to understand
This just seems unintuitive
Thanks for your help
for markov chains
if a matrix is regular, it has an eigenvalue = 1
but can markov chain matrix have an eigenvalue of 1, and not be regular?
just checking if eigenvalue 1 is an eigenvalue of the matrix enough to determine if its regular
Yes that is called the contrapositive
In logic whenever one proposition P implies another thing, Q, then the falsity of Q implies the falsity of P
Wait sorry I misread your question
If it's missing an eigenvalue of 1 then it isn't regular
but imagine a diagonal matrix with one 1, and the rest of the numbers on the diagonal 100
it wouldn't be regular, but it would have an eigenvalue of 1
"If A is an m × n matrix whose columns do not span R^m, then the equation A**x **= b is consistent for
some b in R^m"
I know this is true but I was wondering if it is good enough to say "let b = zero vector"
It's a strange claim because the conclusion seems to be trivially true (as you notice) independently of the "columns do not span" assumption.
<@&286206848099549185>
A linear endomorphism with kernel 0 is an automorphism right?
i.e. f : V to V, V a vector space
I think it just follows by rank-nullity + dimension counting
just want to make sure I'm not being stupid
i said let x = 3u_1+2u_2
on finite dimensional spaces, where you can use rank nullity, yes. it's false in infinite dimensions (consider right shift on infinite sequences)
i.e. (x_1, x_2, ...) \mapsto (0, x_1, x_2, \dots). this has kernel zero, but is not surjective
thanks!
Ax = A(3u_1+2u_2) = A(3u_1) + A(2u_2) = 3(Au_1)+2(Au_2) = 3y_1 + 2y_2 = b
i dont get what youre showing here
me subbing in what let x equal
I said
let x = 3u_1+2u_2
How do I go about finding a unitary matrix P, such that PAP^-1 is diagonal for a given complex matrix A? Simply diagonalising the matrix doesn't yield a unitary P._.
Anyone able to explain this last step?
I wanna replicate this, but I want to know how how this part under the square roots formulated
$(d_2 - d_3)^2 = d_2^2 + d_3^2 - 2d_2d_3 = d_2^2 + d_3^2 + (2d_2d_3 - 2d_2d_3) - 2d_2d_3$
Namington
$=(d_2^2 + d_3^2 + 2d_2d_3) - 4d_2d_3 = (d_2 + d_3)^2 - 4d_2d_3$
Namington
so $(d_2-d_3)^2 = (d_2+d_3)^2 - 4d_2d_3$
Namington
take the square root of both sides.
as for why they did this: they wanted to express $d_2 - d_3$ in terms of only $d_2 + d_3$ and $d_2d_3$, since those were computed earlier in the question
Namington
squaring something is a common way to make it positive, so to go from $d_2 - d_3$ to something involving $d_2 + d_3$, considering $(d_2 - d_3)^2$ is a natural first attempt
Namington
and it turns out that, with some algebra, it works out.
Tyty
Fun fact, that matrix A is diagonalized by DST-2 and eigenvalues are given by f(t)=4+2cos(t)+4*cos(2*t) tj=jpi/3 j=1,2,3
it's not always possible. A needs to be a normal matrix. otherwise you are out of luck
find ONBs of each eigenspace and write the elements as columns
just a quick question y'all
any linear transformation is expressible as a matrix transformation times a vector right?
and the null space of that matrix transformation is the kernel of the transformation
and the column space of this matrix is the range
right?
are we assuming that the vector space is finite dimensional?
then ignoring that in general we only have isomorphic spaces etc, yes
only once you've chosen bases of the domain and codomain. the matrix representation depends on the choices of bases, and under the induced isomorphism of your space with F^n, F^m, the kernel and range of your linear transformation get taken to the kernel and range of the matrix representation.
if you are in infinite dimensions, then there are no matrix representations
Hey anyone good with matrices here
just a curious question
how can one decide if the matrix is a point line, plane r3 or r4?
looking at the rows?
a matrix on its own is just a rectangle full of numbers, so it's not really any of those unless you have some corresponding way of turning it into one
When they ask which one does it span
Thats actually the question I think
Does the matrix span point line plane r3 or r4
Im trying to find a question but cannot find one
you can look at the span of the rows or columns, but I guess usually people look at the column vectors
probably better to post a screenshot of the actual question being asked
2 -3 6 | 0
9 -5 4 | 0
0 0 0 | 0
does it mean it has infinitely many solutions. is it always the case for when all elements in a row are 0s?
Yes it has infinitely many solutions but it is not always the case when we have a zero row.
Consider an mxn matrix A where m > n. If the row reduced echelon matrix of A has n nonzero rows the m-n rows are zero. Therefore the homogenous system Ax = 0 will only have the trivial solution, so not infinity many solution. But if A is nxn matrix then yes a zero row corresponds to an infinitely many solutions for Ax = 0.
are the eigenvectors the same
.5 1
1 2
could someone remind me what this group represents? Here F is a field and p is some prime
Everyone, thank you. Got a def b on my exam.
Tyty for your help
My friends are so sad rn, but I'm good!!!
Ty!!!
fkin narc xd
Z/pZ
integers modulo p
thanks
More precisely F_p is the unique field with p elements (which is indeed also the ring of integers modulo p). Note the the F is a fixed part of the notations, not the name of some different field that already exists.
Hello. I think this is the right channel. I'm trying to a problem for a game called starbase which has in-game coding
I've been trying to solve a problem that masks you to imagine an aircraft flying. The aircraft (P) has the ability to pitch, yaw and roll about it's own axis. and measure it's current orientation. On the bottom of the aircraft is a laser that gives the exact distance of the laser to the ground representing the vector R. My question is asking whether it would be possible to find the vertical distance (D in the diagram) to the ground no matter the orientation to the plane assuming that Q is at (0,0,0) and is the point where the line / laser contact the ground. and P is at (x,y,z). It can also be assumed that the magnitude of R is known.
any assistance in solving the question or any pointers on how to solve and find a general solution it really be appreciated 😄
If just the pitch and roll parts of the question are considered it's relatively easy to solve using cosin unit vectors but the Yaw aspect is what i'm completely stuck on
can someone help me get this system of equations into reduced row echelon form?
5x - 3y - 6z = -4
3x - y - 5z = 5
4x - 2y - z = -13
You have to first row reduced the coefficient matrix.
For A be the row reduced matrix of that system,
- The first entry of the nonzero rows of A has to be 1.
- For the column that corresponds to the first zero entry for each nonzero rows has every other entry for that column equal to 0.
Now for A to be in row reduced echelon form
- Every zero rows is below all nonzero rows.
- The column index that corresponds to first nonzero entry in each row has to be increasing from top to bottom.
While you do this you need to apply the same operation to the matrix (-4, 5, -13)^T.
Note if A is row reduced, you can easily get it to row-reduced echelon form by doing row exchanges.
Heres an example of a row reduced matrix.
$$\begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 & 0 \ 1 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix}$$.
Plegasus
You can do a row with row 1 and 2 to get it to row reduced echelon matrix.
@quartz palm
Ok let work through it together.
ok
Your system Ax = b can be matrix by augmented matrix
$$\begin{bmatrix} 5 & -3 & -6 & -4 \ 3 & -1 & -5 & 5 \ 4 & -2 & -1 & -13 \end{bmatrix}$$.
Plegasus
Whats recommended to take first, this class or calc3, both have calc 2 as a prereq?
either is fine
but i heard calc 3 is easier than linalg
Let row reduced it first, how should we start?
uhh multiply the first row by -1/3?
multiply the 2nd row by 1/3
😔
Yep, but that is going to take so long. Let try to get all the entries except for the 1 in the first column to 0.
So we went from $$\begin{bmatrix} 5 & -3 & -6 & -4 \ 3 & -1 & -5 & 5 \ 4 & -2 & -1 & -13 \end{bmatrix}$$ to $$\begin{bmatrix} 1 & -\frac{3}{5} & -\frac{6}{5} & -\frac{4}{5} \ 3 & -1 & -5 & 5 \ 4 & -2 & -1 & -13 \end{bmatrix}$$.
Plegasus
hmm
Now you try to get all the entry in the first colum except for the 1 to 0 by adding to row 2 and 3 by multiplies of row 1.
With that done you can move on to the second row.
idk
Are you working this out on paper?
When you get the chance too, reread your notes or even ^ this and work it out.
ok
technically in our class we haven't covered rref but i just thought this was easier
hi, i don't get why the basis for the column spaces are what it says, can someone pls help?
so basically if im understanding this right, T : V -> V and T(W) in W?
then where does the name “invariant” come from
can a subspace be "variant" in the sense that it varies?
yea
but in the sense that "annihilate" means to send to 0, is there a similar reason for "invariant"?
hello
what about the usage of the word "invariant" here isn't clear?
i think im just trying to understand what it means for W to be "never changing"
"T doesn't map W out of W" "T doesn't change W" "W is unchanged under T" "W is invariant under T"
Can someone comment on my solution for this question?
A. No, because if some vector y does not have solution for Ax = y, this means our column vectors of A don't span all of R^3. This also means we don't have a pivot in every row of our coefficent matrix (theorem 4). This then tells us that we must have some free variables as not all rows contain pivots. Now applying theorem 2, if we assume some z such that Ax= z is consistent, we know from theorem 2 that our z can only have infinite solutions because we have at least 1 free variable.
it's just a definition, you don't need to look too deep into it lol
(Theorems 2 and 4 I used)
maybe another way to phrase it is "T fixes W" (note that this isn't "T fixes the elements of W"!!!!!!!)
oh, depending on how depth you are going to get multivariable calculus, if you split linear algebra in two parts you should take the second part with Multivariable calculus but definitively not util you know at least the first half.
but In my case I start with topology in Rn and then finish with differential in several variables leaving integral in several variables until Calc 4
if your multivariable calculus class is basic (just stuff like partial derivatives and then a shit ton of integration), you don't need to take linear algebra before it. if it's more advanced (e.g. if the words "implicit function theorem" show up) then you absolutely should take LA first
my calc 3 course didn't cover stuff like implicit function theorem; is that something i would find in an analysis course?
i dunno
maybe such a course would be called "multivariable analysis"
"analysis course" means a million different things
ah i just meant analysis course as an umbrella term for all courses with the word "analysis" in it
interesting though
well yeah you can find that in analysis but for example the book by Marsden mentions it and that book is not very analytical but rather practical(?).
i die inside a little everytime someone uses the word "analysis" and isn't referring to a course that's not just the contents of rudin
which book by marsden? i know the mechanics one
love that one
vectorial calculus by marsden & Tromba
Yes your solution is right.
Thanks for looking 
First exam tomorrow and then we have a interview with our prof to discuss our solutions. cool thing is he seems very chill about how we get our solutions. He pretty much says it is open everything but whatever you put on your paper you better defend and be able to explain
Like these interviews are like 20% of our grade with the exam being 10%
Never had anything like that before but seems cool because it is sometimes hard to express what you want to say from a sheet of paper.
good luck!
We have not got into talking about linear independence and such but it would probably be easier to explain it like that.
oh mb i didnt realise
is linear algebra hard? i'm going into it in 3 years and i wanna prepare
If you just want a basic understanding of linear algebra,you can do it in like 2 months
wow ty so much
i think i might take some online courses then
is y=mx+b linear algebra?
That's a linear equation
This is just Lagrange interpolation
just Lagrange interpolation 🙄
is it? there are 4 points to fit but only 2 degrees of freedom
the word "best" isn't defined in the problem statement, but I assume a least squares fit would be intended
(T/F) A is diagonalizable then U is diagonalizable
, where U(B) := AB-BA
any ideas how I might approach?
Without loss of generality, you can assume A to be diagonal.
But A cannot be a multiple of I, because then U(B) would be 0.
Pick the simplest A you can think of that satisfies these conditions, and calculate how U(B) depends on the entries of B.
Wait ... U rather than U(B) should be diagonalizable?
Hmm, I mistakenly thought it was the concrete matrix U(B) that should be diagonal.
For U as an operator, the approach is definitely to work in a basis that diagonalizes A.
When you do the calculuations you will see that this basis also diagonalizes U!
that's my guess but this approach is kinda bruteforcy
Perhaps, but it works and is pretty simple too.
Do you need an argument that works for infinite-dimensional spaces?
$A=c_i E_{ii}$ then $U(E_{jk}) = c_i E_{ii}E_{jk} - c_i E_{jk}E_{ii} = c_i \delta_{ij}E_{ik}-c_i \delta_{ki}E_{ji}$
wdym "sure"?
$=c_jE_{jk}-c_jE_{jk}$
One of those c_i should be c_j
I would like an argument that works finite dim spaces
oop
what is the finite dimensional argument?
That's what you have just done.
typo
Eyup.
But what your calculation shows is that the E_jk's are an eigenbasis wrt U.
U would be represented by an n²×n² matrix, if we vectorize its input and output.
is a line considered hyperplane?
intro to linear algebra
but i think a line can be a hyperplane if its in like 2d space
Hey guys I got a question, i had a markov chain question. The teacher wanted me to show that the eigenvalue is 1 and what its eigenvector is. i iterated the steady state vector, and said that because its steady the max eigenvalue is 1 and that the steady state is the eigenvector.
The teachers solution shows him getting the actual eigenvalue of one and the other eigenvalues
and then ends the entire solution with the steady state vector
is the steady state vector a scaled eigenvector with eigenvalue of 1?
do you mean show that the eigenvalue of a stochastic matrix is 1?
yes it was a markov chain question which was a stochastic matrix
just use the vector (1, 1, ..., 1), that multiplied by the stochastic matrix is (1, 1, ..., 1) so 1 is clearly an eigenvector
not a particularly satisfying proof but it works lol
because the rows of a stochastic matrix add up to 1
so you can figure it out just by inspection
well he like went through the effort of getting the eigenvalues through the det
but that being said, i just figured okay, i got the steady state after 3 iterations of simple matix multplication, its got a steady state the max eigenvalue as one.
yeh thats a proper way of doing it
is that steady state also the eigenvector?
because he scaled it in the solution from like the eigenvector from the polynomial he got
i made a silly mistake with svd 😦 i thought u held null of a since i knew it held row of a. sigh i feel dumb
def got a b
wait have you been given a specific stochastic matrix
or is he asking you to show that 1 is an eigenvalue for all stochastic matrices
he gave me a specific one
ahh right if its small enough then yeah just compute it
lmao yeah relateable
good to be able to do though, the bastards come up absolutely everywhere 
yeah yeah ill use python
i spent like 2 hours trying to solve that tbh
was the last problem.
because it was the only one i couldnt like even know where to begin at
it was the first thing we went over in class, and i just sat there and plugged it out and said okay this is converging like this
and then i had an oh yeah the steady state shit
okay now im gonna spend time working on programming
thank you mabey
good luck and have fun 
hi, im new here. I really need help with a question I have no idea how to approach, where can i post the question?
i dont understand how they got from the last step to the current step
helloo! can anyone explain to me aboute the absolute value and with functions so basicallly f(x)=|x| or f(x)= -|x| or f(x) = |-x|
oops wait wrong chat
wym explain
so like graphing them
u just input points for them
so say for |-x|
for x = 1
it would be |-1|
just divide the 2nd row by 0.8
no i mean like
how do u get 3.8 from R3 - 4R1
thanks
np
that row operation is applied to the matrix in the previous picture
which is not shown
ty sorry i just wrote the wrong number
It's a cubic polynomial in the problem.
ok I guess it isn't exactly just Lagrange, because it can't have x^2 and x terms
let E be a vector space with finite dimension, and f an endormorphism from E such that f² = -id
prove that that f has no real eigen values
@fair wren do you still need help with this?
yes im still trying to do something haha
i tried doing this
if i prove that f^n has no real eigen values
so is f right
so f has no real eigen values either
no?
"if i prove that f has no real eigenvalues then f has no real eigenvalues either, right?" is this what you're asking?
i edited
what do u think?
you're overthinking it
let's start from the basics
❤️ sure ann-chan
...we are not anywhere near close enough for you to -chan me.
sowy
anyway, can you tell me what the phrase "f has an eigenvalue λ" means?
f has an eigen value if the matrix representing it M(f) = A, then there exists lambda such that det(A - \lambda * I_n) = 0
besides, lambda cannot be put under an existential quantifier
maybe
It's true, but not in any sane development is it a definition.
f(v) = lambda v?
that's closer
and lambda is an eigen value
there's something you missed
there exists a nonzero vector v such that f(v) = lambda*v

now assume f has a real eigenvalue λ
whence derive the existence of nonzero v such that f(v) = λv
now think about what f^2(v) might be
yeah and f²(v) = lambda ² v² = - v
just squaring f(v)?
f²(v) here means f(f(v)) not f(v)·f(v))
what what
f^2 is the composition of f with itself
powers of operators usually denote repeat composition
im confused with this notation tbh
if its the second composition
then they should put ()
letting it like that is ambiguous
no
this is an operator on a vector space
there is no dot product then?
dot product would return a number anyway
hm ok
And a function that takes a vector to a number cannot equal -id.
so you would be unable to unambiguously interpret the "product" of three or more vectors
anyway, given that v ≠ 0 and f(v) = λv, what is f(f(v))?
no, even more
if an operator is annihilated by a polynomial then all of its eigenvalues are roots of the polynomial
i.e. if an operator A: V -> V satisfies p(A) = 0 where p is a polynomial then all eigenvalues of A are roots of p
How do u get the polynomial p?
hm?
how u got that hm?
This :d
what is this if not the polynomial x^2 + 1 applied to f
have you seen the notation of a polynomial evaluated at an operator before
no
oh
somehow u treated id as 1 idk why
ah ok gotcha
Im working on proving that the dimension of E is even
since i've proven that the eigen values for f are complex
so if the power of lambda was odd then for example y^3 = -1 there is a real solution y = -1
so the power of lambda should be even
thus dimE should also be even
this is nonsense; the power of lambda is given to be 2
your problem says f^2 = -id, no?
what you're talking about seems to be entirely unrelated to the problem at hand
if the power of lambda was odd
who give a shit
the power of lambda is 2. it isn't odd.
we can say that dimE = sum dimE_k , E_k are eigen spaces, since we have only 1 eigen value with multiplicity = 2, then dim E = 2?
overthinking it.
ikr
also we don't necessarily have only one eigenvalue and its multiplicity is not necessarily 1
we wish to prove dim(E) is even
its multiplicity is 2
no its multiplicitly isn't necessarily 2 either
i can give you an operator that satisfies f^2 + id = 0 with eigenvalues of multiplicity 69 if you want
but that's beside the point
u was going to do smthg like lambda ^69 = -1?
no
my point is that your attempt is going completely in the wrong direction
just because f^2 + id = 0 does NOT, i repeat DOES NOT tell you anything about the multiplicity of either i or -i as eigenvalues of f
okey so what is the direction i shall go thru?
suppose towards a contradiction that dim(E) is odd.
then the charpoly of f will have odd degree (why?) and thus something can be said about charpoly(f) that'll contradict what's been proved previously.
@dusky epoch
check what i did up here maybe?
idk then
do you want me to repeat myself or what
how would we prove EF and FE are similar
assuming E and F are both invertible
EF=InEFIn
tried every single combination lol
don't see how i can go from EF to FE
$FE = F(EF)F^{-1}$
Ann
show instead that adj(A)adj(A^-1) = I
how would we do that tho
adjugate?
are adjoint and adjugate used interchangeably?,,,,
anyways
i still can't see how we would go from this
to this
cuz i tried inverting both sides and i didn't reach anything useful
what i got was adj^-1(A)=(1/det(A))*A
What's the best way to input mathematical symbols and stuff into Discord?
use TeXit to render latex tbh
Sorry, I am super new. Is there a channel I should go to to get setup with everything?
If E is such a real vector space endowed with an endomorphism f : E -> E such that f^2 = - id, then you can define a complex vector space structure on E as:
(a+ib)*v := a*v + b*f(v)
Notice that the dimension of E as a complex vector space with the above scalar multiplication is precisely the original dimension of E as a real vector space. Now, use the fact that a complex vector space, when treated as a real vector space, always has even dimension.
complexification moment

There's a more overkill solution
Using the fact that x^2 + 1 is irreducible over the reals.
The polynomial x^2+1 vanishes on f
thus dim(ker(f^2+id))= dim(E)
And the fact that x^2+1 is irreducible tells us that 2 = deg(x^(2)+1) divides the dimension of E.
So the dimension of E is even.

Cant agree more lol
I still don't understand neither Ann's answer or the one above
well in fairness i didn't supply all the details but for whatever reason you didn't ask me to clarify anything
suppose towards a contradiction that dim(E) is odd.
then the charpoly of f will have odd degree (because its degree is equal to dim(E)) and thus something can be said about charpoly(f) that'll contradict what's been proved previously (all odd-degree polynomials have at least one root, thus f will have at least one real eigenvalue, but we already proved that it doesn't.)
which theorem states that the dim(E) is the degree of charpoly of f
One argument is to unfold the determinant of tI-f using Leibniz expansion. There will be one term that is a product of dim(E) factors of the form (t-<diagonal element>), and no other term has anything of the same or higher degree in t.
So not only does the characteristic polynomial have degree dim(E); it's leading coefficient is 1.
Or (-1)^{dim E} if your definition of the characteristic polynomial is the determinant of f-tI instead.
This look right?
The terminology might not be correct with the word "unique" but I meant as not being able to right it as a linear combination of the other
although I guess w or u could have flipped with my use of "unique"
Yeah, the "v is unique" language makes no sense.
yeah kinda meant relative to the other vectors :v but it doesn't make sense with regards to w and u
"linearly independent" maybe?
although normally that is used I believe with a set of vectors and saying how none of them can be express with combinations of the others
It would be more direct to say something like "the first three spans are all { (x,y,0) | x,y in R }, but span{u,w} doesn't contain anything with nonzero y-coordinate".
Speaking of linear (in)dependence is definitely better than "unique".
yeah that would make more sense
I guess I could also then show via substation with regards to the spans to show how they are not equal, let u = a w (some scalar a), then say span{u,w} != span{u,v,w} because span{u,w} = span{aw,w}= span{w} but I guess I would still need to show that span(w) was not also span(v).
Maybe start off by saying let v b linearly independent from w and u and that u = aw and then talk about the above stuff.
but seeing it wanted 1 example and not something in general I guess I can just use the actually vectors I provided as an example
tI - f, not tI - E
E is the space
whoops, fixed.
Solving Ax = b where A, b have complex elements would be the same as solving it normally (just w/ complex arithmetic) correct?
Yes.
thanks!

Complexification is a thing in linear algebra tho lol
haha
Essentially, a finite dimensional complex vector space can be treated as the same thing as a real vector space endowed with an endomorphism J that squares to minus the identity.
This is a pretty simple idea that is used a lot in quite different contexts.



something something K[x]-modules
what?
which part of tropo's explanation did you not understand?
Is someone in the mood to explain tensor product to me?
Yeah, I could do that.
But first
Could you explain in our own words what the tensor product of vector spaces is?
That should give me a rough idea of what is troubling you with the definition.
It's in German, give me a second
(sending it so I can translate it)
It says that the tensorproduct of two Vectorspaces V1 and V2 over the field K is composed of a Vectorspaces V' and a bi linear function k:V1×V2 - > V' with the universal property that for every Vectorspaces W and every bi linear function phi: V1×V2->W exists an unique linear Funktion phi ':V' - >W, with phi' °k=phi
(I hope you can understand something)
I mean I get the definition, but somehow it confuses me anyway
Yeah so
The idea is precisely that the tensor product of two vector spaces turns bilinear maps into linear ones
In a canonical way
And that's precisely the reason why the tensor product exists.
This can be summarized as follows, for $V_{1}, V_{2}$ vector spaces over a field $\mathbb{K}$, the tensor product $V_{1} \otimes_{\mathbb{K}} V_{2}$ of $V_{1}$ and $V_{2}$ is the unique vector space (up to isomorphism) that satisfies for any vector space $W$
$$
\text{Bil}(V_{1} \times V_{2}, W) \cong \text{Hom}(V_{1} \otimes_{\mathbb{K}} V_{2}, W) \cong \text{Hom}(V_{1}, \text{Hom}(V_{2},W))
$$
The isomorphism:
$$
\text{Hom}(V_{1} \otimes_{\mathbb{K}} V_{2}, W) \cong \text{Hom}(V_{1}, \text{Hom}(V_{2},W))
$$
Is called the tensor-hom adjunction, and is in a sense what defines the tensor product (up to isomorphism).
MISTERSYSTEM :urs:
Of course
This definition only tells us the universal property that the tensor product of two vector spaces satisfies.
But it doesn't tell us anything about how to construct one explicitly.
The next step would be to show that the tensor product of two vector spaces always exists by constructing it explicitly.
There are lots of ways to construct it
But you know
I think the best thing to have in mind would be that the tensor product satisfies this universal property.
Rather than knowing how to explicitly construct it.
One way to look at the explicit construction it is that an element of the tensor product is a recipe for "what to do with a bilinear map from VxW once someone provides us with one*. At that time we can apply the map to various pairs of vectors, add the results, perhaps scale them. But we don't yet know which bilinear map we'll be given, so we don't know what its codomain is or what we can do with the results other than things that are possible in every vector space. And additionally we don't want to distinguish between recipes that are guaranteed to yield the same result for every bilinear map.
Is this like the most important thing?
It's literally the entire definition, so in that sense it is "most important". On the other hand, for the same reason that it eventually tells you literally everything there is to know about the tensor product, it doesn't necessarily provide much focus.
In particular, don't become so focused on the universal property that you forget the map k and what it alone can tell you about the tensor product without the rest of the universal property:
- Each time you have a vector v in V1 and w in V2, you get an element k(v,w) of the tensor product.
- To an extremely coarse approximation the tensor product can be thought of as being made of these combined elements.
- The tensor product is a vector space, but its addition and multiplication operations need to work in funky ways in order for k to be bilinear.
- If c is a scalar, then c·k(v,w) must be both k(cv,w) and k(v,cw) -- and so these must equal each other -- but it cannot be k(cv,cw) because that is c²k(v,w), which is different unless c is 0 or 1.
- k(v,w) + k(v',w') cannot be the same as k(v+v', w+w'), because that would mean that k(v,w)+k(v,w) is k(2v,2w) = 4k(v,w) instead of 2k(v,w) like it ought to be. In fact k(v,w)+k(v',w') is not generally even in the image of the map k!
- However, bilinearity means that k(v,w)+k(v',w) = k(v+v',w).
how would you prove: $ \begin{bmatrix}
1 & 1 \
0 & 1 \
\end{bmatrix} $ is not diagonizable
! matthewzz
is it because you have one eigenvector for the eigenvalue of 1 (which has multiplicity of 2)
Yup, there is only one eigenvector (up to scaling)
try to be more precise, you actually have infinitely many eigen vectors
you can geometric multiplicity is 1 where as AM is 2
I got x=0
y=0
And z=0
After using Gaussian elimination. Does this mean anything, or is that just the answer
outside of context, this means nothing
Idk if im asking the right questions,
What does it mean when all 3 equations in a matrix equal to 0.
not sure what kind of "meaning" you want to get from that
are you asking if systems of linear equations where all right-hand sides are 0 have any special properties?
Ah yes
well, one particular property of any such system is that the solution set is a subspace of R^n (where n is the number of variables) and in particular such systems are always consistent because they always have the all-zeroes solution
there's even a name for these: homogeneous systems
I see
Thanks for the info
this is #prealg-and-algebra not linear algebra
Suppose A is n*n symmetric matrix and positive definite then how i can write diagonal entries of A in terms of eigen values and eigenvectors based on jordan normal form?
help please
Hi guys, does anybody know of a problem in computational linear algebra which frequently requires large chains of matrix multiplication?
Aside from computer graphics
can u me ?
conjugate
thanks
In the process of transferring all my linear algebra notes to obsidian for future reference, here's the graph of all the different concepts so far
this is about 5 hours of work, definitely should've done this throughout the year instead lol
here's my obsidian of lin alg notes
each node is an individual file, when you're writing you can link to other files
sorta like wikipedia
and then it draws a line between the two notes
cool
hoffman kunge I suppose
that's a nice balance of matrix computation stuff and theory stuff
yeah i like hoffman kunze approach
I like exercises
i hate exercises 
nah
We didn’t cover fields and rings in my class (it’s a high school linear algebra class) but I might try to figure that out on my own time
What are the nodes that start with ! for?
We did vector spaces
vector spaces are defined over fields
Yeah I leaned vector spaces independently from fields completely
hmm
i guess it makes sense
don't really like
need to know what a field is to get what a vector space is
It was defined to me by the axioms and once i heard abt the examples I had a pretty solid grasp of it
Absolutely blew my mind when I first learned that you could use polynomials and functions as vectors
tEcHnIcAlLy a field of scalars is a vector space axiom
Yeah we got a pretty circular definition ig
Vector: an element of a vector space
Vector space: a set of vectors
a field is just a set with certain axioms
pretty sure the axioms of vector space and field are pretty similar
I’ll check out fields rq
every field is a vector space over any of its subfields (including over itself), this fact is used heavily in field theory
I’m assuming the circular plus and multiply signs are just generalized adding and multiplying for different fields?
i dont remember why i used oplus tbh
the only important thing is that there's operations addition and scalars
I gotcha
it's bad notation on my part tbh
oplus typically represents direct sums in lin alg i think
So does a field require you to be able to multiply two elements of a field? Because how do you multiply two vectors in R^2 for example?
But wouldn’t you want a multiplicative operation that returns another vector or does that not@matter?
you would need to define that multiplication
a multiplicative operation of vector * vector = vector would be cross product, i think
I gotcha
for R^2, you can multiply vectors like you do complex numbers
identifying $\bR^2 \ni (a, b) = a + bi \in \bC$, you get $$\begin{pmatrix}a\b\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}c\d\end{pmatrix} = (a+bi)(c+di) = ac-bd + (ad + bc)i = \begin{pmatrix}ac - bd \ ad + bc\end{pmatrix},$$ and that makes $\bR^2$ into a field
TTerra
(isomorphic to C)
@cinder meteor plenty of things can be said for vector spaces without such an operation, but plenty can be also said for spaces with such an operation, see algebras
the multiplication is not commutative, so you would not get a field
oh shit true
yes that is totally what i meant haha yes! i know what lie algebras are 100%
i am excited to learn lie algebra
it is somewhere down on my list of things i want to learn
you should be
it's also supposedly really important for quantum mechanics?
dope
i couldn't tell you exactly how though
I’m just confused bc I thought vector spaces were a subset of all fields, and thus needed a multiplicative operation
no no no no no no no no no no no no no
compare the defs
I just learned abt fields a half hour ago, gimme a break lmao
a field is a vector space with itself as the base field
not all vector spaces are fields
Ohh so the field isn’t a parent of the vector space
in fact one must equip a vector space with vector multiplication to even ask if its a field
since a vector space doesnt have vector multiplication by default
Ohh so the field isnt the elements of the vector space itself, but the scalars thst you do operations with vectors in the vector space?
Lmk if i have this wrong
yes
eg R^n is a vector space over R
meaning the elements of R^n are called vectors
elements of R are called scalars
So what field would the set of all second degree polynomials be? Would that also be R?
in general a vector space requires two things, a set of vectors and a set of scalars (the latter called a field)
theres still poor terminology here
we say a vector space is OVER a field
also degree 2 polynoms dont form a vector space
but the polynoms of degree at most 2 do
and its a vector space over R
any field needs to be closed under multiplicative inverses, so any field containing polynomials also has to contain their reciprocals
the field of rational functions, for example
i dont think thats what seen has in mind
we’re identifying vector space/field pairs
maybe he meant what vector space contains the 2nd order polynomials?
yes, which is what my example does
That’s what i meant, my bad
but the polynoms of degree at most 2 do
to be concise the polynom coefficients are real
So can you have two different vector spaces that share a set of vectors, but are over different fields?
(My bad for asking so many clarifying questions, fields are pretty new to me atm)
a vector space over some field is also a vector space over any subfield of that field
for example R^2 is a vector space over R, but also over Q
its possible
another example is
C is a vector space over C
That makes sense to me, since Q is a subfield of R
C is also a vector space over R
Because a number a in R can just be thought of as a+0i?
Thus making R a subfield of C
the reason is it satisfies the vector space axioms, but thats not too illuminating
whats more illuminating is that the key behind checking the axioms is that R is a subfield of C
I gotcha
How would I normalize a Vector based on a different vector?
Probably asked that wrong
any idea on how to start this one? I tried just putting the numbers in random order but couldn't find a combination
4 6 10 13
6 4 13 10
10 13 4 6
13 10 6 4
what lol i've been staring at it for like an hour
how did you understand what kind of pattern the numbers needed so that the matrix is symmetric?
i started with the first row and kind of filled it in row by row i guess
oh i see there's a diagonal pattern in the numbers now
also each mini 2x2 matrix in the 4x4 matrix is symmetric it looks like
Instead of normalizing based on 0, 0 I would want to normal based on another point, I. E. 50, 60
So if I normalized 400, 60 it would be 1, 0
say you have a matrix A, is there any tricks to find the determinant of A^3 ?
besides manually finding A^3 and then getting the determinant
if u know detA then u can use det(AB)=detA*detB
so det(A^3)=(detA)^3
using the definition of linear
do I need to consider X^TX?
do you know the definition of the frobenius norm?
this one?
I know of this one and the trace property of A^TA
that first one will be enough
do you know why $\nrm{\bd{y}+\bd{z}}^2 = \nrm{\bd{y}}^2 + \nrm{\bd{z}}^2$ when $\bd{y}, \bd{z}$ are orthogonal vectors in $\bR^m$?
Ann
I'm not quite sure
I presume the proof is something to do with the inner product and how that's related to y^Tz
...yes the proof does have to do with the inner product but also it's just pythagorean theorem generalized
in fact $\nrm{\bd{X}}F^2 = \sum{i=1}^n \nrm{\bd{x}_i}^2$ as should be relatively clear
Ann
yeah, I got to that part, didnt realise the orthogonality implication though
I get it now tho thanks
@dusky epoch if you don’t mind, I had another thought I didn’t quite get
C has orthogonal columns doesnt mean C^T C = I, it just means C^T C is diagonal
really? it says in an example that this is true
it's the next part to the previous question
I reduced it to equating the statement in the note I've written is true
maybe they meant orthonormal instead
yeah, it should be that shouldn't it
lets say it is orthonormal, does my reasoning still stand?
it seems ok but im not 100% sure and dont have the energy to check it for sure
no worries
nvm I found the solution
$x^Ty$ is a dot/inner product
melling


