#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 306 of 1
you either define a rotation by that form, and it's definitional, or you accept that a "rotation" ought to be a linear transformation represented by an orthogonal 2x2 matrix with determinant 1, and then you prove that such matrices take the form you're familiar with
Hey guys, I got a symmetric matrix, I've gotten its eigenvalues, and now I have to get the min based on x^2+y^2 =1
How do I minimise this?
Greatly appreciate any help
@clear kettle Assume that $av_1 + bv_2 = 0$, and prove that $a = b = 0$.
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
it is linearly independent in math notation
Do $A \in \mathbb{R}^3$ and $\alpha, \beta, \gamma \in \mathbb{R}$ exist such that:
$$ \left(\begin{array}{lll}
\alpha & 0 & 0 \
0 & \beta & 0 \
0 & 0 & \gamma
\end{array}\right)=A^{-1} M A .$$
If so, evaluate $A$ as well as $\alpha, \beta, \gamma$. Does anybody have just a small hint for this?
lewis
is M an arbitrary matrix ? if so the solution is obviously yes, any diagonalizable matrix satisfies that by definition
oh sorry
wait, let me type it out
$$M=\left(\begin{array}{ccc}
0 & 0 & 3 \
1 & -1 & -9 \
0 & 2 & 7
\end{array}\right)$$
lewis
Ah, seems like they're asking you to determine whether this matrix is diagonalizable
that proves v1 and v2 are linearly dependent
yeah, basically
in math notation
typically you would start by calculating the characteristic polynomial
for each eigenvalue found you determine the eigenspace
I did, the problem here is we haven't introduced
the fact that something is "diagonalizable"
so I have to justify that this conjugation exists
no?
wdym
this
Assume we don't know what it means for a matrix to be diagonalizable.
Just from this question and the given matrix M, what would the approach be
I've already calculated the characteristic polynomial
and for each eigenvalue, i've determined the eigenspace
Let me type out my results for this:
Ah I see, without that I don't see how we could determine such matrix
I mean there is a recipe on how to find such a matrix, no?
you found that in which chapter
yes there is but it has to do with diagonalization
What is it then
I mean diagonalization is just a way to present, how do you justify that the given "recipe" works.
you could determine it using diagonalization and just plug in the calculations but that doesn't seem satisfactory
Yeah
a matrix is diagonalizable iff the sum of the dimensions of eigenspaces is equal to the dimension of the space we're working in.
to prove that we start by noticing that a sum of eigenspaces is always direct, and when the matrix is diagonalizable the dimesion of each eigenspace is equal to the multiplicity of the corresponding eigenvalue in the characteristic polynomial
but not sure if this is what you're looking for
yeah, this seems a bit much
hmmm
I've been wondering what they want
or expect me to do
to formulate your question differently
they're asking you prove that M is equivalent to a diagonal matrix
yeah
pretty much this
and I'm sure we'll have to use the results of the eigenspaces and eigenvalues I've determined
Oh so you are allowed to use them ?
wdym justify it
this recipe is in any textbook about linear algebra
unless they want you to reproduce the proofs
well that's quite hard
maybe they just want you to determine the eigenspaces properly
justify any intermediary steps etc
did you determine the eigenspaces of each eigenvalue ? what are they
the eigenspaces for each eigenvalue are E_1 = span((-3, -3, 1)), E_2 = span((3, -5, 2)) and E_3 = span((1, -2, 1))
@wintry steppe
i started from #linear-algebra message
and the three vectors that span each of the eigenspaces are linearly independent
sure
I am back
Okay so the dimension of each eigenspace is what ?
because the sum of the dimensions of eigenspaces = the dimension of R^3
that's a standard result of diagonalizability
I already gave you the outline of proof if you want to look into it
but not sure you'll need it here
all of them do haha
Yes true
that's why we have multiple equivalent conditions
yeah
you mean proof for (a)=>(e) ?
@languid wigeon why didnt you include mod n?
you made an error in your calculation of the answers weren't the same on both sides.
for this problem you seem to be struggling with what vector addition and subtraction means geometrically, forget the the angles entirely you don't need them.
to start off with draw the origin zero, then draw v and w from the origin.
to add vectors v+w you translate a copy of w so that the it's origin is at the end of v and then draw a new arrow v+w from the origin to the new place the vector ends, vector subtraction is the same thing you just flip the arrow of the second vector and do the same process of adding them together
i used $\mod{n}$ to kill $uvU$
vin100
for $mR^T$, i proved that that's bounded above by $\sqrt{n}$
vin100
acutally i found this problematic
the gap $n - \sqrt{n}$ gets larger and larger as $n$ grows
vin100
$\mod{n}$ only guarantees that an entry has absolute value less than $n$
vin100
mm yes
i'm not sure what mod n does actually
if the mod operator % in the computer guarantees nonnegative output then we're fine
i'm afraid that the mod operation might pull an entry near $\sqrt{n} - n \in (-n,0)$
vin100
if we assume this, just like the assumption $0 \le r < q$ in Euclidean Algorithm, then the $nvU$ wouldn't affect $mR^T$.
vin100
sorry i don't think $n= 1$ is worth considering
vin100
and $n = 2,3$ have no practical value
vin100
$m \in {0,1}^n$ is a binary message of length $n$.
vin100
to see how much an emoticon takes, let's try the bot
,,ℹ️ info icon rendered in unicode code
vin100
each hex digit is equiv to $2^4 = 16$ bin digit
vin100
why
You are referring to this right? #linear-algebra message
no
Sorry was trying to reply to @dawn ocean
Shoulda went on laptop
I know I made many failed parallelograms, just trying to figure out which one it is your commenting on
I don't know whats linear algebra I just looked for whatever looked the hardest to understand what it was. Thank you.
too all of your drawings they're all labeled wrongly
it suggests you don't know how to add vectors geometrically
like you're just drawing random theings and hoping it works
there is a process to add vectors geometrically and i described it in my ping
\begin{align}
& \det\begin{pmatrix} 1 & a & bc \ 1 & b & ca \ 1 & c & ab \end{pmatrix} \
&= \frac{1}{abc} \det\begin{pmatrix} a & a^2 & abc \ b & b^2 & abc \ c & c^2 & abc \end{pmatrix} \
&= \det\begin{pmatrix} a & a^2 & 1 \ b & b^2 & 1 \ c & c^2 & 1 \end{pmatrix} \
&= \det\begin{pmatrix} 1 & a & a^2 \ 1 & b & b^2 \ 1 & c & c^2 \end{pmatrix}
\end{align}
vin100
thanks!
3 + 2x + 1?
please don't call me sir.
is it written exactly like that?
not 3x^2 + 2x + 1 maybe?
so it is 3x^2 + 2x + 1?
okay so 2x+4
??
3+2x+1 is literally the same as 2x+4 tho
in any case
whatever the polynomial might be
finding its coordinates wrt a basis is no different than any other "find the coords of this vector wrt this basis" problem
you are to find the constants a, b and c such that 2x+4 = a*1 + b*(1+x) + c*(1+x+x^2)
expand, collect like terms, equate coefficients
a=4, b=2, c=0?
is that what you're claiming?
no
4 * 1 + 2 * (1+x) is 2x+6, not 2x+4
extra credit for 7th grade
uses linalg terminology like "vector space" and "basis"

anyway what do you want to be walked through
my rebuttal to your claimed answer? or how to get the real answer
2x + 4 = a*1 + b*(1+x) + c*(1+x+x^2)
expand and collect like terms on RHS to get:
2x + 4 = cx^2 + (b+c)x + (a+b+c)
do you follow so far?
what comes after will come after. i am stopping to make sure you understand what i've said so far.
ok
now equate coefficients
0 = c
2 = b+c
4 = a+b+c
no
well you got the value of c right, it is 0
but b isn't 4, it's 2
and a is also 2
yes...
if you know how to solve systems of linear equations then this should pose no trouble for you
the answer is 42 as always
I am reviewing some notes here, and I have a hard time understanding why my solution is wrong.
This is wrt. Finding the eigenvectors of my matrix A.
One of the eigenvalues is $\lambda = 1$, after subtracting this from the diagonal of A and doing RRE I get the RRE(T) as seen in my screenshot.
For me, this tells me that $x = -7*y-> V_\lambda = <1/7,-1>$, because if $x=1 -> y = -7$ and $x=1/7 -> y = -1$.
But apparently this isn't correct; Why is the correct answer $<-1,1/7>$ i.e reversed?
Please tag me.
CoronaVirus
Maybe this is it
You made an error. $x=-7y$. If $x=1$ then $1=-7y$, which gives $y=-1/7$, not -7. Also, the eigenspace $V_{\lambda}$ is a set, not a vector, or an inner product.
1345631
The diagonal vector that bisect the angle between v and w should be v+w . The vector up top should be w not v+w. The side vector should be v not v-w. Just responding based on the diagram don’t know the context to this.
yea thats literally just what i came up with
i derped
again, to add vectors you translate a copy of one of the other vectors to the end of the other one and then the new arrow at the end is the end of your new vector. you draw from the origin to the new vector
in this picture y +x you can imagine translating y to the top and then draw from the origin of x an y to get to the end of your coppied x
that new vector is y+x
you can do it with the vector y as well
you just translate it to the right
and you get the same vector
how would i even start to do this
check the definition of a subspace
if you don't know it, google "definition of subspace" or "subspace test" or someone here will just tell you
ok i know what that is im just kind of confused on how i test for those in this specific problem
why? it shouldn't be any different from checking any other kind of set is a subspace
do remember that trace is linear
hmmmm ok
constant, you may pull it out of the transpose
Also, unsure if the ones I've done already are sufficient enough to prove whether it's Hermitian
Gotcha, ty
Are these all sufficient to prove they're Hermitian?
you messed up the first one
(AB)^T = B^T A^T
you need to switch the order, you can't just distribute transpose
i think for these kinds of simple computation questions you should just fully show how to go from e.g. (A + A^dagger)^dagger to A + A^dagger, don't leave out steps
Oh, woops
Just making sure I understand correctly, A + A^dagger = (A + A^dagger)^dagger, right? Because that's the definition of a Hermitian matrix?
that's what you want to prove
How would I go from the last step I've written down to the original equation? The question states A may not be Hermitian, so what would be my next step?
that's for you to figure out
Ah, shucks...
you're just working with conjugation and transposition, use some properties of them or something
is the adjoint of a matrix literally just another word for the transpose of a matrix?
in the real case, yes
cus my linear algebra course is nearly over and Ive never heard of adjoint before lmao
oh ok thx xD
not to be confused with "adjugate" or something, which is sometimes used in some old treatments of determinants/cramer's rule/etc.
mr. Ttera can you help me understand a proof in the analysis channel
sorry for the cross posting
I will be forever indebted
i can not
So um...My prof wants me to do this w/ Einstein notation
I don't know how to do that at all lol
doing it with einstein notation sounds like a waste of time
It's prob practice for working with tensors
all you need to know is that transpose of transpose and conjugate of conjugate return the original matrices
You have to use $(AB)^i_{j} = \sum_k A^i_{k}B^k_{j}$ also $(A^T)^i_{j} = A^j_{i}$ and you have to drop the sum symbols.
criver
swapping the indices of A^T like in the above is wrong unless you assume orthonormal basis btw
As otherwise you need the metric tensor and its inverse to lower and raise indices
can someone explain what a basis is
a basis is a set of vectors which span a vector space
gonna make an analogy here to painting that i found on a website a while ago
the basis is the set of colors of a palette such that
- the palette spans the set of all colors
- each color is independent
for example,
{red, yellow, blue, white, black} is valid because they span the set of all colors (you can combine them to make whatever color) and they are independent (you cannot combine two colors in the set to make another one in the set)
{red, blue, white} is not valid because they do not span the set of all colors (you cannot make yellow with red, blue, and white), but they are independent
{red, blue, purple, white} is not valid because they do not span the set of all colors (same reason above) and they are not independent (red + blue = purple)
👍
Can you please explain eigenvalues and eigenvectors ?
what aspect?
cant say i can, sorry
there is a lot to say about eigenvalues and eigenvectors, you should be more specific
do you want to know the definition? do you want to know how to find them? do you want to know why we care about them?
Last one ye
studying eigenvalues and eigenvectors tells us a lot about the structure of linear operators
for example, finding canonical forms for operators (diagonal, jordan form, rational canonical, etc.) is both of theoretical and computational significance
a lot of problems are simplified by assuming at the outset that some operator takes on a particularly simple form
studying how and when such forms can be achieved is typically done through studying its eigenvectors
here's a theoretical example where assuming that some matrix is diagonal helps us greatly: one has the matrix exponential identity det(exp A) = exp(trace A). the easiest way to prove this is to use the fact that any A with complex entries can be approximated very well by diagonalizable matrices, and, using some algebraic properties of the operators here, you can further assume A is diagonal (where the formula just reduces to the fact that e^{x + y} = e^x e^y).
i'm handwaving some analysis there but whatever, that's not important
that's the first example that came to mind
if you don't understand the example, that's okay
it's kind of difficult to tell linear algebra students why their class is important without just saying "vector spaces, operators, eigenstuffs, etc. show up everywhere in math", but i hope i justified at least a little bit why someone might care about this stuff
Thanks a bunch! I'm assuming you're right, since this is a mathematical physics class
Does the notation change in any way for the conjugate?
the complex conjugate of a matrix is just the entry-wise complex conjugate, so no
Gotcha, thanks
sean
Alr i want to make sure i understand basis, dimension and coordinates correctly
So i'mma say the things ik and plz sm1 correct me if i say smthng wrong
For R^3
If dim(set of vectors we have)> 3 then the set is linearly dependent and we would be able to express any vector in R^3 in infinitely many ways (infinitely many coordinates)
If dim(set of vectors we have)<3 then there is no way those vectors would span the entirety of R^3
And there would be vectors in R^3 that we wouldn't be able to express using the vectors we have
If dim(set of vectors)=3 and the set is linearly independent then those vectors are basis for R^3 and the coordinates of each vector in R^3 are unique
So coordinates are unique only when we're taking them with respect to a basis
That's pretty much everything ik :)
Huh
If we have S={v1,v2,v3}
Dim(S)=3 right?
dimension is the minimum number of basis vectors required to span the same subspace as S
dim(S) can be 0,1,2 or 3
Oh
the entire vector space has a dimension, not a set of vectors
Not true,Take {(0,1,0),(0,2,0),(1,0,0)}
You can never express (0,0,1)
Yeah cuz the set is not linearly independent
What do we call the number of vectors in a set tho ...
do you know the concept of span
Yeah
Well,I guess just cardinality of spanning set? There is no specific term for it
Yeah i've never heard "cardinality" b4
Weird tbh . I though i read that notation somewhere in the book
Dim(set(
cardinality of a set is the number of elements in it
Yeah that seems to match what i want
So we would express it as
Cardinality(S)?
If the vector is in span,it can be written in infinitely many ways
If cardinality(S)=dim(R^3)
Or just |S|
Only if the set is not a basis
Or if the vectors are not linear indep
If a vector belongs to the span and the vectors in the set are lin indep
Well,if |S|>3 it won't be linearly independent
There would be a unique way to express this slvector
True
I don't think i understand dimension well :)
I'm so confused rn
We've been using it
For a few weeks now
To express the number of elements in a set
dimension is if you start with a spanning set
Dim(RS(A))
Remove all the redundant elements
Dim(CS(A))
And find cardinality of that set
the number of elements in a basis, or the number of elements in the space?
Like
If we have S={v1,v2,v3}
Dim(S)=3 (that's what i thought)
So for example
{(1,0,0),(2,0,0),(0,1,0)} has dimension 2 because (2,0,0) is redundant
You can express any vector in the span with just {(1,0,0),(0,1,0)}
Yeah. So the dimension is the number of linearly independent vectors in the set?
Yea,vectors that cannot be written in terms of other vectors
Like (2,0,0)=2(1,0,0)
So (2,0,0) has to be taken out
Or well,you could remove (1,0,0) and keep (2,0,0)
Yeah i'm fam with the def of linear independence
Well that brings us to another question
How can the dim of the range of a linear transformation be zero
the empty set spans 0
Cuz i was told to check 8f the resulting vectors are lin indep
After finding basis for the range
the "dimension" of a vector space is the "cardinality" of any of its bases, to be pedantic about language in the previous discussion
Yeah i wasn't familiar with the word "cardinality" till a few mins ago lol
Well,In a basis you never include the 0 element by default
Yeah obv
Cuz that would make it a lin dep set
But like i can't remember the context tbh
The vector space {(0,0,0)} is interesting because we just let the empty set be the generating set
But i was WARNED by my professor to check if the resulting vectors are lin indep
Because span(Set) is the smallest vector space that contains the Set
When exactly is finding a basis for the range impossible?
Finding the basis for range is always possible in the finite dimensional case
If we have a transformation matrix A
The basis for the CS of A are the basis for the range of the linear transformation defined by A right?
But then why do i need to check for linear independence 🐸
Wouldn't the resulting vectors ve automatically lin indep
How do you find basis without checking for linear independence
RREF will give you the dimension
Those would be the ones that are lin indep
And would form a basis for the CS
Obv we don't get the columns from the reduce we only get the pivot columns
The columns that form a basis for the CS are the columns in the original matrix that correspond to those pivot locations
It would also give me the lin indep vectors i think
Like
The lin indep column vectors
And those would form a basis for the CS
Which would also form a basis for the range
So question is.. why do i need to check that the resulting column vectors are lin indep if they already form a basis for the CS
Yeah. I rem my prof sayin gsmthng abt it tho
Idr the context but he said it was imp 🥲
Mind if i ask a question abt eigen values and eigen vectors?
Sure
I'm still confused as to what the number of eigen values and eigen vectors corresponding to an n×n matrix should be
So what ik
Is that n×n matrices have at most n distinct eigen values
Or like
Every n×n matrix has n eigen values (although some may be repeated)
Now wb the eigen vectors
Every n×n matrix has exactly n eigen vectors or what?
Not necessarily
Only over C
Over R there could be 0 eigenvalues as well
Nah we're only dealing with R
0 real eigen values
But there's always n eigen values
So can we find a similar relationship for eigen vectors
if the linear map is on a real vector space, then there is no such thing as a complex eigenvalue
now that being said
there is a process to turn a real vector space into a complex vector space called complexification, and thus maps over real vector spaces becomes maps over the new complex vector space, but that probably goes beyond the scope of your course
Very true
Talking abt the last sentence lol
I just want to know the relationship between the size of the matrix and the number of eigen vectors
And possibly the relationship between the number of distinct eigen values and the number of eigen vectors corresponding to them
And the dim of eigen spaces corresponding to eigen values🥲
And algebraic and geometric multiplicites
I understand everything but i'm failing to see a relationship among them
first of all, it's important to master dimensions, spans, and bases first because if $v$ is an eigenvector of a linear map $A$, then any scalar multiple of $v$ is also an eigenvector, so
$$
Av = \lambda v \Rightarrow A(kv) = (\lambda k) v
$$
for any scalar $k$
lucid
so for any eigenvector $v$ corresponding to an eigenvalue $\lambda$, there is at least a $1$-dimensional subspace of such vectors generated by $v$
lucid
Ok so there is at least one eigen vector corresponding to each eigen value?
Or more like
The dim(eigenspace corresponding to this eigenvalue) is at least 1
yes
a repeated eigenvalue is simply your eigenspace having more than 1 dimension
The dim(eigenspace corresponding to those to eigenvalues) would be 2 ?
Exactly but is it related to the algebraic multiplicity?
Meaning
Is the dim(eigenspace) necessarily = algebraic multiplicity
Oh
geometric multiplicity*
Yeah just realised
the algebraic multiplicity is the dimension of the generalized eigenspace
And remembered that they don't have to be equal /:
From our lecture on diagonalisation
what textbook are you using btw
Howard anton i believe
if only that was linear algebra done right...
anyways sorry for the mini rant
haha
Elementary linear algebra
Lmao np
So from what i've understood
The geometric multiplicity of an eigenvalue is always less than or equal to its algebraic multiplicity
yes
but do you know why that is the case
at least intuitively
Hmmm i don't have intuition for anything lin alg related unfortunately lol
When a matrix is orthogonal it's determinant is equal to 1 right?
no, not necessarily.
why not?
my thinking is that since inverse of a matrix is given by
inverse = 1/determinant * transpose
and orthognal is when transpose = inverse
hence for orthogonals 1/determinant has to = 1
hence determinant = 1
what am I missing in that line of thinking?
no
if you assume 1/det(A) = 1 then of course det(A) = 1
this isnt true either
anyway, $\bmqty{1&0\0&-1}$ is an orthogonal matrix and yet its det is $-1$ and not $1$
Ann
did somebody ping me here?
oh ye my b, I replied to something then realised I did something wrong
If U is a unitary matrix, how are the eigenvalues of U + U^* related to the eigenvalues of U?
I just think that the eigenvalues of U + U* would be \lambda + 1/\lambda where \lambda is an eigenvalue of U
Hi, can anyone tell me how to find the linear transformation here. The message is too implicit and I cant solve it.
Yea that's correct
yeah and see as how theyre unitary both \lambda and 1/\lambda have a modulus of 1
@native rampartif i write now the eigenvalue of U + U* as lambda_k, is there a relationship between \lambda_k and the \theta in exp(i theta) where exp(i theta) is the eigenvalue of U?
assuming \theta is in 0 to \pi
I mean just expand and substitute in \lambda + 1/ \lambda
I think all i can say is that as \theta is minimized (towards 0) we have larger eigenvalues associated?
yes but you get
$e^{i \theta_k} + e^{-i \theta_k}$
*-algebra
So I guess you can conclude that value lies between -2 and 2
yeah, nice
Let $U$ be unitary and therefore normal. Per the spectral theorem, there exists an orthonormal basis of eigenvectors with eigenvalues $\lambda_1, \dots, \lambda_n$, all norm $1$. Then
$$
U = \begin{pmatrix}
\lambda_1 & \dots & 0 \
\vdots & \ddots & \
0 & &\lambda_n
\end{pmatrix}
$$
Then the matrix of the adjoint map under the same basis is simply the conjugate transpose
$$
U^* = \begin{pmatrix}
\bar\lambda_1 & \dots & 0 \
\vdots & \ddots & \
0 & & \bar\lambda_n
\end{pmatrix}
$$
Adding the matrices together:
$$
U + U^* = \begin{pmatrix}
\lambda_1 + \bar\lambda_1 & \dots & 0 \
\vdots & \ddots & \
0 & & \lambda_n + \bar\lambda_n
\end{pmatrix}
$$
lucid
if $T: A \rightarrow B$ is a bijection, does that mean that $dim(A) = dim(B)$ ?
Vince Tafea
Yea
thought so
Well T also has to be a linear map
ah yeah T is a linear map
do you think in a proof that is fine to say? or is there a theorem or something associated with this
you should prob call it an "isomorphism" just to be precise (bijection that is also a linear map)
could use rank nullity
bijection = trivial null space = full rank
so the image has the same dimension as the domain
if this is for a course, you should probably ask your instructor or ta if you really want to be sure, and get their general policy on how you can use prior results in assignments/tests which is useful
but in a proof of anything that isn't very basic that would probably just be treated as a given
ye
c = v · Lˆ + m.
here, if i know any one of the basis vector of L^, is it possible for me to get m by knowing only c?
L^ is nxn matrix
v is 1xn matrix
what do you mean by basis vector of a matrix? do you mean column of the matrix?
are there like entires of L that you'd not know in this problem
also do you know the value of v
wai
the description is kinda confusing, all i can say is that if n=3 for example and you know v is something like (1,0,0) for example, then v . L is completely determined by the first column of L i guess
you only have to know the columns corresponding to the nonzero entries of v (but this might not be what was asked)
this is the thing
we have to analyze the security of the cryptosystem. In particular, we have to show that if any orthogonal basic
of Lˆ can be found, then the security is broken
@floral siren
This might be basic but im struggling to find an answer, does anyone know of a general form solution to the equation $X\otimes A=B$ where only $X$ is unknown and $\otimes$ is the kroenecker product?
Fro
I know of the inuitive solution which is simply dividing out the contents of A in B, but is there a nice way of performing this
UV^-1 will be a upper triangular matrix as well as a rotation matrix
Then Note that forces sin \alpha to be 0
and taking cos \alpha = 1 and -1 gives you all the solutions
hey drake i am not really sure about how you got UV^-1 and how it forces sin alpha to be 0? I thought matrix multiplication wasn't commutative so we cant have Ralpha R-beta * UV^-1
$U = (R_{\alpha}^{-1}R_{\beta}) V \implies UV^{-1} = R_{\beta - \alpha}$
Drake
RHS is a rotation matrix and LHS is upper triangular since U and V^-1 are both upper triangular
Thank you so much was stuck on that step for the longest time makes so much sense
np
I guess you can do index shenanigans. like b_11 will be x_11 a_11 b_{m+1} will be x_12 a_11 and so on where m is the number of columns in A
Well Start with b_11,consider only terms of form b_{km+1}{ln+1} where size of A is mxn, that will give you x_kl a_11
Yeah that was what i thought, i was just hoping there was some nice operation that acted as an inverse of kroenecker
Well I guess this is nice enough
If $X \otimes A = B$,then
$[X]{ij}= \frac{b{{(i-1)m+1},{(j-1)n+1}}}{a_{11}}$
Drake
i'm trying to prove this theorem in linear algebra by friedberg et al. 4th edition page 139
Well,That reduces to finding the solution to differential equation with auxillary polynomial
(t-c)^n=0
and i think it uses on at least two other results in the section
i'm stuck on the induction step of the hint
you might wanna read again
Well I know but I think that gets the point across
what i'm trying to prove is that the set given there forms a basis for the solution space
i.e. the null space of the differential operator associated with that polynomial
i've already proven that the set (let's name it beta) is a subset of the solution space
i only need to prove that it's linearly independent which i'm trying to do with induction
because that's what given in the hint
we need not worry about the span of beta because the dimension of the solution space coincides with the cardinality of beta
So you know {e^ct, t e^ct, t^2 e^ct...} Is a LI set?
i found the invertibility of $B$ irrelevant to the conclusion that $U = \pm V$
vin100
we're given $$R_\alpha U = R_\beta V.$$
vin100
denote $U = [u_1 u_2]$ and so on for $V$
vin100
so the above matrix identity can be translated into
``$\vec{u}_j$ is rotated $\alpha-\beta$ to form $\vec{v}_j$, $j = 1,2$.''
vin100
Greetings, can anyone recommend a good book or series of lectures that covers vector spaces and subspaces. Im kind of stuggling with them a bit.
insel's lin alg book is a great classic
[about isaiah's question]
the assumption that U and V are upper-triangular simply means that u₁ and v₁ are parallel to (1,0)ᵀ. this forces the angle of rotation α-β to be a multiple of 180°. that proves the claim that U = ± V. we don't need any assumptions on their invertibility.
Multiplying with that will make all the $t^m e^{c_{k}t}$ terms vanish
(D-c_kI)^n_k
it's a linear operator
also it's strange how you used the index m lol
because that's what a solution manual i was looking into also wrote
a badly written one
Drake
Well By multiplying,I mean applying it in both LHS and RHS
yea, i get that much
the linear operator reduces those terms to zero
yea
what do we do afterwards?
So,you know if we exclude those vectors,The remaining set is LI
wait a minute
are linearly independent subsets mapped to linearly independent subsets
(D-c_kI)^n_k will just scale all other terms
iff injective i believe
also this is a really unclear argument to me, could you elaborate further
apply the linear operator and some terms vanish yes
but the linear operator is also applied on the other terms
what happens to them?
Ok That doesn't behave nicely
yea, that's the part i'm stuck on
it's a lot of messy algebraic manipulations that don't seem to lead anywhere
i'm supposed to find a pattern in it according to friedberg
So $(D-c_k I)^{n_k} (t^x e^{c_m}t) =( (D-c_m I) + (c_m-c_k)I ) ^{n_k} (t^x e^{{c_m}t})$
Drake
If you manipulate you get this will be a linear combination of {e^c_m t , t e^{c_m t} ... t^{x} e^{c_m t} }
Not a clean way of doing it
Binomial expansion
This gets very ugly,I think
yea, i might try thinking of other ways before giving up because i really don't wanna be doing binomial expansions on maps 
Do you know primary decomposition?
no
but i'm pretty sure it should be doable without that since there hasn't been much complicated machinery introduced in friedberg up until that point
without prim decomposition,I guess binomial expansion on maps is the only way
actually i think there's going to be one map
$(c_m - c_k)^{n_k} I^{n_k}$ which is just going to be $(c_m - c_k)^{n_k} I$
pecfex
when we expand it, right
How did you reduce this to that?
Yea
let's see if we could do something with it i guess lmao
Write the equation as $\begin{bmatrix} b \ d \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} \cos(\alpha) & - \sin(\alpha) \ \sin(\alpha) & \cos(\alpha) \end{bmatrix} \cdot \begin{bmatrix} u_{12} \ u_{22} \end{bmatrix}$
Sup?
and then u know what to do
try multiplying R_a with [u12 u22] using usual matrix multiplication
you'll see you end up with what is given
so just work backwards
wym by "the" property?
there are four properties listed here
do you mean property (a)?
@clear kettle
havent learnt matrices yet
i just started learning it lol
it wasn't taught in a levels
depends on u
ive been watching a bunch of vids and 3b1bs linear algebra vids
but im so lost on this question lol
.....
maybe start using parts i and ii to rewrite the matrix B
okay so yeah i got ghosted and then the person who ghosted has had their question get posted over
B isn't a part, it's a 2 by 2 matrix.
think of B as being made of two column vectors stuck together.
yep sorry thats what i meant
also think about what it means for U to be upper-triangular.
how do you stick two column vectors together to be a matrix tho
i guess thats what this question is asking
wym
you just do
sticking things together is meant to be taken as literally as possible
using the notation of the problem, $B$ is made of $\bmqty{a\c}$ and $\bmqty{b\d}$ stuck together in that order
Ann
yep
not rlly
?!
a matrix with values only in the upper corner
from the diagonal onwards
an upper-triangular matrix is a matrix all of whose nonzero entries are on or above the main diagonal
in particular, in your case, $U$'s first column will be of the form $\bmqty{x \ 0}$
Ann
i.e. it will be a vector parallel to the x-axis
right
the first column of $R_{\alpha}U$ will be $\bmqty{x \cos(\alpha) \ x \sin(\alpha)}$
Ann
ok
In each of the following cases, exhibit a basis for the given space, and prove
that it is a basis.
11. The space of 2 x 2 matrices.
12. The space of m x n matrices.
13. The space of n x n matrices all of whose components are 0 except possibly
the diagonal components.
please help
you know how (1, 0), (0, 1) is a basis of R^2? (1, 0, 0), (0, 1, 0), (0, 0, 1) of R^3? try emulating that
so 1 0 and 0 1 is basis of 2*2 matrices?
Hi everyone, I’m having some trouble understanding the solution to eigenvectors for this problem
Here is the matrix
I’ve calculated the eigenvalues as 10, 6 and 2
I’ve got the first eigenvector as (sqrt(3),1,0) which is correct
But the second eigenvector is (0,0,1) I’m struggling to understand why the first two values are 0
Can i assume you got (0,0,1) from the eigenvalue 6?
Yes
You can just multiply the matrix by (0,0,1) to verify that it has 6 as an eigenvalue.
But how do I get to that vector in the first place
S (x,y,z) = 6 (x,y,z). Now solve for x,y,z.
Replace y1 with x1 and y2 with x2.
Guys a more phylosophical question. Today i got the question why are motivated to explore the relationship between Scalarproducts and norms.
More accurately asked what advantage does a norm that was induced by a scalarprodukt in comparison to a norm that has no scalarprodukt as its origin.
Yes.
One thing i told was in numerical Analysis at least we have a more well conditioned function in form of the Condition Number in the case of Norms that are induced by Scalarproducts in comparison to the counter part. Which is why i wonder if similiar advantages are know in linear algebra
The expression (a|a) only has one variable.
Scalar products are useful/necessary when you need to consider orthogonality. If you just need to consider lengths of vectors or distances, you don't need a scalar product - the norm will do just fine.
Yes.
not sure if this is the right place, but i am doing mesh simplification with quadric error metrics, and the fundamental math part of this algorithm is solving a linear system Ax = -b where A is a 3x3 matrix, x is the new optimal position of a vertice i am trying to solve, and b is the cost of moving the vertice (i.e. how much does the mesh change if i collapse two verts into this vert). Now, i can usually solve the system with a combination of LU decomposition and SVD, but sometimes that does not work. I was thinking it might be possible to solve this (3d) system on a line along the edge of the two vertices instead of full-on 3d as a fallback, but i am not sure where to find resources on how to do this, i haven't been able to find anything
geometrically speaking, the A matrix is the quadric error matrix, its called that because it forms a quadric surface, and if visualized it would be ellipse-like, and it tells you where you can move a new vertice in such a way where the error introduced is some value (usually 0-ish), except sometimes this matrix can be non-invertible because the possible positions are infinite, either on a plane or a line (such as in the case of a flat plane mesh)
alexisreen
Are the vectors (cv,w) and c(w,v) the same vector in VxW?
how to find values of c such that 3c^2t^2 + ct + 4 ∈ Span{t^2 + 4t − 3, 2t − 2, t^2 + 6t − 5}
L(p(t))= tp(t)+p(0)
p(t)=t in our case
L(t)=t*t + 0 =t^2
transpose cause you need to express the representation of L in terms of column vectors with numbers not polynomials
i personally haven't seen the [L(t)]_T notation before
but i assume that's what's going on
yeah i said column vectors
$(1, 0, 0)^T$ is $$\begin{pmatrix}1 \ 0 \ 0 \end{pmatrix},$$ it's just a compact way of writing it that doesn't break the line
TTerra
look at T
"Consider the ordered bases S = {t, 1}..."
to find the representation of L with respect to S and T you need to compute how L acts on the elements of S and then write the results in terms of the elements of T
i am referring to the question
are you asking how to find the representation?
okay
it's called a subspace
note that "is a span" implies the set is linearly dependent
it is not, it's just notation for another basis (completely unrelated whatsoever to S, T)
no it's just a symbol that means a different set theres only so many letters we can use
lots of things in math use the same notation with completely different meanings
you get used to it
"is a span" means "equals span(S) for some set S" means "every element is of the form \sum c_i v_i for some scalars c_i and vectors v_i in S" and i leave it to you to see why such a set is going to be linearly dependent
it says, they're already in standard basis
i don't understand what you mean
also, please don't ping me with every message
you asked what to call a set that is linearly dependent and a span of vectors
of course, any subspace can be written as a span of independent vectors
any set of vectors, regardless of linear dependence or independence, spans some subspace. it's called their span
it's wrong
alright i don't want to decipher what your book means through you anymore
can you screenshot the part of your book you're confused about?
basis vectors span a space
i'm so confused
the definition of span is given a set of vectors the span of that set is the set of all finite linear combinations of the vectors
same thing
transpose is just a compact way of writing a column vector
inside a line without breaking it
the definition of span says nothing about independence or dependence of vectors
no, i mean in a typesetting context.
writing a column vector as a row vector transposed is just a neat way of doing it that saves space. there's nothing mathematical going on
?
there's nothing about basis vectors in here
no
you don't
be respectful if you want my help
what is L?
is this a continuation of the previous question?
if you're talking about the vectors on the top left in blue, those were just obtained by matrix multiplication by A.
the vectors
try computing $$A\begin{bmatrix}1 \ 0 \ 0 \end{bmatrix}, A\begin{bmatrix}1 \ 1 \ 0 \end{bmatrix}, \text{ and } A\begin{bmatrix}1 \ 1 \ 1 \end{bmatrix}$$
TTerra
each of these should be a column vector with two entries
A is a 2 x 3 matrix. multiplying a 2 x 3 matrix and a column vector with 3 entries results in a column vector with 2 entries
... the product of an m by n and an n by p matrix is an m by p matrix
so the results shouldn't just be scalars, which is what you had
Could someone clarify please why the algebraic multiplicity of eigenvalue gives the size of Jordan block of the matrix with that eigenvalue on diagonal?
øst
this is not a vector space this is an expression
do you mean ${ x_0 e^t + x_1 te^t \mid x_0, x_1 \in \bR }$?
Ann
(a subspace of C^1(R) presumably)
Yes, that's what i mean
Lmao that's the basis?
could i get some help with this?
This is B
and this is Ra
So i found that u11 and u22 cannot be zero as otherwise B would not be invertible
but where do I go from here?
How is the eigenvector for the eigenvalue 1 equal to <0,0,1>, if the RRE of A - Eigenvalue*E is equal to diag(1,1,0)???
@torpid barn So lets suppose you know following information B is invertible so and you know the form of $R_a$ and know the form of U
Cho
What can you say about U first things first
U has to be invertible aswell?
Cho
For every a $\in \mathbb{R}$
Cho
Perfect so letssuppose you have following information \begin{itemize}
\item $B=R_aU$
\item $B=R_bV$
\end{itemize}
cos of the identity cos^2 + sin^2 = 1
Cho
huh
im not following sorry
Try to formulte such that $V=R_aU(R_b)^-1$
right
Cho
ye
can you try to work from there on
Depens on your choice of a and b
yea
but a doesnt have to equal b
I guess the thing i have to proof is that Ra Rb^-1 has to either equal to I or negative I
I can give you one more tipp
yes pls
Rotation does what ?
it rotates the basis vectors
It rotates the Matrix or in this case the spann of a matrix if the rotation is fitting all rotation could possibly do is change the direction of a basis vector from start point to positive values to start point towards negative values
Have to go now though
this should be more than enough for you to smash your head against it
good luck
Can you help me with my question aswell 
I have 5 percent on my phone pray its enough
gonna give you little tios
Do you knoe hoe you find out about the eigenvector of an Eigenvalue?
Because your question kinda implies you didnt quite got the fundamental idea behind solving homogenous Linear equation system
Which is why look at it this way
\begin{itemize}
\item $x_1+0+0=0$
\item $0+x_2+0=0$
\item $0+0+0=0$
\end{itemize}
Cho
Try to solve this and think why this works
@viral olive So, since Ra and Rb^-1 are rotational matrices, their product is also a rotational matrix
and because rotational matrices are only able to rotate U, either in the positive of negative direction
U = +- V?
is that explanation correct?
but there is no difference between the two right?
Well can you explain why there is no difference?
from the original equation
RaU = RbV
Ok
that works right?
nope
oh
Like i said you are taking it as a given thing
there is a reason why i specifically said the formular RaVRb
because it doesnt have to be VRaRb
Except you have an explanation why it works
well phone charge is dying
2 percent left think about what i said
This is the exact equation I have written (except x,y,z ofc.).
x1 = 0
x2 = 0
And then there is no x3
@torpid barn Study the two ways of writing of $BB^{-1}=I$
criver
once using that $B = RU$ and $B^{-1} = V^{-1}Q^T$, and once that $B = QV$ and $B^{-1} = U^{-1}R^T$
where R and Q are orthogonal matrices
criver
When they tell you that a matrix is invertible, and that it has two representations B = QV and B = RU, then if you have no idea what to do, just form properties involving those, as in the above.
and then try to compute it to make U = +- V?
ok
R = Ra, Q = Rb
yes, now try the other way to write this, such that the rotation matrices end up on both sides
i.e. B = QV, B^{-1} = U^{-1} R^T
wait, nvm, I am not sure that will help you, sorry about that
oh ok
I wanted to show that Q^TR = R^TQ which would imply that this is either the identity or a 180 degree rotation
but I think I missed something
without using that B is invertible or that U and V are triangular you get RU = QV -> U = R^TQ V
and I think you also need to somehow get that U = QR^T V from the fact that they are triangular and invertible
then QR^T = R^TQ would mean that the rotation is either 0 degrees or 180
right
the fact that B is invertible means u =
but u11 and u22 cant be zero
otherwise U wouldnt be invertible
lol
then it doesn't even matter whether U or V is triangular or whether B is invertible
I was thinking of n-d
but your problem is 2D
but like the question says it should matter tho
and if this is true: R^TQ = QR^T
no wait that's not enough
I needed that R^TQ = Q^TR
i.e. that (R^TQ)^{-1} = R^TQ then it's either 0 degrees or 180 degrees
wait I dont get why its either 0 or 180 degrees
I meant i get that it needs to be that
but why is it 0 or 180?
is it because if the inverse is is equal to the original then that would mean the rotation either doesnt rotate at all or rotates in a direction where it doesnt matter which way it rotated?
Is it possible to find order basis so that matrix representation of linear operator is diagonal matrix provided it has two eigenvalues ? Dimension of vector space is 4
You can if there is a basis of eigenvectors
Is there a method to do this ?
