#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 302 of 1
with the isomorphism 1 <-> (1,0,0), x <-> (0,1,0), x^2 <-> (0,0,1) you can actually write this as:
$\begin{bmatrix} 1 & -1 & 2 \ 0 & 1 & -3 \ 0 &0 & 1 \end{bmatrix}$
criver
ok but how do u connect this w the coordinates of P
The above matrix transforms the coefs of a poly from B2 to B1
I derived it from these
So to go in thereverse directikn you have to compute the inverse
then do the samefor B3
B1 would just be P right
Finally you can compute (B1->B3) * (B2->B1)
no
you have
f(x) = a + b * x + c * x^2
And you want f(1) =4, f(2) = 3, f(3) = 0
You can make linear system from that for a,b,c
Then (a,b,c) would be the coords of P in B1
You have to multiply it by the inverse of this matrix (the B2->B1 matrix)
Then derive the B3->B1 matrix,invert it and do the same
Finally compute the B2 ->B3 matrix as (B1 -> B3) * (B2 ->B1)
You will have all of those matrices from the previous steps
This is the B2->B1 one
If you have
$\vec{f}i = \sum_j S{ji} \vec{e}_j$
criver
im unsure of how you got this matrix
Where fi are the basis vectors in one of the bases and ej in the other, then S is the change of basis matrix from F to E
From this
It's the S matrix
In this specific case f1 = 1, f2 = x-1, f3 = (x-1)(x-2)
e1 = 1, e2 = x, e3 = x^2
e.g. f3 = (x-1)(x-2) = 2 -3x + x^2 = 2 * e1 + (-3) * e2 + 1 * e3
That's how I derived the equations and the corresponding coefficients of S
couldnt we compute (B3 -> B1) * (B1 -> B2)
no
You want something that goes from B2 to B3
What you wrote maps from B1 to B2 first
And then maps from B3 to B1, but this makes no sense, since coords are in B2 after the first step, not in B3
You want B2 -> B3
So one such path is B2 -> B1 ->B3
Then (B1->B3) * (B2->B1) = (B3->B1)^{-1} * (B2->B1)
your steve jobs, you should think
You're*
i'm trying to prove this
and i'm a bit unsure
of whether i need to prove the alpha = 1 case
like
do i really need to do it?
or is what i did up to the Suppose alpha=1
enough
also, if it isn't, how would i go about this?
i've tried doing some stuff but none of them worked
the D(v_1, ..) stuff is just the determinant of a system of vectors btw
you need to handle alpha = 1 separately
because in that case, in (alpha - 1) D(v1, ..., vn) = 0, it could just be (alpha - 1) making the whole LHS zero
you have to show that in fact D(v1, ..., vn) = 0 itself
i see
could you give me a tiny hint on how to do this?
i have kinda no idea rn
these r the properties i have rn
that i can use
since v_j is the 0 vector, v_j + v_j = v_j is true
in fact, you could bypass the earlier part about alpha =/= 1 this way
$D(v_1, \ldots, v_j, \ldots, v_n) = D(v_1, \ldots, v_j + v_j, \ldots, v_n)$
ManifoldCuriosity
you could just let the jth column be zero and apply linearity, so you’d get detA = detA+detA
dang it
oh shit
bruh my whole proof was kinda useless then
lol
thanks anyway i got it now
it happens

you basically found the right idea in the earlier part
yeah
i feel like any linear map and its double transpose should have the same ranks and nullities but i cant prove it
of fin-dim vector spaces
rank(A) = rank(A^T) so rank(A^T) = rank((A^T)^T) = rank(A)
maybe. I haven't thought about the proof of that in a long time
yea, i'm trying to not use that
but i found another way
for fin-dim, $(V^{})^{}$ is canonically isomorphic to $V$
ManifoldCuriosity
if $M$ is a matrix, $L_M : V \rightarrow V$ its corresponding linear transformation
ManifoldCuriosity
its transpose is a map $L_M^T : V^{} \rightarrow V^{}$
ManifoldCuriosity
wait
I probably shouldn't be assuming the matrix is square
and I probably shouldn't even be starting with a matrix
idk what I'm doing, I gotta go grade
good grading
what is your way?
i used this exercise in friedberg
i didn't wanna use the fact about ranks of matrices that you mentioned above because ranks of matrices haven't been defined at the point of an exercise i'm trying do
and i thought i needed the fact a linear map and its double transpose have the same ranks and nullities to solve it
yeah this is the right way to do it
trying to calculate the eignvalues of the matrix. I got to here (finding the determinate and subtracting lambda).
From here, i am foiling, getting a quadratic, then im doing the quadratic formula which results in a NASTY 2 solutions. Is this right? The khanacademy guy said something about "sum and product" and seemed to do his much easier and i feel im missing something (my problem isnt identical to his so maybe his has a special property)
ill continue (on my picture) if that helps
"sum and product" probably refers to the method of solving a quadratic x^2 + bx + c by writing it as (x - p)(x - q) = x^2 - (p + q)x + pq and finding p, q by solving p + q = -b (sum) and pq = c (product)
im getting very strange root numbers, and the khanacademy guy got some very easy numbers. This is question 1 on my homework and it just feels weird that they wouldnt give me one that produces a nice easy result so im checking if its correct
those would be my eigenvalues?
you should get 3 - 3λ - λ + λ^2 - 8
Errors aside, that is how you calculate that though, right? Like, thats the method?
to find the eigenvalues of a matrix? yeah
last dumb question before i go, this always messes me up bc i dont work with actual math a lot. (-x)*(-x) = -x^2? or x^2 (because negative times negative).
x^2
Are we agree that the following statement is false?: Real symmetric matrix has exactly n linearly indépendant eigenvectors
A real symmetric matrix is diagonalizable
I don't think symmetry has anything to do with full rank
I'm always thinking about spd matrices
I mean real Sym matrix has n linearly independent eigenvectors but the key question is in “exactness”
symmetric positive definite
oh
If v is eigenvector a*v as well no? a real number
I don't understand
Yes nxn
oh, i see
$$\begin{bmatrix}1& 1\1 & 1\end{bmatrix}$$ is real and symmetric
pepper
It's clear how many independent eigenvectors it has
yeah, 2
wait
Yes but if family {v_1,v_2} is linearly independent av_1 is eigenvector bv_2 as well and {av_1,bv_2} is still linearly independent set
Wait, rank doesn't matter
it doesn't indeed
oops
what definition of exactness are you looking for
now it feels more like a question about language
Like there are no exactly n linearly independent eigenvectors no?
Why or why not
I can take multiplication by scalar and I still will have a lin indépendant family
Of eigenvectors
While I did a bad digression, someone else has already said why the answer is true
we'd need to see the definition of eigenvectors in your book, but i'd still be included to say it's true
i mean which convention to take regarding the scaling
We defined it in class as v is eigenvector if there is some scalar lambda such that f(v)=lambda v
but one usually considers scaled versions of the same eigenvector as being equivalent
Your question already asks for independent vectors
Juste knowing how tricky lin alg exam will be in preparing myself for this such of questions xd
no need here since linear independence should take care of that aspect
Alright thank you for your answers
anyway yeah, i would say the point is to establish that real sym matrices are diagonalizable
Yeah that spectral theorem we proved it as well
as for the earlier discussion, i usually see symmetric positive denitive, not positive symmetric definite
I was referring to positive semidefinite 
one usually has to specify symmetry as well, but that's a matter for another day
How would I approach this? If [1 2]_T was in the null space I'd understand how to approach it, since I'd set up this equation:
| a c | | 1 | = | 0 |
| b d | | 2 | | 0 |
but since it's in the column space I'd have to do:
| a c | | x | = | 1 |
| b d | | y | | 2 |
and not sure where to go from there.
consider the reason why the dimension of W is 2
Are all matrices in the Special Linear Group diagonalisable?
Ann
@prime snow
Brilliant thanks
Can someone explain to me why this statment is true? Given that A is an n by n matrix. I thought the signs are supposed to alternate for determinants.
as written here, all your image says is that the determinant of A - lambda I is a polynomial of degree n. the specifics of how the polynomial is obtained are to be found elsewhere, so the coefficients a_i could be anything, as merosity says
i have one left inverse of a matrix
how would i find a second
for the same matrix
could i use qr factorization
Looking for a proof check for the following, please:
One small mistake: “Clearly $s_i \in S_i$…” should be “Clearly $s_i \in span(S_i)$…”
LosAngeles
u . v = | | u | | | | v | | cos(v)
Anybody that can tell where this formula comes from?
It’s got a nice geometric interpretation; look up dot product as it pertains to vectors (as arrows)
Got it. Thanks 🙂
Perhaps more to answer “where it came from,” sometimes a measure of how “aligned” two vectors are is of use. That’s one thing a dot product can indicate (and why that definition was adopted and works well)
What is the second part of 1a referring to by uv plane?
im assuming just rewrite A where u and v equal values such that detA=0 ?
<@&286206848099549185>
pls wait 15min before pinging helpers
its a 2d plane, u as the x axis, v as the y axis
Oh I didn’t know I could ping helpers
<@&286206848099549185> I have a proof posted above, can anyone confirm please?
sorry
right, thanks
I might not know what I’m talking about but my first guess is that V is over a finite field (assuming V finite dim)? Suppose not. Let ${w_1, \ldots, w_n }$ be a basis of $W$. The for all $\alpha \neq 0 \in \mathbb{F}$ we can form a distinct basis ${ w_1, \ldots , \alpha w_n }$.
casualpolemic
Wow there we go
also you should ping me bc i have this channel muted lol
Ah ok, thank you
I got to know that the eigenvectors with the eigenvalues zero are the ones that are present in the null space. And, we know every subspace is a null space of some matrix so, can I say that every subspace is an eigenvector with eigenvalue 0?
Hi
I'm taking linear algebra and had a question
I found AtA and AAt and neither were identity matrices
so for part b
would none of the columns be orthogonal?
AtA was
4 4 0 2
4 3 0 2
0 0 2 2
2 2 2 4
AAt was
2 1 0 0
1 1 -1 0
1 1 1 2
also, looking at the dot products from each column pair for either result, i couldnt find any combo where the dot product would be zero
to be more precise, say "every subspace consists of eigenvectors of some matrix with eigenvalue 0"
not "every subspace is an eigenvector"
Look for zeros in $A^TA$ these would correspond to orthogonal column vectors. keep in mind there will be duplicates
casualpolemic
cool tnx
thank you thank you
I am not sure whether this fits in this channel, but here's my problem. I want to find an integer vector (n1, ..., nm) such that ni >=1, for which the following energy is minimized
$\min_{\vec{n} \in \mathbb{N}^m} \min_{c\in \mathbb{R}}|\vec{n} - c\vec{k}|_{\infty}$
criver
is the first min meant to be taken over k rather than n?
right
so let's see here
so geometrically this is drawing a line in R^n with direction k that passes thru a positive integer lattice point, such that the infty-norm distance of closest approach to the origin is minimized
It arose from a rounding problem, where I need to allocate an integer number per cell >=1, with proportionality determined by k.
yes, c however rescales k to fit as best as possible
the only apporach I could think of was to brute force it
and I forgot a constraint n1+...+nm = N
by brute force it I mean set n1=...=nm = 1 initially since this is the lower constraint
then go over all n1,...,nm
and add a 1 to a single one
and then evaluate the energies for each such choice
then pick the best one
and repeat this process until n1+...+nm becomes equal to N
I thought there may be a simpler approach though, that would require the brute forcing only at the very end
is this some Integer Linear Programming?
looks like an integer linear programming problem yeah
ultimately I just brute forced it so I would not have to think about it
You could try to see if the convex hull will make it better
But rounding problem sounds in general like no
so you are allowed to vary n and c?
well not c
c is computed to be the optimal
what I was looking for was n such that it is integer, ni >=1, and \sum_i ni = N
The fact that your decision space is discrete is a bad sign
I know 😂
I've read papers from hell on graph matching problems
it's ok, I posted it in case someone could easily come up with a better idea
don't think too hard on it, I already implemented that using brute force
Given some matrix A, is there a general name for doing this to it: B^(-1) * A * B where B is just some other matrix with no special restrictions.
conjugation
that's what I was taught as well, but I literally couldn't find any mentions of the term, so I assumed it might have been domain specific
maybe my google-fu is just not up to speed
conjugation is more commonly written as BAB^{-1}
so what you wrote would be "conjugation by B^{-1}"
thanks. I'll keep using that term then, just wanted to make sure I wasn't spitting some bogus
it's not uncommon to see it that way in linear algebra, if you're diagonalizing a matrix you have AE=ED and so E^-1 A E = D diagonalizes it
It can also be called a similarity transformation
this B is restricted, since B^{-1} has to exist
true, add that
then you can interpret it as a change of basis
Let [v]_E = B [v]_F -> [A]_F = B^{-1} [A]_E B
'm not sure if this is the right place, but i'm working with Anhilators in Linear algebra and differential equations. I noticed my book only wants me to solve for the coeffectent of the particular soltuion and not the complementary solution. Why is that?
more context would help you get an answer
My guess is that its used in the reverse direction, but I never used invertibility (that I know of) in the forward proof; is this correct? Why do i need (or not need) invertiblity?
@spare widget you may try wrapping your math expression with a pair of double dollar sign.
Let $$[v]_E = B [v]_F -> [A]_F = B^{-1} [A]_E B$$
vin100
Let $$[v]_E = B [v]_F \to [A]_F = B^{-1} [A]_E B$$
vin100
just because v is non-zero, why should Rv be non-zero?
i was just thinking that since positive isn't positive
its >= 0
OH
Invertibility means null space is 0
right
for operators, yes
"Rv is positive" doesn't make sense
but you're aiming to show that <Rv, Rv> is strictly positive using the positive-definiteness property of the inner product
and for this you somehow want Rv to be non-zero
well R is a positive operator (<Rv,Rv> geq 0), and since null is only 0, <Rv,Rv> = 0 ONLY when v = 0, so <Rv, Rv> > 0 (since we assume v != 0)
yes
you may want to explicitly mention that it is R that is invertible
but you are right
this is where invertibility of T is used
R is invertible bc T is invertible?
hmm. it makes sense (although i haven't proven it) that R is also invertible, but I dont see anything about that in axler
you don't need to look in axler to find it, you can look in your brain and prove it yourself
it should take one line at most
ye but its axlers question in the section so idk if that means he intended a different way of solving it
hmm. So suppose T is invertible, we know that R² = T, and T is invertible. uhh
R²=T iff R²T^{-1} = TT^{-1} iff R²T^{-1} = I not sure if that gets anywhere
and this means R is invertible, because...
idk. if R² = I then idek if thats enough, and i have a T inverse in there
aren't there ways to get I without inverses
R(RT^{-1}) = I
ahh
alternatively, det(R) is a square root of det(T) which is non-zero, so it itself can't be zero. this would be fine if axler wasn't so vehemently objected to determinants
honestly, you can fit this in a sentence instead of its own lemma
"Since T is invertible, R(RT^{-1}) = I, so R is also invertible."
words are easier to read than \implies
i'll just add the words to the lemma 😬
cause just doing the last jump skips the left or right multipication
having a right inverse is enough for invertibility in this case
right inverse means you're surjective, and since you're an operator on a finite dimensional space, you get injectivity as a result
i dont remember what homework i got like a point off xD
it does if you're ever writing something for others to read
yeah i thought this was just their notes
i just assume everything here is homework
makes sense
i would exercise caution saying "the" square root, and i'd end it with "R(RT^{-1}) = I, hence R is invertible."
it's like saying "the inverse is RT^{-1}, so it's invertible"
having an inverse is part of being invertible, so the phrasing's backwards
so like this instead?
that's fine
if you'll let me nitpick even more, you really shouldn't be including this as a separate lemma. it's nowhere near important enough to warrant being put separately from the main proof, and it's short enough that you can include it as a single sentence
this is correct
do u think the whole That is, $Rv = 0 \iff v = 0$ is childish?
"childish" isn't the word i'd use
it's just unnecessary
you and your grader both know exactly that it means the same thing as "null R = 0"
ok so i made it
good
no, it's correct
if Tv were zero, <Tv, v> would be zero too
they can't be orthgonal because you assumed their inner product is non-zero
right. I guess i was thinking of orthogonal backwards, since we assume Tv,v isn't 0 then they aren't orthogonal but that doesn't matter
so to be clear <x,y> > 0 implies x and y are nonzero?
i think its true but im trying to think of any edge cases
what would happen if one of them was zero?
same logic
inner product is bilinear
if any component is 0 the whole thing is zero
exactly!
but the converse isn't true
right, orthogonal vectors are a thing
you're using only the correct implication in your proof
which is what i was thinking earlier, but that doesn't have an impact here
i think the thinking <Tv,v> = 0 means Tv = 0, v = 0, or Tv is orthogonal to v was throwing my brain for a loop
true, since the 0 cases are covered by 0 is orth to everything
this is just defining some weird subscript notation?
it's just notation they're using for a bilinear function defined in terms of T
what is a bilinear
...
2 args?
god i hate axler
so much
a bilinear function on a vector space $V$ is a map $f\colon V \times V \to F$ (where $F$ denotes the underlying field, in this case $\bR$ or $\bC$) such that $$f(av+bw,u) = af(v,u) + bf(w, u)$$ and $$f(v, aw + bu) = af(v, w) + bf(v, u)$$ (i.e., is linear in each argument when the other is fixed)
TTerra
you should recognize inner products as being an example
yeah so i know all that just not the same 😅
well, complex inner products satisfy a modified version of this
where scalars being pulled out of one of the arguments get conjugated
but i hope you get the idea
right
so we wanna show these, but im thrown off by the _T
go verify all the things in axler's definition of an inner product
not what i wrote, since (as i remarked and as you acknowledged) that's a little imprecise in the complex case
Ye so these
and this would be the forward direction? so the properties are assumed ye?
that's typically how "if and only if" proofs start, yes
You would need that T is hermitian for the conjugate symmetry part I think
does the definition of positive in the above also include symmetric?
homogeneity
An operator $T \in \L{V}$ is called \boldit{positive} if $T$ is self-adjoint and $$\inner{Tv,v} \geq 0$$ for all $v \in V$
MattDog_222
I have seen people call T positive when only <Tv,v> > 0 is satisfied
not often, but it happens
well (0, \infty) is a subset of [0, \infty)
It's like how positive definite usually means symmetric positive definite
but only in the reverse direction correct? Since forward we assume all this is true 0_0
But you can have non-symmetric operators for which <Tv, v> > 0
They say if and only if
So both directions
yeah but showing all the stuff like conjugate symmetry is in the reverse direction
So T positive invertible, <,> inner prod -> <,>_T is an inner prod
And vice versa, <,> inner prod, <,>_T inner prod -> T positive invertible
idk if my arrows are flip flopped, not that it affects the end result
Suppose <,>_T is an inner product. We will prove that T is an invertible positive op wrt <,>. ...
can an inner product be negative
i just meant in general so yeah that. but i need <Tv,v> >= 0 for positivity
which part are you proving?
T positive invertible?
Then <Rv, Rv> >= 0
From positivity of the original inner prod
i think i have the positive part? this one feels trivial
ok so the opposite dir
but I didn't do the invertible
From definiteness you should get invertibility I think
unless thats what u meant about using positivity
Since <Tv, v> = 0 would imply v = 0
Tv and v can't be orth?
you assumed <v,v>_T is an inner prod
This means that <v,v>_T = 0 <=> v = 0
so <Tv, v> = 0 => v = 0
where's the "self-adjoint" part of "positive" in this?
oops 👀
use the symmetry property
this?
what else
idk i have Tu v = Tu v
you need to use conjugate symmetry of <., .>_T, not of the original inner product
i would suggest writing out what conjugate symmetry of <., .>_T means and exploring that
$\inner{u,v}_T = \overline{\inner{v,u}}_T$?
MattDog_222
idk what the RHS equals in terms of the inner product
why
You do know
in terms of this
<a,b>_T = <Ta, b>
ok so write that out
now set a = v, b = u
$\overline{\inner{v,u}}_T = \overline{\inner{Tv,u}}$?
MattDog_222
yes
weird... ok i'll see where this gets me
note that <Tu,v> = <u, T^* v>
And note that the original inner prod also has the symmetry prop
let them do it
idk if this is a thing, gtg eat tho brb
can i pull a T* into the subscript or is that not allowed
where are you stuck
please do not
ooh ooh i think i got something:
$$\inner{Tu,v} = \inner{u,v}_T = \overline{\inner{v,u}}_T = \overline{\inner{Tv,u}} = \inner{u,Tv}$$
MattDog_222
would that work?
there you go
watching tiktok for an hour and coming back "fresh" is OP ngl
you're two steps away from showing that T is self adjoint
wait is that not enough for <Tu,v> = <u,Tv>?
what?
then it's fine
i just wanted to make sure you knew how to go from <Tu, v> = <u, Tv> to T = T*
yea
is the forward good? Now i just gotta show the linearity and stuff the other way?
this looks ok
idk if this is what i'm trying to show, or if we can use the equality at the top
this is correct
Let A be a matrix and J(A) be it's Jordan block representation. Do the blocks of J(A) correspond to the eigenspaces of A?
so I can go from <Tu,v> to <u,v>_T and use InnerProduct operations on <Tu,v> before the conversion?
this feels even shadier
yeah i'm not terribly convinced of this
because <., .> is an inner product, yes
yeah im not too conviced either
I tried reducing it to <image> but a 90° rotation easily violates this, so i need to bring in positivity
also the dagger was
but that used the other hypothesis
so cant do that
here's a mega hint: ||to use positivity to show definiteness of <., .>_T, use the fact that T has a square root. also, you showed earlier that an invertible operator with a square root necessarily has an invertible square root; that should come in||
like this? 
oops i'lll clarify R invertible bc T
other than the typo in the first line, this is exactly correct
what typo
you can find it
like the "positive" square root?

cause axler says T positive has a self-adjoint positive square root
assuming no typos, is this the right idea?
this is fine
for c → d can I just claim gram schmidt? This questions weird cause its basically what we already know
Av = λv = 6v. try to multiply Av and find abc such that the A(3,2,1)^T = 6(3,2,1)^T
solve this smaller system
first, what should
3a + c = __ ?
11b-a+2c = __ ?
-2b-2a+6c = _?
I know theres gotta be a cheaky change of basis argument for this...
Av = λv, and λ=6 and v = (3,2,1) then what should the result be as numbers, e.g. (5,10,12)
i just blew my own mind rn
and u want to get
im going to solve it rn as a system of linear equations
Av = λv
applying the transformation matrix A to vector v scales v by λ
yes technically but thats a slightly more convoluted multiplication
an then you're solving
3a + c - 18 = 0
11b - a + 2c - 12 = 0
-2b - 2a + 6c -6 = 0
(A-λI)v = 0 is one way yes. do the constant terms in that system mean anything? -18, -12, -6? what was v
3 2 1 and 18 12 6 is there anything special there
by
6
yes. λ = 6. the definition of eigenvector/eigenvalue
OHOHOOHOHHH
OHH
oH
ill send u my work hold up so i solve for A
OHH
i see
i just didnt know how to solve for A
it looked really complicated
this
how do you solve that using linear algebra
u dont set it equal to 0 I think
hint: a matrix
Because a b c will keep equalling 0 and thats why i got nowhere
ok, on a smaller scale, 2 equations, 2 unknows.
2x+3y -5 = 0
3x + 4y + 7 = 0
what size matrix do you use and what do you put where
ok, so if u used a 2x2, what matrix what would the entries be
-5 turns to postive
It would be
Lemme do the paper work rq
u can just type it as rows
a b
c d
not sure how ur gonna cram all these into a 2x2 tho
i get this
2x+3y=5
3x+4y=-7
now we need to find a way
To eliminate x or y to find the lather
so
Common denominators r:
4x3 is 12
So
but an easier way is to eliminate x 2(3)=6
so:
i got y=29 then x=-41
uhhhh
I think
A1= 2x A2=3y B1=3x B2=4Y
Right?
lol nice those are actually the solutions, didn't know it has integers
does this maybe ring a bell
<@&268886789983436800>
perhaps if i draw a line
im staying up all night
got em
thankls
yay!
i remember now
my prof gave us a website for row reducing
but i forgot what the method was called
so u can use a calculator?
yeah
any online ressource
24 hours
desmos and symbolab allowed and wolfram alpha
idk how to use wolfram
if u tell me the correct matrix like
a ...
b...
c...
i'll give u the output
and then how to wolfram it
so like
2 3 5
3 4 -7
for this
whats the one for ur hw going to look like
hint: 3 0 1 __
18 12 6?
i managed to get what u got
i used row reduction
12
18 12 12?
3a + c - 18 = 0
- a + 11b+ 2c - 12 = 0
- 2a -2b + 6c -6 = 0
so start like u did in the 2 equation one that u got 29 and 41
this was RREF { {2,3,5}, {3,4,-7} } for example
on wolfram alpha
i'll be back in 15
i'll give u that they're all single digit positive values
for the a,b,c
how did u get -18, -12 and-6?
the result of multiplying this
and then the = 0 components are because you're saying that they all equal zero by (A-λI)v = 0
if a set of vectors generate a vector space, do they have to be linearly independent?
No. (1,0), (0,1) and (1,1) can generate R2 and are linearly dependent
oh hmmm
if they form a basis, then they have to be linearly independent
Which was
Basis yes
Basis by definition is a linearly independent spanning/"generating" set
Linear Independence just means they arent combinations of one another. (1,0,0) and (1,1,0) are LI but dont span R3
I think thats correct i shut off my pc tho
Looks familiar
Whatever
3 0 1 18
-1 11 2 12
-2 -2 6 6
Gives
Are u supposed to reuse the a b and c?
yeah got it
another thing, the set of generators of a vector space is always a proper subset of that vector space, right?
I guess? I meam Vector space V is infinite vectors
oh right
wait a vector space cannot have finite elements?
fuck im dumb sorry
got it thanks for the help
No it can
wait what
But u said always
U can have a vector space over Z/2Z where 0 and 1 are the only elements and if itz 2D then (0,0) (0,1) (1,0) (1,1) are the 4 elements afaik
But yes 0 is also a vector space with finite elements
ok nice
no, a vector space always generates itself
there's no one unique set of generators, so you can't say "the" set of generators
OH right right
i meant any arbitrary set of generators
thanks that clears things up
@hardy inlet should see this too
Guys, how to find kernel and Im of this ?
I have this but why its image is 2 also ?
what's the dimension of your vector space
right, so what's the dimension of the vector space M_2(R)?
maybe try figuring out what a set of basis vectors might be
@sharp idol done more work on the reflections
just need to explicitly write it out but
the basic idea is finding the angle the direction vector of the reflection 'axis' makes with the positive x axis
rotating the entire plane by said angle
constructing the reflected function using the rotated functions' difference in y coordinates
and then undoing the rotation
what notation is this?
ohhh ok thanks
can you show the full context?
okay yeah
Great, thanks alot!
If W in V, both of them are vector spaces and dimW=1, dimV=2. Then is it possible that there exists two linearly independent vectors such that either one of them are not in W
Possibly true
Let V = span{(1,0)}, and W = span{(0,1), (-1/2,1/2)}
the two vectors for W are linearly independent and neither is in V
V corresponds to a single line through the origin, W is a 2D plane containing that line
it's clear that you can pick two non-colinear vectors on that plane that do not coincide with the line V
would the circled part be a characteristic equation?
@pseudo maple thats called the characteristic polynomial
setting it =0 gives the characteristic equation
ohhh ok sweet thank you
Anyone able to explain the answer of a?
I'm thinking of p = identity minus [1,1...][1,1,1]T
Which is 0 on the diagonal
And abunch of 1s
But I think this question and Its answer has some principle I'm missing
@wintry steppe u is any unit vector, not a specific one
Yes, i was just doing this to make it concrete
use what it means for 1 to be an eigenvalue
take any corresponding eigenvector x
Px=1x
then use the definition of P
yes onto u
does anyone have any tips if I keep messing up in linear algebra
like I think I got rank as the number of LI row/columns in a matrix in my head fine (and other basic facts)
But I don't think I get diagonalisation/symmetric properties down
Should I go back to a textbook/reference book
how do you show uniqueness of the adjoint?
why does it have be A^T?
why can't i just row reduce A
since if it has a pivot in every column, its obviously going to have a pivot in every row
since hte matrix is square
like i dont see how that will change the result
since det A = det A^T
and the entries along the main diagonal don't change after matrix transpose
i don’t think the book tells you that yet
yeah i saw
i’m proving it rn in fact
it was in the page right after it
lol
assume its not and you'll reach a contradiction
||say f* is the adjoint of f and suppose g* is as well
<f(x), y>=<x, f* (y)>=<x, g* (y)> for all x, y --> f *(y)=g *(y) for all y f * = g * ||
gotcha, thank you
note that sum of each row/col is same (a+2)
try the vector [1 1 1]^T
@zinc timber
Next, note that subtracting a-1 from each diagonal makes the matrix singular, so a-1 is another one
Okay.
but don't listen to me
What do you mean by sing6lar?
try multiplying (1,1,1) see you'll get (a+2)(1,1,1) making it an eigen hector
vector*
0 det
also A-(a-1)I_3 has nullity 2
so Eigen values are a+2, a-1 and a-1
you can also try to do it this way
A-xI then you'll get
$\m{a-x & 1 & 1 \ 1 & a-x & 1 \ 1 & 1 & a-x }
$
so after you do R1=R1+R2+R3 you'll get
$$\m{a+2-x & a+2-x & a+2 - x\
\vdots & \vdots & \vdots }$$
Hello
Now you can factor out a+2-x from first row and that'll give you
$$(a+2-x)\m{1 & 1 & 1\ 1 & a-x & 1 \ 1 & 1 & a-x}$$
from this
R2=R2-R1 and R3=R3-R1 will give you
$$\m{1 & 0 & 0 \ 1 & a-1-x & 0 \ 1 & 0 & a-1-x}$$
I understand what you mean by singuglar now too
now this gives char poly $(x-a-2)(x-a+1)^2=0$
that was a big brain way of calculating the evs,
this is step by step
you'll get used to those as you practice
did you understand the row operations?
I appreciate the help man
Lol I tagged myself there 
Luckily i was paying attention
still lost on approaching this
im not sure if theres a way to use similar matrices/change of basis for it
T1 and T2 are similar, but S*T2S isn't necessarily similar 🤔
I think you can choose a basis of eigenvectors for T_1, such that T_1 is diagonal, and then find a unitary matrix that diagonalises T_2
wdym by unitary matrix
UU* = I
By the spectral theorem for normal operators, you can find such a U
but i thought that wouldn't hold if it was real
Why?
https://www.math.ucdavis.edu/~anne/WQ2007/mat67-Ll-Spectral_Theorem.pdf Thm 5. Normal operators are diagonalisable
yeah, complex
Oh, that's LA Done right. What exercise is it?
Given the following hyperplane, x_1 + 3x_2 + 4 = 0, what is the normal vector?
Well fine. Don't use the spectral theorem. But you have 3 eigenvalues, and since the operator is normal, the eigenspaces corresponding to those are orthogonal. So you can find an ONB of eigenvectors
how do u know they're orth without the CST
The operator is normal
oh i see
pg 214 on axler
The eigenvectors for distinct evs are orth
pog
so we have an orthonormal basis by dimV=3
@hardy inlet still need help?
with this one? Yeah. 134631 got me to the ONB part
i also added T2 having an ONB to the above
Don't know where your V comes from. The ONB is for F^3.
Let {e1, e2, e3} be an ONB for F^3 from eigenvectors of T_1, and {f1, f2, f3] be an ONB for F^3 composed of eigenvectors of T_2, correspoding to eigenvalues of 2,5,7 for each.
Then define Sei = fi for i = 1,2,3.
Check S is unitary.
After having checked that, we can write S^-1 = S*.
So S*Sei = S*fi = ei.
Prove S has the required property.
oh V is F3 right
how are we allowed to just define Sei = fi?
when u say unitary do u mean axlers "isometry"
or lenth 1
We are meant to prove existence of the map. So we have to give the map
ok so we just throw it out there, then show the conditions hold for that
namely isometry and S*T_2S=T_1
S should be an isometry from that ^
not sure if I went down the right road for showing all v, i think its right but it feels a bit drawn out
Ok i started with that then i took an arbitrary vector in V and claimed that it can be written as a linear combination of the vectors in our basis S
Im assuming that the next thing to do is to define a finitely supported function which is equal to the coefficients in that linear combination?
yes
i think im in need of T* but dunno how to get it
i got T* but cant get a clean sqrt T*T
Does anyone know why matrices have to hold only linear functions? Why can't they hold non-linear functions like sin(x)?
Like... I don't see why they can't
Well what does it mean to you for a matrix to 'hold' a linear function?
any idea on how to get the sqrt of this to equal that top result
Because
[[2, 6], [9, 3]] [x,y] = [2x+6y, 9x+3y]
Those are linear functions
Sure. So the thing is that any function you define in this way is automatically linear by the way matrix multiplication works
Because M(x+y) = Mx + My and so forth.
If you want a proof of that, you can just look componentwise
Oh I see
I guess I can't call it a 'matrix' then
But is there a name for the sort of thing I'm describing?
I'm not really sure what you intend to describe
Linear functions, or functions defined through matrices like that etc
Like:
[f(x,y), g(x,y)] [2, 6] = [f(2, 6), g(2, 6)]
And let's say f(x,y) = x * sin(y), and g(x) = x * y
Then [f(2, 6), g(2, 6)] = [2 * sin(6), 2 * 6]
Well that's not really anything special, that's just a function R^2 -> R^2 written in a nonstandard way
Like i'd just write that as a function h: R^2 -> R^2 where h(x,y) = (x sin(y), xy)
Ohh
I see
So we can just write functions with multiple outputs
I didn't know that
Thx
how to do this
as a start, Av = 3v, so lambda=3 for eigenvector (1,2,2)
I'm kind of stuck
where?
after the last step, you should be able to conclude what you want. (if the rest of the proof is correct, that is; i didn't read it)
Is anyone familiar with the distinction between column and row approach?... I can barely find anything about it online and this terminology only has been used thrice in this server
given that a lot of introductory linear algebra classes focus a lot on row and column reduction, the distinction is probably in that
@wintry steppe how do I argue that it's mu * i_N though
idgi
like, YES I'm SURE what I have there is enough
but I don't know how to say it
like r/n it's like "ok so the answer to 2+2 must be even, so 4 is a cndidate"
but it' not THERE afaict
Is there anyone who is proficient in subspaces and stuff here
I can't seem to understand the concept of it clearly
For these two questions, I am assuming (b) is a subspace while (c) is not a subspace
Is this correct? The only reason I assumed no for (c) is because (0,0,0) won't exist in R3
"assumed"
but that reason is correct yes, the scalar product and sum conditions are also not satisfied
does it satisfy the sum condition?
scalar is satisfied there right
for example if i give (0, a, b) and (0, c, d)
yeah it satisfies sum condition,
so it is a subspace
even the scalar is satisfied cuz x1 is always 0?
yeah
np :)
float a = r.direction.normal().length2();
float b = 2.0f * vec3::dot(r.direction.normal(), oc);
float c = oc.length2() - radius * radius;
float d = b * b - 4 * a * c;
if (d < 0) return false;
float sq_d = sqrt(d);
float root = 0.0f;
// find the nearest root that lies in the acceptable range
float r_a = (-b - sq_d) / (2.0f * a);
float r_b = (-b + sq_d) / (2.0f * a);
if (vec3(r.ray_at(r_a) - r.position).length2() < vec3(r.ray_at(r_b) - r.position).length2()) root = r_a;
else root = r_b;
can someone tell me why this does not return the closest point of impact for some reason
I'm trying to calculate the closest point of intesection a sphere and a line
a = n.n
b = 2 * n.(o - c)
c = (o - c).(o - c) - r*r
o : ray origin
c : center of the sphere
r : radius of the sphere
the above is correct, it's likely a bug in your code or you are actually getting the closest
Also note that for a ray t<0 intersections are invalid
where r(t) = o + t * d
||o+td-c||^2 = r^2 ->
t^2 ||d||^2 - 2t <c-o, d> + ||c-o||^2 - r^2 = 0 ->
A = ||d||^2, B = <c-o, d>, C = ||c-o||^2 - r^2
D = B^2 - AC
D < 0 -> return INF
t1 = (B - sqrt(D)) / A
t2 = (B + sqrt(D)) / A
t1 = t1 < 0 ? INF : t1
t2 = t2 < 0 ? INF : t2
return min(t1,t2)
Also if d is normalized, then A=1 and you can omit A from everywhere in the above pseudo-code
Then the returned value is the distance from o to the intersection
Note that I return infinity when there is no intersection
simple just copy the 1st and 2nd column.
nvm I realized they mean sth else
coz it's written that $A$ is a matrix for $T$ with respect to $B$.
vin100
The matrix in the canonical basis is: [A]_E = V^{-1} * [A]_B * V
you don't need that
think abt this: suppose that $B := {v_i}_{i=1}^n$. $$[e_i]_B = ?$$
vin100
now you get $[T(v_i)]_B$ from part (a) with $i \in {1,2}$. What would you do to get rid of the squared brackets $[ \cdot ]_B$?
V [u]_E = [u]_B
oops sorry i wanted to say $[v_i]_B$.
vin100
$$e_i = [v_i]_B$$
vin100
column vector with $i$-th entry $1$, zero elsewhere
vin100
Then [[A]_B [u]_B]_E = V^{-1} [A]_B V [u]_E = [A]_E [u]_E = [T(u)]_E
say $e_1 = (1,0)^T$, $e_2=(0,1)^T$. depends on the dimension of the vector space
vin100
I think I am reversing something, since you mentioned it's the two columns, but then [A]_E = V [A]_B V^{-1}
at the same time I was getting [A]_E = V^{-1} [A]_B V
am I messing something up?
we have [u]_E = V [v]_B
wait what is your $V$?
vin100
$V = B^{-1}?$
vin100
nvm, I was messing up this
that's why i dun remember stuf
It is [u]_E = V [u]_B
V is made of the two v columns
But they are wrt E
That's what I messed up
You are correct
i abuse notations. $$B:={v_k}_k$$ is a basis (i.e. a set of basic vectors)
[A]_E = V [A]_B V^{-1}
vin100
but i also write $$B = [v_1 v_2 \cdots v_k]$$ as a matrix
vin100
Then it's clear that [T(V)]_B = V^{-1} [A]_E V = [A]_B
T(V) = [A]_E v1 = V [A]_B V^{-1} V = V [A]_B
if u r on computer, you may try wrapping your math with a pair of dollar signs
@chrome radish that's what you need
$T(V) = [A]_E v1 = V [A]_B V^{-1} V = V [A]_B$
vin100
Phone, it's a pain
$B = \begin{bmatrix} \vec{v}1 & \vec{v}2 \end{bmatrix} \implies \ [u]{E} = B [u]{B} \implies \ [A]{E} [u]{E} = B [A]{B} B^{-1} [u]{B} \implies [A]{E} = B [A]{B} B^{-1} \ T(u) = [A]_{E} u$
Wat
doesn't work for some reason
I am not sure, I think it's the []_X
It breaks the latex bot here for some reason
criver
$B = \begin{bmatrix} \vec{v}_1 & \vec{v}_2 \end{bmatrix} \implies \\ [u]_{E} = B [u]_{B} \implies \\ [A]_{E} [u]_{E} = B [A]_{B} B^{-1} [u]_{B} \implies [A]_{E} = B [A]_{B} B^{-1} \\ T(u) = [A]_{E} u$
```Compilation error:```! Missing number, treated as zero.
<to be read again>
u
l.57 ... & \vec{v}_2 \end{bmatrix} \implies \\ [u]
_{E} = B [u]_{B} \implies ...
A number should have been here; I inserted `0'.
(If you can't figure out why I needed to see a number,
look up `weird error' in the index to The TeXbook.)```
Yeah, it hates the [...]_B I think
Broken latex
Either way the point was that [A]_E = B [A]_B B^{-1} where B has columns v1, v2
T(u) = [A]_E
Thus T(B) = [A]_E B = B [A]_B
This is for b)
The formula for T(u) is T(u) = [A]_E u = B [A]_B B^{-1} u
So you will need to compute B^{-1} for c)
nope, it's abt the latex bot's treatment with markdown i think
see this
,, B = \begin{bmatrix} \vec{v}1 & \vec{v}2 \end{bmatrix} \implies \ [u]{E} = B [u]{B} \implies \ [A]{E} [u]{E} = B [A]{B} B^{-1} [u]{B} \implies [A]{E} = B [A]{B} B^{-1} \ T(u) = [A]_{E} u
vin100

