#linear-algebra
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@spare widget Sorry would you mind slowing down a little? I'm a little overwhelmed with all the information
For rectangular matrices you have to have a different basis, so they have the more general thing there
I'm still back on your previous statement
@open locust I don't know if you saw a message I wrote yesterday morning about this, but I came to the conclusion that being invertible implies the matrix is equivalent to the identity, which in turn means there are row operations on it that produce the identity (and at the same time produce the inverse matrix)
I missed that message sorry! (kinda new to Discord)
This looks like so: [w]_F = A [v]_E
@spare widget Yes indeed.
an identity map is T(v) = v
So it is necessary that the codomain is the same as the domain
Right, I understand that
But if you pick two different bases
Then your "identity" is really just the change of basis matrix
Because if you define your matrices using two different bases
Then they have the form C = P A, where P is change if basis, and A is matrix if you were to use the same basis (that's in the case the codomain and domain are the same)
e.g.
@spare widget Well, you could just say it more simply, right? You could just say that [T] is the change of basis matrix
What is A here?
so linear map
I mean, like, why the distinction between P and A?
What is the purpose of splitting them up like this? Just to be more clear?
Interesting, okay.
irrespective of the basis
Ah, right.
Interesting, I see
So it may be even impossible to have the same basis
I'm completely following you
That's why they have that
But in the trivial case of the identity map you can always pick the same basis
Otherwise you'd just get the change of basis matrix mixed in there too
P * I = P
Well, where is this analysis leading? I agree with your representation
I mean, that's all
Now I understand what you meant, it's because your book uses different bases on the input and output
I am glad you understand it, but I'm honestly still completely baffled as to what all this means.
That's valid, just have to be aware of this detail when reading other stuff, especially with V->V maps where people pick the same basis for simplicity
I understand how you split up the matrices there, but I'm not sure what that says about my original question.
Can you repeat the original question?
(1) Not every invertible matrix represents the identity transform. (2) A "change of basis matrix" is a representation of the identity transform. (3) Every invertible matrix can be seen as a "change of basis matrix".
Given these three facts, if we see an invertible matrix, how can we tell whether or not the original transformation it represents is the identity transformation?
I don't think it makes sense to start drawing conclusions about what a matrix represents unless given bases for its domain and codomain
@fleet sun Interesting
Many people ordinarily ignore those because for square matrices they tend to just be the standard basis of R^n on the domain and codomain
I think your statement may be correct, and it helps explain my confusion: what I was trying to do is probably impossible in general.
There's a nice reason for it too, which is that you can't really say anything about a linear transformation if you don't start with at least one pair of to and from bases.
Like, we can write A: U -> V, but we can't go much further than that without specifying at least one pair of to and from bases.
Similarly we can write "u in U", but without at least one basis, we can't do anything with u.
So it makes sense that without at least one pair of to and from bases, we can't really take a matrix to its linear transformation form via the isomorphism between matrices and linear transforms, because that isomorphism itself requires a to and from basis to be used.
So let me try to summarize what we can say, given a matrix but no to and from bases. All we can say is that if the matrix is invertible, then it represents a change of basis matrix with respect to at least one pair of to and from bases. We can't say if this matrix represents the identity transform or not (to do that we would need the equivalence thing you mentioned).
Would you agree with all of the above?
mostly yeah
I think the interpretation depends on the context
Just giving me a matrix - it's just an array of numbers
You can still write things like 2u or -1/2*u without having any basis specified
It doesn't say whether it's change of basis or not
The common assumption would be that it is from E in U to E in V
or write a transformation like T(u) = 3u. That's basis independent
where E are the canonical bases
@fleet sun Well I do agree with that.
You can't say how a matrix is to be interpreted otherwise
@fleet sun You could add the phrase "in general" to some of my above statements then ๐
The common understanding when people don't mention anything is canonical to canonical basis
Then the identity map is always the identity matrix
@spare widget I am not talking about how something should be interpreted really, I'm kind of talking about what we can and can't do
@fleet sun Is there anything else wrong with those statements from your point of view?
@fleet sun If not, I would like to examine the thing you said about equivalence
(the message I missed)
I had a short back and forth with @criver, close to two days ago now
I tagged you at the start of it
I see it now ๐ I will read it now, sorry for missing it!
@fleet sun That is good to hear. Thank you for thinking through this. I just read the back-and-forth.
@fleet sun I think the insight you had about similarity which we later renamed to equivalence is pretty key. I'm going to try to confirm it right now actually
@fleet sun I mean the insight you had towards the end of our discussion a few days ago
If you want to define a linear map through a matrix you need the bases wrt which this matrix is defined
@fleet sun Here are my conclusions, tell me if these make sense.
Any invertible matrix can be viewed as a change of basis matrix with respect to one pair of two and from bases. Any change of basis matrix represents the identity transform. So if we have a pair of to and from bases, we can say that a particular invertible matrix represents the identity transform. However, if we don't specify a pair of to and from bases, and we look at a square matrix that happens to be invertible, we can't say anything about whether or not it represents the identity transform.
What do you think of that?
It feels solid. I plan to double check this stuff carefully when I have a chance later
@fleet sun Cool, thanks for the feedback. By the way, I did see the message you'd tagged me with when I logged back in today, I just didn't know how to jump to it. If you tag me again, I'll be sure to look at your message next time I log in.
@spare widget I think you're coming at this from a different perspective
And bases E and F
And an invertible matrix C wt E->F
Let P be the change of basis matrix
then A = P^{-1} C doesn't have to be the identity
@spare widget I don't think anything I said indicates that it has to be.
I think you're coming at this from a different perspective.
Ah nvm, I think this agrees with what you say, yes
Oh OK!
The particular invertible matrix you speak of is then exactly P
I appreciate your help thinking through this today ๐
Thank you both again, I'm going to step away now. Talk to you later ๐
For b try to find the max eigenvalue
Ok damn I'm right!!!!
Tytyty!!!
You can then pick the corresponding eigenvector to get:
x^TAx = x^T lambda_max x = lambda_max
The last step is from |x| = 1
so many tags
You're famous

Is it better to avoid doing that?
yes
you can reply instead (with tag on)
or tag off
Ah I see. Not used to having that function.
annoying notification and a red symbol showing unread messages, which annoys me, at the least
don't get worked up over it
Understood, thanks!
no one's gonna beat you up over this
๐
So I'm not sure what to do with the last step of the eigenvector here
Is it (0,1,0)???
Since x1 =0 and x2 is the free var?
it does but i'm making sure
x1=x3=0 and u get no info on x2 (free), ur form of vector is (0,x2,0)
so u can set x2=1 to get (0,1,0)
Thank you. Quite frustrating to get to the last step then fail :)
no prob
Hi how would i use back substitution to invert a n x n matrix?
@compact pike for each $i$, use backward subsitution to solve $Ax^{(i)} = e_i$ for $x^{(i)}$.
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
How is the boxed in step justified? I understand why the scalar value is there. However, I don't know why we have <vj, ek> - <vj, ek>. Does he use pairwise orthogonality? If so, why is that justified?
denominator is scalar, pull it out. you get one <v_j, e_k> from taking the inner product with the v_j at the start and the e_k. you get another one with a negative sign because all the <v_j, e_i>e_i cancel if i is not equal to k
I follow you on the denominator part and how we get <v_j, e_k> and -<v_j, e_k> terms. But why is the inner product between -<v_j, e_m>e_m and e_k equal to 0 if m is not equal to k?
They are orthogonal?
Are you asking a question?
that they're orthogonal is an assumption in the result
Oh. Is it the inductive hypothesis?
yes
Ah, that makes sense. Would there have to be a base case?
as with all induction proofs, yes. the base case is covered here in the first paragraph
I mean a base case about orthogonality.
i don't understand what you mean
Mind helping me after u finish with mustaf?
i won't
Np ...
but someone else might
Maybe I'm misunderstanding. The first paragraph gives a base case for the proof that span(v_1, ..., v_j) = span(e_1, ... e_j)
Since you say that pairwise orthogonality of the list (e_1, ... e_j-1) is an assumption in the result from the inductive hypothesis, shouldn't there be a base case about pairwise orthogonality as well?
whatever base case there would be concerning pairwise orthogonality is already covered by the base case in the induction proof you're already doing
@subtle gust off the top of my head, can't you always multiply L by a constant c and U by 1/c? at best you have uniqueness up to scaling, i'd say
what's the best way to write char poly of a 4x4 matrix

don't wanna brute force it
like is it reasonable for you guys to leave it as a_11-a_22= c then xโฟ+....+c
in general the coefficients of the characteristic polynomial are the traces of its exterior powers (with some alternating signs)
that might help cut down the necessary computations
any ref?
max I get is 3x3
i don't know of any linear algebra book that covers this
tr(A)
tr(A)^2-tr(A^2)
something liek this
In linear algebra, the characteristic polynomial of a square matrix is a polynomial which is invariant under matrix similarity and has the eigenvalues as roots. It has the determinant and the trace of the matrix among its coefficients. The characteristic polynomial of an endomorphism of a finite-dimensional vector space is the characteristic pol...
this right?
yes
Yeah but that would change the diagonal elements
I'm saying that there is only one matrix L or U such that A=LU and the diagonal of L or U is a certain number n
If we change the diagonal elements to cn the L and U matrices would change but they would still be unique
then yeah
you can look up the uniqueness of the LDU decomp, which is essentially the same as what you describe
could anyone help me understand how the coordinate map works on matrices and linear transformations?
on vectors it seems pretty simple
from my understanding so far, theres a map $\phi_\gamma: V \to \mathbb{R}^n$ that maps a vector $v \in V$ to $[v]_\gamma$
sean
where $\gamma$ is just a basis in the vector space $V$
sean
in other words, $\phi_\gamma (v) = [v]_\gamma$, and this is called a coordinate vector
sean
and this is the column vector containing the scalars $\alpha_k \in \mathbb{R}$, where $v = \sum_{k=1}^n \alpha_k u_k$ where $u_i, i= 1, \ldots, n$ is just the elements of $\gamma$
sean
so i think thats how that works for vectors
but im having a hard time grasping this idea for matrices
from what i've got so far, the coordinate representation (?) of a matrix $T$ that represents a linear transformation is denoted by $[T]\gamma^\beta$, where this is the collection of columns $\begin{pmatrix} [Tb_1]\gamma \ \cdots \ [Tb_m]_\gamma \end{pmatrix}$
sean
and $b_j$ denotes hte elements of the basis $\beta$ in $W$ of a the linear transformation $T:V \to W$
sean
but i'm confused on how this works. For vectors, it is an isomorphsim $\phi_\gamma$, but for matrices there are two indices here so idk how to represent that as one or a composition of operations on a linear transformation $T$. For example, would $[T]^\beta_\gamma=(\phi_\beta \circ \phi_\gamma)(T)$?
sean
or am i getting this completely wrong?
i guess a tldr is "is there an explicit map that maps a linear transformation to its corresponding matrix wrt bases"
and if so what is it
ManifoldCuriosity
oh
well, since $T(b_i)$ is just a vector, then it is true that $[T]^\beta_\gamma= \begin{pmatrix} \phi_\gamma(Tb_1) \ \cdots \ \phi_\gamma(Tb_m) \end{pmatrix}$
sean
yup
ohhh alright
i think i got it now
so the top index $\beta$ is just the thing we take the transformation of, and the bottom index $\gamma$ is just the base we create a coordinate vector wrt
sean
well, the elements of $\beta$ to be more specific, but you get what i mean
sean
yeah, you feed each domain basis vector into T, and write the results in the codomain basis
My textbook says "all matrices describing the same endomorphism but witg different basis have the same trace, trace characterises a transformation"
Is it correct to conclude that every set matrix of same dimension and with the same trace describes the same endomorphism?
I know this is equivalent to asking whether there don't exist 2 different endomorphisms on the same set whose sum of eigenvalues is the same.
Is this the case?
it says representing the same endomorphism with different bases have the same trace
you're asking if the converse is true?
if square matrices having the same trace represent the same endomorphism with different bases
yes thats my question
gotcha. I don't know if that's true, but you certainly can't just assume the converse
and I tend to doubt it's true
so, representing the same endomorphism in different bases is called being similar
and it's equivalent to $A = P^{-1}BP$
for some invertible P
ManifoldCuriosity
okay, I thought thats what they meant by "the trace characterises an endomorpism"
and since they also define the trace of an endomorphism
then there's this fact that $\mbox{tr}(MN)=\mbox{tr}(NM)$
ManifoldCuriosity
two matrices can be commuted if they're in a trace
so using that, if A and B are similar, you can go
which I would find weird to define if 2 different endomorphisms can have the same trace
$\mbox{tr},A = \mbox{tr}(P^{-1}(BP)) = \mbox{tr}((BP)P^{-1})=\mbox{tr},B$
ManifoldCuriosity
so that's why being similar implies having the same trace
well it's certainly true that having different traces implies NOT being similar
but your question is if having the same trace implies being similar
and that's not clear
or yeah, if two non-similar matrices can have the same trace
I wouldn't rule it out
the trace is just the sum of the diagonal entries
that throws out a lot of information of a matrix
so using that:
say tr(A) = tr(B), then the original statement of "if square matrices having the same trace represent the same endomorphism with different bases" reduces to the question if for all square matrices A and B such that tr(A) = tr(B), there exists a Q such that A = Q^{-1} * B * Q
or to there does not exist A and B such that there doesn't exist such a Q
seemed to me as well, but if the statement is false, then whats the point of defining the trace of a transformation?
it has a lot of nice properties
but that may not be one of them
it seems likely the book would have stated it as an if and only if, if it were true
true
thanks tho, I'll check with the professor to be sure
or at least I'll ask her the purpose of defining the trace of a transform if it's not unique to only that transform
consider $\mbox{tr}\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 \ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix} = \mbox{tr}\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \end{pmatrix}$
ManifoldCuriosity
but if you diagonalize the matrix on the right,
it becomes $\begin{pmatrix} 0 & 0 \ 0 & 2 \end{pmatrix}$
ManifoldCuriosity
and that's clearly not similar to the identity matrix
so it's indeed not true that way
ahh okay I see thanks!
I think a general disprove might be to show that tr(A) = tr(B) does not imply det(A)=det(B), and det(A)=det(B) is another property of similar matrices
okay thanks!
sure thing
Can anyone help with my q above?
Yea should be same
I need to show that if T is a linear operator on R^n whose matrix A is real symmetric then R^n is direct sum of Tโs kernel and image. In order to prove it I distinguished some cases. One of them is where kernel is not empty and I noticed that it is not empty iff there exist some zero eigenvalues of A and then I use the spectral theorem and consider orthonormal basis of R^n where eigenvectors associated to zero eigenvalues span kernel. Is it a good idea ?
you don't need to do a different case when ker is trivial
Yes so my cases are when ker is trivial and the second when notโฆ
But I asked in particular if my second case looks correct considering zero eigenvalues of A and link between it and ker span
Hey all, I'm trying to understand a proof, so I'll write it based on my own understanding and I'd appreciate if someone can tell me if it is right. ๐
Theorem: Let H be a subset of R^n. Then, H = [f : d] if H is a hyperplane.
First, since H is a hyperplane, it is an (n - 1)-dimensional flat, so there exists a vector p so that H_0 = H - p is a subspace of R^n. Now, take any vector outside H_0 and take the component orthogonal to H_0, n, and use it to define a linear functional n โข x. Then, [f : 0] is a null space of dimension (n - 1) and since H_0 must lie inside [f : 0], H_0 = [f : 0]. From here, [f : d] = [f : 0] + p = H.
Say we want to find the distance between these two points. Although we only know (x,g(x)) and the orientation of the line connecting them.
Can we determine the distance between (x,g(x)) and (x', f(x')) with just this information?
We do also know what the function f(x) is.
I'll wait to ask my question lol
Feel free to ask
I'm on part a
So I understand why this works
You got two vectors with the same norm. They're in the same space or sphere
Just in different places and get rotated
Based off the angle between the two vectors
But for b
I'm not quite sure
I gotta turn this into polar cords?
You need one of the basis vectors to be aligned with a1, a2
e.g. map the basis (1,0) to a / |a|
A1 is cos
The cos of the angle between these is (1,0) dot a / |a| = a1 / |a|
A2 is sin then right?
One more question
final matrix should be something like
1/ |a| [a1 a2; a2 -a1] I think
Try multiplying the matrix I wrote by [a1; a2]
Ight, criver your a boss
Fixed a sign*
Tyty :)
Hi everyone!:)
I've been trying to improve my mathematical thinking lately. Today I tried to write my first complete proof. Could you please have a look and tell me what you think of this proof? I would really appreciate it if you could suggest on how I could improve my mathematical reasoning, method of writing proofs, or understanding of linear algebra and mathematics in general.
The proof is based on an explanation from Brilliant https://brilliant.org/wiki/rank/, but I tried to go through the reasoning on my own, trying to be more specific about the procedure.
It's the intersection of r(t)= (x, g(x)) + t * d and p(s) = (s, f(s))
You have to solve r(t) = p(s)
one of the eq is linear: x + t * dx = s
So you can express s through t
Thus you have to find the roots t of a nonlinear equation
g(x) + t * dy = f(x + t * dx)
And you seem to want the smallest root t > 0
You can solve this through numerical methods
Once you have the intersection the distance is |(s,f(s)) - (x,g(x))|
In a 1D vector space (R, scalar field - R), the vectors are basically just scalars or behave like scalars, right?
Criver, I took a look at the solution
Is -a2/|| a |
There's only solutions, no steps
For sine?
Howd that negative come up? Since -sin relates to a2 in g?
Yes
Yeah, I told you I fixed a sign
This
note that -sin = a2/|a| from it
The above matrix is [cos -sin; sin cos]
Because both a1^2 + (-a2)^2 = |a|^2 and a1^2 + a2^2 = |a|^2
So you cam get it up to sign just from pythagoras
So I additionally used that they want |a| in the first component
Basically I had the choice between
1/|a| [a1 -a2; a2 a1] and 1/|a| [a1 a2; -a2 a1]
But only the second is a rotation
The first is a rotation + reflection
How can you tell?
det = -|a|?
Wait did I kess up the scaling
nah nvm it's det = -1
You can also try multiplying both by [a1; a2]
Only the second produces the desired result
Allright, thank you very much man
Is there a way to show that a particular definition of a linear transformation (\forall j \in [n] \quad A(e_j) = \sum_{i=1}^n a_{ij} u_j) is an isomorphism without resorting to matrix stuff?
joesmith1042
Ah, good point.
That is if you take any 2 elements u,v
T(u) != T(v) if u!= v
also for every w there exists a v such that T(v) = w
Right, thanks.
$\begin{pmatrix} A_{11} & A_{12}\\ A_{21} & A_{22} \end{pmatrix}$
Whats the characteristic polynomial of that block matrix?
mate
Pretty sure that's impossible to answer without further info.
can we express it in terms of char polynomials of A11 A12 A21 and A22?
If you can bring it to block triangular then det[M] = det[M11]det[M22] afaik
Sorry for the ping. I misunderstood the proof. Lemme read it again.
you can also use schur complement
In mathematics, a block matrix or a partitioned matrix is a matrix that is interpreted as having been broken into sections called blocks or submatrices. Intuitively, a matrix interpreted as a block matrix can be visualized as the original matrix with a collection of horizontal and vertical lines, which break it up, or partition it, into a collec...
@spare widget do you have any good ref for showing sign of eigen values are +ve / -ve (real part) without calculating char poly / RH criterion?
thank you very much!!!!n thats EXACTLY what i needed!! in my case one block is 0!!
thank you so much!
Not really? What do you need - to figure whether a matrix is indefinite?
Are you trying to figure out whether there are different signs?
it's for local stability of a system
I only need to show the signs are -ve
all I have is some identities
All eigenvalues being negative?
I am assuming you know of sylvester's criterion, though idk whether your matrix is hermitian
well this is clearly solvable through ferrari though a pain in the ass
I tried
I was trying to find the mistake for some time, in any case it was a good exercise ๐
2 of the 4 terms are bruteforcable
if you know the eigenvalues are complex then you know they come in conjugate pairs
maybe that can help
I have 0 knowledge of the eigen values
that's the issue
also what is this ferrari you were saying?
I thought you are talking abt faddev-adlfadfja algo

It's very painful for 4th degree
wish I could
That's alright, just rename the terms
finding evs is not the problem, finding their sings is the issue
idk whether the 0s help
I mean, if you have the eigenvalues then you should be able tp figure out the sign
Nah, the proof seems fine. Looks logical. Though you don't really need to introduce linear transformations at all. You can simply show that Ax_1, ..., Ax_r are linearly independent. Also, I think your R(A)^T and C(A)^T should be R(A^T) and C(A^T), but eh, just minor gripes about presentation. Good work otherwise.
Sounds like a lit of work, but at least feasible
You should get some inequalities for the terms at the end if you want them negative
๐
if only I could do that in a reasonable time

I'll ask my supervisor to do this part
Isn't it usually the reverse
The supervisor outsources tedious work lower down the chain
I'll ask him to let me skip that part
It's not for a paper or anything, it's for grading
@spare widget I have another question related to those I've been asking recently
@zinc timber can this help in your case? https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gershgorin_circle_theorem
In mathematics, the Gershgorin circle theorem may be used to bound the spectrum of a square matrix. It was first published by the Soviet mathematician Semyon Aronovich Gershgorin in 1931. Gershgorin's name has been transliterated in several different ways, including Gerลกgorin, Gerschgorin, Gershgorin, Hershhorn, and Hirschhorn.
Or are the bounds too loose?
If Re(aii) + Ri < 0 (for all i) then you can argue that Re(lambda) < 0
yes?
You mean that instead of using the concept of linear transformation T that transforms the basis vectors I could just use the matrix A that multiplies that basis vectors, which implies the linear transformation?
As regards R(A)^T, I deliberately used it to emphasize that when you transpose R(A) you get the column space of A. But R(A^T) would actually convey the same meaning, so maybe it would make more sense in terms of style.
@spare widget Never mind actually, I think I "get it."
Oh, well, let me try to ask this anyway
It seems that if we have a square matrix, we can choose any pair of to and from bases for its interpretation.
And in particular, if that matrix is invertible, we can still choose any to and from pair of bases for its interpretation.
You can, but usually people choose the same
(OK, but I'm trying to be general here)
I'm assuming (1) the linear transformation is from a space into itself, and (2) that we have to and from bases which can be different.
And, if we choose that pair of to and from bases, this invertible matrix represents the identity transformation (I think you may disagree with this)
Before I continue to my question can you tell me if you disagree with that last sentence?
I would say that people will generally be confused if you say that, but I understand what you mean since I am familiar with your problem.
Okay thanks. ๐
My suggestion for same space stuff is to define it wrt same bases
Then you can compose it with a change of basis if you so wish
My question is: does this really work with every single possible pair of to and from bases we could come up with? The reason I'm asking is, say we choose the to basis in advance, say it's (\mathcal{B}1 = {u_1, \ldots, u_n}). Then it turns out that if the matrix is columns of numbers (S = [s_1, \ldots, s_n]), the from basis works out to be the vectors (\widetilde{s_1}, \ldots, \widetilde{s_i}) where ([\widetilde{s_i}]{\mathcal{B}_1} = s_1).
Which matrix
joesmith1042
The matrix we started with, (S), the square matrix of numbers.
joesmith1042
If you have bases E, F with a map T:V -> V and a matrix S corresponding to T with basis E from and basis F to
Then you can always compute the change of basis matrix P from E to F
And compute A = P^{-1} S
which corresponds to T from E to E
Well, you don't have to compute anything right? Isn't the matrix just already the change of basis matrix?
(If it's invertible that is.)
So, I meant to say, we start with an invertible matrix.
So S is invertible, and we just declare to and from bases of vectors.
Then S is the representation of the identity transform in those to and from bases
And you claim it is the change of basis
You have to then specify at least one of the bases
Yes, I'm saying, start with a square matrix of numbers S that is invertible, and declare that the interpretation of it is with respect to a particular to and from basis
Yes, this is my question. Why is that?
Like, why can't it be arbitrary for both bases?
Because imagine S - rotation
you have to fix the starting point from which this rotation starts to give you the second basis
Or the end point
You can of course take by default E = canonical basis
Then it's fine
Well, I guess my point is, say I have S. We know that the columns of S are the representations of the from basis vectors in the to basis, right?
Like, Su_1 represented in terms of v1, ..., vn is the first column, and so on.
ok, but then you have to define the to basis
Why? I mean, why can't it just be "v1, ..., vn". Why must it be more specific than that?
I mean, mathematically speaking
I can now pick any basis
Then rotate it
And end up with another
And the change of basis matrix is R
it's like saying: I give you the distance between two points - tell me what the points are
You cannot
So you're saying that S, an invertible matrix, may not be the change of basis for some pairs of to and from bases.
No, it will be for infinitely many
There are infinitely many bases that are related through it
I can take any basis, then apply S, get another basis, and then these two are related by S
Ah, but we do have to sort of "derive" one of the bases.
from the other (and the matrix).
I still don't really understand why that's the case, is there a way to prove that with the formulas?
basis + change of basis matrix -> other basis
I mean, the formulas for linear transformations, matrix multiplication, etc.
$\vec{f}i = \sum_j s{ji} \vec{e_j}$
Ah yes.
criver
Oh, so you're saying that just putting any e's and any f's doesn't mean that this equation works out
it does
But aren't the e's and f's just symbols? Or you're saying, they have to be like, specific numbers.
No es and fs are vectors
My bad, I meant to say vectors of numbers.
Not necessarily of numbers
But doesn't that equation say that the equation works for any symbols e's and f's?
OK. But in general aren't those just letters?
I guess this is the source of my confusion
So, the act of "choosing" what the e_i's are specifically is going beyond just labeling them with letters, and getting more specific?
And that's why it doesn't really work for any choice of e_i's and f_i's?
idk what you mean by doesn't really work
if you are given the es and S, you can find the corresponding fs
Well you said that if you chose say the f_i's, then that implies the e_i's be something specific. They can't be just anything anymore.
If you are given the fs and S you can find the correspondimg es
But it looks in the equation like you could have anything for the f_i's and e_i's since they're all just abstract symbols
If you have the es and fs you can find S
Do you see what my confusion is?
no, I do not
Like, if we look at that equation, e_i and f_i are just there, which makes me think they can be anything
If it's easier for you think of es and fs as elements from R^n
After all finite dim real space are isomorphic to R^n
Yeah, so I think the problem is the difference between 1) labelling something abstractly and 2) keeping that label but assuming a more specific representation
Like, if I have e_i there, it seems e_i can be anything, and same with f_i.
not anything, vectors
OK, any vector.
Linearly independent ones too
And spanning the vector space
And S has to be invertible in that case
See if I look at the equation x = y + z, it seems like this works for "any" y, z, and x, except of course we know it doesn't, because we're trained of think of them as numbers
So we naturally think "well of course this wouldn't work for any x, y, and z, obviously given y and z there's only one x that would work for it"
If it's easier for you think if es and fs as vectors from R^n
Yeah, that might help, do you see how it's confusing me now?
Like, in all the proofs I've been doing and everything, we always "set" the basis to be "e1, ..., en"
expressed wrt the canonical basis (1,0,...0,0), ..., (0,0,...,0,1)
But in my head, that's like just saying "x" which can be anything at all
So in a way it's like we have fixed absolutely nothing.
Setting the basis in practice
So I think I need to think more like, if I ever write e1, ..., en, that those are specific vectors
Does that make sense?
Right. Or, functions, like you said before. Like x^2 or something.
(the usual polynomial basis)
well let's keep to R^n for simplicity
Well I get it now, if this is indeed the issue I'm having
Like, it seems obvious now
Then e1,...,en are just arrays of numbers
Yeah.
That are lin indep
And span R^n
Then the system arising is something like
F = S E
The last thing I have to do (I think) on this topic is to prove the statement I quoted to you at the beginning of my question, I just copied it out of a matrix algebra book
Some of those may need to be transposed, gotta expand the sum to figure it out
Right.
Yes, and doing that would "prove" the statement I was just mentioning.
That book doesn't have a proof of it, it just quotes it.
Maybe I should just take it as a given and move on from this topic, or do you think I should try to prove it actually?
Try to, it will probably help with understanding
E.g.
Assume e1,...,en are given
And S is given
Rewrite
Here it is: it's the sentence beginning "Conversely"
$\vec{f}i = \sum_j S{ij} \vec{e}_j$
criver
If you stack those I think you get something like F^T = S E
Yes.
$\begin{bmatrix} \vec{f}_1 & \ldots & \vec{f}_n\end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} \vec{e}_1 & \ldots & \vec{e}_n\end{bmatrix} S$
I think this is better
criver
I don't actually fully follow that.
let me think whether this is correct
How did you go from the summations to that?
skill
$F_{ij} = \sum_k E_{ik}S_{kj} \implies \ \vec{f}j = \sum_k S{kj} \vec{e}_k$
Did I mess this up?
What is F? The matrix of f_i's?
criver
And E is the matrix of e_i's?
F is made of the columns f, E of columns e
The second line is correct
if you take i = 1,...,n then you get the vectors
Did gershgorin help?
But you should get some inequalities from it
max_i Re(a_ii) + Ri < 0 -> Re(lambda) < 0
Well that's your change of basis if you have e and f as numbers
The implies should read iff btw
It's just rewriting the vector lin comb as a matrix equation
Yes I was going to mention the iff
I think they pick the canonical basis
e.g. E = I
Oh they did!?
No wonder I couldn't figure the stupid thing out
This is one of those "matrix algebra" books so it's super computations focused...
F = ES = IS = S
Ugh.
Thank you. That's the missing part I couldn't get
Alright, well that pretty much buttons this topic up. Again I really appreciate your help on all this.
That or F=I, I am not sure from their notation
It's OK, you helped me figure out the key piece, which is how one basis sort of implies the other.
Thank you again!
I think I am wrong reading what you posted
They assume B1 is defined
Yes, they assume B1 to be defined and S to be given
Then they argue they can find E
Eek, okay.
which is clear
I'm not quite sure how they got those specific numbers, but I think I could use the formulas you just derived above to find that, right?
What they call \tilde{s} are really the basis vectors of B afaik
For R^n you could yes
Well they're the representations of those basis vectors
For abstract stuff
Er, no, you're right, the tilde s's are actually the basis vectors.
It just means that you are given f and S, and you can find e from that
Thank you very much for your answer:)
Why does it make a difference whether or not it's R^n or not?
These things are just coefficients of vectors, right?
because for R^n I can write es and fs as array of numbers
Like, s_i is coefficients of \tilde{s_i} in a particular basis
And then form F = ES
If f and e are not arrays of numbers
Then I have to work with
$\vec{f}_i = \sum_j \vec{e}j S{ji}$
criver
Alternatively:
But how does that prevent you from getting their result there?
$\vec{e}j = \sum_i (S^{-1}){ij}\vec{f}_i$
criver
Right.
It doesn't
But for instance if f is a polynomial
I can't just make a matrix F and E
I can only do this by mapping to R^n through an isomorphism
Ley's try an example
f1 = 1, f2 = x
OK.
s11 = 1, s12 = 2, s21 = -2, s22 = 1
Then you can find polynomials e1, e2
Or vice versa so you won't have to invert s
e.g. using this
I see.
OK well, that all makes sense.
I think you just proved their result, right?
If you construct a map between polys and R^n
Then you can use 1 -> (1,0,...,0), x -> (0,1,0,..,0) etc
Like, all we needed was s_ij and f_j's, and we get e_i's
Then you can work in R^n instead
OK. Is that what they implicitly did there?
no
Or are they just stating the final, put-together result?
I am just saying how you can go to R^n
Do your computations with arrays
Then return to your other fin dim real space
Ah OK. I'll keep that in mind. I actually like sticking with the original spaces better personally but this is a cool thing to know about.
They are stating this afaik
that you can find e, give f and S
I think so too, I think they're just sort of finalizing it a bit too much for my tastes. Really appreciate you walking me through the details on that.
\tilde{s} being the es
you're welcome
Can you prove your matrix is diagonally dominant?
And then show that all the diagonal elements are negative
well not quite I guess
since it's complex
you need $-Re(a_{ii}) > \sum_{j\ne i} |a_{ij}|$ after all
criver
which looks a bit like diagonal dominance
At least it gives you inequalities that are sufficient conditions for your matrix having negative real parts of the eigenvalues.
The bounds are fairly loose though probably.
Sorry for late reply, but essentially, yeah. Since you are working with the underlying matrix A anyways, you don't need to talk about the transformation, since the vectors Ax_1, ..., Ax_r are already linearly independent vectors in the column space of A by the definition of column space.
nope
one condition for RH is to show det >0
I can use schur complement to break it up
even still no help
rh?)
What I wrote are sufficient conditions, so you can get inequalities for your variables
Routh Hurwitz
Beyond that ferrari will give you the exact bounds for the variable ranges for which this holds
or are you trying to prove that the eigenvalues have negative real parts regardless of what params you pick?
You can use this to further intersect it with thr gershgorin disks
may yield a tighter bound
A is a singular transformation. is Ker A an eigenspace of 0?
Yes
thanks :)
@spare widget By the way, the thing we discussed before about given a matrix and one basis and knowing we want the matrix to be a change of basis matrix, the other basis must be derived from the matrix and the known basis. Does that apply to matrix representations of isomorphisms in general? (i.e. not just to matrix representations of the identity transform)
My guess is no.
Prove $\alpha$ is the only eigenvalue of $\alpha I$.
Let $\beta$ be an eigenvalue of $\alpha I$. Then there exists a vector $x \neq 0$ such that $(\alpha I)x = \beta x$, ie. $\alpha x = \beta x$, which implies $\alpha = \beta$.
Is this proof ok? I guess no, doesnt sound good to me.
mate
Yeah it's fine
You also have that (ฮฑI-ฮฒ) is non-invertible (zero, in fact) iff ฮฑ=ฮฒ
thanks :)
I do not understand the question
Well the determination of the other basis thing was when we were talking about a change of basis matrix
But now I'm wondering if the same requirement applies to invertible matrices in general.
what requirement
I.e. for a given invertible matrix to be representative of an isomorphism, and we choose one of the bases, is the other basis determined by those two choices? Or can we choose it to be anything we want.
Yes it is determined
Really. Even though we're no longer being as strict on what the matrix must represent?
$\vec{f}i = \sum_j S{ji} \vec{e}_j$
criver
It's just linear combinations
Hm, I see what you're saying.
It's clear that given the es and S you can compute the fs
And vice versa using S^{-1}
It's just interesting that this requirement looks like, almost exactly the same as what we were looking at before.
Before, we wanted S to represent the identity transform. Now, we want S to be any isomorphism
I thought the requirement would be a little looser.
Do you see what I mean?
Well, we start with a matrix S. We demand that this matrix represent the identity transformation. We fix one basis. Then, that demand, the numbers in the matrix, and the basis give us the other basis.
Now, we start with a matrix S. We demand that this matrix be some isomorphism. We fix one basis.
How much freedom do we have in choosing the other basis? Is it fully determined, just like in the first case?
it's fully determined, I don't see the difference between the two cases
Then there probably isn't a difference ๐ I just wanted to make sure. I'm writing up a summary of a lot of this and this question popped into my mind.
Thanks for checking it.
You start with an invertible matrix, pick a basis, you can get another basis
whether you interpret this as an identity, isomorphism or w/e doesn't matter
I see.
Note that there are two ways to get another basis
Using S or using S^{-1}
depending on the choice the from/to flips
Right. ๐
and nite that fi = sumj ej Sji is not the same as fi = sumj ej (S^{-1})_ji
So it matters whether you are given the to or the from basis
Also something to keep in mind
If you have f_i = sum_j e_j S_ji
This expresses f in terms of the e
So S actually transform vectors from F to E and nit vice versa
Yes.
I see, hadn't heard that term before.
since they transform in the opposite way of the basis
e.g
F = E S vs v_E = S v_F
covectors transform in the opposite way (like the basis)
Your covectors will be from V^* (the dual)
Appreciate you mentioning that, I am familiar with the dual
Back to writing up this summary ๐
Did I do this right
Cause I know dim < 6 if there is one L.D. vector
But with span, I think you can have both?
My assumption was that if basis spans R^6 then dim has to be R^6 since itโs a compilation of only the L.I. vectors, since well, the redundant L.D. vectors would have to be removed
But idk
Iโm not sure if Iโm going down the right direction or if Iโm overly complicating this
span(v1,...,v6) = S -> dim(S) <= 6
To be precise dim S = max # of linearly indepent vectors from v1,...,v6
you can take spans of linearly dependent sets
like span{ (1,0), (0,1), (1,1), (2,3), (-5, 1/2) } = R^2
so yeah, dim(S) <= 6
Itโs not asking if itโs less than or equal. Itโs asking if itโs less than 6
Less than or equal would be true, but if itโs just less than, then itโs false given my explanation
Or so I think?
Am I going down the right direction
why couldn't it be equal to 6?
you're not given {v1, ..., v6} is linearly dependent are you?
yes, your proof / answer is fine
What I wrote is the correct thing, what's written in b) is wrong unless v1,...,v6 are linearly dependent
no
he's saying the claim that dim(S) < 6 is false
the writeup could be more polished but I think the right idea is there
not saying what you said was wrong, their answer agrees with it
unless the inequality is really meant to be a <=, in which case the answer should have been True
looks like it was printed as < and then lines drawn under it
Looks like a "just do it" proof
Prove that if T : V โW is an isomorphism then T^-1 is also an isomorphism.
can someone help me with this. I know I have to prove inverse T is bijective, but I am not sure how I would do that for a generic linear transformation
It's literally telling you what to do
the inverse of a bijection is always a bijection - that's set theory
you have to show the inverse is linear
oh ok, ty
for this, dont I write the basis a as a linear combination of B?
oh wait im bad at arithmetic
So, my textbook says that this is "clear", which I didn't think it was, so I tried to prove it. Is this right?
Anyone know what's the theorem that let's you know a column of a matrix is a generating set?
outer product of two vectors is always rank 1 matrix right
Wait no
nvm let me reread up on outer products
Oh wait yeah it is max rank 1
yeah rank one
you can write it as u v^T. then it becomes clear that the columns are all scaled copies of u
I send it first one wrong but my question is second one. If you locked at I would be so glad
try playing around with a few special cases
that sounds about right, what was your reasoning though?
subspace if null, not otherwise
yeah, that seems right
coolsies ty
could somebody help prove that linear transformations $A$ and $\alpha A (\alpha \in \bR)$ have the same eigenvalues?
mate
good luck proving a false statement!
unless ฮฑ = 1, A and ฮฑA will in general have different eigenvalues.
@wintry steppe
oh thank you, i wanted to say that the set of all eigenvalues of alphaA is alpha*(the set of all eigenvalues of A). i apologize
okay then it becomes very simple
for ฮฑ=0 it's obvious (what are the eigenvalues of the zero map?) and for ฮฑ!=0 it suffices to show one direction (ฮป is an eigenvalue of A => ฮฑฮป is an eigenvalue of ฮฑA), and then convince yourself that what you just proved can be applied to ฮฑA scaled by 1/ฮฑ
thank you, Ann.
if $\beta$ is an eigenvalue of $A$, then
$(\alpha A)x =\alpha A(x) = \alpha (\beta x) = (\alpha \beta) x$. thats one direction, right?
basically we just use $(\alpha A)x = \alpha A(x)$ to prove both directions?
mate
if you wish to word it that way sure
hi
if I have for example
$e^{\begin{bmatrix}
t & 0 & 0\
0 & t & 0\
0 & 0 & t
\end{bmatrix}}$
dervaa_
is this equal to
expand in a series
$\begin{bmatrix}
e^{t} & 0 & 0\
0 & e^{t} & 0\
0 & 0 & e^{t}
\end{bmatrix}$
dervaa_
$e^x = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{x^k}{k!}$
criver
Yea, I know it can be done like that
Now substitute x with a matrix
but in textbook its like this and I am asking and wondering if this some mistake
or is it possible to just "input" e into matrix like tomorrow doesn't exist hahah
It's correct
expand it and see
you get a matrix of the form
$\begin{bmatrix} \sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{t^k}{k!} & 0 & 0 \ 0 & \sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{t^k}{k!} & 0 \ 0 & 0 & \sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{t^k}{k!} \end{bmatrix}$
aha, okey thanks
criver
You turn the sums into e^t and done
Here's a more interesting variant of this - compute e^A, where A = P^{-1} D P
thank you very much, Ann! have a great day
can anyone tell me what a' and b' are?
does that mean subsets?
i have to show that these statements are equivalent
Theyโre anything
Thatโs the point of the questionโฆ.
a, a', b, and b' are elements
you're showing the definition of ordered pair in (1) makes sense
can anyone help me prove this
Show that adj(A^-1)adjA = I
i got it thanks
I'm guessing they are defining ordered tuple here?
yes
i got it thank you
can anyone help me solving b)? i did part a), but tbh have no clue solving b)
If map A from V to V is bijective, then V is the direct sum of its kernel and image?
Does anybody understand this argument? Iโm totally confused
All the aโs, lambdas, and lโs are positive. Lambda* is always less than corresponding lambda and for commodity i the numerator will have l_i - ฮด for some positive ฮด less than l_i
I donโt get how we are getting that the average is greater than the smallest ratio
In case it helps this is coming from a matrix equation $$\Lambda = \Lambda A + L $$ where $\Lambda$ and $L$ are vectors and A is a matrix. Imagine we decrease the ith entry of L. Heโs trying to show that the ith lambda decreases proportionately the most $\frac{\lambda_i^*}{\lambda_i}$
casualpolemic
Is this proof just wrong?
I have a question and i can provide more context to the question if needed
Does it matter which basis we take for v1?
Like can I instead use [-1, 0, 1] (matrix with blue underline) as my v1?
Does it matter if the highlighted integers are equal to 1? Or can they equal another number
They can be different so long as your solution set is still the span of [-2, 1, 0] and [-1, 0, 1]
So it'd be fine if you wrote your solution set as s[-4, 2, 0] + t[-3, 0, 3]
heyy i have a doubt can someone helpp
what is your doubt? @safe schooner
disss
i can see the image just fine
in it there is a problem (Example 12.15) with a partially worked-out solution
can you please be more specific as to where your doubt is?
A bit confused. When solving for Eigenvalues of a square matrix, why is it that sometimes the formula is A - lambda*identity and sometimes it's lambda*identity - A?
doesn't matter
$\det(\lambda I - A)$ and $\det(A - \lambda I)$ only differ by a constant multiplier of $(-1)^n$, so finding the zeros of either one will give you the same result
Ann
that makes it a lot clearer. Thank you!
though when talking about characteristic polynomial, prefer |xI-A| over |A-xI|
why?
|xI-A| if you want it monic, |A-xI| if you don't want to have to write out a bunch of negative signs
oh, I see. thank you
I think I figured this out
hello
i know you can pre-multiply a matrix by its inverse to make it identity, can you post-multiply by its inverse to also make it the identity?
$AA^{-1}=A^{-1}A=I$
holazach
thankyou ๐
Here it is @peak marsh
I need some help. Regarding Gaussian Elimination. I need to find the quadratic polynomial that is passing through three points using Gaussian Elimination. (1,4), (2,0), (3,12)
That must mean that I have
x1=1, y1=4
x2=2, y2=0
x3=3, y3=12
But how do I move on from here?
you make a system of equations with y=ax^2+bx+c by plugging in the 3 points to this to get 3 equations
then you solve for the 3 variables a,b,c kind of backwards of what you might expect
building up on what mero says, note that the variables are a,b,c. with that in mind, inspection of the RHS of y=ax^2+bx+c should let you see this looks the same as a dot product
namely, [x^2, x, 1] dot [a b c]
then consider that matrix vector products Mv can be written in terms of dot products between the rows of the matrix M and the vector v
Thanks guys!
I guess as a bit of handy trivia, the general matrix for doing it this way with a polynomial is called the Vandermonde matrix
Sup guys. Going over some review for a test tomorrow. Is this question even possible? I feel like I am missing a vector here
Because for linear combinations in R2, we are given 3 vectors
for R3 shouldnt we be given 4?
hmm?
to have a basis for all of R2, you need 2 linearly independent vectors
for all of R3, you'd need 3
but part of the question is whether you can express the given vectors in the basis S at all, i.e. whether they are in the span of the given set
notice the "if possible" bit
Ya, thats making me second guess myself. Rarely is it so easy as to just say "nope"
Thank you
it's not "so easy" though, since you have to show why
np, I get you lol, I'm always super paranoid when it says if possible and just think I'm being dumb
So just say that there isnt enough vectors to span R3, so a linear combo isnt possible
maybe?
one way to check is take the cross product of the vectors in S, then dot it with z and v and see if you get 0 or not
the vector could still be in the span of the set
mero's approach is very clever if you understand it
if not, gauss jordan will never let you down
it has a determinant that != 0
is that the same as this
yeah
you need n vectors in Rn to be able to write EVERY vector in Rn as a sum of those vectors, you can have n-k vectors which can write a subset of Rn
checking the determinant of the augmented matrix is equivalent to what mero said, yes
since it means adding the vector to the set increases its rank
i.e. the system is inconsistent
only real reason why I didn't suggest determinant is cause there are 2 vectors, z and v to check, which means two 3x3 determinants. I thought it'd be easier to do just the cross product, so that way you're only doing 2 dot products instead
finding the determinant is equal to zero is equivalent to showing an inconsistency though^^
just for clarification
basically just reusing part of the determinant being evaluated rather than do it from scratch twice
well it inputs vectors of dimension 4 so it has 4 columns, since its null space has dimension 2 by rank-nullity its rank is 2, so yeah.
how about the possible m x n dimensions
wdym possible mxn dim?
Ah, I got it
V is 4x2
Since vectors in the nullspace are vectors from {v : Bv = 0} and V is a basis for those, then they are in R^4
This means that n = 4
Since the product Bv is not defined otherwise
As far as m goes, the rank is 2, so m>=2
Note R(B^T) + N(B) = 4
And B needs to have 2 linearly independent rows and cols
makes sense
No, this is rank 3
If you want to make an explicit matrix you must make sure that BV = 0
I need an example of this
Idk seems impossible
How do you make rank 2 with no 0 in your rref matrix lol
Well consider matrices not in rref
Still impossible
Note it's equivalent to finding a set of 4 vectors in R^4 whose span has dimension 2
And that columns may repeat, for example
Matrix with 2 linearly dependent columns (with no zero components)
Just pick two lin indep vectors, and then build 2 linear combinations of those (resulting in no zero components, e.g. you can just take copies of the two vectors)
I'm a bit confused why it seems impossible though. Would you say the same if the question said 1 or 3?
yep, my bad
didnt see that
i get it now
It's obviously not, they're just trying vectors that have 0 components
I meant why it seems impossible to them
Since otherwise it seems they think all matrices are 0 or rank 4 or smth but yes
Because they are picking vectors with 0 components, I don't think there's another option that yields these 0 cases
It's easy to pick orthogonal vectors if one plugs 0 components
Construct an isomorphism to R^3
then represent B2 and B3 as linear combinations of the vectors of B1
(You can do the latter even without the isomorphism)
how would you do it without isomorphism