#linear-algebra
2 messages ¡ Page 300 of 1
You did đ
@fleet sun I have a related question
Question: We have theorems about linear transformations $A: U^{(m)} \to V^{(n)}$, and also transformations from $A: U^{(m)} \to U^{(m)}$ (i.e. from a vector space to itself). What happens with the case $A: U^{(m)} \to V^{(m)}$? (I.e., what if we have a transformation from a vector space to another vector space with the same dimension?) Do we need new theorems for that?
Or, maybe I should say: which theorems from the first two cases apply to the third case, and what are the minimum necessary modifications if any?
joesmith1042
well, if two vector spaces have the same finite dimension, they are isomorphic
Indeed.
so it's not essentially different from going from U to itself
I guess the one we just discussed wouldn't hold at all since we're not talking about the identity transform, nor change of basis.
In that way, it is essentially different
I suppose the implication is that if we go from matrices to transformations, we have to stipulate that even if we have a square matrix, that it represents a transformation from one space to that same space.
yeah
I.e. if we took the situation we were just discussing, even if a matrix were similar to the identity matrix, unless we stipulate this interpretation we couldn't say it represents the identity transform (perhaps this is obvious to most people but I wanted to get it down "on paper" so to speak).
By the way, I had a funny feeling about what I was saying before
and the fact is the only matrix similar to the identity matrix is the identity matrix
I don't think that's correct.
Er, I should clarify
Your statement about "the only matrix" is true for similar matrices, but not for equivalent matrices
But a lot of people don't make that distinction so I was glossing over that terminology difference
$A_2 = P A_1 P^{(-1)}$ iff $A_2$ and $A_1$ are similar. $A_2 = Q A_1 P^{(-1)}$ iff $A_2$ and $A_1$ are equivalent.
joesmith1042
(where $P$ and $Q$ are invertible matrices)
joesmith1042
right
If two linear transformations are isomorphically equivalent, then their matrices are equivalent. But I think we can only say the converse of that statement if we make the stipulation that I was mentioning before.
(not sure about my last sentence there actually, reconsidering it now)
I'm not sure what you mean by transformations being isomorphically equivalent
I could guess
T1: U1 -> V1
and T2: U2 -> V2
now if there are isomorphisms U1 -> U2 and V1 -> V2
such that the square of maps commutes
you could say T1, T2 are isomorphic maybe
@fleet sun I don't know what the "square of maps" is but I meant that $T_2 = P T_1 Q^{-1}$ in your example.
joesmith1042
(where $P$ and $Q$ are the isomorphisms)
joesmith1042
Nice picture, thank you!
Yeah I think it is the same as equivalence like you said
It is
So if we take the matrix equation $A_2 = Q A_1 P^{(-1)}$ where $Q$ and $P$ have the same dimensions and are invertible, then if we used $A_1$ as the identity matrix, there is certainly an $A_2$ that isn't the identity that satisfies that equation.
joesmith1042
So I think we just proved: If a matrix is equivalent to the identity matrix, then it is a representation of the identity transform. (and vice versa)
Do you think that is correct?
Let me think about that
It's been a while since I was in linear algebra, need to brush up on this stuff
That's okay! Honestly my brain is a little tired from thinking about this right now
But I think yes you're right
Okay cool, thanks. I'll revisit this tomorrow and if I find I was wrong, I'll sign in here and let you know đ
Thank you again for all the help, thinking, etc.
Wikipedia says
"Equivalent matrices represent the same linear transformation V â W under two different choices of a pair of bases of V and W, with P and Q being the change of basis matrices in V and W respectively."
Well... this takes us back to the beginning unfortunately.
To my original question.
I'm actually going to stop thinking about this now so I don't get more confused, I'm low on mental energy, I will revisit this again tomorrow including the Wikipedia article.
I'll let you know my thoughts then đ Have a good day or evening, whichever it is for you.
Sure, have a good one
my prof says that if you are finding a basis for a plane, any two non parallel vectors will automatically span the vector space (plane). Why is this? And does this always apply?
a plane is a space of dimension 2, by defn
im not sure how to get this positive
@hardy inlet Recall expansion of (a+b+c)^2
is it that i assume?
Yes
this calculation of -0.01 the same as <Av,v> right
Av.v is what thats an attempt at
and i did v.Av which should be the same
Im strugging with: Find an example of a positive matrix some of whose entries are negative.
You can take any upper triangular matrix with positive entries on the main diagonal, 0 on the lower, and a negative number on the upper
i tried that earlier and got this, idk how this is positive, can it be factored or something
oh wait now this looks promising
isn't that (x-y)²?
ye
cool thanks guys
đ¤ it doesn't say prove true, so would there be a counterexample?
If T is diagonalizable then this is the case
Since 1 / lambda is positive
idk about the non-diagonlizable case
And you can have invertible non-diagonalizable matrices
min_x |[A 1] x - b|^2
once you find the optimal x by solving
[A 1]^T[A 1] x = [A 1]^T b
then the residual is r = b - [A 1] x
Where x is the solution
I think I found the answer to this. But you can keep thinking about it if you prefer
Am I tripping or does the question not make sense?
It's always I, no?
He argues about other bases, but a matrix transformation is of the form P^{-1}AP, so it's definitely always I even taking this into account.
If we have T(v) = v, the matrix for T is the identity regardless of the basis
P^{-1} I P = I doesn't really change that
So this is correct
As I understand, the condition he's talking about means the matrix can be row reduced into the identity matrix
This is not
what I glanced is the user believing that [I]_B1 and [I]_B2 are different
They are not
It's the same identity matrix
Well, consider the identity transformation from R^2 to itself, but where the domain uses the basis {(1,1),(2,1)} and the codomain uses the basis {(-1,1),(3,2)} or something
I don't think it will look like an identity matrix
because that's not the identity transformation
What you are describing is a matrix that maps from B1 to B2
e.g. the P that I have
change of basis matrix
seems like some confusion regarding bases and what the identity map is
I think we have to conceive of the identity transformation as ignoring any choice of basis
it just sends v to v
but if the first v is written in one basis, and the second in another
that matrix doesn't look like the identity matrix
That's not how this works
It's clear that [v]_B1 doesn't have to equal [v]_B2
This doesn't say anything about the identity
It just says that the coefficients in different bases of the same vector do not have to agree, but that's trivial
Don't matrix representations care about that though
you can think of those as defined wrt some basis
But when you want to change the basis of a matrix it goes like this:
P^{-1}[A]_B1 P = [A]_B2
right
And it's clear that with A = I
This is I regardless of the basis
Because P^{-1}P = I
And it should be clear that this needs to be the case
even without the above
Since you want T(v) = v
Well say [T(v)]_B1 = [A]_B1 [v]_B1 = [v]_B1
For all v
Then it's clear that A= I, and that's regardless of the chosen basis
I think the change of basis thing with P^-1 A P only has the effect of changing basis in the codomain
if you want to change in the domain as well it's like P^-1 A Q
matrix equivalence vs similarity
But I'm realizing I never really learned this stuff as well as I should have
spectral theorem 
No, P^-1 A P changes the basis for both the input and the output of the linear transformation represented by A.
For P^-1 A P, the columns of P should be the new basis vectors expressed in the old coordinate system.
Yeah I said it wrong
I was thinking of this:
"The notion of equivalence should not be confused with that of similarity, which is only defined for square matrices, and is much more restrictive (similar matrices are certainly equivalent, but equivalent square matrices need not be similar). That notion corresponds to matrices representing the same endomorphism V â V under two different choices of a single basis of V, used both for initial vectors and their images."
Oh right, if the doman and codomain are two different vector spaces (so it doesn't even make sense to use the same basis for both in the first place) then P^-1 A Q is what you want.
If T*T = TT is T self-adjoint/hermatian?
Yes, by definition.
by definition of what, i know T=T* is the def of Selfadjoint but does that 2nd T have any issues
No, you can replace equals for equals anywhere in an expression.
If T* and T are the same thing, they can't yield different things when multiplied by T.
so this is sufficient in red?
Hmm, that seems to assume that T is self-adjoint instead of proving it.
No wait, it doesn't assume it.
Oh shit, I completely misread your question. Everything I said was nonsense, please ignore.
Once you have T*T = T², multiply by T from the right on both sides and use T²=I.
what does an orthonormal basis of P_2 look like? i feel like ive done it before with gram schmidt but dont wanna do it again
What is P_2? I suppose polynomials of degree <= 2, but with which inner product?
You could use a and bx as your first two basis elements, for appropriate normalization constants a and b. These are clearly orthogonal.
For the third, something of the form c(x²-d) would automatically be orthogonal to bx (because they are even and odd, respectively), and you can then solve for d to make it orthogonal to a. Finally normalize it by selecting c appropriately.
im not sure where we need this orthonormal basis; i skimmed over the book and dont see anything about it
so we have the list from another example in the gram shmit section; but what use it is
you can note the relationship between the squared singular values and the eigenvalues
yeah i thought it was just the sqrt of the evs of A^T A
i dont see why the basis for A matters
presumably to compute A^T A
This is my first time here so I am not completely sure how to do this, but could someone please help me get started on this problem?
what do you know about the determinants of similar matrices?
here, we can see A and B are similar matrices, so it might help to look in your notes or book for something related to similar matrices and determinants
They are the same
Oh, I think I see, so I just need to find values for x that would make the determinant of A = 0?
I got it, thanks @twilit anvil !
So I've been looking at this question.
Am I right in thinking that (v-vp)^T is orthogonal to the nullspace of A?
did you mean v-v_p? and what makes you think its orthogonal to A?
I don't have a good mathematical justification for it, but drawing the vectors involved shows a right angle
I've just projected v onto an arbitrary vector A instead of the basis for A's nullspace for simplicity
At this point I haven't worked out how to justify it, but it looks as if v-v_p is orthogonal to the arbitrary A
Which makes me think that for the actual question, v-v_p would be orthogonal to the nullspace of A
Yes
algebraically we know every vector has an orthogonal decomposition, v = v_A + v_Aperp
so v-v_perp=v_A
thanks
Since vp is the projection of v onto the nullspace then (v-vp) is in R(A^T), so I think it's linearly dependent with the row-vectors of A and the rank doesn't change. What bothers me is why they mention that the nullspace is 2-dimensional, as this is irrelevant as far as I can tell. The rank of the new matrix is equal to the rank of A.
Yeah thats it
For justification of my answer,
I can see that a space and its orthogonal complement make up a complete basis for R^n
So I can say that because (v-vp) is orthogonal to Null(A), it is therefore within the rowspace of A?
As the orthogonal complement of the rowspace of A is Null(A)
Yes N(A) \perp R(A^T)
And N(A) + R(A^T) = R^n
$v_p = (I-A^{+}A)v \implies v-v_p = A^{+}A v \implies (v-v_p) \in R(A^T)$
criver
(v-vp) is the projection of v onto R(A^T)
What's A^+? I haven't seen that notation before
but since rank A = dim R(A^T) and (v-vp) in R(A^T) then then R(M^T) = R(A^T) -> rank M = dim R(M^T) = dim R(A^T) = rank A
Moore-penrose pseudo-inverse
You define it like so:
ah yeah
And I'd assume R(A^T) is the rowspace of A right?
I haven't seen that either
More commonly just R(A) or C(A^T)
$A = U\Sigma V^T \implies A^{+} = V \Sigma^{+} U^T \ (\Sigma^{+}){ii} = \begin{cases} 0 & (\Sigma){ii} = 0 \ \frac{1}{(\Sigma){ii}} & (\Sigma){ii} \ne 0 \end{cases}$
criver
yes
U\SigmaV^T being the singular value decomposition of A
This should be enough though
The point is that the projector on N(A) is I - A^{+}A
So
$v-v_p = v - (I-A^{+}A)v= (I-I+A^{+}A)v = A^{+}Av$
criver
Alright yeah
Thanks for all that
I'll need a sec to get fully across everything here lol
But yeah it looks good
The main idea is that v-v_p is not linearly independent from the row vectors of A
So rank M = dim R(M^T) = dim R(A^T) = rank A
To show that it is not lin indep from them you can use that it is the projection of v onto R(A^T)
Hi guys, can you help me with this question?
use the fact that swapping two rows results in a -1 factor for the determinant
Then count the number of swaps necessary
Ah yeah, right, thanks, so
As an example swap v1 and v2
Then v1 and v3
Then v1 and v4
Etc
Until it ends up in the last row
Its (n-1) swaps
Yes
Can you check this one also? Thanks in advance
is this an exam?
A previous years once, for practice, I read the rules đ
ok. yeah that seems correct
Thanks, just I did a quick check witn B1 = {(1,0),(0,1)} and B2 = {(0,1),(1,0)}
Wanted to be sure that its correct answer
Little question, here p1(x) means space {1, x}, p2(x) means {1,x,x^2} and so on yes?
what i understand from this is that p_i(x) is some arbitrary polynomial
Arbitrary polynomial in {1, x, x^2, x^3, x^4}?
i don't see why that would be necessary
Just its subspace of P(4), thats why I thought that way
all they tell you is that the set {p_i(x)} forms a basis, so the p_i(x) are lin indep
you don't know anything else about them
Ok
So, as its subspace and they are linearly independent, its basis should have dim = 3, which is the case C as I see
yeah. you can check ann's image for more details
Thanks
Ok đ
and then you indeed notice that the solution includes a polynomial that was not part of the canonical basis
You are about that x^3 have coefficient 2?
mhm
Ok, yeah, that thing I remember good, that coefficient do not play major role here hehe đ
i'm not sure what you mean by that
the key takeaway should really be that you only knew there were 3 lin indep polys, and that is all
Nevermind, I got what you say)
the solution could've been {e, pi + 20x, x^3 + 300x^2}
Btw, its okay that there is no x^2 in the answer?
that is exactly my point, so it seems you have not yet gotten it
P_4 has dim = 5, and from the definition of W given in the problem, W can be any dim 3 subspace of P_4
Hmm, so the exponent of x is not the key part here
Okay, so if understand right, as its subspace of W, its dimension should be at least 3 yes?
what is a subspace of W?
Wait, subspace is always only 1 dimension lower?
nothing we are discussing in this problem should be a subspace of W, and there is nothing with dim >= 3
no
all of that is wrong
Oh wait, as basis of W is 3 polynomials, its dimension is 3 right?
mhm
Ok, now I got it, only one thing, why B is not a basis?
Cuz of exponent of x?
Like in both places, its 1
because the polys are not linearly independent
recall that the definition of a basis necessitates that the elements of the spanning set be linearly independent
so if the tell you "the basis has 3 elements", you immediately know the dimension is 3
but if you are given an arbitrary (spanning) set of 3 vectors, they don't necessarily form a basis
Okay, I understood, thanks đ¤
in this case, you can pick any 2 of the polys and take linear combinations of them to form the 3rd
doesn't seem so
Hmm 
Great
Is there a more intuitive way to determine the position between three planes rather than memorizing the positions based on ranks of the system formed by those planes?
Context?
For instance, the last drawing represents the position of the 3 planes when the rank of the coefficient matrix is 3 and the rank of the augmented matrix is 3 too
think about the dimension of the null-space
It is the dimension of the intersection (if any)
If the null-space is trivial (i.e. full rank) then all hyperplanes intersect into a single point
Specifically
Ax = b -> x = A^{-1}b
If A is not full rank then you have two options: non-trivial intersection, or no intersection
the dimension of the nullspace gives you the dimension of the intersection if any
So if rank is n-1 -> leaves out 1 dimension for the intersection -> the planes intersect in a line or they do not have a common intersection
n-2 -> the planes intersect in a plane or they do not have a common intersection
Whether there is a common intersection or not depends on the rhs - if it is in R(A^T) then there is a common intersection having the dimension of the nullspace,otherwise the intersection of all of the hyperplanes is empty
Any ideas which one is correct? Im lost
Assume v in N(B) then Bv = 0
then ABv = A(Bv) = A0 = 0
Then it follows that v in N(AB)
This shows that N(B) <= N(AB)
Now let v in N(AB) -> ABv = 0
but A is invertible, so A^{-1}ABv = Bv = 0 -> v in N(B)
So N(AB) <= N(B)
From those two it follows N(B) = N(AB)
- Now let A be singular
It is clear that if v in N(B) then v in N(AB) since Bv= 0 -> ABv = 0
So N(B) <= N(AB) and 2 is false
Wait, N is null space right?
yes
And v is?
a vector
arbitrary vector?
v in S means that v is an arbitrary element of S
Ok
Lost in this part, can you explain once more?
you have your basis, yes?
you're writing the matrix of the derivative operator wrt the monomial basis for P3
im not sure if my basis is correct
wym
(0,b,2a)
that's not a basis
Standard basis: 1, x, x^2, x^3
D(1) = 0 = 0*1 + 0*x + 0*x^2 + 0*x^3 => first column [0; 0; 0; 0]
D(x) = 1 = 1*1 + 0*x + 0*x^2 + 0*x^3 => second column [1; 0; 0; 0]
D(x^2) = 2x = 0*1 + 2*x + 0*x^2 + 0*x^3 => third column [0; 2; 0; 0]
D(x^3) = 3x^2 = 0*1 + 0*x + 3*x^2 + 0*x^3 => fourth column [0; 0; 3; 0]
do you understand this?
thank you im having a read now
Quite possibly the most important idea for understanding linear algebra.
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may be worthwhile to watch this
awesome thank you will do!
A set S is a subset of a set P if for every v in S it follows that v in P. That is, if every element of S is an element of P then it's clear that P is a superset of S (it contains all of its elements).
N(D) = {v : Dv = 0}
It's clear that from Bv = 0 it follows ABv = 0
Thus if v in N(B) it follows v in N(AB) and thus N(B) <= N(AB)
You should be able to check this yourself
how would you go about this?
Generally if you claim something is false then you should be able to construct counterexamples
Just, as I remember, there is no any connection between determinant and matrix and its rank
Thats why I chose 2 false
Try constructing counterexamples
For 1) you can try with diagonal matrices to make it easy
For 2 you can try having singular matrices with the same number of linearly independent rows
ok
1 counterexample is enough
There is a small yet important connection with rank and the determinant, if the determinant is non-zero then the matrix has full rank. But if it is zero the rank could be anything less then full
Is this right guys?
It is
Thanks
It's better if you prove that it is right
characteristic polynomial of A is p_A(t) = det(tI - A). how to prove it really is a polynomial?
using the definition of the determinant
It involves only multiplication, addition and subtraction operations
thanks, @spare widget :)
Not sure about this one, is it correct?
What have you tried?
Have you tried writing the general solution?
I just removed all other possible variants
Try writing the general solution
If you're not sure what I mean refer to a textbook in the section on solutions of augmented systems in rref form
e.g. hoffman and kunze
yes
Yeah, did this
So what did you get?
e1, e2 and v0
Yes what values
Either way, you get some e1, e2 vectors
Those vectors span some 2d subspace of R^4
You can pick any other f1, f2 from said subspace and the only difference would be the coefficients
However if you were to take vectors outside of the span of the e1, e2 that you have, then that will not be a solution
And they emphasize e1, e2 being vectors from an arbitrary basis of R^4
It cannot be arbitrary
Hmm, so its not correct answer
It must be a basis for the subspace spanned by the e1 and e2 you computed here
It is not a correct answer
you really ought to try and understand things rather than try to guess it by eliminating answers
I guess that's what happens with multiple options exams
I would like to, can you explain the statement B, cuz I cant understand the statement
Do you know how the nullspace for a matrix is defined
Just to compute null space dimension?
N(A) = {v : Av = 0}
Ok, yeah, know this
and we know that N(A) = N(rref(A))
So
So what is the dimensionality of the solution space of Av = 0?
How many basis vectors do you need to define the solution?
Its equal to n - rank no?
It is equal to n - rank yes
Wait no
So nullity is 4 - 2 = 2 != 3
in the original mat, not the augmented one
Yes in A not tildeA
You already derived the vectors though
So you could have argied just from those
That since you had e1, e2 it's 2d
It even says null(A) if you look here
Hi! The question is to show that if $A \subseteq B$ and $B$ is affine, then aff $A \subseteq B$. Is my proof below correct?\
Suppose $x \in$ aff $A$, then $x$ is an affine combination of vectors in $A$, and is thus an affine combination of vectors in $B$, since $A \subseteq B$. Then, as $B$ is affine, any affine combination of vectors in $B$ is also in $B$, so $x \in B$. Hence, aff $A \subseteq B$.
PhenomPlasma
Yes
can anyone help me understand how they achieved this answer
Idk what im suppose to do with the T=x (d/dx) - x(d^2/dx^2)
but ik how to create matrix represntation for standard basis
Apply T to each of the elements of the standard basis in turn; write down the coefficients of the result.
cool, ill have a go thanks
how would i do that?
Use the definition of T in b)
Then feed it 1, x, x^2
The point is
T(a x^2 + bx + c) = linearity = a T(x^2) + b T(x) + c T(1)
So once you know what happens to the basis you're done
how can you prove that if a matrix has a left inverse, it is also injective
but how did that come about
so i differentiate teh basis and then just plug it into this?
and then ill know the matrix
??m
sorry im rlly bad at this specific topic
You need to compute T(x^2), T(x), T(1)
Using the definition of T
Once you do that you will get some polynomials of the form T(1) = a11 + a12 x + a13 x^2, T(x) = a21 + a22 x + a23 x^2, T(x^2) = a31 + a32 x + a33 x^2
The coefficients are then you matrix coef
But you have to compute T(1), T(x), T(x^2) to figure those out
The definition of T is in b)
aah ok i think i get it, ill give it a go thanks
btw as I wrote them the matrix is the transposed
Can someone check my jupyter solution where I answer this problem
"(đ) Calculate the numbers đ (đ´),cosđ and đ , which control the condition numbers for the problem (see note 17). Indicate the corresponding upper limit of the condition number for how change in đ´ affects change in the calculated đĽ in part (c).
Use this to explain how accurate you can expect the calculation of đĽ to be."
Bcs I am getting values that look wrong but I follow the procedure given to me to the teeth
Can I use arbitrary numbers to prove or I need to prove by variables?
using arbitrary numbers is not a proof
What is the definition of a linear transformation
So need to prove by a and b?
as potato says, you have to use the definition of linear transformation
We mostly just tried to prove that sum of transformation is equal to transformation of sum
in fairness, for b you can construct a counterexample. but for a, you need to do it in general
And also that c * T(v) = T(cv)
Yes, you have to prove that for all a,b in R^2 and all c in R we have that T(a+b) = T(a) + T(b) and T(ca) = cT(a)
i.e. exactly that T is linear
So, basically, just prove the same with a and b
Ok
note that it won't suffice to use just a and b, since you have to show properties involving addition of vectors
so you'll need at least 4 scalars
(5 considering scalar multiplication)
this shows additivity, yes
Are these statements enough or I'm missing something? đ
you didn't show part a though, presumably they want you to justify it
Need to prove this prepositions?
Like as there is no 0 vector, there are not equal, none of them is scalar multiple of another, (skipping 4,5) => They are independent?
it would be enough to evoke how polynomial addition works
and then the usual definition of "scalars not all 0..."
You probably need to use the fact that a spanning set of length dimV is a basis
And to show S spans V u probably need to show a the linear combination that gets it.
$ax^2 + bx+ c = \alpha f_1 + \beta f_2 + \gamma f_3$
MattDog_222
for a concrete example if I wanted 21x^2 it would be 7f_1
Ok, thanks
And maybe you can give a small hint, from what to start this exercise?
I'm just good at computations, not at proving đ
As I understand, I need to prove these properties for task a)
Yeah you gotta prove thise 3
there's a slick way to prove sub-anything but i forget
You have to prove that these 3 imply the axioms for something being a vector space
Because a subset of a vector space that is also a vector space is a subspace.
Wait
This is not the exercise?
It sure looks to me like it is.
Then forget what I said, you can directly use this if it is not the exercise
I think he's referring to this
It explicitly says: "Prove that U is a subspace ..."
yeah I misunderstood that he has to prove the above definition
Disregard this
Erm, so should I prove that 3 properties?
You should prove the 3 properties for a)
Good
i.e. that they hold for a)
I think you are talking about transformation no?
Hmm, maybe, not sure
Because you're trying to show if you add them you get the same form
You just have to prove that the 0 matrix isin U
That if you pick u,v in U
Then u+v in U
And alpha * u in U
So, the first one is obvious, if a = 0, b = 0, we will have 0 matrix
for example use a,b for u and c,d for v
Compute the sum
Then do two variable substitutions to get it in the desired form
For alpha * u do 2 variable substitutions too
This way?
Yes
And like we substitute ⺠= [a + c] β = [b + d]
yes
We will have similar to the initial one, got it
You need to check scalar-matrix multiplication also
I guess the same way yes?
Oh, I think its better to use variable instead of 5
I did compute it three times I thought
What they want you to do is S^TAS = alpha1 * B1 + alpha2 * B2 + alpha3 * B3, where B1, B2, B3 are the given basis matrices
yes
And for task b)?
Compute the product S^TAS
Note that A is symmetric 2 x 2
I don't see the abc in your write up
I haven't gotten there yet
i have a rather open-ended question: what's interesting about annihilators?
choose a basis
There's an obvious one
Split the matrix as a sum of matrices multiplied by a and b
Write out the product
Shouldn't be too hard
multiply 3 matrices
Please don't have these equals signs. They are lies: What is to the left of the = is not equal to what you have written to the right of it!
Compute S^TAS
Where for A you'd use [a b; b c]
Once you compute it you can decompose it
can someone please check if these absolute values make sense (and the proof in general), I hate complex stuff.
But that's what he did!
I'm trying to find the basis in part a
He did?
The kernel is just st (a b, b c) s
Sorry for handwriting
That looks to me like it's exactly what the handwritten part of his image is.
I see no abc anywhere here
you need a sum of two matrices
Take the initial matrix and write it as asum of 2, one containing only a, the other only b
Then finally take out a and b
Basis underlined in red, S^T and S in green.
The general element is a linear combination of the basis vectors.
Like this?
You keep posting that -- is there a difference between the copies you post that you want us to notice?
Yes... at the bottom....
Sorry ill stop asking
These two are the basis matrixes?
Yes
Great
Oh right. What you have at the bottom now is not a "basis" but the matrix representation of the transformation L in the given basis for V. That is good as far as it goes.
Two questions here:
In a) is the cofactor = 2
In b) in A and B I can use Laplace Expansion, but what to use for C?
Ah I see.
Comparing here, we do see a difference.
You seem to have swapped rows and columns when you wrote down the matrix.
idk what u mean but expand on row 1. u get 1 times the determinant of the bottom right 3x3, and then all zeros
and for the bottom right u get 1 * det(2,0;2;2) + a bunch of zeros
On the other hand the typeset solution has the basis vectors in the wrong order, compared to the image with your handwriting on it ...
So it's prob an exam solution error
Its for B, but what to do for C?
Notice tha C has two equal rows
Right, but your solution ought to have been $\begin{bmatrix}0&0&0\1&9&6\0&0&0\end{bmatrix}$.
Troposphere
What happens when yoy have linearly dependent rows/cols?
What is the determinant equal to
Determinant is 0!
So I need to get the transpose.
Yes. When you represent a linear transformation with a matrix, each column of the matrix represents the output of applying the transformation to one of the basis vectors.
sry to repost but is the part below the red correct in its |absolute values| and square rooting arithmetic?
(It's a bit tedious that the notation in linear algebra has ended up being such that matrices operate on columns of coordinates instead of rows, which would have been easier to type -- but there's no helping that now).
Bam!!! Sorry man if I'm dumb. I hate my school, we get exam problems Notting like our homework. So I'm trying to learn previous years problems. Tyty
multiply vectors from the left đ
v^T M^T
Yes, but matrix multiplication might have been defined such that it takes rows from the right operand and columns from the left. Far too late for that now, though.
certainly
they actually have the two conventions for differentiating in matrix calculus
It's very confusing
the conventions are transposes of each other
To be sure, not mult from the right by row vector, just transposes
What matrix operations change determinant?
Multiplying by k -> det = k * det
Swapping rows or columns -> det = -det
Row operations -> no effect
What else can change it?
Inverse -> det = det * 1/det
If A -> det
A^k -> det^k
Oh yes, forgot about it, thats all right?
is this algebra correct đĽş
This should be multiplying one row or column by k
And what if whole matrix is multiplied by k?
is
bad 
k^(dim matrix)
If matrix is 2x2 det -> k^2 det
Ah, ok
Are you worried about the +-? The singular values are non-negative.
oh right i kinda forgot about the \pm, but i was more concerned with the modulus/abs
What's wrong with the modulus?
is it maintained after the sqrt of the square
Substitute r^2 = |x|^2, -> sqrt(r^2) = r
why would there be anything wrong with the modulus
should i ask the question i asked earlier again or did ppl ignore it for good reason?
i feel like it should be okay but absolute values are kinda weird sometimes so I wasn't sure
Can someone give me a hint on how to do this? People are telling me its really easy but i don't see it.
let x be an element in both null(S) and null(T). what happens if you apply S+T or S-T?
v in null(S) cap null(T) -> S(v) =0, T(v) =0 -> (S+T)(v) =0, (S-T)(v) =0 -> v in null(S+T) cap null(S-T) -> null(S) cap null(T) <= null(S+T) cap null(S-T)
Now do the opposite
To show the opposite inclusion
Then the two together imply equality
The opposite is a little more complicated since you get a system, but it's trivial to get S(v) =0 and T(v) =0 from it
oooh i see, ty ty
what is n?
Is A square?
I am guessing columns
Let x be in the null-space of A
Then Ax = 0
let B be its left inverse
Then x = BAx = 0 -> x= 0 -> kernel is trivial -> full column rank
A is m>=n
did you get the idea for the proof
yeah
how about going the other way
rank(A) = n => left inverse
(A^TA)^{-1}A^T
Isn't the above enough? (A^TA)^{-1}A^T * A = I
pecfex
And you can argue that A^TA is invertible because A has full column-rank
@wintry steppe here's a hint
I am assuming you can do it with row ops, but I haven't thought about it
also you're gonna have to use the commutative diagram
i havent actually learned it that way in class
how did you know that it was equivalent to show that? @vital drum
by exercise 17
Well it is clear that (A^TA)^{-1}A^TA = I
i dont see it
B^{-1}B = I
The only thing you have to prove there is that A full column rank means A^TA is non-singular
part b is what you need
I mean, how did you go from rank(T)=rank(L_A) to equivalently showing that phi_gamma(im(T))=im(L_A)?
do you see it, jswatj?
And I think you can prove tgis using the svd
how did you know to do that?
also, the kernel of A is trivial in this case
right
Knowing that the columns are lin-indep
I see where it can be used down the line i think
pecfex
yes?
no, it's the image of im(T) under phi
i can type it out in case you still don't get it
yeah im still sort of lost
cause this question came up as a theorem later in the book
so i need to understand it
you know that im(T) is a subspace of W, right?
Yup
Oh
phi is an isomorphism, that's why exercise 17 applies
and im(T) is a subspace of W
yea
and now we prove that part by using the commutative diagram
oh because
more specifically this
the composed maps don't just have the same codomain, in fact they're the same map
that's what the diagram is saying
wait but in our case aren't things different?
We're working with A=[T]_beta^gamma
and its only im(L_A)
how does that connect with their conclusion
LMaooooo
I understand their conclusion cause the standard rep of beta outputs vectors in F^n and L_A sends them to F^m
same with the other side
yea
how does that relate to our case with phi_gamma(im(T))=im(L_A)?
well what's phi(im(T))?
Sorry
i could have said it better
how did you use this conclusion to conclude they are the same
you can start from there
Okay
also the person who reacted, isn't this just definitional? or am i wrong?
Oh i think i see
rearrange for T
then phi_gamma^-1 L_A phi_beta = T
so plugging in V for both sides gives
wait no
u don't have to rearrange
u can just plug it in
cause phi_beta gives F^n
L_A(F^n) = im(L_A)?
and that's equal to phi_gamma(im(T))?
thats wild
I get this now
alright
thats so crazy
Hey guys
Any strategies on how to start on this problem? Specifically, assuming S is infinite, how do i show that the given set is not a basis?
Have you shown that if S is finite then it's a basis? Try to see where you used finiteness and that should lead to it
Or you can consider a more familiar example, like F = S = R and some standard functions to get intuition
What definition of basis do they use in your book?
I am assuming they have something about ghe sum being finite, in which case you can just give a function that wpuld require an uncountably infinite sum of indicator functions
A basis is a linearly independent set which spans the vector space
No, im not sure how to unpack/use the set chi_s for s in S
I haven't formally studied functional analysis so I can't say much, but your book may be using a definition of hamel basis, or schauder basis, or something else.
I am assuming your book has the words finite linear combination somewhere in there
Which you could use for a counterexample
linear combinations are always finite
Schauder bases have a countably infinite sum in there
that's not a linear combination
I have seen people refer to it as an infinite linear combination, but as I mentioned I have not studied functional analysis formally
"linear combination" alone always means finite
Anyone know how to find the eigenvalues of a non-finite matrix?
this isn't a matrix
if you have a scalar c, you need to solve D(f) = cf for f
if you can find such a non-zero f, then c is an eigenvalue and f is an eigenvector. if not, then c is not an eigenvalue
ok so in over words, this doesn't have any eigen values then? since no such "c" exists?
i did write down Dx = \lambda x down on my paper but i thought i was doing something wrong
so i was trying to do the whole det(D - \lambda I) = 0 thing
i didn't say anything about whether such a c exists
this doesn't work because the determinant of an operator on an infinite dimensional space is not well defined
ooh i see
wait ok but if D(p) is the derivative of polynomial p, there shouldn't exist a constant such that D(p) = cp right? since u can't change the exponents of a polynomial by only scalar multiplication?
yup, but you're forgetting one small exception
your reasoning works if c is non-zero, but what if c is zero?
oooh so the only eigenvalue for it would be zero
oh shit acutally that makes sense, cuz then in the form det(D - \lambda I), if lambda = 0, than the det = zero
i get it! Thanks a lot @wintry steppe
no determinants!
okok fine
i just think about it like that cuz thats how i intuitively understand eigenvalues
Hello ...
I need to know if this sentence is accurate
"There exist only one unique matrix L and one unique matrix U for every n such that A=LU and diagonal(L or U)={n,n,n..........n} for n=/0"
to do this you literally just add the rows $\begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 1 \ 0 \ 0 \ 0 \ 0 \ 0 \ 0 \ 0 \ 0 \ 1 \ 0 \ 0 \ 0 \ 0 \ 0 \ 0 \ 0 \ 0 \ 1 \ 0 \end{pmatrix}$ right
sean
Yes, that will work.
It's easiest to see that you get a basis if you follow the advice in the notes to insert your new rows between those you already have, such that the result is an upper triangular matrix with non-zero diagonal elements.
alright thank you
Helloo, can someone help me pls? I need to prove that given A a point in space and v a vector in space, so there is only one representation of v starting at A. How can I do this?
Guys hello, I'm a bit confused here, can you say from what I should start?
after a few days, I think he can solve that
because 2x2 matrix space and 4x1 vector space are isomorphic
hey everyone
i need to know if this sentence is correct or not ..
"There exist only one unique matrix L and one unique matrix U for every n such that A=LU and diagonal(L or U)={n,n,n..........n} for n=/0"
i'm writing smthng and i'm trying to be as accurate as possible
ummm anyone?
Does it feel correct to you?
I'm confused about the relationship between invertible matrices, change of basis matrices, and the identity transformation. I understand that a change of basis matrix is a matrix representation of the identity transformation, with particular "to" and "from" bases. I also understand that any invertible matrix can be seen as a change of basis matrix for one particular set of to and from bases. But it seems pretty clear that not every invertible matrix represents the identity transform. What am I missing here?
wdym to and from bases
The identity map is T(v) = v
Whatever basis you use, it's the identity matrix
@spare widget Like, a matrix is a representation of a linear transformation given some bases
@spare widget I don't think it is
[T(v)]_B = [I]_B [v]_B = [v]_B
But only the identity matrix maps any vector v to itself regardless of the basis B
@spare widget But if the matrix representation of the identity transformation is the identity matrix no matter what bases you choose, then every change of basis matrix is the identity matrix.
I think you agree T(v) = v for any v represents the identity map?
Because a change of basis matrix is a matrix representation of the identity matrix with respect to particular to and from bases.
no
I agree with this
A change of basis matrix is such that
[v]_B2 = P [v]_B1
It says nothing about v irrespective of basis
It only gives the relationship for the coefficients wrt sone bases
Then do you also agree with this
@spare widget So a change of basis "transformation" is not the identity transformation?
it is not
A change of basis matrix changes your basis
But [v]_B2 and [v]_B1 are the same vector written wrt different bases
e.g.
$\vec{v} = \sum_{i}\alpha_i \vec{e}i = \sum{i} \beta_i \vec{f}_i$
criver
I think the thing that's confusing me is that if we write Tu = x, I always try to think of that as "basis-free", but it seems like it's not possible to do that.
But this isn't
@spare widget So why isn't the change of basis transformation the identity transformation? It doesn't move or change the vector it takes in.
I think you're mistaking the coefficients alpha for the vector v
The vector v is not the coefficients alpha
@spare widget What I'm saying is, I have a point in space. I do a "change of basis" transformation on it. Does it move the point, or no?
the alpha coefficients are coordinates of v wrt E
The beta are coordinates of v wrt F
I understand that.
Does the change of basis transformation move the physical point in space, or no?
A change of basis matrix operates on the coord representations
I didn't say matrix. I said transformation.
It does not
Okay. So the transformation is the identity transformation.
How can it be that a transformation that takes a vector and doesn't change it, be something other than the identity transformation?
Imagine
But we aren't using bases when we talk about transformations, right?
We're just saying stuff like, Tu = x, which you said can be expressed in a basis-free way.
It x inches and y meters
So, our change of basis transformation T is Tu = u, right?
I know.
I'm not talking about specific bases here.
Tell me why the change of basis transformation does not take the form Tu = u in a basis-free setting.
Your change of basis transformations are:
Please don't write anything about matrices in your next sentence.
f1 = T1(e1,....,en), ..., fn = Tn(e1,....,en)
Okay, that makes sense.
Yes I'm with you.
Now this T1 has coefficients
To be precise it looks like this
$\vec{e}i = \sum_j a{ji} \vec{f}_j$
criver
Yes I'm with you.
The matrix A is the change of basis matrix
We have defined this transformation with respect to particular to and from bases.
as you saw it's n maps, and they consume multiple vectors
It's not what you're used to
T(v) = w
Instead it's ei = Ti(f1,...,fn)
Well now write out v in the E basis
I'm not really sure if it's $n$ maps, this is the same thing as how any linear transformation has to be defined by its actions on particular to and from bases.
joesmith1042
E.g. $\forall j \quad A(e_j) = \sum_{i=1}^n a_{ij} f_j$
$\vec{v} = \sum_i \alpha_i \vec{e}i = \sum_i \alpha_i \sum_j a{ji} \vec{f}_j\ = \sum_j (A\vec{\alpha})_j \vec{f}_j = \sum_j \beta_j \vec{f}_j$
@spare widget I follow you.
I just wanted to point out that this isn't different from what I'm used to, this happens with every single linear transformation.
beta = A * alpha
But alpha and beta are the coefficients of the vectors wrt the bases E and F
They are not v itself
There's the notion of active transformation
Then you can do
@spare widget Well, what you're saying is just that the change of basis matrix acts on the coefficients of $v$ in the old basis, and produces coefficients in the new basis.
[w]_E = [Av]_E which actually gets you another vector
joesmith1042
Which is the same for any linear transformation, right?
Oh, except that the new coefficients aren't usually coefficients of $v$. They're usually coefficients for some new, different vector.
[v]_F = A [v]_E
joesmith1042
Right, I see how that's the difference.
Like, for any transformation Av = w , w isn't equal to v in general.
But, I'm still not sure why this says that the change of basis transformation is not the identity transformation. I understand everything you said and I agree with it.
But I could make exactly the same argument about the identity transformation, and say it all in the same order, with the words "change of basis transformation" replaced with "identity transformation."
Like, I take the identity transformation, and do the things with to and from bases, and in the end write Av = v, etc.
Do you see what I'm saying?
A change of basis matrix acts on the coordinate representations
It doesn't modify the vector itself
@spare widget Every matrix only acts on the coordinate representations.
The maps from which this matrix is derived are ei = Ti(f1,...,fn)
Given a pair of to and from bases, there is an isomorphism between the set of linear transformations from U^m to V^n, and the set of linear transformations from F^m to F^n
yes, but some you interpret as modifying the vector, and those you interpret as changing its basis
active vs passive transformation
So if you take a vector in U^m, you have its coordinates with respect to the to basis. You multiply the matrix representation of A by that, and you get the coordinates with respect to the from basis.
Well wait a minute, the transformations from U^m to V^m never change the scalar multiples themselves directly, the transformation always acts on the basis vectors
[v]_F = A [v]_E is nit the same as [w]_E = A [v]_E
@spare widget I agree with that statement
To be sure the coef of [v]_F and [w]_E are equal
But they are to be interpret wrt different bases
Is it normal I feel confused about this? I don't really get how to nail this down
$\vec{v} = \sum_j [v]_{F, j} \vec{f}_j = \sum_j (A[v]_E)_j \vec{f}_j \ \vec{w} = \sum_j (A[v]_E)_j \vec{e}_j$
criver
The first is change of basis
The second is an active transformation
Note the bases
Why is w still in terms of the original basis?
Because we didn't use A as a change of basis matrix
We instead used it as a matrix modifying v
To get w
But we don't have any choice of how A is "used." It just has to follow the rules.
[w]_E = [v]_F
Like, (\forall j \in [m] \quad A(e_j) = \sum_{i=1}^n a_{ij} f_i)
But those are two different vectors
joesmith1042
That's how every linear transformation has to be defined, right?
A(e_j) = \sum_i a_ij e_i
That's if you take the to and from bases to be the same.
if you don't then you're implicitly putting in a change of basis
Then you mix the map wuth a change of basis
So you essentially compute PA instead of A
If you define your input and output to be wrt different bases then there is an implicit change of basis
If you define it wet the same basis, then this change of basis matrix is not there
This is the definition I'm working from.
well it's because you have potentially different vector spaces
So you have a change of basis matrix there too
@spare widget Yes, I'm trying to bring my definitions in line with the ones you are stating systematically
It's the identity if you take the same basis