#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 299 of 1
ok so it would be
xn + c(n*n) = d as you said earlier
so in this case it would be
(-1,-2,0)(1,-1,1)+c((1,-1,1)(1,-1,1))= 0 (since d is 0 ?) so we just solve for c here
and if c = 0 then it would mean that it goes through the origin if i understood that correctly? 🙂
intersection i think it is called?
btw here is a terrible diagram but yeah lol
The idea is you take ur point and find the point on the line through x parallel to the normal and see where it hits the plane
oh it just says in my book that you have to use that formula since the plane goes through the origin
Well, so the orthogonal projection of x onto pi is just x + cn
So if c = 0, that just means x is already on the plane
ah yeah
Ah so I think maybe what you mean is if d = 0 then the plane goes through origin?
yeah excatly
There's a nice interpretation of the d actually
im gonna try it on another problem and see if i understand
Sure
but yeah so for the d, essentially the interesting thing is uh
Well do you understand the geometric significance of d? (distance from origin)
So to calculate the distance of a plane r.n= d from origin, what you need to do is find the line segment between the origin and the plane of least length, and this ends up being the line perpendicular to the plane
im guessing it has something to do with "add x+y+z= d" where d is the sum of points?
or like the point it like reaches
Not quite that
ah so the d is the perpendicular line?
d is just a real number
So the significance really comes from the fact that if i want to find the distance from 0 to a plane, I need to find the least possible length of a line segment from 0 to the plane
But that comes from considering a line perpendicular to the plane
does that make sense?
trying to understand it haha
It's this sort of diagram I have in mind
honestly nothing in la makes sense to me
Aw well it may be a good idea to kinda think about how you get the equation of the plane etc to demystify it a lil
For these sort of geometrically-motivated things I find it helpful to consider 2D diagrams and all
(Because ultimately, it's geometry, and by translating and rotating we can use the same intuition as we would if, say, the plane were always z = 0 or something, although that can be a crutch)
yeah i think i know what you mean
i think...
there was explanation for it in the book, trying to look that up
Sure.
im gonna read through what you said earlier and let it sink in, thank you for the help!
Np
$\vec{n} \cdot (\vec{p}-\vec{c}) = 0 \implies \vec{n} \cdot \vec{p} = \vec{n}\cdot \vec{c} = d$
criver
c being a point on the plane, n being the normal, p being another point on the plane
so d is the signed distance from 0 to the plane multiplied by the length of the normal
sibce dot(c,n) = cos(c,n) * |c| * |n| = length to plane * |n|
and this means that the plane is going through the origin?
No
Only if d = 0 does it go through the origin
What does u dot v = 0 mean?
It means that u,v are orthogonal or one of those is 0
Noe let u = n
and we pick a non-zero normal
And let v = p-c
If p and c are both vectors on the plane then p-c is perpendicular to n
That's what n dot (p-c) = 0 means
Using the linearity of the dot product we can rewrite this as
n dot p - n dot c = 0 or n dot p = n dot c
So it turns out that d = n dot c
But n dot c is the signed length of the projection of c onto n multiplied by the length of n
If |n| = 1
Then this is exactly the signed distance from the origin to the plane
i.e. if you set the normal n at the origin, and you scale it by d you end up on the plane
If the plane passes through the origin then d = 0
For a non-normalized normal d = distance to plane * length(n)
oh yeah i'm with you on that
See the wiki page I linked
that's what we were discussing earlier, i forgot to bring my question here
They have an illustration
will do 🙂
Hey guys I'm trying to play around with the proof for eogenvectors and eigenvalues
Can I use this result to somehow find lambda and X ?
What you wrote can be used to find an eigenvalue provided you feed its corresponding eigenvector
i agree
is there an alternative way i can find the eigenvector (rather thant det(A-lambda I) = 0)
using this method?
through minimization and maximization, for special kinds of matrices A, you can find the largest and smallest eigenvalues of A, and their corresponding eigenvector this way
Hi Edd, I'm really curious about this. Can you elaborate a bit?
you can wiki up the rayleigh quotient
Thanks Edd. I had no idea this theory exists. Thanks 🙂
can I ask you another question?
Do you think this video is a solid proof for why det(A-λI) = 0?
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=hpE9Iom55N0&lc=Ugwmn4mbrTPGjmmrro14AaABAg.9_eDxlGeZX09_eKkcALjSV
To me, the logic seems a bit off because he assumes that that other solutions that aren't v= 0 exist to motivate why the inverse can't exist. Once you know other solutions that aren't v=0 exist, then you can use your logic to show that det(A) =0. What are you thoughts?
Full Learning Linear Algebra playlist: https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLug5ZIRrShJHNCfEiX6l5CKbljWayGEcs Finding eigenvectors and eigenvalues. Why do we set the determinant of A-λI to zero? The explanation's right here!
Video on determinants: https://youtu.be/A9eJdQt5quw
New math videos every Monday and Friday. Subscribe to make sure yo...
Can we consider a vector space to be a vector?
wdym?
what does vector mean in this setting.
Wait maybe i am missing something what logic is bothering you exactly?
sure, if k is a field and S is the set of all vector spaces then take the free k-vector space on S 
how exactly can you get det(A) = 0 here?
the logic in the video is fine
yes. 🙂
i don't.
google says it's not a set
whatever
if V is a vector space take the free k-vector space on the set {V}
free vector space on a singleton
impossible
modules r cool
So can we consider a vector space to be a vector?
So consequently an inner product cannot be considered as an inner product space?
What sense do you think I'm thinking about?
so in general, a vector space is defined over a field K with two operators. "+" : VxV-->V and "*":KxV-->V, with V being just any set you want it to be, yet K being a field has an algebraic structure. also take care that for the outer prodcut you take elements out of the field K
so a vector would be an element of V (not K), so you see directly that the vector space isnt just an ordinary space so to speak
inner product is a function, inner product space in other is a vector space equipped with an inner product. Definitely not the same thing
obviously
as i wrote above, the answer is yes. but it's bound to not be useful for you, since free vector spaces are way too big to be any useful
consider it a tongue-in-cheek "yes"
Guys I am arguing with my friend
But the columns span R3 since there are three linearly independent vectors right?
So the answer is yes?
yes but its a bit roundabout
u can write any vector in R^3 as a combo of its cols (the easiest set is ||cols 1,3,5||)
try to see what such a combo is for any vector, say (x,y,z)
How can you say inner product is a function?

Ok, so can you tell me what are the problems I'll face if I considered a vector space as a vector?
$\langle \cdot , \cdot \rangle : V \times V \rightarrow \mathbb{F}$
criver
the worst problem you'll face is that your time will be wasted
an inner product maps a pair of vectors to a scalar
Can you have a rotation, then shear, and reflection all happen within the same linear transformation? Or do you need to compute separate transformations?
Is all I have to do matrix multiply all three matrices?
yes
note that the order matters
Oh nice, thanks
how do i work out the direction of 1.18 i + (-0.857) k
img is answer but i dont the derivation
How is it read?
Wdym?
is that the row swap elementary matrix
good question
hmm
yeah it is
the row swap explanation makes perfect sense
but it doesn't feel too rigorous
But if the dimension is arbitrary, how do you carry out the multiplication?
or are you talking about the RHS
the rhs indeed
i am talking about the RHS, yes.
the product has a bunch of terms, but they're pretty simple
the product has two dozen and one terms
Ah jeez that is pain
but it's rigorous.
that's pretty much it. you expect many products to yield something that is already there, I, or 0
a good place to start is checkimg which things are idempotent or nilpotent
In mathematics, a function from a set X to a set Y assigns to each element of X exactly one element of Y. The set X is called the domain of the function and the set Y is called the codomain of the function.Functions were originally the idealization of how a varying quantity depends on another quantity. For example, the position of a planet is a ...
V being the vector space, F its associated field, <.,.> being the inner product (e.g. (u,v) -> <u,v>)
what would that even mean?
what is this eij eji
eij is prob the matrix with the same dimensions as the left side with 0 entries everywhere except the entry 1 at the intersection of the i row and j column
same thing for eji but j th row and i th column
too ambiguous. question needs to be defined properly
how is "e_ij is the matrix with entry 1 at position (i,j) and zeros elsewhere" too ambiguous? @zealous pond
hey guys is this proof fine or am i just saying bullshit?
im pretty sure the first part about linear independence is fine
im proving that
im a bit unsure if i did the sums correctly
indexes always confuse me 
is there a structure to (i,j) pair.
what do you mean "structure"?
i and j are just natural numbers between 1 and n
distinct natural numbers between 1 and n.
(i,j) can be anything from (0,0) to (n,n). There will be clearly some pattern which (i,j) turns to 1 maybe u can convey that to me.
show me a example of 6x6 matrix defined with the conditions in the question.
ok, sure, let's take $n=6$, then $e_{43}$ will refer to the matrix $\bmqty{0&0&0&0&0&0\0&0&0&0&0&0\0&0&0&0&0&0\0&0&1&0&0&0\0&0&0&0&0&0\0&0&0&0&0&0}$
Ann
thanks was unaware of this notation.
e_ij is the matrix with entry 1 at position (i,j) and zeros elsewhere
you were aware of it the moment i wrote out the definition of e_ij to you
Na i had some different visualisation in mind
now the problem become very trivial it just switches the 2 basis-axis. like basis i(x-axis) beccomes j (y-axis) and vice-versa. if you do the same operation it will flip the basis again returning everything to original state
Ah, well let’s say you have e_ii * e_ii. I know the product is e_ii (idempotent, right?), but how would we prove this?
If I'm given 3 vectors, how would I find the vector in the middle of all of them
I'm thinking about getting the midpoint several times
What do you mean by middle
As in having the same distance geodesic to all 3 on a sphere?
Let a,b,c be 3 vectors, then m_a = mid(a,b), m_b = mid(b,c), m_c = mid(c,a) then middle might be mid(mid(m_a, m_b), m_c)
Im not sure what a distance geodesic is
what do you mean by middle?
but intuitively, given orthogonal vectors, it would be the one poking from the center
Same angle between this one and the other 3?
e.g for 2x2 case, with standard basis, the middle vector would be c(1,1) for any c in R
oh wait
im being an idiot
So are the vectors always the axes?
would just adding them give it to me?
yeah so for orthogonal it would be the axes of rotation
No, not necessarily
then no
Well for orthogonal, adding them up should work
For non orthogonal it seems more difficult
But it would be that geodesic thing for non orthogonal
Like the sphere between them, the middlemost part
There's no closed form solution, it's an iterative algorithm
In the above they use projected gradient descent and projected newton
This intuitively feels like it should be trivial
It's not unfortunately
For 2 vectors it's slerp
Well actually
I shouldn't be that certain
Because you asked for the midpoint, and the above is for arbitrary weights
I think assuming they're normal at least should be fine
it really depends on your definition of middle
Ok for 2x2 case, it's where the angle is half. (Which should be easy)
Just use the paper
Middle as in the center of the circle intersecting all three points? @manic nest
Given two normal 2d vectors u & v, and the angle between u & v θ
Let middle vector be, the vector between u & v, which is either u or v rotated θ/2
It's not the best definition, but I hope that expresses the idea
Really? That sounds so easy though
I mean shouldn't it be finding the middle point of 3 points on a sphere?
For 2 vectors yes
yeah this doesn't seem trivial
Well for 3D, it seems like we're just finding the middle point of 3 points on a sphere which I thought would be trivial in spherical coordinates.
They perform a minimisation
With projections using the exp and log map for the sphere
i wouldn't even know if the vector will necessarily be in the middle anymore, it could point in the opposite direction
you'd have to optimize over the sphere
One algo is gradient descent based, the other is newton - relying on the hessian
what criver mentions would probably rely on trust region methods
take small gradient or newton steps, project onto the sphere, check whether some condition is satisfied
and continue iteratively
So even allowing opposite directions, its not trivial?
not just allowing, you kinda need it
Oh sorry, meant changing it so we don't care about opposite direction
Basically turning it into just finding the 'axis' between three vectors
Yeah for 2D, it's angle bisector, so in other words, 3D angle bisector is non trivial
It's not even bidector at that point
You have potentially 3 angles lying in different planes
And you want to make those equal
Well the intuitive generalization of bisector to 3D
I can't vouch there's no closed form solution specifically for the midpoint in 3d, but for arbitrary weights in n-d the paper claims there isn't
Bisector in 3d would still bisect an angle lying in a plane
Yeah, but you'd imagine it'd do it for 3 vectors.
What happens instead is that you have 3 angles potentially lying in different planes
Yeah, so it becomes a approximation problem
For the algorithm in this case
Well I guess that's good to know, thanks 
@lavish jewel ?
hmm? that it's idempotent?
write e_ii * e_ii either as sums or entriwise as dot products
then note that almost everything is zero except for a specific row and column
then you need only focus on one product
well, this works in general
more easily though, note that e_ii is diagonal
so e_ii^2 is diagonal, and the diagonal entries are equal to the entry-wise squared elements of e_ii
In general $e_{ij}e_{kl}=e_{il}\delta_{jk}$
it's handy to know
just to make sure, what are delta and e here
been struggling with this question for a bit now. I want to show that a symmetric real matrix A is positive semi-definite iff all its symmetric minors are >=0. Ive shown that => direction, and for the opposite one my idea is to proceed by induction. Then for the sake of contradiction suppose A is not positive semi-definite and hopefully find a vector with one of its coords 0 that gets taken to a negative real by the quadratic form. This would be the same as taking a quadratic form on a matrix formed by removing a row and column symetrically from A which by induction must be positive semi-definite and id get a contradiction
the "coord 0" part is making me struggle though
Ah, i guess my question is then how do you prove anything about multiplication with arbitrary-sized matrices? Is there a way without using ... and only using strict logic?
using sigma notation is one way
idk what you mean
like
I can prove something about functions easily because functions have very strict definitions in set theory
do matrices have a set-theoretic definition
you can take basic properties as true at face value, but those can also be shown using sigma notation
i would just say that the columns (or rows) of a matrix are a set of vectors v_i with some property
for diagonal matrices, you have that splitting a matrix into rows and columns yields the same vectors, and you can use this to show that D = D^T
then write D*D = D^T D and note a generic element of the product as u_ij
and that the v_i are mutually orthogonal
something like that
or do it all with sums if you prefer
do you mean a literal set of vectors? if they're the same vectors then the matrix would collapse into one vector then right
not sure if I'm making sense lol
i have no idea what you mean
ok you know how functions are defined as like
i would describe the columns of a matrix as a set of vectors v_i with a special property
A function is an ordered triplet (X, Y, f) where f is a subset of X x Y such that for all x, blah blah blah
i mean, that's exactly what you want to do here
but there's no unique f
you can let f be the inner product and take X = Y, the set of columns of the matrix
I'm imagining a matrix is some bijection from [1, n] in N to a set of vectors or something, idk
or you can let X = Y be scalars in R, and f is just summation
oh
and both of these will work
idk why you're confusing yourself
you don't even need to think of this as matrices if you don't want
I'm past the diagonal eii stuff now, I'm just asking about matrices and set theory
you can do whatever you find useful
wait what, inner product
i like to think of matrices as what they are, a linear transformation in a given basis (fin dim)
then you can either choose to treat the action of matrices as taking linear combinations of their columns, or taking inner products with the rows
whatever you like best
yeah to be clear there's nothing I'm confused about on the conceptual level, i'm more asking how matrices are defined in set theory
it depends on what you want to do with them
ah
you can see them themselves as functions
or not
whatever you find useful at the moment
an m by n matrix with entries in R is a function {1, ..., m} x {1, ..., n} -> R
a set of functions with some property, perhaps
ah that makes sense ok
or vectors of some kind, so a set with some extra structure
this point of view is useless but it works if you really want a rigorous definition of "matrix"
yeah it doesn't really seem like linear algebra would need definitions like that
like it's just kinda pointless
but I was just curious
whatever you prefer, you could come up with arbitrary set theoretic ways to describe them
Ye
It’s pretty fascinating how the multiplication process seems really weird at first
But then has all these extremely nice properties
It looks exactly like a group or ring or something
they're there by construction, since they are meant to represent linear transformations in a basis
that's why i keep telling you to look at the rows and/or columns as vectors
Ohh I see
a matrix vector product is a linear combination of the vectors that make up the matrix columns
and equivalently, a vector whose entries are inner products between rows of the matrix and the vector it is multiplying
Yeah I noticed when I have a matrix like
[a c]
[b d]
Then left-multiplication would take <1,0> to <a, b> and <0, 1> to <c, d>
matrices arise naturally when dealing with linear systems of equations as a way to manipulate things more easily, and then it was further abstracted
Ah
Yeah when I was reading the textbook they presented the definition first, and then all the properties and examples
Makes a more sense now with context
they are there by design, yeah
notice similar things happen in several places, then look for a nice, general way to describe those properties
Inner product? Is dot product a type of inner product
yes
yes, inner product is a more general notion
If you have a row vector times a column vector, you’re basically dot producting the two vectors
indeed
Which extends to matrices if each column/row is considered as one “object”
what are we discussing right now anyway
abs discovering that matrices don't just happen to have nice properties, they were made like that by design
I asked about how matrices are defined in set theory and now we’re just talking about them in general I guess
Ye
well i mean like
how do you define something like a sequence rigorously
it's a function from N to R (or N to whatever else for sequences of things other than real numbers)
Function from N to a set
(wait don’t you want multiplicative inverses)
ah
it's enough that the entries of a matrix be something that you can add and multiply
anyway
a grid of size m by n is naturally identified with the set 1:m × 1:n
as is hopefully clear
yes, a matrix is a function from 1:m × 1:n to R
where R is the ring your matrices are over
has it been answered?
Nope
have you heard of Sylvester theorem?
though u don't need it, your method is fine
A is symm then take EVD of A
then try something with that
Can someone help walk me thru this problem? Im confused on how to row reduce since i cant have fractions as answers. At least i assume fractions cant be part of the answer.
can you show what system of equations you are starting with? @dark ruin
im starting with P+N+D=13 &1P+5N+10D=83
okay
that checks out
it sounds like this is not something that can be solved with simple row-reduction alone, given that (a) there should be only 2 equations despite 3 variables and (b) there is the extra constraint that all variables are natural-valued
...you aren't being faced with any stupid constraints imposed by your teacher like "any solution that uses anything other than row-reduction will be rejected outright and zeroed", are you?
I don't think he would. However we have only been practicing row reduction so im not sure of another method.
this isnt the kind of problem row reduction alone can solve, as i said above
i mean, ok, we can do one step of it (really the only thing we could do) and end up with our second row as 4N + 9D = 70
and then treat this as a diophantine equation (which is what it is, let's face it)
look at what natural solutions it has
identify at least one, such as (N, D) = (13, 2) and use it to construct all integer solutions, then filter to only those where N and D are both positive
but this of course relies on knowing how to solve linear diophantine equations
which im not sure if i personally can say anything meaningful about at the moment
I assumed 3 pennies that way I only had 2
and I got an answer that way.
Express N and P as a function of D for instance and start plugging numbers from 0 to 8. It's pretty slow but it's a finite number of cases.
Alternatively you can express N and D through P, or P and D through N in order to check for the others
If you haven't studied diophantine eq. then the goal was probably for you to "guess" a solution in such a way
oooh I see what you're saying. Does that mean that there may be multiples answers?? I go one answer using 3 P and didnt plug in numbers for N or D.
You cannot not plug in numbers for n and d
As for getting any potential other solutions: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diophantine_equation#One_equation
In mathematics, a Diophantine equation is a polynomial equation, usually involving two or more unknowns, such that the only solutions of interest are the integer ones. A linear Diophantine equation equates to a constant the sum of two or more monomials, each of degree one. An exponential Diophantine equation is one in which unknowns can appear ...
But I think they will violate nonegativity if your problem was set up to have a unique solution
If B* (dual basis) is given, is B unique?
Can someone help me understand how k/k^2 + k simplifies to that
I was understanding that both ks would cancel
And you’d have like 1/k^2
numerator k, denominator k(k+1) you mean?
yes
You just can divide numerator and denominator by k to get 1/(k+1)
hmm okay I was thinking that you’d cross out the k on the top and the k on the bottom
and be left with 1/k^3
2*
My understanding of fractions is bad
really you're dividing by k
Okay so it’s just like you do to the top what you do to the bottom
and u can divide thru because like terms ?
for example if you were to cross out k on the denominator by replacing it with 0, by consistency you ought to be replacing the numerator with 0 too
Not quite
You can multiply/divide the denominator by the same factor
If you had k + 2 numerator and k^2 + k denominator you would end up with 2/2k?
(Also this isn't linear algebra)
But no, yoy don't just cross out ks
Im trying to figure out discrete
and don’t understand basic fraction rules
Is there ever a situation where you cross out a variable
Afaik #prealg-and-algebra would fit this
or is that simply incorrect
Well cross out is vague
I would recommend thinking in terms of multiplication/division instead for the moment
Yeah so that's not permissible
stuff like this is what’s left in my memory after doing hs math
But yeah that doesn't simplify
so all terms must have a common factor to be able to multiply or divide by something
You can always multiply/divide both the numerator and denominator by something nonzero
ok ya ik that
And if there's a common factor that's a special case
I mean more with variable simplification
I think?
I also didn’t learn how to factor so discrete is just more difficult than it needs to be
Zzz
I thin #prealg-and-algebra would be better suited for this btw
okay
Im just going to move on for now since I understand the specific example
Thank you
Is it just me or are quotient spaces unbelievably unintuitive?
I agree
Very weird
Well it’s just quotient anything really, quotient sets, quotient groups, quotient rings, etc
They're ultimately quite nice to work with and give pretty proofs of e.g. Jordan normal form existence but just take a while to get used to
What are quotient spaces all i know is that there elements are equivalence class
You have a vector space V and a subspace of it called U. The quotient space V/U is the set of all affine subsets of V parallel to U.
I think it’s easier to learn quotient sets first, and then extend the idea to a vector space later
The dumb thing is that those affine subsets of V aren't subspaces themselves
What’s an affine subset? Is that the same as an affine space
Affine subspaces are generalisations of linear subepaces which are basically what you get when you translate a subspace
So of the form a+ U where U is a (linear) subspace of V and a is some vector in V
It needn't be a subspace (e.g. the plane z=2 in R^3)
They're the set with all vectors of the form v+u for a fixed v in V and all u in U
They're not usually a space since they don't necessarily contain the additive identity aka 0 vector
Wait we never got introduces to linesr subspaces are they just normal subspaces. To be accurate per my learned definition. A Subspace is a subset of Vectorspace which also fullfills the rules for vectorspaces and so is a vectorspace.
Yes, all subspaces are vector spaces
Those are sometimes called linear subspaces to avoid ambiguity
But yes
It's infuriating how much harder it is to understand quotient spaces from product spaces, but axler's linear algebra done right just treats it like no big deal
Have you done quotient groups before?
No, the only thing I've seen about them was gluing sides together of a manifold in topology
It wasn't for a class, I was just watching some lecture Tadashi Tokieda gave on it for fun
Ah ok
If I learned group theory would make it easier to understand?
Well i reckon it might be common to cover quotient groups before quotient spaces at some unis (that's what my uni did anyway) and so it may be that Axler assumes more familiarity because of that or something
Oh well if you just want to understand linear algebra I'd not worry
Although groups are cool anyway
I'm just doing math for fun, I have a group theory book by Herstein that I haven't started
Ah epic
Well looking at groups can be cool, the only thing is that the group underlying the vector space is abelian whereas groups aren't in general
how can i find the rank of the matrix lamda I - A if i know the eigenvalues of A
is there a way besides using gaussian elimination
like is there a relation between rank and eigenvalues
Hey guys what does the modulus of a direction vector mean
Depends what u mean by direction vector @paper fractal
They're strange at first sight but they're not that bad
an element of V/W looks like (v + W)
How would you scalar multiply it?
c * (v + W) := (cv + W)
How would you add them?
(v + W) + (u + W) := (v+u + W)
with those definitions it can be shown to satisfy the definition of a vector space
and the dimension of V/W turns out to be dim(V) - dim(W)
so like, R^3 / R^2 is isomorphic to R^1
can someone confirm a something for me
what's that?
the gram schmidt process allows us to convert a basis of a subspace to an orthogonal basis of that subspace right
not an orthonormal one
well, maybe, but if you have an orthogonal one, you can always normalize each vector and get an orthonormal one
but the process itself doesn't normalize it right
correct
ok cool thanks
So I haven't started on this homework yet; but my friend in the class was asking about if this was possible, and I've got that <Av,v> = ax²+2xy+2xz, which im not sure when that would be positive. But then we were trying to google what a positive thing is and she found something about the upper 2x2 corner needs to have a positive determinant for positive definite. Is this possible?
Also idk if its asking for a positive matrix or a positive transformation (or if those are the same)
our Axler definition was a positive operator <Tv,v> is nonnegative for all v
A positive matrix is a matrix in which all the elements are strictly greater than zero. The set of positive matrices is a subset of all non-negative matrices. While such matrices are commonly found, the term is only occasionally used due to the possible confusion with positive-definite matrices, which are different.
from wikipedia; so all alpha >= 0?
I doubt they mean positive in the same sense as wikipedia
otherwise it'd be too easy
alpha > 0, done
they might mean positive-definite
but then it cant be because of this thing
idk we'll prob just have to ask the professor tomorrow
yeah, the determinant of that matrix is 0
The thing is I have trouble grasping exactly what (v+W) is. For instance there is a statement that a nonempty subset A of V is an affine subset of V iff cv+(1-c)w is in A for all v,w in A and c in C. I can't mentally connect the definition of affine subsets with why this statement would be true.
an affine subset is a translation of a subspace by a vector v
if v happens to lie in that subspace, then it hasn't actually been moved
like consider the xy-plane in R^3, with z = 0
so all points (x, y, 0)
take v = (1, 2, 0)
then translating all points of your xy-plane by v, it's still just the same xy-plane
because (1, 2, 0) + (x, y, 0) = (1+x, 2+y, 0) and you get all the same vectors as you already had
but now take w = (0,0,1)
w + {xy-plane} is a horizontal plane through z = 1
because (0,0,1) + (x,y,0) = (x,y,1)
that statement is saying all points linearly in between v and w are also in A
that's a property shared by subspaces
it means they're flat/linear looking
it just probably doesn't pass through the origin
Yeah, the cv+(1-c)w looks kinda like the closed under addition and scalar multiplication property of subspaces, but the (1-c) part trips me up
look at what it becomes with c = 0 and c = 1
you can rearrange cv + (1-c)w to c(v - w) + w
when c = 0, it's w
for c > 0, it's a vector starting from w and in the direction of v - w
so it's on its way to v
since v - w points from w to v
when c = 1, it's v
Oh so (v-w) is like the vector representing the original subspace and w the vector added to it?
well, v and w are any two elements of A
to be an affine subset, everything linearly "in between" v and w also has to be in A
those are of the form c(v - w) + w
c can be greater than 1 and less than 0 and those still count as in between v and w?
they'll be on the line connecting v and w
so not necessarily in between
but in line with
you should think of an affine set as some (hyper)plane, not necessarily passing through the origin
a subspace is a hyperplane that does pass through the origin
Yeah the properties of a subspace making cv+cw in it makes so much more sense to me but I think I'm starting to have a better feel for an affine subset
are you working with complex vector spaces? your statement calls the scalar c in C
those are harder to picture for me
The book I use says F for any field, so C or R works
Apparently complex vector spaces have nicer properties than real ones, but I haven't gotten that far yet
try to use the diagram to compare the kernel of T and the kernel of L_A
same for their images
eigen value decomposition
yrsh just realized
yeah i thought of that but the problem is the eigenvalues of A arent realted to eigenvalues of its minors in any obvious way
i mean it's the way you go about a proof for positive definite matrices
because you can show that a even number of eigenvalues must be negative
and get two linearly independent vectors that you can combine to get a vector with last coord 0 and finish the proof
in our case though, the product of all eigenvalues could well be 0
in which case i dont really know how to conclude anything about which eigenvalues are positive or negative
signs of minors = signs of the product of the Eigen values
how do you see this 🤔
that's Sylvester law
though you aren't allowed to use jt
btw only holds for symmetric matrices
can you clarify exactly what you mean here?
are you saying that the sign of a symmetric minor is the sign of the product of the eigenvalues of our original matrix or some subset of those eigenvalues?
yeah ill read that thanks
i mean this is sylvester's theorem
but i dont see how it relates to the minors
diagonalize and it'll make sense
so if i understand, you're suggesting that taking the EVD of A and looking at a minor matrix of A, i can look at how that minor matrix gets expressed as a product of submatrices of our decomposition?
isee how we sort of implictly talked about sylvester's theorem in the proof for positive -definite matrices yeah
it just doesnt seem adaptable to semi-definite
my friend solves this problem like this, is that work or just coincidence?
there are some things your friend is leaving unspecified
namely, taking the formula at the top as the definition of a linear map $T : P_2 \to \bR^{2 \times 2}$, your friend's matrix is the matrix of $T$ with respect to the ``standard'' bases of each space: the monomial basis for $P_2$ and the matrix-unit basis for $\bR^{2 \times 2}$
Ann
If I solve this problem I need to put the standard basis of a polynomial into T(X) and then find the coefficient from the combination...
but he just vectorized the matrix of the right-hand side and get the answer, is he doing the right things...? I have no idea why he can solve it like that.
i mean
if you know how matrix-vector multiplication works
you can recognize this sort of stuff
I think what you are asking is how did someone come up with this method
I've got a question on an assignment that I don't quite understand. We're given a matrix A, a vector p and a vector v_p, and are told some properties about them.
We're then asked to state the rank of the matrix in the attached image.
I understand how to calculate the rank of a matrix of numbers, but am confused on what exactly I'm doing when the two elements of the matrix are a matrix and a vector
The rank is the # of lin indep rows/columns
So if the rows of A and (v-vp)^T are lin indep then it is full rank
If the rows of A and (v-vp)^T are lin dep then it's the rank of A
Maybe I should clarify
thank you, that is what I want to ask
So I'm checking if the rows of A are all linearly independent of (v-vp)^T ?
well you would first try to find a basis
For the span of A^T
And then check whether the vectors from said basis and (v-vp) are lin indep
alright yeah
So I'm checking if all vectors in the basis for A are independent of (v-vp)^T
That's a strange way to write it
A set if vectors can be lin indep
idk why you say all vectors are independent of ...
They must be lin indep as a set
There's no "of"
you are not checking every 2 or something of that sort
thank you answer me, but I think there have some misunderstanding, I know how to split coefficient and variable
So a set of the basis of A and (v-vp)^T are linearly independent?
a vector is independent of some set of other vectors if it's not in their span
Basis for the span of A^T
@zinc timber https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1831988/how-to-prove-that-a-is-positive-semi-definite-if-all-principal-minors-are-non so this is one way to adapt the positive definite case
you add a bit to the matrix to make it positive definite and then take the limit as th rror tends to 0
i dont think i wouldve thought of that
considering i dont have jacobi's formula anyways this isnt really usable
Well first note you can multiply any matrix with no zeroes on its diagonal by an invertible matrix such that it only has ones on the diagonal, so that should hint to the fact that you cant
Hmmm makes sense
it's not too hard to construct a matrix of arbitrary rank with ones on the diagonal
yeah... tysmmmm
truly appreciate ur help
How can I use Remainder Theorem?
i and j are indices
you are told there are n linearly independent eigenvectors
i and j are indices between 1 and r, where r is the rank of the matrix A
I'm being told lots of things here. This is far from easy to comprhend lol.
Tyty
did you get it?
If i above r, they are not L.I anymore, if it's 0, well... You won't go any further
I get the idea now. Read the chapter for hours lol
Can someone help me understand the proof for 4.5.2a
I dont understand what exactly they mean by A = (a_ij)
and how <Ae_i, e_j> = a_ij
<,> is the standard inner product
<Ae_i, e_j> = (e_j)^T A e_i
right mult extracts column i, then the left mult extracts row j
@spare widget Ok I think I get what you mean by that but
but I am confused about how you get <Ae_i, e_j> = (e_j)^T A e_i
is this a property of the inner product?
Ok nvm I figured it out
Ummmm guys...
I'm doing this report on LU decomposition
And i kinda need help with a few questions
Cuz i'm getting mixed answers on google
- is LU decomposition ALWAYS possible?
- is LU decomposition unique, and if not is there any situation in which it is?
Yeah i think those aee the points i'm mixing up for some reason
Also, regarding the three main algorithms for finding the L and U matrices (choloskey doolittle and crout)
Is it safe to say that in choloskey A=LL^T
And in doolittle the diagonal of matrix L is all ones
And in crout the diagonal of matrix U is all ones
no, but it is subject to some constraints
e.g. requiring the diagonal entries of L to be 1
Yeah that's what i found but i wanted to make sure i understood correctly
So
If diagonal(L)=1s
The L and U matrices are unique?
there is only one LU factorization of a matrix A such that all the diagonal entries of L are 1.
there are other similar constraints that achieve this
Is it the same thing for U
So if diagonal(U)=1s L and U are unique
yes.
you can see this by expanding the equation A = LU
If the diagonal of matrix L or matrix U is all a digit n, L and U are unique
youll notice that theres n² equations in the entries of LU, but n(n+1) possible values of entries in L and U that satisfy the criteria (why?) A = LU
so you wont have uniqueness unless you "get rid of" n possible options
and you do this by fixing the diagonal to 1 of the n possible values
i'm being vague, you can make my reasoning more clear by just trying it on paper
Yeah i couldn't quite understand
Is fhis right tho?
take this equation and expand the right hand side via the rules of matrix multiplication
Oh
you'll get a system of equations
Yeah
n² equations, specifically
but there's n(n+1) possible options
since this is twice the triangular number of n
Yeah
(since theres two triangle matrices)
so your problem is underdetermined and hence your factorization is not unique unless you make choices to "remove" n options from consideration
and fixing the values of 1 diagonal works (again, try doing this and expanding out)
not quite
I kind of still don't understand why it's not
its a phrasing thing
as phrased, it sounds like you get the same unique values for L and U if L's diagonal or U's diagonal is chosen
but they could be different unique valuies
(in fact, in general they will be)
I meant that they're both unique
Didn't mean that they have the same value
then yeah, that's fine
So it works for all values of n
yeah
itd also work for another constraint
really all you need to do is define the diagonal with nonzero values
if you fix the diagonal of L or the diagonal of U, that leads to a unique factorization
not even!
they could differ as long as theyre nonzero
its just that you need to fix them
look back at this image
imagine we're choosing values for each a_ij
there are n² (in this case, 3² = 9) different values we need to pick
but on the right hand side, youll notice there's more than n² different entries
indeed, we have 2 triangles of "height" n
Yeah
so the total number is twice the n'th triangular number
the n'th triangular number is n(n+1)/2, so since there's two matrices, there are n(n+1) values to choose
that is to say, n² + n
so we have n² choices for the LHS but n² + n choices for the RHS
so if we want the LHS to be uniquely factorized, we need to "get rid of" n choices
but you'll notice that the diagonal has n entries on it
so by simply restraining a diagonal, we "lower" the number of choices on the RHS to just n²
since n² + n - n = n²
Aha
So 2 constraints
The entries on the main diagonal are all n
Or
We fix the main diagonal entries
The green line are the fixed values right?
YEP
sorry caps
you dont need to fix them to the same value
we often choose to fix them all to 1 just as a convention
since thats simple to do and makes for easy computations
but it could be whatever
Ah
you could fix them to 69, 420, 69, 420, ...
Lmao
you just need them to be nonzero, for reasons that become clear if you expand out the RHS by hand
(if they're 0 a lot of terms cancel out and you're not always able to determine the LHS)
Yeah
I think i got your point actually
That's pretty much what i need
Wb the other questions tho?
existence? LU decomposition does not always exist
theres some classification criteria but i forget it off-hand admittedly
Only if the leading minors are all non zero right?
Too small to read
wikipedia specifically says the leading principle minors, and the "only if" condition only holds if it's invertible
otherwise it's only one-directional
i do not recall enough details to be able to produce a counterexample right now.
Idk what one directional means but ok 💀
as in like
if A is invertible:
- if it has an LU factorization, then its leading principal minors are nonzero
- if its leading principal minors are nonzero, then it has an LU factorization
if A is not invertible (with rank k):
- if its first k leading principal minors are nonzero, then it has an LU factorization
Oh
but the final direction (if it has an LU factorization, then its first k leading principal minors are nonzero) does not necessarily hold in this case
Yeah yeah got u
again though idk a counterexample
Wb the algorithms' questions tho
im just trusting wikipedia here
i know nothing about algorithms for this stuff so i'll ask you to repost the question and hope someone else comes along.
Is what i said accurate
Sure
Tysmm
You've helped me a lot
Appreciate it
it's true
matrix multiplication is linear
Can anyone clairfy how I did part A of this wrong,
This is my work for it
|-4A| = (-4)^3|A| = -64|A| ~ -64(14.5) = -928
Namington
instead, review how matrix operations affect the determinant
i'll give you a hint: if $I$ denotes the identity matrix, then $\abs{-4A} = \abs{-4 \cdot I \cdot A} = \abs{-4 \cdot I} \cdot \abs{A} = \abs{\begin{matrix}-4&0&0&\dots\0&-4&0&\dots\0&0&-4&\dots\\vdots&\vdots&\vdots&\ddots\end{matrix}}\cdot \abs{A}$
Namington
Namington
as for inverses, note that $\abs{I} = 1$ (again $I$ is the identity matrix) and $AA^{-1} = I$, so $\abs{A}\abs{A^{-1}} = \abs{AA^{-1}} = \abs{I} = 1$. That is to say, $\abs{A}\abs{A^{-1}} = 1$ so $\abs{A^{-1}} = 1/\abs{A}$.
oops
Namington
now can you compute $\abs{A^{-1}}$?
Namington
but they raised -4 to the power 3 when they pulled it out. That seems right
oh fuck
i misread that
huh
sorry @clever prairie your work for |-4A| is correct
ignore me there
ask your grader i guess
because that's definitely right
Yeah I sent them an email about it give me my points back 😛
Thank you though!
quantum
yeah
how to do 2b)
I'd use Gram-Schmidt
how tho
wouldnt that give me 3 vectors
how do i get the 4th
nvm its a subspace
😎 👍
I'm given a square matrix A and know that the basis for the nullspace of A is two dimensional. If I need to find the orthogonal projection of a vector v onto the nullspace of A, what exactly am I actually doing there?
As in, I understand how to find the orthogonal project of one vector onto another, but I'm not sure what I need to do when projecting onto a two+ dimensional vector space
if the nullspace is 2 dimensional, it has a basis of two vectors
and if you want to orthogonal project v onto that subspace, you can find its projection onto those two basis vectors
I found a page on it, so I'm finding the projection onto each of the two basis vectors and then adding them?
yeah
sure
Hi! My first question here so lmk if I'm asking this wrong. I'm not sure how the hint provided in the question is helpful... does it suggest proof by contradiction? If so, how can I evaluate the expression on the bottom? Any additional hints are appreciated :) (notation: V* represents the dual space of V)
it intends you to show each a_i = 0
which would let you conclude {f_0, ..., f_n} is linearly independent
ok, so my hunch about this being a proof by contradiction was correct. sorry if i'm missing something here (still new to dual spaces), but any tips on going about evaluating the inner product w/ summation expression on the bottom?
so, I assume you've already shown V* is a vector space
so you can split up the linear functional <p, sigma a_i f_i>
basically the sigma pulls out front
a_i can pull out as well by linearity
so you end up with a bunch of <p, f_i> guys adding up
then use the definition of <p, f_i> and your given expression for p
sure thing
Is lay just applying the change of coordinate matrix there????
Ahhhh I think I see it. Its exactly that. It's just changing [ab1]b to the change of coordinates matrix.
But I don't understand why p^-1 is being used here. I thought that was used to convert an x in the standard basis to another basis (p)
Is this saying d is a change of basis to the eigen basis and p^-1 is that change of coordinates matrix, right????
It's essentially a way to map one linear transformation with two different bases right????
It's change of basis for matrices
The intuition is that if you have a basis E and basis F
And if you are given a vector v wrt the basis F, but you are given A wrt the basis E, then you can't apply A as is. If you have a change of basis matrix P which maps vectors expressed wrt E to vectors wrt F, then you can do A[v]_E =A P^{-1} [v]_F
And since you want the result in F then you have to map from E to F also
P [A]_E P^{-1} [v]_F = [A]_F [v]_F
Then [A]_F = P [A]_E P^{-1}
Which step do you not understand?
I'll get back to you. I'm gonna re read it.
What's the book btw?
linear algebra and its applications, lay, sixth edition
I can send it to you if you want it.
P^{-1} comes from P [x]_B = x -> [x]_B = P^{-1} x
It's right above the multiline derivation
In this specific case [Abi]_B = P^{-1} Abi
It would have been probably clearer if they wrote P [x]_B = [x]_E instead
I think that by x they mean x wrt the canonical basis e1,...,en
Make everything one
Yes.
How did the 3 get here?
A factor of 1/3 was removed from each element of the matrix.
How did 1/27 get here?
det(cA) = c^n det A for an n x n matrix
But shouldn't it be 1/3 lambda?
1/3 - lambda = 1/3(1-3lambda)
The 1/3 is raised to the n.... what's n here 3???
What does that come from even??? The n
Is it the col space of a?
Yes, here n is 3. The matrix is 3x3, so det(1/3A) = 1/3^3 det A
n is just the number of rows/columns
det[a * A] = a^n * det[A]
This is only for nxn matrix this det rule?
as opposed to what?
determinant is only defined for square matrices
if you need a generalization, they usually do det[A^TA] or det [AA^T] for non-square
e.g. for integration on manifolds embedded in higher dimensional spaces you get non-square jacobians
then you do sqrt(det[J^TJ])
Oh I'm not that advanced. I'm taking a linear algebra course that's the second one people usually take here.
My first one was over 10 tears ago. So I've forgotten basic things. Hehe
This course seems heavily focused on orthoganility
I wouldn't think of it as a rule, think of it as putting in an identity matrix
that's an unrelated remark yes, just in case someday you need to compute "a determinant of a non-square matrix", sometimes det[A^TA] makes sense
det(aA) = det(aI * A) = det(aI) det(A) = a^n det(A)
since det(aI) is just a along the diagonal
just for clarity det[AB] = det[A]det[B]
Merosity is using the above in the special case with A = aI
I see. I get it now thank you for the help :)
Hello, I've been trying to figure out how to go about this problem for a little while now without making any progress. I already have the eigenvalues and eigenvectors, but I'm unsure where to go from there. Any help would be greatly appreciated!
is this an exam?
no, just some practice from last years homework. I'm just curious how to go about it just in case something similar to it is on the exam.
The prof gives us previous semester's HW but no answer key for some reason
i would first note that multiplying two matrices BD, where B is some generic matrix and D is a diagonal matrix, has the effect of scaling the columns of B by the values on the corresponding diagonal elements of D
then we note that for a matrix A with eigenvalues c_i and eigenvectors v_i, we have that A v_i = c_i v_i = v_i c_i
these two things should let go push forward
okay, that's on the lines of what I was thinking but I wasn't positive, I appreciate the help!
i guess to give a further hint, i would note that if we have a matrix W and multiply it by some other matrix U, we can think of U as being made up of column vectors, so that U = [u_1 u_2 ... u_m]
and then the product WU can be expressed as WU = [Wu_1 Wu_2 ... Wu_m]
these should be all the hints you need, play around with it for a while
alright, i'll give it a shot. Thanks for the tips!
Hi guys, will have an midterm the day after tomorrow and I wonder, maybe you know some online quizes/exams to prepare to it. Mostly, it should be about these topics.
Part 4. AbstractVector Spaces;
Part 5. Matrix Computations in Spaces;
Part 6. Determinants and their Applications;
Part 7. Linear Transformations;
Thanks
open up a linear algebra textbook and go to the "exercises" section
Any textbook suggestions?
If I have an invertible matrix, how can I check whether or not it is the matrix representation of the identity transformation?
If it's the identity transformation,the matrix has to be the indentity matrix
If not it's definitely not identity transformation
@native rampart That's definitely not true.
Example?
It's definitely true , because T(v)=v
So whatever basis you pick,you get identity matrix
Just take any basis to another basis, you won't get an identity matrix in general.
I mean wrt identity transformation
It's not an identity matrix in general, I don't want to explain that right now because I don't want to confuse myself more than I already am.
An identity transformation corresponds to identity matrix in any basis
Because well A matrix corresponding to operator T when you pick a basis {e_1,e_2...e_n} has columns {T(e_1),T(e_2)...T(e_n)}
For T=id,T(e_1)=e_1 T(e_2)=e_2 and so on no matter what basis you choose
If you take the representation of a vector u in one basis, and take the representation of u in another basis, the coefficients are generally different.
So the matrix that takes one to the other is not the identity matrix
Oh you mean change of basis matrix?
In other words, if B1 and B2 are different bases of V, and I: V -> V is the identity transformation, then [I]_B1 is not the same as [I]_B2
I think what you're asking is equivalent to how to tell M is similar to the identity matrix
@fleet sun I'm not sure about that
so M = Q^-1 I_n Q
If M represents the identity transformation, then in the right basis its matrix really is the identity matrix
It's a matter of finding that basis
@fleet sun My understanding is that if an invertible matrix is really a representation of the identity transform, then if we do change of basis transforms on the left and the right we should still have a representation of the identity transform. Your point is that in one particular to and one particular from basis, we'll get the identity matrix?
joesmith1042
Oh my fault, the identity transform has to be from $U$ to itself. Never mind my deleted question
joesmith1042
right
Why do we have to "find" a basis at all? Can't we just say the to and from bases are identical?
I'm not totally sure about the similarity thing I said
@fleet sun Well I think you pointed us in the right direction. We could just do a change of basis on the right to change the from basis to be the same as the to basis.
well, you can consider the identity from a space to itself, but with the standard basis on the domain, and some stupid basis on the codomain
Or do one on the left to change the from basis to the to basis.
And then its matrix won't look like the identity
Okay, so an invertible matrix represents the identity transform if and only if it is similar to the identity matrix.
That's pretty interesting.
I think another way to say it is it can be diagonalized to the identity matrix
I haven't really gotten to diagonalization yet. Thank you for your help figuring this out, I really appreciate it.
