#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 296 of 1
as a hint look at x²+1 over lR and ℂ
Hello
In the minimal polynomial or hm?
it is
They are both finite dimensional, so use the rank nullity theorem. It may help to note that if $U,V$ are finite dimensional and $U \subseteq V$ then $\dim U \leq \dim V$.
1345631
Alright let me try. Thank you!
Anyone have any good sources about how any nilpotent endomorphism can be written in like a block diagonal form where every block has 1s on the off diagonal?
jordan form
read about it
since $p_0, p_1, \dots, p_k$ are all linearly independent
DarQ
can we automatically conclude that $\vec{v}_0, \vec{v}_1, \dots, \vec{v}_k$ are lin ind as well?
tho your statement is not precise tbh
not all nilpotent have that form, ex 0 matrix
DarQ
you can prove it
the v_i for i > =1 can be set into a vandermonde matrix. if there are fewer columns than rows, these are lin indep
then you can worry about the vector of 1s
it checks out there too, since all the poly's are evaluated at 0 for the 1st entry
i only treated the 1's vector separately because the p_i(0) threw me off, but i guess it's not needed
it's a vandermonde mat regardless
maybe I shouldn't have specified polynomials
hmm?
let's say any (k+1) linearly independent functions from the vector space $C[0, k+1]$
DarQ
what's C[0, k+1] again?
all continuous functions on [0, k+1]
[0,k], i suppose
it makes no difference but yeah 
in that case no
take cos(2 pi k) and cos (4 pi k) evaluated at k = 0 and k = 1
does that work for you?
I think it does but I'm confused about something
since I saw a proof a while ago that $cos, cos^2, cos^3, \dots$ are linearly independent and then it immediately concluded that a weighted sum of those functions can never be 0
DarQ
yes, but that's not what you're doing here
you're evaluating them
you're no longer adding trig functions, you're adding numbers
ohh
so a weighted sum of powers of cos can't be the 0 function
as in, it can't be 0 for all values of x
exactly
ok that makes sense
you also got super lucky in the other example
what you chose in the first example exactly gave the columns of a vandermonde matrix
these have full column rank as long as num cols <= num rows
these are two very degenerate scenarios that are "nice" in some sense, but not representative of usual behavior
I see
b basically asks me to prove this result 
that's so funny
So while trying to see if these vectors are a linear combination, I've subtracted equation 3 from equation 1 to find that k3 is 1/3, which implies in equation 2 that k2 must be -1/3. But what now? Can I pick either 1 or 3 now to find k1?
oh wait
duh
it doesn't matter which one I pick because they both evaluate to the same answer
is this always the case?
if it weren't the case, would it suffice as proof that these vectors are not linear combinations?
Okay to my knowledge or as far as i usually do it you would have to use 1 now.
If what you were saying be right then in normal cases you can use two formulars for a 3 variable problem to find an exact answer. I am not saying there are maybe edge cases where this may be true. But the in normal cases this would not be possible
The moment you get a 3 variable linear system with 2 lines you usually transform one unknown to a arbitary number r element of the set you are in.
I hope this answers your question
hmm. but how do I know that I need to use equation 1 now? my thought was that you should only "modify" each one of these equations once, but which equation is the one that's being "modified" in the first step?
What's the difference between a subspace and a subset ....
the subspace has the additional property of being a vector space in itself, whereas a subset of a vector space does not have that guarantee
it's like how all squares are rectangles but not all rectangles are squares
arcuzie
yes its a map R^3->R^3. how do u check if its 1 to 1 or onto?
I’m not sure my teacher said just check if row-rank and col-rank are equal to the exponent on the R (so 3)
But I’m not sure that’s right it looks too easy
yes if col rank=3 then S is onto
generally u can check a map is 1 to 1 if its kernel only has the 0 vector
(but theres a nice fact relating 1 to 1 & onto for operators)
So I can’t just check row-rank to know if it’s 1 to 1?
I can only do that for onto?
no, in fact row rank=col rank so row rank is another way to check onto
the other thing i mention is how u check 1 to 1
Ok thanks
guys
can I get help
question 8
A=input('Enter the matrix A :/n');
u=input('Enter the intial guess:\n');
epsilon=input('\n Enter the tolerence of error');
m1=1;
v=Au;
m2=max(abs(v));
err=abs(m1-m2);
while err>epsilon
v=Au;
m2=max(abs(v));
u=v/m2;
m1=m2;
end
fprintf('\n the greateste eigenvalue is %2.5f\n',m1);
disp(' the corresponding eigenvector is:');
disp(u);
here is my peice of code
it's matlab
I'm stuck
IDK if this belongs in here or computing software
it's 3am OMG
What's the point of profs drilling cofactor computations while computing a determinant
If it were me,I would say "ok you can use co factor expansion but it's horrible and instead I suggest you to use gauss elimination"
CreativeMath
Can someone help me see why this is true? I know what \otimes means and when i expand everything out I don't see why this would be true?
$A\otimes B ( u \otimes v) = Au \otimes Bv (\text{ by definition }) = \lambda u \otimes \mu v = \lambda \mu u\otimes v$
Oh is this the mixed product property
bilinearity
Wrong channel. Try #prealg-and-algebra or #precalculus or #❓how-to-get-help
Sorry
@silent glen this is better suited for #prealg-and-algebra. check the pins here.
my muscle memory fights me when writing vectors consisting of two components; I always draw a fraction line and have to erase it
Is this enough to show that these vectors are linearly dependent? Or do I need to continue trying to solve this further?
what vectors
[3;2;1;4], [1;1;-1;1] and [4;5;7;10]?
no, this alone is insufficient; you can eliminate one of your four equations (say, IV) but that still leaves three
Got it. I knew that seemed too good to be true
the thing that confuses me most about this is figuring out which equation is "modified" by a given operation. Say that I perform 2*I - 3*II. Am I replacing equation I or II by doing that?
can I simply decide that by doing that I'm replacing equation I?
Guys is linear transformation when a function from a vector space is transformed to another vector space?
Or is it just functions that are being changed in the same vector space?
could be either
Thanks, are there anymore basic definitions i need to know for linear transformation for vectors?
the one based on properties
i.e. a transformation is linear if f(av) = af(v) for any scalar a and vector v, and f(v + u) = f(v) + f(u) for 2 vectors v and u
oh yeah, thank you for your help much appreciated
the final step from this screenshot says that the step II: 4*I + II implies that k3 can be chosen at will
but why?
This is where I got while working on it without looking at the solution, but now I can't tell if this also implies that k3 can be chosen at will because this doesn't cancel k3 like in the solution
Is sum of a subspace and its orthogonal complement necessarily equal to main vector space?
Yes, otherwise it wouldn't be a "complement".
Hmm, perhaps that is too quick.
Your question has more content if understood as: If S is a subspace, is { v | forall s in S: <v,s>=0 } actually a complement?
This is easy to prove if S is finite-dimensional (you can subtract the projection along each vector in a basis for S).
In infinite-dimensional spaces I think it's not actually be true for arbitrary subspaces. They'd need to be closed or something.
E.g. in ell^2, the set of sequences with finite support form a proper subspace, but there's no nonzero vector that's orthogonal to everything in that subspace.
it's true in hilbert space
I think there's an iff condition to this
don't remember exactly
Only for closed subspaces, I think.
So the correct answer to Aarjav is: that depends on your context.
gosh darn infinite dimensional vector spaces, buggering up results
they are the most interesting one really
yes real juicy stuff

😂
how to prove $\mathcal{L}(V, W)$ (the set of all linear transformations from $V$ to $W$) is a vector space?
mate
take 2 linear transformations in the set and show there addition is as well a linear transformation
then take a linear transformation and shows multiplying it by a scalar gives as well a linear transformation
how do you prove a linear transformation? can you pick it up from here
thank you :)
How should I go about this question? I think I first need to find the perpendicular subspace. After that I am clueless. However, I do know the rotation matrix in R2 space.
Is this a valid algebraic manipulation in a real vector spacew
norms are positive definite, so yeah
wait this works in complex too shouldn't it
yes, because norms are positive definite
ok ty
oh also is this business with e1 e2 in the 1 dimensional eigenspaces proper? Or should they not be labeled by e
or should i maybe just let v1 and v2 start as the normalized eigenvector
e_i are usually the canonical basis, but nothing really stops you from using e_i for something else as long as it is clear
canonical meaning 1,0,...,0 and 0, 1,0,....,0 ... 0,0,...,1 ?
bc i was using em as denoting normalized vectors
mainly to make this part clear
as to why its 1+1
Im struggling to understand preservation of linear transformation and proving it by proof of induction. Easpecially the highlighted text
What part of that highlighting is confusing
why the sigma is their
Linear combinations are sums
is it just sums?
Do you know what a linear combination is
I tho linear combination was a mixture of diff type of calculations happening on vectors but im assuming thats wrong
scroll back in your slides and find the definition of linear combination
ok thanks
Is there a special name for the metric induced by the norm of a normed space? For that matter, is there a special name for the norm defined by the inner product of an inner product space?
I want to be able to refer to these things unambiguously without having to redefine them.
"metric induced by norm" or just "norm" & "norm induced by inner product" or "inner product"
because the induced metric/norm is obvious
If I'm being pedantic, there isn't just one unique way to define a metric using a norm, for example, very trivially, we could multiply the "usual" one by 2, but I guess for the purpose of efficient communication it would be clear enough which one I am talking about.
There should be some adjective denoting a standard way of deriving some form of structure from another.
practice is standard to take ||v||=√‹v,v›
I just wish it had a special name
because that way you retain the added structure of inner products
How to find the orthogonal basis of R³ containing a specific vector without using Gram Schmidt process ?
and everyone will understand that to be norm anyway so you don't need to worry about it
find basis of orthogonal space
w/o using GS

😅
I choosen two vectors & made their inner product zero with the given one
After that I'm confused
there are many ways, I'll explain after i reach my department
Ok thank you
It's easier to show that L(V,W) is a subset of F(V,W), the set of all functions from V to W. Then, if you know that F(V,W) is a vector space, then you can just check subspace axioms for L(V,W). If not, then note that you have to go through all axioms of a vector space, not just the subspace ones.
thank you. yea, i proved that a linear combination of two linear transformations is a linear transformation.
added you need to show F(V,W) is a subspace, again by SHOWING ALL THE AXIOMS
ok so say you are given a non zero vector
Yes
by gram schmidt, you can add 2 more LI vectors to your list and apply GS and call it done
otherwise, you need to find two LI vectors that are orthogonal to the given vector (say v \in R3)
Yeah
one you can find by hand easily
to find the other one, use cross product, since we are in R3
would this mean that they have multiplicity 1? I dont think it means that tho
other way could be that you take the orthogonal projection matrix and take the rows
self adjoints are diagonalizable might help
they don't necessarily have to have multiplicity 1 tho
thank you, i already proved that. just was little confused because linear transformations are vectors that transform other vectors. i am a beginner so i got confused:)
Ok let me try
What do you mean by this
like say you have (1, 1, 1)
say you choose (2, -1, *)
then you inner product should be 1x2 + 1x(-1)+1x* = 1+*
so we want the dot product to be zero
so choose * = -1
ye im looking at the spectral theorem, so i have that the basis consists of eigenvectors
and so we have an orthogonal vector (2, -1, -1)
but there can be more than one eigenvector [span] for lamda=x right?
do you know necessary and sufficient condition for diagonalizability?
good
Thank you
I like condition (e)
what is it? It might be in another chapter's propositions
use the fact that if they are diagonalizable, then there is a basis wrt which it's diagonal
i.e. a matrix of the form $\m{\dmat{2}{\vdots}{2}{3}{\vdots}{3}}$
that the minimal polynomial is separable
meaning splits into linear factor and each factor occurs only once
in the factorization
Once you have a basis of eigenvectors (with known eigenvalues), can't you just compute (T^2 - 5T + 6) applied to that basis?
what like factoring this quadratic to t-3 t-2?
If a linear operator gives 0 applied to every element of a basis, it's 0 on everything
why do that much you can do it in one line
Yes, this also works
1 line 
since A is self adjoint, it's diagonalizable with eigen values 2,3 and the mini poly splits. only choice (x-2)(x-3) hence proved
see one line

Both are one line if your handwriting is small enough 
So you know now that there is a basis of eigenvectors and each one has to have eigenvalue either 2 or 3. So consider both of those cases for an eigenvector in the basis and show (T^2 - 5 T + 6 I)v = 0 in both cases. Then you're done.
.
which is a linear combination of the eigenvectors like he was saying with the not-1 liner
i'm trying to think how the 1 liner works
Just the v in some basis will imply it's true for all v
And you have a nice basis (namely one consisting of eigenvectors)
Anyway that's just one approach
what did this need to do with the minimal polynomial splitting?
like thats just the diagonal matrix from the spectral theorem stuff right
wait wiait wait wait lemme grab a scratch paper
i think i have the long version of what ur saying in my head wanna see if its right
yes
so like howd u know that multiplies to 0
but i feel like I cant just say "because it is"
product of diagonal matrix is diagonal with entries = product of diagonal entries
since you have 0's in the diagonals, they'll give 0
is it safe to right it as 2...2 3...3
since couldn't it be 2..3...2 3... 2... 3 2
or some random combination
or does 2...2 3...3 account for all
fair enough
i feel like i should tex my matrix math
is there any tools online for making those kinda ... matrices
TeXit
$\begin{bmatrix} \dmat[]{1,2,3} \end{bmatrix}$
Edd
whats an mqty
$\mqty[\dmat[0]{1}{2}{3}]$
custom command?
it stands for matrix quantity, apparently
NO defined in phys package prolly
oof i love and hate that package because of naming conflicts
the font change is also a part of the joke?
ye that I can understand
Edd
wait how
\( \)
(yes, comic $sans$)
needs more backslash
the offsets are random
nice
part of april fools, as i understand it
like this?
now the part i dont fully understand is the counterexample; it needs to not be diagonal; and it needs to be 3x3?
doesn't have to be 3x3
yeah anything like that should work
So how do you plan on doing it
oh wait im silly we just need a single vector that doesn't go to 0 right
oh wait but that nasty linear combination
not really
wym by this?
i'm honestly not sure, i might be wrong
You need to find a non diagonalizable operator
I don't see how else you would do it except for explicit construction
pi is a weird choice but yea
oh wait its not 5
i forgot to multiply 3 by 5 in the middle
i was wondering where the 5 came from
that 5 should be 0, but otherwise it's good. the second matrix should have 15 in the last row
the reason i used pi is because its cute
Ok nvm it should be zero,my knowledge of la fails me
There's a thing called primary decomposition theorem
I used that to construct this
cute:
is it fine to just interchange T and M(T)? or do i need to say why (they have duality or somethin right)
i understand that to show that a linear system of equations has infinite solutions (sheaf), you show the determinant of the matrix is 0. this makes sense in that dividing by zero is "the same as multiplying by any number" but it doesn't make rigorous sense to me, for example i couldn't just put an infinity on the front instead of 1/0
also singular matrices don't have an inverse, so how can i justify using the inverse to solve M(x y z) = (1 , 2 3)
you can't if M doesn't have an inverse
i didn't understand anything from your post before
Well if you know Primary decomposition,you know a vector is in null (T-2I)^2 or null (T-3I) if minimal polynomial is (x-2)^2(x-3)
So (T-2I)(T-3I) v is either 0 or x such that (T-2I)x is 0
Where is the rigour? I know edexcel further maths doesn’t really care but i do
if the matrix is singular, M^-1 doesn't exist
I’m meant to show this means that it has infinite solutions + is consistent, but that’s not rigourus
you can do that through elimination, if you like
but truly if M is not invertible, M^-1 doesn't exist
T normal: can I do this?
yes
yes, true, but we needed to prove why
do the w and u make sense for showing nullT = nullT*
range(T) != range(T^*) afaik
T normal
Ah ok
how do u do a fast bmatrix in physics 2x2
i know how to do the diagonals like u showed
$\mqty{\diag[]{a,b}}$
Edd
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)

well like a 2x2 NON diagonal
so like $\left(
\begin{array}{cc}
0 & 1 \
-1 & 2 \
\end{array}$
MattDog_222
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
$\mqty[a & b \ c & d]$
Edd
should be double back slash
oh i see thanks
how do you use elementary transformation to see whether the rows are linearly dependant or independant from this matrix?
Does this have anything to do with
(cst = complex spectral theorem)
wait a second
CST
there is a diagonal matrix of T
take the square root of the diagonals
boom
right?
and since its complex, the square root of any complex (including i) is defined
Yep, this is the proof in axler too
can someone check if this makes sense, it feels a little too plain/easy? 
ok i just have this left to do; any tips would be greatly appreciated
Ye in fact you could probs shorten it if anything
i think you could consider something like <Av, Au>
and also that A*A and AA* are hermitian
idk if you already saw anything about hermitian matrices
i guess not if you're looking at CST
i feel like i've seen that word before
but it might have also been on wikipedia
oh no it was in the book
saying Hermation is the same as self-adjoint
yes we've been doing stuff with em
i think i can use this? Gonna ask the teacher
so i just need to show they're distinct which is pretty trivial by spectral thm
is what i have rn
Let T be a linear application from V to W such that T(X) = AX
I need some clarification regarding differences between T and A
In mathematics, the kernel of a linear map, also known as the null space or nullspace, is the linear subspace of the domain of the map which is mapped to the zero vector. That is, given a linear map L : V → W between two vector spaces V and W, the kernel of L is the vector space of all elements v of V such that L(v) = 0, where 0 denotes the zero...
To begin with, here's the definition of a null space according to Wikipedia
A is the matrix of the linear transformation T, no?
A as in the A here
which I assume is really just the same as the kernel isn't it?
yeah
nullspace and kernel are interchangable terms in this sense
assuming N(A) denotes the null space of A
So, why in one case, for the kernel, we're speaking about ker(L) where L is denoted as L: V->W
and in the other I'm being asked N(A) considering A pops in the description of the map itself as in T(X): V->W: X |-> AX
afaik, if A is the matrix of the lin-trans L, then ker(L) and ker(A) are essentially asking for the same thing
just L is the function itself, and A is the matrix that represents L
Some people call it "null space" for matrices and "kernel" for linear transformations.
I see
that's what I thought as well, thanks for the clarification
just needed to make sure
simple math question
for rational expressions, how do i solve h
i don't know how to find the lcd for the expressions
<@&286206848099549185>

please read #❓how-to-get-help
it's probably a better fit for #prealg-and-algebra
there appears to be a lot of confusion between elementary algebra and linear algebra...
in what sense are they not interchangeable? unless u mean to say like kernel functions, or kernels in cnns or something
just curious
from what i've heard, nullspace is a lin-alg thing while kernel is a more general abstract-alg thing
i see, that makes sense
ive never done abstract alg, so also potentially explains why i didnt know that
thanks
Anybody here have experience with transformation matrices in the context of say numpy?
need help with c. how is c enough to show the matrix is invertible?
i believe I and II are correct, correct me if wrong
how to understand span of the empty list ={0}?
span of the empty set is ${0}$ right?
anamono
span is a set of linear combinations
so the span of the empty set is the set of all empty sums
Span{A} is the smallest vector space that contains all possible linear combinations of elements in A
I don't understand that is the empty numerical?
if it's not numerical we cannot even do scalar multiplication, thus I cannot see it would result in zero
that's why I cannot understand this. I don't understand the empty itself
In mathematics, an empty sum, or nullary sum, is a summation where the number of terms is zero.
The natural way to extend non-empty sums is to let the empty sum be the additive identity.
Let
a
1
{\displaystyle a_{1}}
,
...
this may explain better than i can
Ok now I understand when I see the motivation "The natural way to extend non-empty sums"
@low igloo The span of a set $S$ is the smallest vector space containing $S$.
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
So if $S$ is empty, then span of $S$ is ${0}$
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
oh yeah you make sense too
does this proof work?
it should right
A is just an invertible linear transformation
Looks good to me
alright thanks man
quickly skimming through lang's linear algebra to see if my algebra teacher mightve missed some interesting things. Doesnt this statement only hold for V a vector space over a field of characteristic =/= 2?
like in Z/2Z ^2 the bilinear form defined by the matrix (0,1 ; 1,0) satifies <u,u>=0 for all u in Z/2Z ^2
So if i got it correctly your question would be if Z/2Z^2 is a null space or more accurately in your opinion it is not a null space right?
.
it's not a null space relative to the bilinear form i wrote above, even though it satifies the conditions in the text
because the proof they give doesnt work in characteristic 2
why wouldnt it?
cant divide by 2
well i dont know if helps but i am gonna try anyway
We know that
<v,w> = 1/2[<v+w,v+w>-<v,v>-<w,w>]
Couldnt we multiply 2x<v,w> = [<v+w,v+w>-<v,v>-<w,w>]
Can’t really do anything with 2 in characteristic 2 lol
Since 2=0
2* anything =0
So what you wrote isn’t wrong but it doesn’t prove anything
right but on the right side you dont have a 0 necessarily. At least thats my thought process. Even if the left side is 0 the right side also needs to be zero.
I think Lang just forgot or chose not to mention characteristic 2
The right side is necessarily 0
Since we have the condition that <v,v>=0 for all v
ahhh yeah makes sense. I see where i got confused sorry.
Indeed, over (Z/2Z)^2 a viable scalar product could be
<e1,e1> = <e2,e2> = 0
<e1,e2> = <e2,e1> = 1
giving a counterexample to the claim
Oh, you had this counterexample yourself already.
Here is a more trivial question. So we have a Vectorspace V.
Is the Subset {0} of V also a Vectorspace inside V.
I read some say its not but then i have to think about following example.
Let there be a linear transformation from f:V->W
This is a isomorphism ( a bijective linear transformation.)
Due to the nature of a bijective linear transformation it implies
f(eV) = eW. This is also the only element that depicts to eW.
So Kernel(f) ={0V} and it is known the Kernel is a vectorspace.
So this means {0v} is a vectorspace right?
Or am i getting smt confused?
{0} is always a subspace, and a subspace is a vector space in its own right, yes.
okay thank you.
For anyone, I know how to use gram schmidt to find an orthogonal basis (of say a null space or range) but how do i do this problem? @lavish jewel
It seems W is already orthogonal
I can project a vector unto another vector, but whats the formula for projecting a vector onto a subspace?
Let w_1 be (-5,6,-2) and w_2 be (0,-4,12)
Then v= a_1 w_1 + a_2 w_2 + a_3 w_3 for some a_1,a_2,a_3
Where {w_1,w_2,w_3} is an orthonormal basis
Then projection onto that space is a_1 w_1 + a_2 w_2
Since your two basis vectors are already orthogonal, you can just project onto them separately and add the results.
You don't actually need to extend to a basis for the entire R^3.
So just project onto each individual vectore and add? (Like this?)
says incorrect answer
Yeah. You can then check that the difference between the original vector and the result should be orthogonal to each of the basis vectors.
do u see my error?
Your formula looks right; I haven't dug into the arithmetic.
I dont understand this part
how to check
Subtract v from your result (or vice versa) and check that the dot product between that and each of w1, w2 is zero.
the dot product of w1 and w2 is zero/
but v - my answer should equal what if im right?
No not product of w1 with w2.
Check that (v-answer)·w1 = 0, and that (v-answer)·w2 = 0.
oh okay
i should be able to find my mistake now
i think i only messed up because i was using my phone calculator
my good ones in the car
my numbers are wrong but right formula. thanks for explaining how to verify it! :)
(i’m assuming you’re done so i’m going to ask my question now, tell me if i’m wrong)
can someone explain to me how this means that span is the smallest subspace containing v1,…,vm?
i don’t know why but i don’t get it
There are two parts to that claim.
First, that the span is A subspace that contain v1,...,vn.
i get that part
Second that the every subspace that contains v1,...,vn is a superset of the span.
So assume you have some subspace that contains v1,...,vn.
Which we could call W.
To show that the span is a subset of W, we select an arbitrary element x of the span and show that it is in W.
By definition an element of the span is something that can be written as a1v1+...+anvn.
However, since we're assuming that each of the vi's are in W, and W is a subspace, that means that a1v1 is in W and a2v2 is in W, and so forth.
And finally that the sum of all these, which is our x, is also in W.
Thus the span is a subset of W, which is what we needed to prove.
ok i’ll read this a bit more and try to digest it
Is it the connection between "smallest" and "superset" that's confusing?
i’m not sure, all i know is that my book didn’t use the word superset, but that does make sense now that i think about it
since span is the smallest anything else containing those vectors must either be equal to or a superset of the span
oh
ok i guess i get it
maybe them using smallest was confusing me
even though that would be an accurate term lol
It's one of those linguistic conventions that textbooks often don't explain in so many words.
unfortunate, but i think i get it now, thanks
okay, another question on orthogonal stuff. how do this?
i think my definitional understanding is lacking because when they rearrange the problem, i get confused fast.
here though, w is not given in orthogonal form, so do i need to find an orthogonal basis for w first? @fringe fjord
If it looks like a quiz, and it smells like a quiz, it’s probably a quiz!
its online homework?
Yeah, then you need to first do a Gram-Schmidt step to get mutually perpendicular basis vectors for the subspace.
okay, find an orthogonal basis for w, then what?
After that, just remember that "orthogonal projection" is a linear transformation, and that the matrix of a linear transformation is made of columns that are each the output of the transformation on one of the standard basis vectors.
okay, so the orthogonal basis of w is formed by the two vectors v1=<1,1,-3> and v2=<-7,7,0> and now i need to but this in some kind of matrix form?
No -- that's a good perpendicular basis for W.
Now you need to find the linear transformation that projects each vector in R^3 perpendicularly to W.
I.e. the matrix must be such that $A\begin{pmatrix}1\0\0\end{pmatrix}$ is the projection of $(1,0,0)$ into $W$ and $A\begin{pmatrix}0\1\0\end{pmatrix}$ is the projection of $(0,1,0)$ into $W$, and so forth.
Troposphere
(Note that these matrix products are simply the columns of A!)
can anyone else explain?
explain what?
okay, so the orthogonal basis of w is formed by the two vectors v1=<1,1,-3> and v2=<-7,7,0> and now i need to but this in some kind of matrix form?
you wanna come into a call and i am gonna give it a try
Figure 1
Let S be a nontrivial subspace of a vector space V and assume that v is a vector in V that d
can someone tell me how i find the geometric multiplicity of an eigenvalue?
like the formula
bc im doing past exams and in one he computed it by:
4 - rank(A - lambda*I)
(for a 4*4 matrix)
while on a different paper its given as
basically i dont see the connection
would 3-rank(A-lambda I) work for a 3*3 matrix
?
how much do you know about primary decomposition or generalized eigen vectors?
although you aren't required to know them but it'll make the explanation easier on me
@trim marlin
so the GM of an eigen values a is the dimension of the null space of (T-a)
so GM = null(T-a) = DIM - rank(T-a)
that's what you are using
ok thanks
i figured it out in the end
and second question
is there some easy way to find the determinant of this matrix?
wait a sec
no nvm
If a = 0, then this determinant is zero. If a =/=0, then you can do the row operation -b/a R1 + R2 to clear the -b. Similarly, clear the other rows of the last column. Then do Laplace expansion along the first row. Then you get the determinant of a diagonal 3x3 matrix
i was thinking of just splitting it up in blocks
i terms of abcd i got the determinant to be labda^4 +lambda^3d +lambda^2c
no its not
wait never mind
i meant
the characteristic polynomial
😭
the determinant is easy
that's easy as well like
start from bottom up reversing the signs
x⁴+dx³+cx²+bx+a

something to do with rational canonical form
but you can always calculate
which is not that hard honestly
let me whiteboard
how to i prove part c <@&286206848099549185>
Suppose $A$ is diagonalisable. Then there is a diagonal matrix $D$ and an invertible matrix $C$ such that $$D = CAC^{-1}.$$ Try to show that $A^{-1}$ is diagonalisable
1345631
note, by part (b), D is invertible since 0 is not an eval. you can find explicit forms for D and D^{-1} as well
hint: a vector is parallel to another if it's a scalar multiple of it
since -2 = 4k => -2/4 = k = -1/2, and the rest are 1/2, with the exception of 0, which can be in any direction
yeah that works
So that's false then? because of the first one right?
yeah it's false
alright thank youu
all components have to be the same multiplier
Is formula 7 ok?
its correct. plus you could just check it
this is painful to look at tbh, I hope you're not memorizing this list
same
well you can memorize it but not in a rote way uhh
For the last two ones I initially thought "hmm, wasn't aware of those, they look useful". But then I recalled several times in the last month or so where I've done exactly that kind of rewritings, but without being aware of them as distinct identities. 😆
Except the second-to-last one is not right. It should be 2(a²+b²) on the RHS.
It might pay to be a bit skeptical about the other ones too ...
i dont get why i got this wrong
oh whoops sorry
is there any connection between changing bounds of integration and change of basis?
e.g. changing from cartesian to spherical/cylindrical coordinates
yes
when you use a map e.g. x -> omega(x), such that Omega = omega(D)
then the Jacobian of that map pops out
$\int_{\Omega}f(\omega),d\omega = \int_{\mathcal{D}}f(\omega(x))\sqrt{det\left[\left(\frac{\partial \omega}{\partial x}\right)^T\frac{\partial \omega}{\partial x}\right]},dx$
criver
square root of the determinant of the grammian
the basis vectors are defined at each point as the columns of domega/dx
it tells you how much space gets compressed/stretched
oh interesting
it's how you do line, surface, volume etc. integrals
very interesting
my calc textbook just tells us to imagine a ray going around and that's how we find the regions of integrationo
when the map is from same dim to same dim, then the square root turns into absolute value
and you take the det of the Jacobian
and i thought there was some more "rigorous" way of doing it
the above is sqrt(det[J^TJ])
it's a generalization for non-square jacobian
e.g. surface embedded in 3d
the cross product thing you have seen for surfaces in calc is a special case of the above
you can rewrite the det as the magnitude of the cross product
you can look into differential forms if you want more details
👍 tyvm
is this the kinda stuff you would learn in a real analysis class?
if not, what class would this kinda stuff be taught in
calc 3 or 4 depends on the uni and country I guess
differential forms probably in some class about integration on manifolds, so either analysis or differential geometry
if you're doing physics though they'll have to teach you that a lot faster and with less rigour
In linear algebra, the Gram matrix (or Gramian matrix, Gramian) of a set of vectors
v
1
,
…
,
v
n
{\displaystyle v_{1},\dots ,v_{n}}
in an inner product space is th...
hmm, i'm taking calc 3 rn but we haven't talked about change of basis in taht sense
is this something spivak would cover?
if you've covered change of variables in definite integrals then you've technically covered change of basis
yeah the course just doesn't really expect students to know what change of basis is
so they dont really draw the connection between the two
that's surprising, isn't change of basis taught before calc 3
in lin alg
it's one of the basic things
yeah ikr but here lin alg isnt a prereq for calc 3
the above is just a generalization where you have a basis at each point
calc 3 is in fact a prereq for lin alg
so for calc 3 they justl ike
teach the lin alg needed
welp
cross product, determinant, etc
strange program
I would expect the two to either be taught simultaneously, or lin alg to come before calc
Lin alg is a definite pre req for multivariate calc
lin alg is best studied along with analytic geometry, and calc along mechanics, but they don't do that much anymore
ik they used to do it decades ago
should be, agreed
if anything we know like
maybe elementary lin alg
like matrices and stuff
well change of basis is elementary lin alg
but that was never taught in its own "linear algebra" course, just taught alongside calculus 3
You need to know what a linear transformation is
is this high school?
yeah
lmfao true
I can suggest shifrin's book
it has lin alg + analytic geometry + calc, and also goes over differential forms shortly
it's fairly beginner friendly too
coolio
ive been recommended both shifrin and spivak and im not sure which one to choose
if not both
because i just want to use spivak to like, more rigorously understand what i've already learned
and tbh dont want to spend that much more time with calc 3, would like to get to diff geo
im reading H+K im used to heavy and dry 
H+K is not heavy and dry 😛
i see
i have yet to discover what heavy and dry is then
never read roman nor halmos
a1 a2 a3 form a basis for any 3-vector x, no?
you've proved that a1a2a3 are lin indep, i think now you just need to prove that they span
what do you mean by span?
just that they can be added and subtracted from eachother to form any other 3-vector?
yeah
right, in terms of proof would stating this fact usually be sufficient?
gottit, many thanks
yep
import numpy as np
import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
n = 4
x = np.linspace(0, np.pi,100000)
C_r = []
for i in range (1,n+1):
C__r = (1/i - 1/i*(-1)**i-(i/i**2+1)*(1-np.exp(-np.pi)*(-1)**i))/(np.pi/2)
C_r.append(C__r)
f_xs = 0
for i in range (len(C_r)):
f_x = C_r[i]*np.sin(i*x)
f_xs = f_xs+f_x
plt.plot(f_xs)
plt.plot(1-np.exp(-x))
plt.plot(f_xs, 'r', label='$f(a) = \lim_{x \to a} \frac{f(x) - f(a)}{x-a}$')
plt.plot(1-np.exp(-x), 'b', label='$f(x) = 1- e^{-x}$')
plt.title('Plot of two functions')
plt.xlabel('x')
plt.ylabel('y')
plt.grid()
plt.legend(loc='lower right')
plt.show()
how can I write
label='$f(a) = \lim_{x \to a} \frac{f(x) - f(a)}{x-a}$')
in jupyter
anyone knows?
probably better fit for #computing-software
What is the maximum possible pivots in a matrix?
If we say it's m×n
Like for a 2×3 matrix
I was told that it can have a maximum of 3 pivots
But I'm confused. Isn't pivots the first non zero entry in each row?
How can there be 3 in a 2×3 matrix
Yeah i thought that too!
But apparently it's wrong
peagsus u answering my q right?
Sorry I had to reference my book, the maximum possible pivots in a matrix is the number of rows.
Np
Sure tho?
lol not anymore. I am sure for specific examples like the ones you provided but I am not sure how to expand it to the general mxn matrix.
Reading that part of my book.
How come it's -2C1 + 0 = -2X1 (in step 3)
There's also the column reduction which I am not familiar with. So I stop talking and let someone more experienced answer.
Plz someone help me with this solution
How come?
Shouldn't it be min(row,col)
The rank cannot be higher than min(row,col)
who says it's wrong?
My prof. Maybe he misunderstood my question
maybe we have different definitions of pivots
I don't see how a 2x3 matrix can have 2 pivots if a pivot is defined as the first 1 in a row such that the column is 0 except for it
After all there are only 2 rows
👆
Thanks, a bit of doubt again Why do they take particularly -2?
To eliminate the variable c_1 so your only dealing with c_2.
Thank you so much @halcyon spindle
Suppose one has a vector space with its elements possessing entries (e.g. an n-tuple) from a field (say, $\mathbb{C}$) but the underlying field of the vector space is, say, $\mathbb{R}$. Is there a name for this? How could I look more into the theory surrounding what’s allowed in terms of the relationship between the two fields?
LosAngeles
are you asking about the name for the underlying field?
No, moreso the name (if any) for the potential occurrence that the underlying field and the field from which vector “entries” (if the vectors are defined to have them) come from different fields
No Like vectors are from one field and the field of vector space is different
Structures like those usually include the "vector" multiplication
Look into R algebras
is this a typo? it only makes sense with "for all v in V" not a specific "v in V" (it isn't listed in https://linear.axler.net/LADRErrataThird.html but I still think it's wrong)
the typical definition of the minimal polynomial would be p(T)v = 0 for all v
If im given a linear transformation with the condition L(b) = c and L(u)=z (small letters are vectors), how do I find the transformation matrix with just two vectors?
There are either infinitely many transformation matrices with that condition or zero or one depending on your dimension and b,u,c,z
the problem im working with doesn't give the dimension so I suppose it's in R3. If i work out the linear combination of (1,0,0) i get a row where 0 = 1, so there shouldn't be any solutions but i'm a bit unsure as videos I've watched always use 3 vectors
Wdym 0=1
i put the two vectors b and u = (1,0,0) and then row reduce until the last row becomes 0 0 | 1
my question is really if this is enough to confirm if there's no linear combinations of b and u that can create the first unit vector, which I would guess means there's no matrix A that can be created that satisfies the conditions i wrote earlier
No, it is right. For a random v you may not get all the eigenvalues as roots, but the roots you find will be eigenvalues.
This property was discussed recently in #math-discussion, with a proof posted: #math-discussion message
ah thanks I misread, I thought it said every eigenvalue of T would be a root of p
If you happen to choose the same vector to be both b and u, then of course you won't have a solution unless c = z too.
just to confirm, we need the assumption that p is minimal in order to know q(T)v is nonzero after factoring?
Hmm, clearly this assumption is needed, otherwise we could multiply p by x-42 and show that 42 is always an eigenvalue.
The linked proof uses the minimality when it argues that the purported eigenvector is nonzero.
I think its because after factoring to
$$
p(T) = (T - \lambda I)q(T)
$$
we know $q(T)v \ne 0$ as otherwise we could pull another factor or $(T - \lambda I)$ out contradicting the assumption that $p$ is minimal
uli
ah I must have missed that, I think I did the same thing in the end
I phrased the question and the details badly. I basically have two different vectors in R3 and try to find the linear combination of them to create unit vectors, to find the transformation matrix (if it's possible). Im pretty much following the steps of a video with the difference between the video and my problem being that I only have two vectors given and the result of T(x) (with x representing a vector, and T the transformation). I put the vectors in an augmented matrix equal to the first unit vector and then started row reducing. One of the rows became a zero row that equals to 1 (no solutions). Im unsure if this is correct or if three vectors is mandatory, because I couldn't find any examples with people using less than three vectors in R3. Video for reference: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_m7osVkJzzo
This video explains how to use the transformation of the standard basis vectors to find a transformation matrix in R3 given two vector transformations.
Yeah, you cannot expect that any of the standard unit vectors is a linear combination of just two random vectors.
However, after you've discovered that (1,0,0) is not a linear combination of your b and u, you know that (b,u,(1,0,0)) is a linearly independent set. Then you can arbitrarily decide that you want L(1,0,0) = (42,42,42) -- and then you've reduced the problem to one it sounds like you know how to solve!
(or perhaps L(1,0,0) = (0,0,0) if you want to be boring and avoid making the arithmetic unnecessarily complex)
I see, thank you!
A pivot column is a column in a matrix w/ a pivot in it, but can a pivot column contain multiple pivots?
no, read the definition of a pivot.
so in my book, it says $\text{null}(T-\lambda I)$, where $T$ is a linear transform. i’m not really sure what $T-\lambda I$ means, does anyone have any ideas?
quantum
the book is friedbergs linear algebra, and i’m only reading it for a specific chapter, so if this was mentioned earlier in the book, i wouldn’t know
looks like eigenvalue equation
it’s for eigenvalues yes
but idk what T-lambda I means
since T isn’t a matrix
it’s just a linear transform
i believe in this context they say T a linear transform but also represents the matrix that denotes the linear transform
that was my guess but i wasn’t sure
i’ll just assume that’s what it means, it’s not for some actual course so it doesn’t really matter
If T is a linear transformation, then I must just be the identity linear transformation.
you mean the matrix for the transform with respect to the standard basis?
No I specifically don't mean any matrix.
The map defined by I(x) = x.
$$
\begin{align}
T\mathbf u &= \lambda\mathbf u\
T\mathbf u &= (\lambda I) \mathbf u\
T\mathbf u - (\lambda I)\mathbf u &= \mathbf 0\
(T-\lambda I)\mathbf U &= \mathbf 0
\end{align}
$$
anamono
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
dammit whatever that's the point
It doesn't like \align inside double dollars for some reason.
It's bitten me several times too.
Anyway, linear transformations can be multiplied by scalars, and be added to each others; therefore they constitute a vector space just like matrices do. If T and I denote linear transformations, then expression T - lambda I denotes just a particular linear combination of them.
apologies if its a bit hard to read, i can send a zoomed in version if necessary
I know I should be proving the two properties (closure under multip/addition) but the number of terms is throwing me off a bit, can anyone tell me where to start?
What does the circle operator mean here?
From p82 of this book: https://mml-book.github.io
Companion webpage to the book “Mathematics for Machine Learning”. Copyright 2020 by Marc Peter Deisenroth, A. Aldo Faisal, and Cheng Soon Ong. Published by Cambridge University Press.
Composition
π•π(v) means π(π(v))
A linear mapping is called a projection if, after applying it once, the result doesn't change after another application
@boreal wadi
Thanks!
Any ideas?
a is direct
quick question. So im reading this, and it appears, if i want to go FROM v to u, i multiply by U^(-1) then by V.
Am i misunderstanding it? Why am i "undoing" U, then "applying" V, it seems backwards
that seems to me, like a matrix to allow me to tranform from U, to V. not the other way around
Wyatt The Baguette
hello
could someone advise me to figure out if that is true or false?
didn't you already ask this 8 days ago?
and did i not already answer?
except you followed up with a confusing question that i think was nonsensical from a logical standpoint
might have also been that you asked to explain why your statement is false, when as stated it's actually true: there is no matrix that generates (in the algebra sense) all of M_n(K)
@wintry steppe
do you still need an explanation one more time for why the statement is true?
if it would be easy yes please bcs like I get it like that why is true because that would be impossible like logically but like idk how to mathematically prove it
there are many ways to prove it
one way to do it, and the one i tried to take you through, goes roughly like this:
fix a matrix A, and let V be the set of all matrices expressible as polynomials of A.
(i) show that V is a vector space, and moreover a subspace of M_n×n(K).
(ii) show that the set {I, A, A^2, A^3, ...} spans V.
(iii) show that the set {I, A, A^2, ..., A^(n-1)} spans V. (you will need cayley-hamilton here)
(iv) show that dim(V) ≤ n.
(v) show that dim(M_n×n(K)) = n^2.
(vi) hence conclude V ≠ M_n×n(K).
(vii) hence conclude there exist matrices not expressible as polynomials of A.
if you're confused at any one of these steps just ask
but this is the overall outline
thank @dusky epoch I will give it a go thanks
There's no upper-case U and V in your image, so it looks like what you need help with is understanding a solution procedure that you're not showing.
However, I would guess you're seeing a procedure that asks you to compute U^{-1}V for matrices U and V made up of u1,u2 and v1,v2 as columns.
Remember that you're going to apply the final matrix by multiplying a column from the right so if X is in v-coordinates, then (U^{-1}V)X should be in u-coordinates. Now (U^{-1}V)X is the same as U^{-1}(VX) due to associativity, so this procedure starts by translating the v-coordinates to standard coordinates, which is VX. Then we multiply those standard coordinates by U^1 to get the u-coordinates.
quick question about QR factorization
can the rows of Q be orthonormal if it isnt an nxn matrix
in general, unrelated to QR, yes
as long as the number of rows is less than or equal to the number of columns
well, we have that orthonormal -> lin indep
but if the matrix is 4 x 3, it can at most have rank 3, so the rows cannot be lin indep
so not lin indep -> not orthonormal?
thats what im thinking
QR for non square mats is usually done with square orthogonal (unitary) Q and upper triangular rectangular R
hey i need some help with this question
$a_0 \neq 0$ so $A^{-1}$ exists. Now $\chi_{A}(x) = (-1)^n det(A-xI) = (-1)^n \det(A)det(I-xA^-1)$
try from here
hmm okk lemme see - it was diff to the route i was going along/thinking
okk ngl idk what im doing here
like this is what i did
but i just confused my self so muchhh
using what you've sed i got this far
it just ended up going in a circle?
factor out 1/x qs well
okk so (-1)^n (1/x)det(xAI-x^2)??
first thing that comes to mind is that chi_s will form some identity matrix
dunno how valid that is but that’s what comes to my mind
if that is the case, the identity matrix is linearly independent
and because all values of s in S, then it forms a basis for V because S is the domain of V
oh and also because the set of chi_s such that s in S spans V
can someone help me implement this into python
(1/r) - (-1**r/r) -(r/r**2+1)*(1-np.exp(-np.pi)*(-1)**r)/(1/2*np.pi)
where have I gone wrong
you need to use parentheses more carefully
what you wrote is this
$\frac{1}{r} - \frac{-1^r}{r} - \frac{(\frac{r}{r^2}-1) \cdot (1 - e^{-\pi} \cdot (-1)^r)}{\pi/2}$
Edd
For what values of k is the matrix linearly independent?
$\left|\begin{matrix}2&0&-k\0&-2&2+\frac{k}{2}\\end{matrix}\right|\begin{matrix}0\0\\end{matrix}$
ExtraterrestrialPigeon
Yea I figured it out, but the approximation is wrong 😦 I dont know where I went wrong sadly
I am trying to approximate 1-e^-x
where 0<= x <= pi
maybe you can check my work or is that too much to ask for?
@brazen sinew the above argument is poorly made & fails to address why the size of S matters. the forward direction is hard; i suggest showing its contrapositive, if S is infinite then chi_s arent a basis of V
but ur approximation depends on the exponential function? sorry i don't get the point
I am trying to approximate 1-e^-x
this is what i did
are my calculations wrong?
DarQ
all entries of v are less than their respective entries of w?
if so, since $\vec{v} \neq \vec{w}$ why specify $\vec{v} \leq \vec{w}$ instead of just $\vec{v} < \vec{w}$?
DarQ
Usually elementwise
They define it here
Lmao monotonicity theorem
it's to fit with the theorem, the theorem is a monotonicity-style theorem
It allows you to say, based on v, w relations, a relation between Av and Aw
It's a known result
If you are in a field
and you have a homomorphism defined by a:F->H for F,H fields
and F is subfield of H
Hey, can i ask you a quick question about wronskian and independence?
How can I show that e^x, e^x-1, and 1 are linearly independent
since the wronskian of these functions are 0
So I found this definition of linearly dependence
Two functions y 1 and y 2 are said to be linearly independent if neither function is a constant multiple of the other.
so is e^x and e^x-1 a constant multiple of each other?
i’m not really sure what g(T) would mean here, could someone help?
T is specifically a linear transform, not a matrix
g(T) will give a linear operator, essentially "inputting" it in the polynomial, scalar multiplication and addition are as normally defined for linear operators and T^n is the linear operator formed by the composition of T n times
so if g(x) was equal to, say, x^2+x, then g(T) = T^2+T, and g(T)(v) = (T^2+T)(v) = T^2(v)+T(v) = T(T(v))+T(v)?
yeah
ok thanks
would this be defined if the polynomial g had a constant term?
like +1 or something
just wondering
oh yeah then it's the identity operator
yeah
ok thanks that makes sense

