#linear-algebra
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by this definition it looks like its the orthogonal component. but like i dont even think we introduced the notation of the $proj_vu$
MattDog_222
like this i think
(maybe the other direction but i guess that doesn't matter since we care about its magnitude)
try #multivariable-calculus and wait 15 mins before pinging helpers
read #โhow-to-get-help and #rules
guys can someone explain the red part please?
it is using the definition of linear (in)dependence
a set of vectors $v_i$ is said to be linearly dependent if there exist coefficients $c_i$ that are not all zero such that $\sum_{i=1}^r c_i v_i = 0$
Edd
thanks @lavish jewel
then if this is the case, you can simply move any of the c_i v_i to the other side of the equation and arrive at equation (*)
they are also implicitly using something called "girth" to speak of a set of linearly independent vectors taken from the set of linearly dependent vectors, but it's not super important here as long as none of the v_i are 0 (and they aren't, since they are eigenvectors)
can i get a proof review. im going to bed but i'll see it in the morning. thanks 
is it false that I understand that the red part is coming from this definition?
like thats how I understand we came to (*)
that's correct
thank you again
yes I found a counter-example xD
Nice, the Pauli spin matrices
I was wondering how we actually go to the last step from the previous one
<x, y> is inner product btw
we don't, unless there's some more context behind this that we're missing right now.
Ah sorry for inconvenience, but I myself read the steps wrong. The last step is actually the right side of an inequality, stating that any real and Imaginary parts of a complex number, are less than or equal to their modulus respectively ๐
Ann
Yes ๐
is this [1st image] clear? referencing [2nd image]
What's the point of Gauss-Jordans method? It's basically an extension of Gaussian elimination. Isn't knowing Gaussian elimination enough? Is there a problem I can't solve with just Gaussian elimination?
is that you real question?
or there's something else you wanted to ask,
absolutely you can
So, I don't need to learn Gauss-Jordans method? (I'm gonna learn it anyways, I just want to know. It feels kinda redundant next to Gaussian elimination.)
question 2 is part of a homework assignment and I'm wondering if my proof in the forward direction is clear enough
looks ok
i feel like my underbraces are goofy, but I think it makes it clearer
i literally ripped the forward direction out of the textbook. So I assume the primary point of this exercise is to prove the converse?
wait now im debating whether those are even the same
well maybe I just need to copy paste that to the backwards direction
cause isn't the proof (==>) mean "If all the eigenvalues for T are real then T is self adjoint" but the backwards is (<==) "If T is self adjoint then all the eigenvalues for T are real"
as such the directions should be labeled as: ?
Ok I'm missing a few pieces here and I don't really know how to show something is self-adjoint
that looks ok to me
but in order to be self adjoint <Tv, w> must equal <v, Tw> for all vw
it looks like i only have it true for an eigenvector (which is certainly not every vector)
hmm yeah
oh that's nice
but we dont know if T* exists
It always does right assuming V is finite dimensional
yup
to be self adjoint
Indeed
but like idk how u can get the evs of S
what are the evs of T? how about T*?
Is that statement even true? I feel like you would need a diagonalizability requirement on T to be able to show this.
well we know the EVs of T are real
you should already know something about the EVs of T and T^T
T^T?
sec i think somethin like thats in the chapter
(saying transpose may be slightly misleading as T is a linear operator here right but)
in some books they also call it transpose for linear operators in general, but yeah, check what your book calls it
how about around the definition of the adjoint
those properties are what you need
Well use a) and other stuff
i had said transpose only due to notation mismatch
Idk if I should just give you the thing lol i'm surprised it's not been in the textbook
some books use transpose for everything, instead of adjoint for general lin ops and transpose for matrices
wait so T^T = T^*?
only over R
T^T conjugate = T^*
yes
so we're in L(V) so its a square matrix, to T* is square, but this seems to go back to the eigenvalue diagonal thing
and we dont know if its diagonal
like if we have DimV eigenvectors then its good
I already said this earlier and everyone ignored me but I'm sure you are missing something in your definition, you are not going to be able to get anywhere without an orthogonal basis of eigenvectors and partial screen clips of definitions are not helpful if you missed a critical assumption throughout an entire chapter
sorry i just assumed Axler would be right until yeah i realised that counter example etc
Axler didn't write this question
Oh
which is why I can't find any tips online
lol oof

idk where it came from; sometimes the teacher uses that one old book
yeah hexicle was right all along. the forward direction brings diag as a freebie
I still remember a long time ago taking an advanced differential equations course and being asked to prove something that was false. A week later of showing my work and still not solving the problem, the professor just said huh, I guess we could publish this. You can have full marks. Then left it at that.
lmao
the backward direction is wrong without further assumptions on T
thanks for the insight, hex
Is this the counterexample?
mhm
If I were a student I wouldn't be brave enough to submit that and I would clarify what the problem actually wants.
Oof im a good; he still has class rn so i've been waiting for 40 minutes xD
anyways i gotta try and speedrun these last ones after that mess regardless since idk if he'll let me get an extra hour or something since I literally wasted 60-90 minutes on trying to prove it
this seems trivial no?
I'm whiffing on how to interpret T^2(v). isn't it T(Tv)=0
yes
T^2 is the composition of T with itself
however you dont know that T has trivial kernel
so T(Tv)=0 per se does not imply Tv=0
however, consider: <Tv, Tv> = <v, TTv>
ok yeah thats by the selfadjoint property
but I'm confused when i see the inner product of T's and vs
where its coming from
wym
im just starting with the inner product of Tv with itself
aiming to show it's zero thus concluding Tv itself is zero
using posdef property of inner product
oh i see
and so we're just constructing a <Tv, Tv> for that purpose
like its not necessary anything to do with TTv
but constructed specifically based on the inside
I (believe I) got it thanks
well thats kinda bogus; "it was left as a challenge" to determine if its true or false from some old book that states in its preface that its either true or false but not said which. That should have been told to us when Axler's book (where most of the problems are from) say "prove or give a counterexample that..." which we've had in the past
either way I have 1 hour to try and finish 6 (finished),7,8 and
not sure what to attempt to maximize points
uhh. If ST is self adjoint then does (ST)*=ST
i know T self adjoint means T=T* but idk about compositional adjoint
should work ok, you can check it by doing a substitution and testing the definition
like i got
seems ok
aight i got 15 min to get as far as I can into this nightmare
what is P?
i guess they meant P \in L(V)
I don't really get the idea of column space. I was told that it is a type of span but how is it different from just a normal span?

Column space is the same as the range of a linear map
a span is the range of a linear map as well right?
Well, the columns of the matrix span the range of the linear map
It's because the columns determine where the basis vectors of the domain go
So they determine where every vector in the domain go
All span is is a set of vectors and all linear combinations of those vectors
So the range of a linear map is just all linear combos of the columns of the matrix representation of a linear map
It's just a normal span where you have taken the vectors to be the columns of the matrix.
Heylo everyone. Is anyone familiar with geometric algebra?
Geometric algebra or algebraic geometry
Frank means geometric algebra; covectors etc.
I'm somewhat familiar with geometric algebra
@coarse ember . I don't know any algebraic geometry though
Lol ok. Yeah, so I had a question about a thing in the book from David Hestenes
My question is now about the modulus of a multivector. He says that it (|A|^2 = Areverse A) is always positive. However, he says previously that Ar_reverse is always equal to -Ar as long as Ar is not of zero grade or of 1 grade. How is this possible? Assuming that Ar is composed of orthogonal vectors, Areverse A = -AA, not A^2 as he implies
I'm saying that A reverse times (geo product) A should be negative, not positive (fyi the cross product should be zero). He even says that the sign is reversed at the top of the page.
@odd kite, Yeah, I don't know anything about algebraic geometry either, hah
,rotate
Frank, your notation is very hard to understand. What is Ar? Is it the multiplication of A by r? Is it A sub r? Is it the r-graded piece of A? Is A a multivector? Is it a blade? Is r a vector? Is it a multivector?
And to answer your question:
xyzzyx = Q(z) xyyx = Q(z)Q(y) xx = Q(z)Q(y)Q(x) >= 0 where Q is the positive definite quadratic form defining the geometric algebra
So therefore (xyz)(xyz) < 0. Hence If A = xyz, then AA < 0, and reverse(A)*A > 0
i actually feel prepared for my linalg exam monday ๐
person id normally tell is struggling so i had to get it out somewhere else
very excited, taken a lot of studying
Congrats ๐
can someone help me
URgent need it
anyone???
\
i did halg ig
like i got three sets of xyz
and i have to do system of equations now ig but when i do that it gives 0 everywhere
Paulโs might help https://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/CalcIII/EqnsOfPlanes.aspx
In this section we will derive the vector and scalar equation of a plane. We also show how to write the equation of a plane from three points that lie in the plane.
ive seen it
just honestly can i get the answer
like i try to solve it already for 2 hours
thnx still
hi
maybe someone in here can help me with this - I posted it on MSE the other day and haven't gotten a response: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4411465/is-this-geometry-formula-true
TheZachMan
why 3 lines instead of 2?
presumably to emphasize that this is supposed to be the constant function 1
rather than an equation stating that the value of f at some particular point is 1
If we let C = (0, 0), then Dist is a linear map such that Dist(cโP + cโQ) = cโDist(P) + cโDist(Q). I'm wondering what is the map that sends Q to Q', let me think about this further
As for n = 2, the proof is quite simple. Let a point P move away from C as denoted by the cyan line. Then the vanishing point of P on H is denoted by V, obtained by drawing a parallel line through C
This gives a hint on why it suffices to consider the case of a point moving away from H in a perpendicular manner, in which your relation follows readily. I wonder if this generalises to higher dimensions though
Determine the projection of ๐ (๐ฅ) โก 1 along sin (๐ฅ), sin (3๐ฅ) and find from there a function of the form 1 + ๐1 sin (๐ฅ) + ๐3 sin (3๐ฅ), which is perpendicular to both sin (๐ฅ) and sin (3๐ฅ). Explain why this combination is perpendicular to all functions in (8.1) for ๐ = 5.
can someone help me with
"Explain why this combination is perpendicular to all functions in (8.1) for ๐ = 5. "
I have found c
what is k
In fact, what are all functions in (8.1)
Hey guys, just a question. Ive been taught that to diagonalise a matrix you work out the eigenvectors, put them into a matrix P then use P^-1AP. Ive been given a question that asks me to diagonalise a 3x3 matrix but that has a repeat eigenvalue. How can I get the 3 eigenvectors I need to diagonalise the matrix? I understand that is possible to do, and having all 3 eigenvalues just ensures that it works in all cases, but the method I was taught doesnt seem to cover it
If it is diagonalisable, then you should be able to get all 3 eigenvectors by solving (A - ฮปI)v = 0. The solution space would have dimension 2 or 3, but it suffices to get any set of basis vectors for this solution space
If it is not diagonalisable and you want to find the Jordan normal form, then the generalised eigenvector u is such that (A - ฮปI)u = v, where v is either an eigenvector or another generalised eigenvector
I don't think we've covered Jordan normal form, so would it make more sense if the question was wrong? Using an online calculator I get that there are only 2 eigenvalues/eigenvectors
started learning determinants
why do we care about transforming unit square into parallelogram?
matrix B seems to have 3 distinct eigenvectors
even though it has a repeated eigenvalue of 2
you should find that B - 2I has rank 1, so you can follow hagunyan's suggestion
and then play with the free parameters
There are way too many possible answers to this.
E.g. in computer graphics you may want to apply a shearing transformation to some object.
geometrically the determinant gives you the signed volume of the parallelotope formed by the columns/rows of the matrix
The properties of the cross product and the scalar triple product give links between determinants and area or volume.
- To compare the area/volume formed under the span of the (unit) vectors after the applied transformation. As criver correctly said, we do apply at times shearing transformations in Computer graphics.
- Determinant basically gives you a number that shows by what factor the area/volume has increased/decreased after applying the transformation.
- This gives rise to transformations that gives the dimensions of the output space less than the input space, that give rise to ranks, null spaces/kernels and other interesting terminologies (especially cross products)
@lavish jewel Okay thanks I think I understand, so basically if I have a nxn matrix it's eigen basis must contain n values even if it has less eigenvalues than n? And to get these extra basis ones you play around with the parameters instead of just setting it to 1?
that's mostly correct, except that sometimes you cannot find linearly independent eigenvectors
in those cases, the matrix is said to be "defective" or "not diagonalizable"
that's not the case in your problem though
So would the only way of finding a linearly independent eigenvector when changing the parameters to be to set it equal to 0?
so det will show up in near future topics?
for now, is understanding its geometric meaning enough
what do you mean?
Like is setting the parameter to 0 how you'd get another eigenvector in most cases
Because the base thing to do is set it to 1
Yes
you can check some examples and discussion here. that may work in many cases, but not all
Okay thanks a lot
yes to both questions?
Yes
Learn how to calculate determinant for n by n matrices too I guess. It helps
depends on the multiplicity of the eigenvalues
i guess yes, since for a 3x3 mat with only 2 distinct eigvals, this means one of them has multiplicity 2
Ah okay that makes sense
iโm not yet sure why it exists
like maybe i can invent sum(A) defined to be the sum of entries
i donโt think this is a very useful concept, but i have the same feeling for determinants
โchange of area of unit square/cubeโ is a bit strange to think of
you can frame the solutions of linear systems of equations using determinants, see Cramer's rule
you can measure volumes
you can answer whether a matrix is invertible by checking that det != 0
etc
In mathematics, the determinant is a scalar value that is a function of the entries of a square matrix. It allows characterizing some properties of the matrix and the linear map represented by the matrix. In particular, the determinant is nonzero if and only if the matrix is invertible and the linear map represented by the matrix is an isomorphi...
in what contexts would we be interested in the determinant other than its zero-ness, then?
Idempotent matrices have determinant 1 or -1? I gotta check this though. But idempotent matrices are used in the study of linear regressions, a lot
when you do a change of coordinates, the determinant of the jacobian tells you how much larger or smaller things are in the new coordinates
so it gives you the proper scaling factor when representing things, say, in cylindrical coordinates or spherical as opposed to cartesian
Right, I forgot about that
what Edd mentioned and also see the wiki link
when you want to integrate on m-dimensional manifolds
then you have a square root of the determinant of a Grammian that pops out of the differential form if you want to do any computations
I can give you an example from light transport (the rendering equation) where you have to numerically evaluate integrals defined over hemispheres. There you have to do a change of variables because your integral is defined over the hemisphere but your numerical integration points are defined in [0,1]^2. Then you construct a mapping from [0,1]^2 to the hemisphere and do the change of variables which results in a Jacobian term.
so multivar calc, in a nutshell
that's one example, yes
determinants also show up in geometric algebra
also in analytic geometry
physics etc
they are basically everywhere
it's a concept that is just that fundamental
it's like asking what is addition useful for
a lot of things
example?
computing volumes
solving line-plane intersections
solving line-tri intersections
as I said, it's way too fundamental
figuring out whether a set of vectors are linearly dependent (e.g. if they lie in the same plane)
figuring out whether a triangle (or simplex) is degenerate
figuring out whether a rigid transformation is invertible
figuring out whether a transformation preserves area
it's useful being able to measure stuff
e.g. even if you just want to make maps
Okay so is this answer satisfactory
If i understood correctly they refer to functions a: N->R in which the image of the function has a finite amount of elements right?
Yea
I'm not really sure I understand how your proof works?
Can you point out precisely where the relationship follows readily from? I haven't really seen the harmonic mean come up in geometry (or elsewhere) before
review properties of determinants
list out what properties you know of and I'll help point you in the right direction
By this diagram, what does it mean that the projected v is parallel to non trivial subspace S in R^3?
Why is the sentence here true? https://a.uguu.se/eTStRWZ.png I.e., why does "$\forall v_i \in F, \sum_{i=1}^k \alpha_i v_i = 0$" imply "$\alpha_1 = ... = \alpha_k = 0$"?
joesmith1042
Because it's for all
But what mathematical fact justifies it?
As a special case take e1,...,ek
for all includes vectors like [1,0,0,...]
This gives you a system of k equations
I see why it would be true in the standard basis case.
I * alpha = 0 -> alpha = 0
Oh, I see. That example sort of proves it.
Interesting.
It's like a proof of the general through a specific case.
all vectors includes the standard basis. if it has to be true for the standard basis, and this is the only way to do it
yep
Cool, thank you both! ๐
(1) a + d = 1
(2) b + c + e + f = 0
(3) b + h = 1
(4) a + c + g + i = 0
(5) c + f + i = 1
(6) a + b + d + e + g + h = 0
9 unknowns, 6 equations. let a = 2, b = 3, c = 1.
from (1) and (3) we immediately have d = -1, h = -2.
b + c + e + f = 0 becomes e + f = -4
a + c + g + i = 0 becomes g + i = -3
c + f + i = 0 becomes f + i = 0
(6) becomes e + g = -2
but that system has no solutions.
could someone explain whats wrong?
Maybe some of the equations sre linearly dependent
Write it in matrix form and bring it to reduced echelon form
thank you. i did but am not sure what to conclude. rank = 6, does that help?
rank = 6 means equations (= rows) are linearly independent, right?
Guys anyone who can give me some information how does GE works in this kind of matrix, I really have no idea at all
<@&286206848099549185>
write down the matrix that you got
@young turtle Gaussian elimination solves linear systems. Inverting a matrix is $n$ linear systems. Do them simultaneously
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
it should have 1s on the diagonal until some point
So it should be as easy as just substituting
well i know that it should have 1s on diagonal untill some point but how to solve it in general should I get lets say 4x4 matrix and just do it on it?
that was meant for mate*
yeah the diagonal is 1 1 1 1 1 0 (last row is 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 : 1)
yours requires subtracting n-1st row from n-th, n-2nd from n-1st, etc until 1st from 2nd
Use latex notation please
or pic of the ref
You know how an augmented system matrix looks like? Well you have to augment the above with the identity, since you are trying to solve for AB = I.
^ this is for gg07
sorry how to get an augmented matrix in latex?
What the size of the identity matrix will be
sorry but can someone explain what a range space and null space of a linear map is? im reading the definition of them, but still dont get the concept
@queen pagoda If $V, W$ are vector spaces and $A : V \to W$ is linear, then $$\text{range}(A) = {Av : v \in V} \subseteq W$$ and $$\text{nullspace}(A) = {v \in V : Av = 0} \subseteq V.$$
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
Both R(A) and N(A) are linear subspaces.
so the range space is set of possible outcomes? of a linear map A?
kinda confused rn, i gotta find the range space and null space for (2x -y, 3z + w, x + z - 2w)
thats the linear map btw
you probably mean A(x, y, z, w) = (2x -y, 3z + w, x + z - 2w).
Put A in matrix form and use the standard techniques for finding bases of the null space and range of a matrix.
for null space, should i set all of 2x -y, 3z + w, x + z - 2w equal to 0 and solve for x, y, z, w? like solving Ax = 0
yes
may i ask about the range of matrix? kinda confused what techniques i should use for that one
Just use a normal one with last column being the rhs, or write it out on paper and then take a picture
The size of your current matrix
@queen pagoda It depends on what you mean by "find" the range
the span of the column vectors
A matrix A in R^{m x n} maps a vector from R^n to R^m
Notably if a1,...,an in R^m are the columns of A taken as vectors, then A * x = x1 * a1 + ... + xn * an
That is you get a linear combination of the columns
Geometrically such a linear combination can map to a line, a 2d plane, a 3d hyperplane, etc
it is some subspace of R^m
this subspace is the range
At the same time you have a set of vectors from R^n that always get mapped to 0 in R^m this is the kernel or nullspace
For a geometric interpretation imagine taking A to be a projection onto some plane passing through the origin, then a whole line projects onto 0
And that line would be the set of vectors in the kernel
The plane (as a set of vectors) is the range in the above example
A system of linear equations of the form Ax = 0, can in fact be interpreted as r1 dot x = 0, ..., rm dot x = 0, where ri in R^n are the rows of A, so it's a question of what is the set of vectors that are orthogonal to all rows.
this should also be clear from the geometric interpretation if u dot v = |u| |v| cos(u,v) which is 0 when u,v are orthogonal/perpendicular
$\begin{pmatrix}1 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & -1 & 0 & -1 & -1 & -1 \ 0 & 1 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 & 1 \ 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 & 0 & 1 & 1 \ 0 & 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 & 1 & 0 & 1 & 1 & 2 \ 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 & 0 & -1 & -1 & -2 \ 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 1 & 1 & 1 & 0 \end{pmatrix}$
mate
@gleaming knot, what would you recommend me to do in order to clear up my notation? I meant to say multivector A with grade r for Ar
Furthermore, what do you mean by Q(a)?
Ypu have 5 linearly independent equations
Notice how thelast row doesn't have a 1
Or waut do you
Nah I think it's alright
hm, i see six independent columns
It's fine yeah
i mean you have it in ref form
You just have to set 3 variables
f,h,i
set them to something
Then solve the remaining eq
Or you can even express it symbolically
Let's do that
g+h+i = 0 -> g = -h-i, e-h-i = -2 -> e = -2 +h+i, d +f +h+i = 2 -> d = 2-f-h-i etc
do the same for a,b,c
You get the idea?
yeah thank you very much. :) do you know how to tell (without much effort) which variables are "independent"? i mean, for example, g h and i are not independent because their sum must be 0. so if we set values for g and h, third variable has to be -g-h
The ones that are not in a column with only a single 1 and everything else being 0
i.e. ones not corresponding to a pivot column
That's the whole point of reducing to echelon form
To find out which variables you can treat as "free"
To be sure, I think this depends on how you proceed during the ref
i.e. you could have gotten othersif you picked other pivots afaik
so if we have three free variables, reduced matrix will have three independent columns with only a single 1 and everything else 0? did i understand correctly?
thank you very much, i really appreciate your help!
No
The opposite
Here you have 6 columns with only a 1 and everything else 0
Such that they also do not overlap in terms of rows
The remaining 3 columns correspond to the free variables
In your case f,h,i
You should basically be able to extract some piece of the identity matrix
see Hoffman and Kunze's first few pages
lol sorry i am tired
Basically variables corresponding to non-pivot columns are free. I think it was called pivots in English, but I am not sure.
You could use LaTeX and write notation parallel with the book, then it'll be more clear
I mean by Q(a) the quadratic form which defines the geometric algebra (i.e. Clifford algebra). I think your geometric algebra book could maybe be taking Q(v) to be |v|^2 throughout
So you can think |v|^2 instead of Q(v)
Although, "multivector with grade r" doesn't seem to have an easy notation that's widely used
You're better off writing that in words
It's not like manifolds where people understand M^n to be a manifold with dimension n rather than M to the power of n
is "being a free variable" equivalent (if and only if) to "corresponding to non pivot columns"? maybe a weird question,but want to be sure
Okay, I see. So your saying you can pull out Q(a) because the geometric product is associative?
So you can perform xx first for example?
sure, but I believe what you end up as pivot columns at the end can also depend on choices you make during ref
yep
Got it, got it. Thank you. And yeah, I'll try out Latex and see how it goes
great, thank you very much. :)
for a subset to be a subspace it is enough that you show that it is closed under vector addition and scalar-vector multiplication and contaims 0
erm this was mostly solved in my help channel
where did i mess up?
i tried the conterminal angle and its still wrong
i figured it out I neglected what quadrant the vector would end in
Let W be the intersection between the blue line and H. Then by similar
triangles, VP'/P'W = VC/WP and VP'/VW = VW/(VC+WP). In other words, VP' has an inverse relation with (VC + WP)
Actually now that I think of it, I haven't checked if it aligns with the result you have
Why the 1 by n matrix (projection matrix) consisting of n transformed orthogonal basis vectors after the transformation, for a transformation from a n-dimensional vector space to 1d vector space, makes other vectors in the n dimensions transform too when we do matrix vector Multiplication with the projection matrix?
Is it due to the notion of span
Hi I am trying to plot this in python
import numpy as np
import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
n = 10000
x = np.linspace(0, np.pi, 10000)
C_r = []
for i in range (1,n+1):
C__r = (1/i - 1/i*(-1)**i-(i/i**2+1)*(1-np.exp(-np.pi)*(-1)**i))/(1/2)*np.pi
C_r.append(C__r)
fx = []
f_xs = 0
for i in range (1,n):
f_x = C_r[i]*np.sin(i*x[i])
f_xs = f_xs+f_x
fx.append(f_xs)
plt.plot(fx)
plt.plot(1-np.exp(-x))
what am I doing wrong?
it should be approximating 1-e^-x
Can someone help me with this:
Determine the projection of ๐ (๐ฅ) โก 1 along sin (๐ฅ), sin (3๐ฅ) and find from there a function of the form 1 + ๐1 sin (๐ฅ) + ๐3 sin (3๐ฅ), which is perpendicular to both sin (๐ฅ) and sin (3๐ฅ). Explain why this combination is perpendicular to all functions in (8.1) for ๐ = 5.
I have tried
are you sure you did your integrals correctly?
(b) Explain that the function ๐ (๐ฅ) โก 1 is not perpendicular to sin (๐ฅ) or sin (3๐ฅ), but is perpendicular to sin (2๐ฅ) and sin (4๐ฅ).
this is the answer to b
so my thinking is I already found c1 c2 c3 etc
idk how any of these things are related to each other
well ๐ (๐ฅ) โก 1 is the same
and sin(x) is the same
right?
should be the same no?
same as what
as Determine the projection of ๐ (๐ฅ) โก 1 along sin (๐ฅ), sin (3๐ฅ) and find from there a function of the form 1 + ๐1 sin (๐ฅ) + ๐3 sin (3๐ฅ), which is perpendicular to both sin (๐ฅ) and sin (3๐ฅ). Explain why this combination is perpendicular to all functions in (8.1) for ๐ = 5.
I found the scalar c that makes the projection
(I think)
and find from there a function of the form 1 + ๐1 sin (๐ฅ) + ๐3 sin (3๐ฅ), which is perpendicular to both sin (๐ฅ) and sin (3๐ฅ). I dont know how to do this part
what i would note is that it's easy to show that sin(mx) is perpendicular to sin(nx) when m is not equal to n, and both m and n are integers
and that to check that 1 + c1 sin(x) + c3 sin(3x) is perpendicular to sin(x), this splits up into the projection of 1 onto sin(x), the projection of sin(3x) onto sin(x) (which is 0), and another term related to the norm of sin(x)
and how do I do that projection
you should have some sort of inner product defined here, that integral you're using
this ?
yep
can you give me an example i feel completely lost in this question
to show two vectors f and g are orthogonal, <f,g> has to be 0
so you'll be needing <1, sin(nx)> and <sin(mx), sin(nx)>
would this be correct?
doesn't seem like your coefficients are correct
since your integral yields 4 instead of 0
they should be negative
-4/pi and -4/(3pi)
you should be able to see this by looking at the result of <1, sin(nx)> and <sin(mx), sin(nx)> (you need the case where m=n and also m =/= n)
Does anyone know how to solve this? I have never learnt any form of matrix decomposition.
like this?
yes,but do you understand why?
I understand the dot product of the two signals but what confuses me here is the +1
that's just another "signal"
yea but where does +1 appear
it is not in the coefficients when you compute the scalar c1
show the original question
ah i guess it's this one. you're failing to analyze the problem carefully
first, you found 2 projections
then, completely separately, they ask you to find a function of the form 1 + c1 sin(x) + c3 sin(3x) that is orthogonal to both sin(x) and sin(3x)
and the key is that you can make the observation that sin(x) and sin(3x) are already mutually orthogonal
so you will be left with 2 separate problems
<1 + c1 sin(x), sin(x)> = 0, where you solve for c1
and a similar problem for c3
it IS there when you compute the scalars c1 and c3
you mistook the result of computing <1, sin(x)> with that being equal to c1
this is nowhere stated to be the case
okay so the +1 is just given in the problem
" and find from there a function of the form 1 + ๐1 sin (๐ฅ) + ๐3 sin (3๐ฅ), which is perpendicular to both sin (๐ฅ) and sin (3๐ฅ)."
that's the + 1
you're failing to analyze the problem carefully
if this never happened the server would lose like 60% of its traffic

For any n โฅ 2 there is no matrix A โ Mnรn(K) such that for any matrix B โ Mnรn(K) there exists a polynomial f โ K[x] such that f(A) = B. Could someone explain why this is false?
cayley hamilton
consider $M_{n\times n}(K)$ as a $K$ vector space; clearly this has dimension $n^2$. we are to prove that there exists no matrix $A$ s.t. $\mathrm{span}(I, A, A^2, \dots) = M_{n\times n}(K)$
Ann
but by cayley hamilton you get that $\chi_A(A)=0$, so the dimension of that span is at most $n$
Ann
@lapis cosmos can you elaborate
#help-19 message
I dont understand how it is possible - what is the problem with what I said?
Can you show me for n = 2, T is the identity transformation? What bases do we pick
Thanks @dusky epoch a lot. But I am not certain/do not get it why this is false. Like for which polynomial and matrix for example the statement would be True?
wym
Like why is it actually false, like I do not get how span is used here as well
because that's what it is
Im watching a series from 3blue1brown and this part is messing with my brain
he first rotates i hat j hat, then he shears
shouldnt that be i hat transforming then? why is j hat transforming in the shear matrix
?
Multiplying two matrices represents applying one transformation after another.
Help fund future projects: https://www.patreon.com/3blue1brown
An equally valuable form of support is to simply share some of the videos.
Home page: https://www.3blue1brown.com/
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Future series like this are funded by the community, th...
rotate 90 degrees. then shear
timestamped at 2:52
i dont get what the Q is
uhuh
then shear
yh then whats the issue
As far your screenshot goes, we can't really say anything other than $\begin{bmatrix}1&1\0&1\end{bmatrix}$ happens to be the matrix of a shear transformation. How that matrix ended up in the expression in the first place we can't say.
Troposphere
i dont see how he got the shear matrix
which one
in the animation he shears i hat
1 1
0 1```
are u asking about this matrix
which has nothing to do with the full expression
yeah im asking about that one
woulda been clearer if u just asked about this
cause after rotating and sheer, i get i hat = 1 1, j hat -1 0
sec ill draw it out on paper
i think uve mixed up what this shear on its own does
1,0 goes to 1,1
this might not look what you expect on paper
It looks like he simply picked that matrix out of a hat when he wanted a shear to use in his example.
The transformation first seems to show up at around 2:15 in the video. (Animated badly, though; some of the intermediate frames don't show a shear).
but is j hat not -1 0?
and the shear is applied to i hat which is 0 1
im totally doing something wrong
hah?
What im trying to understand is how shear got to be 1 0 1 1
after rotation j is -1, 0
but that shear matrix does not do what it normally does to j on the transformed old j
The shear matrix acts on the new j
It didn't get to be that way -- it was picked out of thin air already having that matrix.
That is, whatever becomes the new j after rotation
the shear matrix will now map that to 1, 1
It so happens i rotates to j
so the shear matrix will then map that to 1, 1
1,0 -> 0,1 -> 1,1
is that i transforming?
Let R be the rotation matrix
Let S be the shear matrix
We wanna know about SRv
by seeing what SR does to the basis vectors
ok?
Yes
now the columns of S
they are where the new standard basis after applying R
go to
I shall use ' to denote inverse
R' means R inverse
notice that:
SR(R'x) = Sx
So SR acts on R'x the same way S acts on x
So if S sends a vector x to somewhere
we know SR sends R'x to that same somewhere
Likely relevant: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Active_and_passive_transformation
S sends
i to 0,1
j to 1,1
Note that the basis vectors transform in the opposite way that contravariant vectors do
SR(R'x) = Sx
Using this fact I can deduce this
I also know R'j = i
so SRi = 1,1
what the hell
sry on phone
I could follow that ok fine but am I interpreting it wrong that you shear the basis vectors from initial and not after rotation?
sorry my english broke for some reason
the shear does not act on the rotation image of the basis vectors
if that makes sense
The shear acts on the new space post rotation
thats where R' comes in
cus u wanna know about R'i and R'j
to figure out what SR does
the basis vectors transform in the opposite way
You can't treat i,j as you treat contravariant vectors
knowing about permutations in group theory helps get your head around this. Conjugations in particular
read the active vs passive transformation page
you don't need groups for that dw
Just look at the picture in the wiki page I linked
rotating a vector by t degrees has the same effect as rotating the basis by -t degrees
You can also derive it directly from the definition of a change of basis matrix
Similarly if you make something twice larger it is the same as making your measuring stick twice smaller
the point is that covectors (your tool for measurement) transform in the opposite way of contravariant vectors (what you measure)
$\vec{g}1 = \sum{j=1}^n a_{j1} \vec{f}j, , \ldots, ,\vec{g}n = \sum{j=1}^n a{jn} \vec{f}j \implies \
\vec{b} = \vec{v}G, , \vec{v} = \sum{j=1}^n b_j \vec{g}j \implies \
\vec{v} = \sum{j=1}^n b_j \vec{g}j = \sum{j=1}^n b_j \left(\sum{k=1}^n a_{kj} \vec{f}_k\right) \implies \
\vec{v}_F = A \vec{v}_G$
criver
Note how A is used to get g1,...,gn from f1,..,fn but it takes a vector's coordinates expressed in g1,...,gn and transforms them to the ones expressed in f1,...,fn
That is what is meant by those transforming in an opposite manner
Maybe it's even more obvious if you consider v_G = A^{-1} v_F instead
While you have G = F * A
If my affine hyperplane is defined using some normal vector $a \neq 0$ and scalar $\alpha = 0$, does it mean that the hyperplane passes through the origin?
chedug
Where G's columns are made from gi and F's columns are made from fi
Yes
Appreciate the effort but im having very hard reading that
not your fault. im just not that advanced in math
I suggest looking at the passive vs active transformation link, they have images
I think yes, because $y^Tx = 0$ is true for $x = \textbf{0}$
Consider $\vec{n} \cdot (\vec{p}-\vec{o}) = \vec{n} \cdot \vec{p} - \vec{n}\cdot \vec{o} = \vec{n} \cdot \vec{p} - \alpha = 0$
thus alpha is the projection of any point on the plane on the normal
This length is non-zero only if the plane doesn't pass through the origin
You should understand n dot (p-o) = 0 as all vectors (p-o) perpendicular to n
If o is a fixed point on the plane then this fully defines the offset
I gave this article a read, and I have a small question. If a vector is passive after the transformation (example: i-hat in shear) then that transformation corresponding to the vector i-hat is a passive transformation right? And the vector is an eigenvector with eigenvalue as 1
The only difference is how you interpret things
Say you have a vector v
Ypu can represent it with respect two different coordinate systems
v_F and v_G
However it is the same vector
And its length and angle to other vectors is preserved, i.e,
<u,v> = (u_G)^T (G^TG) v_G = (u_F)^T (F^TF) v_F
the transformation between v_F and v_G is passive
It is the same vector, just represented in different coordinate systems
I could however modify a vector directly
e.g. v' = T(v)
For example v'_F = A_F v_F or v'_G = A_G v_G
Oh I see
now if v' is interpreted as a different vectir than v, and not just a different representation, then this is active
Then the measured angles and length will also change
Computationally the two are achieved in the same manner, so it's rather a conceptual difference
A difference would show up when computing dot products though depending on the interpretation
Oooh
active: <u,v'> = (u_F)^T (F^TF) (v'_F) = (u_F)^T (F^TF) (A_F v_F)
passive: <u,v''> = (u_F)^T (F^TF) (v'_{AF}) = (u_F)^T (F^TF) (A^{-1} v'_F) = (u_F)^T (F^TF) v_F
Note how in the latter the angle and length actually doesn't change vecause the interpretation is that we just changed coordinate system
So we have to return to F which cancels out A
Yes
That is the case where we interpret v_AF = A v_F as just a change of basis
But in the former case where the interpretation is that we actually get a different vevtor,then the angle and length changes (as you would expect)
v'_F = A_F v_F
You can see the passive one as just coming up with different labels/point of views to refer to the same thing, while the active one actually changes the object you're referring to
informally I would refer to the active one as a transformation, while to the passive one as a change of basis
I am saying informally because transformation often includes also change of basis
Yes ๐
Itโs just any matrix A with m row n columns , there exists invertible matrices P and Q such that PAQ=D where D=
(I_r,r 0
0 0)
Right? Where r is rank of A
0 isnโt necessarily required to appear
im confused - can u give me explicit example for the identity map in R^2
and maybe i would
We need
AIB = (1 0 \\ 0 0) right?
No just identity matrix of order 2
That fits the description , the number of 0 in the lower right corner could be 0
Do you understand what saying i j and k are the basis for the nullspace/kernel is?
That means every vector (the span of i,j,k) maps to 0; aka the 0 transformation
For a vector space U with dimension m, and given a vector u in U, if we are given numbers u_1, ..., u_m, is it always possible to find a basis for U such that u has those numbers as its coeffients in that basis?
when u row reduce this u do get the identity; but what does that mean?
what does this say about x,y,z?
x = __
y = __
z = __
Yes! For any given basis of U, a vector u in U can always be written as linear combination of the vectors of that basis, no matter what are the coefficients
@mystic dagger Well, my question is slightly different. I'm saying if we have a vector, but we don't start with a basis, we just start with numbers, does there exist a basis such that that vector has those numbers as its coefficients?
So I don't really understand what that's implying. From what i've seen online it means the kernel is trivial? But I try to google that and it only pulls up proofs about trivial kernels and homomorphism
yes it means 0 is the only vector in the nullspace
so its a fullrank transformation
"this" is ur nullspace
Okay so then the basis for Ker(A)={0}?
It just means that the only point that gets mapped to 0 is 0
Just think a vector and a line passing through it (called its span) on a graph. When you apply a certain transformation, it will 'squish' to 0 (the null space or the kernel). Usually in transformations the zero vector gets transformed to 0 again which is the trivial kernel
its technically Ker(A) = {span(0)} = {0}
just so that if its non-trivial you know its the span of the solutions
Yes
I think you can have a rectangular matrix with a 0 kernel
you mean if $u \inU$is a known vector and you have the list of numbers $u_1, ..., u_m$ and you want to find a basis for the vector spacer U
well, you can write u as $u=u_1v_1+u_2v_2+...+u_mv_m$, the vector u and the coefficientes are known, and the $v_1, v_2, ..., v_m$ would be your basis
Then you don't have the usual inverse
@mystic dagger Yes, but how can you prove that such a basis exists?
leonardomoura
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
wdym just numbers
there always exist at least one basis for a vector space
that's kinda the definition of basis
a set of linearly independent vectors that spans a vector space
If you define coefficients it's wrt some basis
@spare widget what is wdym?
what fo you mean = wdym
If ypu just give me a list of numbers without cobtext then those mesn nothing
If you give me a list of numbers and say that those are the components of some vector v wrt some basis f1,...,fn that's fine
Yes and from those bases we form linear combinations that define other vectors in the space
What I'm saying is, like if you took a piece of paper ($R^2$) and wrote down two dots. One is the origin and one is a vector, $u$. Then say I want to assign that vector $u$ two specific numbers, $u_1$ and $u_2$. How can I prove that there exists a basis such that the resulting coordinates for $u$ are indeed $u_1 $and $u_2$?
joesmith1042
That's right, I haven't! That's the point of my question.
I still don't get your question
What is unclear in the "What I'm saying is..." message?
If you give a list of number with no reference to a basis there's no context
@spare widget That's right
For all that I care those numbers may be coefficients for the monomial basis
Or it could be components for the canonical basis in R^n
Or it could be components of some frame in some other vector space
A list of numbers is not the same as a vector
If you write a list of numbers with no context most would assume a vector in R^n wrt the canonical basis
I believe you can define a basis if you can define a spanning set that's linearly independent? And then prove that u1 and u2 are it's coordinates are a scalar times the basis vectors? Where their linear combination equals your vector u?
They can use a frame if they want
The point is that a list of numbers with no context is just thst, a list of numbers, not necessarily a representation of a vector
I think I figured out my answer.
Yeah because we didn't properly define the space itself
Thank you all for your input/thoughts.
How can i check the diagonizablility of A*A matrix, any hint?
If it has eigenvectors and eigenvalues such that it satisfies the matrix equation $(A-\alpha I)\vec{v} = \vec{0}$
Harry127
$\lambda$
giratinalawyer
Yes it's represented by that too, the eigenvalue
multiply the matrices?
Multiply the block matrices and see what you get
Yes
Yes provided the inverse exists
Yes provided the inverse of C exists
Now you only have to solve Y.A +Z.B = 0
We usually write A^{-1}
so
Y = -Z B A^{-1} = - C^{-1} B A^{-1}
Y * A = -Z * B -> Y * A * A^{-1} = - Z * B *A^{-1} -> Y = - Z * B * A^{-1}
ohh
yes i got it now
i will try it
what should i write to rate you?
for solving the problem
wat
This is certified Chegg moment
Lol no rating system here
customer support speaking
I want to see your manager!
LOL
Any advice on getting an A in linear algebra ๐ฅฒ
i didn't know it sorry
Especially that it went from dealing with easy stuff such as determinants and matrix operation to subdpaces span and linear independence
And it doesn't seem to be going any easier from now on
Such a huge jump from hs math or calc if u ask me ๐ฅฒ
What's tougher about linear independence compared to determinants
oooohhhhhhhhhhh
So the matrix form just has to be 0's everywhere except main diagonal
Main diagonal is any number of 1's followed by any number of 0's
so it could be I or O or anything in between
ok ok ok i misunderstood 
In block form, it needs to be where the blocks could have dimension 0
I O
O O```
It's like
Not as straightforward
Grades do not necessarily reflect what you know or don't know
Very true but i kinda need an A in this course lol...
approach that has always worked for me to get an A is to try to understand the material and the grade followed
Won't maintain a scholarship by proving u know the material right
It's a bad motivation, but you can just solve problems to practice
Such a hard task when you're doing lin alg with calc 2 and adv phy /:
I am not aware of other methods to improve
that's kind of what the tests should be doing
Yeah but like you can know all the material and still fail...
Cuz of the testing environment, stress or whatever
Ok I have an opposite experience with determinants and linear independence
except the tests will never be able to do this, anybody that has been in academia long enough remembers verybwell passing exams with A only to forget everything 1 hour after the exam
Determinants are kind of easy to compute
My first exposure to determinants was multilinear products and I took a long time trying to understanding grassman rings or something
U don't need any fancy math lingo to do a det question
It's also totally disconnected with what one does as a PhD or researcher
Yeah
Conceptually determinants are harder to justify
Yeah that doesn't seem like smthng we covered
It's easy as a computation but doesn't make much sense without heavy theory
We learn cofactor expansion and evaluating dets by row/col reduction and called it a day ๐
Hmmm i wonder what the det actually signifies
Makes perfect sense without heavy theory
How so
Let me find the messages
A vid i've watched a few weeks ago said that we can think of the determinant as an area
How do you read determinant except "alternating n-linear form on F^n such that f(e_1,e_2...e_n)=1"
Ok, Rigorous != Intuitive
Obv that's not an accurate explanation that works for all dimensions but it's enough to conceptually understand it
Even if it's limited to a certain dim
Doesn't make sense beyond 3d
Exactly
Scroll down through the comments starting from the linked message
Ok, Determinants are incredibly versatile blackboxes is what I understand
the determinants of minors should also be interpretable as (hyper-)volumes along hyperplanes including their axes
Ofc,The inherent meaning is "magnitude of stretching"
Signed volume of parallelotope isn't that hard to grasp
Ok true,but what if I wanted to know why the det formula corresponds to signed volume
I am confident that if you draw a picture you can explain it to middle schoolers
It's a generalization of the cross product
You can draw the sin * |u| * |v| to show it for a parallelogram
Then you can also show how that generalizes to 3d
and so on
Levi-Civita and so on
The length of the vector in the cross product is equal to the area of the parallelogram
Similarly a 3x3 det can be factored out to see it's base x height for a parallelepiped
And so on
Got it
what should i do?
The different minors also should correspond to areas of projections of the volume on hyperplanes corresponding to the indices
you can relate it to the Laplace expansion too
See around 22:50
Just do ref, don't think too hard
criver could you help me please?
Plug them in to check it's correct
so the x =
[1/2
-1/2
1 ] x3
feel free to set x3 = 2
why
1 works too, I just wanted to remove the denom
Plug them in the eq to check for correctness
i dont understand
A x = 0
If x is a solution then you should get a 0
e.g. 2 * x1 + 8 * x2 + 3 * x3 =
already this is the solution
etc for the other rows
Yes, the above is a check to see whether you did any mistakes
Your solution
You can also solve it as they want
They say col1 + 2 * col3 = col2
Then 1 * col1 -1 * col2 + 2 * col3 = 0
Note that this agrees with what we got
i try it
i got it now
and thanks a lot
but i have one more question
If it is appropriate for you
Do you know how to compute an inverse?
You write the matrix and then extend with the identity
[A | I]
Then perform row operations to get A to be I
Then you end up with [I | B]
The rowops you need is r1' = r1, r2' = r1'+ r2, r3' = r2' + r3,..., rn' = r[n-1]' + rn
Then multiply row k by the number k at the end
what complex letters?
aj bj ej ext
Forget their notation, just derive it yourself as I explained
Then see which matches theirs
Are they asking for the inverse?
Or for Abj?
where?
Why is this correct? Doesn't the theorem state that span(v1,v2...vn) spans subspace of Rn?
In this case, wouldn't it span R2 instead of R3
span(v1,v2,...vk) spans a subspace of span(v1,v2,....vn)
Which is a subspace of R^n
Technicaly that can be identified with R^2 yes
the theorem likely goes 'if S is a subset of a space V then spanS is a subspace of V'
as shown, the given set can be rewritten as the span of some set
i dont understnad actually
and how can I tell the set is a subset of R3?
it contains vectors in R^3
oh, sry
(7,1,4) & (3,-1,0)
Oh yeah you're right, I'm probably drunk
Hello, I am a bit struggling with a polynomial problem, here it is :
The field is K
Suppose we have a irreductible polynomial f(x) such as, f(x)k(x) = p(x)q(x) with deg(q) < deg(f) and deg(p) < def(f)
Than is it true that k(x) divide both p(x) and q(x) or at least one of them, why?, if not give counter exemples
Thanks !
if f(x) is irreducible it must divide either p(x) or q(x), but it can't because their degrees are strictly less than it, so the premise is false
I see, thank you!
you're welcome
I made up this on the spot, and idk if it is too general
But looking at the last equation, commutators come to mind
except we don't know if f' or g necessarily have inverses
Can some sort of method related to this help?
well maybe not quite commutators, we're mixing multiplication and composition ๐ค
ig 'multiplying by g' ' is the composition of another function
d/dx sin^2x is not sin(2x)
yeah it is
2cos x sin x = sin2x 
I thought you illegally moved the 2
fun question I'm thinking about it but preoccupied at the moment, might not get around to any serious thinking about it until later or tomorrow
I was expecting to see the 2cosx sinx, it's all good
i ask for fun, i have no idea how to approach myself other than guessing
one thing you could try is see if you can work out special cases
looks like some cursed ode
like picking well chosen monomials, polynomials, trig stuff with free coefficients to be determined, power series
๐ will play around
a kind of nice thing to expect is a power series solution should encapsulate both examples you have here
g' = (g o f') / (f' o g) provided denom is non-zero
Integrate both sides I guess
nvm
whatโs (non-reduced) row echelon form good for
why donโt we just use reduced row echelon altogether
the product of the main diagonal for any matrix in triangle form (upper or lower) is equal to its determinant.
what.
I guess a convenient thing is if the original matrix started with integer entries, you can always make the REF have integers too, which has been convenient for me when working by hand in the past
?
so uhhh
determinants?
i mean most times we take rref instead of ref so maybe we can say โoh in this less stricter case of rref determinant is easy to work with and allโ
is there anything else
what i just said saves you some calculations
yes.
probably like half the calculations (if not more since rref might involve fractions as has been said above)
of?
matrix -> ref -> rref
there's clearly more calculations to get it to rref?
you just need it in ref to find the determinant
Suppose, I have a basis S. Let A be a subset of S, and B := S - A.
How can I describe span B in terms of span A? Eg. for an orthogonal basis, I think they are orthogonal complements, but this is not true in general right?
I just have span A \oplus span B = span S for now
Oh, is span B = span S / span A 
does the concept of \ominus exist
===
Using this, I want to define the generalised concept of a 'reflection about a subspace'. Fix everything in that subspace (what span A is above), and map everything in the 'complement' (what span B is above) to its additive inverse
Hey guys, I am having a really hard time wrapping my head around how this happens:
And the projective plane is going completely over my head.
$\mathcal{B}$ and $\mathcal{B}'$ are probably two different bases of $A$?
Though, it's confusing how $\mathcal{B} = \mathcal{B}$'
Maybe its just a trivial Identity map.
Oh wait I left out some stuff on accident. {B} and {B}' are bases for V and W respectively and A maps from V to W
I still don't understand what [A]_b,b' is
I thought for a second its just Ker(A) and Im(A) but thats what part ii and iii ask you to get
I think that is the notation for diagonalization/diagonal matrix
And you can clearly see both bases for each spaces are same. So both spaces are actually equal since the same basis generates the whole space
why is A not in row echelon form?
oh oh
it says reduced
๐
nah im still confused
all of them were wrong except C
can someone explain to me why C is right
why is C valid but not A
reduced row-echelon form.
can anybody help me understand why u-kv is perpendicular to vectors u and v? is that the projection?
what is making A not in reduced row echelon form?
the -2 above the 1?



me smh