#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 282 of 1
thats what gets me confused
Im going to show a picture
Its in german but the drawings are there
A is the differentiate matrix and A^-1 is the integration matrix
he explains its 0 because in the matrixes top row of A^-1 of A is 0
And this is due the kernel being 1 so theres 1 constant
so what is the question
I don get how he gets 0 with this explanation
as K see it you're having matrices for differentiating and integrating polynomials
is T integration?
or is T differentiation?
T=A?
well d1/dx = 0
ye
then integral of 0 = 0
there should be a constant when integrating the lhs though
but assuming pseudo-inverse
with constant 0
But they explain with the kernel and that for all dim this is possible i believe
idk, I can't read German
because the A-^1A has 4 dim and it still works
T(x) = Ax?
yes
But maybe in this case its saying that what the integration would be dependent on the dim
so ofc
$A^{-1}A\begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 0 \ 0 \ 0 \end{bmatrix} = 0$
criver
but what's your question?
what is your question?
They explain its 0 with this
cuz of the one constant that you get with the kernel
I get it i think
This basically says it would give an identity Matrix but the dim 1 collum is 0
the one on the far left
Its matrix that describes the differentiatiation and then integration
and the thing they try to convey is that with the kernel you can certify that integral of differential of a constant its 0
Is what imsaying making sense or am I just waffling?
idk what the question is
yes the matrix is not full rank
yes the matrix will spit out a zero for any vector (C, 0, 0, 0)
hello
ive an answer to a q but i dont quiet understand
part D
thats the solution
Question is.
How is there an A squared on both sides?
A=A^2 since A is from U
so you can replace the A^2 by A
the point is that the matrix 5A != (5A)^2 = 25A^2 =25 A
unless you picked A to be 0
but you know that A = I is also from U
so you could pick that one
and see that 5I != 25I
hold on repeat that again pls@spare widget
I^2 = I then I is from U, but 5I != (5I)^2
hence U is not closed under scalar multiplication -> it's not a subspace
I being the identity matrix
yep but in his solution he got 5A^2
they show (5A)^2 = 25A^2 != 5A^2 = 5A
do a substitution for more clarity
B = 5A, and A is from U, then A^2 = A
now
check whether
B^2 = B
ahhh ok perfect. got a bit confused
B^2 = B only if A = 0
yes
but there are elements other than A=0 in this space
namely A = I
so you have your counterexample
jesus this is a bit difficult to grasp
what they provide as proof is technically not enough
since they don't show there are other elements than 0 in that set
(5A)^2 = 5A for A = 0
Turns out this is pretty standard in physics. Though I don't know how rigorous it is: https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/188354/is-there-a-natural-suitable-definition-for-functional-derivative-in-curved-spa?rq=1
Namely point 8 in the answer
this is not linear-algebra
Guys I would like to get help in math high school
Like post my questions
Im new here
Q: prove that the subset of R4 are subspaces of E4 by writing them as the null space of a matrix.
I’m used to doing ones like this, but the wonky coordinate system is confusing me
what wonky coordinate system?
[a b a+b 2b] and the fact that there are no characteristic equations for a and b
Rather all a and b in R
Basically I’m not sure how I can make a homogenous system out of that
W=span{[1,0,1,0]^T,[0,1,1,2]^T}
Think about how you would solve Ax=0, then reverse engineer a possible A
Hint: Pick A st it's in RREF, it'll be easiest
^T meaning?
Matrix transposition. In this case it's just a compact way to write column vectors.
Hey nerds gimme your lunch money
yeah instead of typing out $\begin{bmatrix}1\0\1\0\end{bmatrix}$
Mosh
So I got to this,
Do I take s and t as free variables, and try to make a matrix that works with that?
So I have 2 fvs and need 4 columns, meaning a 4x2 matrix is required
Could this work @nocturne jewel ?
Pardon?
you have a 2x4 augmented with a 3x1
is there some relationship between between having a pivot position in every row to the solution space of the linear system?
It just means none of your original equations were redundant.
right, but that doesn't really answer the question
Doesn't it? The solution space is not affected by whether you originally had redundant equations.
So you could have rows without pivots, or have pivots in all rows, no matter what the solution space is.
when you have norm ^2 is that the same as taking hte quantity just square
Right, so I've asked a dumb question.. i'm trying to justify how a linearly independent 3x3 matrix will span R3.
so for example i want to do | | y - y_hat | |^2 and that quantity ends up being the column vector of 0 1/2 -1/2
By extremal properties, since dim(R^3)=3, any 3-tuple of independent vectors span the space
Perpendicular usually only refers to R^2
orthogonal refers to perpendicularity, and the more abstract idea
Im confused about normal, perpendicular and orthogonal now 
Now im reading about Scalar Products and Orthogonality
Don't worry, you won't go too wrong by thinking of them as synonyms.
Except for matrices.
An orthogonal matrix is a normal operator, but not the other way around.
I see 
But that particular "normal" hardly has any association to right angles, anyway.
What does non-degenerate mean ?
About what kind of thing?
The scalar product is said to be non-degenerate if in addition is also satisfied the condition...
If $v$ is an element of $V$ and $<v,w>=0$ for all $w\in V$ then $v=0$

Potato
Is there a latex for $<v,w>=0$ or just type it like this ?
Potato
THat looks like a definition of "non-degenerate" you have right there.
$\langle v,w\rangle = 0$.
Troposphere
I thought non-degenerate is sth, and then that condition make it so
"is said to" is one of the more blink-and-you'll-miss-it ways to introduce a definition.
I see, I'll keep an eye on it 
take an arbitrary polynomial in P2 and show that you can write it in the form v+w
requires a little manipulation
Arbitrary poly being ax^2+bx+c
yes
Got that part, but v and w are not polynomials to begin with, are they?
Well they’re polys with conditions attached, but how would I write them out
why won't they be polynomials
try to separate out ax^2+bx+c = (...x^2+...x+0) + (...x^2+...x+c)
see that the constant part of the first term is 0
Which is derived from V
adjust the coefficients so that the sum of the coeffs of 2nd term turns out to be 0
2nd polynomial you mean?
ya
That brings me here
that does not work tho, remember you also need v+w = your original polynomial, i.e. ax^2+bx+c
do it step wise, say you split them like this (ax^2+bx) + (c) then it's still our original polynomial and (ax^2+bx) \in V but (c) \notin W
for that we need to add some -cx or -cx^2 to our 2nd term giving us (-cx+c) \in W ( u can also use -cx^2 or something else)
but now this dis balances our original polynomial, so to balance it again we add another +cx to our first term giving us (ax^2 + (b+c)x) + (-cx+c)
check this satisfies the condition
One sec
(also note that the representation is not unique)
Okay so we use V to make an arbitrary polynomial ax^2+bx+0 which works cause the only condition is c=0
ya
In W, we set a=0 for simplicity, although we could do it with b too
we are not setting a=0 but choosing a,b,c, is a way that a+b+c=0
yes and a=0
The cs cancel and the condition is met
therefore P2 \subseteq V+W
Although any multiple/transformation on c is an alternative answer
I won't say any because it also has to be equal to our original polynomial
Any is too general yeah, a power, multiple would work though
maybe out of scope, but
how can I efficiently make two random matricies, g (1, N) and B (NxN, symmetric) s.t. B is indefinite and B = U'LU -> Ug_1 == 0?
also where B is indefinite and Ug_1 != 0
ping if responding please
verifying that a set with two operations is a vector space. could someone check parts e-g for mistakes? something tells me i’m supposed to show that all three axioms listed do hold, but instead i found that they don’t
Guys, is it false to say that all vector space has a scalar product ?
scalar product like the dot product? a map f: V x V -> F?
Potato
Because in the book im reading, when they want to talk about it, they always assume that, that scalar product is defined
it's not part of the definition of a vector space
so they're talking about inner product spaces instead
if you're working with R^n and C^n and subspaces thereof, though, yes
Is the scalar product unique ?
no
any operation that satisfies the definition of an inner product is an inner product
as useless as that sounds
for example in R^n, any symmetric positive definite matrix can be used to define an inner product
Hi, I am having some difficulties in understanding how to turn vector spaces with matrices
could someone help me understand plez and explanation would be helpful
the first simple example is
You have a standardbasis with v1=(1,0); v2 =(0,1)
And they turn along the angle theta
They ask for matrix
In linear algebra, a rotation matrix is a transformation matrix that is used to perform a rotation in Euclidean space. For example, using the convention below, the matrix
R
=
[
cos
θ...
ty
Now they are saying imagine a standard basis of i and j so that the space the classic 2 d space
now project them to only fit in a line which is 45 degrees
Yeah..? and?
so i first thought for the vector in the middle
so the matrix would be
(1/2,1/2),(1/2,1/2)
But this matrix only works for one vector right?
wdym
I mean ye the vector span this grey line
So its Matrix transformation
So Av=w
L[v]=Av works for any v in V
and w is the grey line
tru but i only want the grey line
so i need a matrice that describes only the gry lin
Do understand wht i mean
?
But it only works for one point in the line
how immi supposed to get the whole line spanned
ye
But I wanted so i dont get the entire span
i wanted to just span the line
and thats where the matrix comes in
of course with the basis vector 10 and 01 i can span all in R^2
No i dont want the entire span
im saying the basis vectors here span R^2
which grey line...?
ahhh
You have 4 black lines
Yeah, there's 4 black lines
the long side of the triangle is grey
It isn't but ok
click the pic itll get bigger then youll notice i think if not ill chnage the colour
bettter?
I dont want to be toxic but it is grey the other triangle
Just saying maybe you should do one of those colour tests there are a lot of people who dont see coulour that well
I think if your male its like 1 in 10
but in anyways
do understand what im asking now
I have 2 basis vector namely 1 0 and 0 1
I want to span with matrix only the orange line
So That Av=W and W= orange line
Is this making sense now?
I can get the midle vector with the matrix(1/2,1/2;1/2,1/2)
but the others i cant
I just found out about the help channels , Sorry for btohering you guys
Any video or helping tool that explains matrices ( addition , subtraction , multiplication ) because I have an exam tmrw and I know nothing 😭
thank you 🫂
all the basic matrix stuff you need is either on that page or linked on that page
,av @oblique prairie
Can we say that theory of matrices is evolved from theory of linear transformation . Coz for example if we consider matrix multiplication then the way it is defined is because of composition of linear transformation and that condition number of columns must be equal to number of rows in order to define matrix multiplication coz in order to define composition two inner dimensions must be equal ?
yes
Matrices arise from linear transformations
Okay ty !
Bacically "trace=0" is a single linear equation in the entries of the matrix, so enforcing it can at most reduce the dimension by 1.
Also, since symmetric matrices with nonzero trace do exist, enforcing trace=0 does take away something, so the dimension has to decrease by at least 1.
I see
If $T : V \rightarrow W$ and $\dim(V) = \dim(W)$. Then if $T$ maps basis to basis, this implies that it's an isomorphism right ?
ru0xffian
i need some help
Let$$f(x) = \frac{x^2}{x^2 - 1}.$$Find the largest integer $n$ so that $f(2) \cdot f(3) \cdot f(4) \cdots f(n-1) \cdot f(n) < 1.98.$
kaniii
@exotic wedge try showing it
is someone able to break down whats happening here?
I am using it in a proof and i was trying to verify it. My initial idea is that if it is not surjective then it can't map basis to basis. If it is not injective then it can't be well-defined. But I didn't verify that rigorously.
may be better to go into the details then
are V,W findim?
i never know where to start
pick a basis $v_1,\ldots,v_n$ of $V$ and a basis $w_1,\ldots,w_n$ of $W$
RokabeJintaro
Yeah and wlog you can say it maps v_i to w_i
yeah i got it, thanks !
no prob
Not really LinAl
But write out the 1st couple values for n
That's like always a good place to start w/ patterns
ah yes
Had that not at all crossed your mind?
i dont know if i realy find a pattern
what was i supposed to find @nocturne jewel
is the most direct way to compute the matrix of a linear transformation for a nonstandard basis to use the change of basis matrix and the matrix for the standard basis?
@night wren do u already have these matrices?
I calculated the matrix for the standard basis.
then u can use the standard matrix to find the matrix wrt beta
So I'm looking for C^{-1}AC where C is the change of basis matrix from the standard basis to beta, yes ? and A is the matrix for the standard basis
no, C should be from beta to standard
think of the order of composition
looking at the exercise, the alternative is faster tbh. take the coordinates, in beta, of the image of each basis vector
T is defined so that those coordinates are easy to find
@night wren
I'm not sure how to set this up
say b_i is the i'th vector in beta
the i'th column of [T]_beta is the coordinates of Tb_i wrt beta
OK, I got it, thanks a bunch
so this is a more direct way, look at the image of the new bases and write it as a linear combo of the bases
could you say y this works?
u can show that
$$[Tx]\beta=[T]\beta[x]\beta$$
for all $x\in V$ where $[x]\beta$ is the coords of $x$ wrt $\beta$
RokabeJintaro
so is this method calculating the left side where x = b_i and then trying to deduce the coefficients for T_b so that you get the same thing?
this essentially says [T]_beta enacts T, which is what we expect of matrix representations of linear maps
this isnt the formula for finding coefficients, its a result u can show after u construct [T]_beta
But this technique you described uses this theorem, yes? You said to calculate T(b_i) wrt to beta so thats the left side. Then you try to write T(b_i) as a linear combo of beta which is the right side, kind of
finding the coords of Tb_i wrt beta is its own matter
once u construct [T]_beta then the above is a result u can show (note its for all x in V)
is it possible to find the rank of the matrix if you know that Ax = 0 and number of variables?
If you knew the number of linearly dependent vectors x such that Ax=0 and the number of columns (variables), then by the rank nullity theorem, yes
so i know an ellipse can be represented as a 2 x 2 matrix
is it only a 2 x 2 matrix or can any square matrix represent an ellipe?
ah so its any matrix thats symmetrical
Refer to quadratic forms
cool ty
additionally if i had a vector u in ker A^T and v in range A whats the best way to show u is orthogonal to v without using the kAT theorem?
i know i cant just do (A^Tu) w
and say that it would be 0 * w
thus being orthogonal but im not quite sure how to do it otherwise
That's not what v in range means
$v\in \operatorname{Im}(A)\iff\exists w\in V$ st $Aw=v$
Mosh
coud i just do smt like this?
Im just correcting your error
ah ok ty!
So I’m confused on how to get specific solution from echelon form
I know you can use echelon form to see if it’s consistent or inconsistent but what if I want to find specific solution?
then you get it into RREF
is this a valid operation?
and read off the "state" of solutions
Im gonna say no, cause you still have the error
so you can never find specific solution with echelon form?
and A is m x n
i just wanted to see if there a way without doing reduced
lol i copied the problem though
v needs the form Ax
No
I'm not saying there's a problem with v in Im(A)
I'm saying there's a problem with the fact you then wrote Av=w
so should it just be Av?
Are you reading what I'm saying?
Cause it doesn't seem like you are if you just asked that
i dont know what lm is
Ok then i have no clue, i just copied the instructions for the problem and thats exactly what it had 😢
If v is something that A can output and A is not square, then v cannot possibly have the right shape for "Av" to be meaningful.
So instead of multiplying v to get w its Aw to get v
then i guess this method of proving they're orthogonal wouldnt work hmm
wait nvm u can
u can say u^T (Aw) where u is in the kernel of A^T and Aw = v
since u^T is a 1 x p matrix and Aw ends up being a p x 1 matrix
thus when u do this and take the full transpose u get
w^T (A^Tu)
A^Tu = 0 bc u is in the kernel of A^T
thus it 0
showing that the dot product of the two is 0 so they must be orthogonal
I'm having trouble figuring out the eigenvectors for this. I took linear algebra a few semesters ago so I kind of don't remember what to do
work so far:
I was following an example where they did row echelon here but it seems kinda complicated with what I have
what I do is just put in variables like $\vec x = \begin{bmatrix}x \ y\end{bmatrix}$ and just solve for one of the variables in terms of the other, then factor it out since we only care about eigenvectors up to scalar multiples
Merosity
this gets you 2 equations but you can just pick the easier one
$$\begin{bmatrix}1 & 1 \ 1 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix}x \ y\end{bmatrix}=\lambda \begin{bmatrix}x \ y\end{bmatrix}$$
then you get,
$$\begin{bmatrix}x+y \ x\end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix}\lambda x \ \lambda y\end{bmatrix}$$
Merosity
so obviously pick the second component as your equation, $x=\lambda y$. That makes your vector $$\vec x =\begin{bmatrix}\lambda y \ y\end{bmatrix} =y \begin{bmatrix}\lambda \ 1\end{bmatrix}$$ and you're done
Merosity
That is way easier just remembering its a system of equations. Thanks
yup you're welcome
True or false : every vector space is the dual of some other vector space
Its false right ?
In order to be interesting, that question must be interpreted as "is every vector space isomorphic to the dual of some vector space?"
It is false indeed (at least assuming the axiom of choice), but can you name a counterexample?
Every vector space is isomorphic to its dual
That is true if the vector space has finite dimension.
Try substituting with the above definition of w
it follows because the inner product is bilinear
For counterexample P_3(R) is isomorphic to dual of R4
I didn't get that parentheses part
That's an example, not a counterexample. A counterexample to the claim should be a vector space that isn't isomorphic to the dual of anything.
Ops my bad 😩
I crossed out the parenthesized part, because I later concluded that we can find a counterexample without using the axiom of choice. (I may still be wrong about that, though).
Okay
As far as finite dimensions are concerned i dont think there is any counterexample .but for infinite dimension there may be a counterexample
Correct.
One of the counterexamples is the space of sequences of real numbers where each sequence only has finitely many nonzero terms.
This space has countably infinite dimension.
It cannot be the dual of anything with finite dimension, because those spaces all have finite-dimensional duals.
N how did u interpreted that que like how did u know "is every vector space isomorphic to the dual of some vector space "?
Okay
It cannot be the dual of anything with larger dimension either, because the dual of a space has at least the dimension of the space itself.
That's mostly a matter of experience. It's a rather uninteresting fact that not every vector space is literally the dual of something else, because the elements of a dual space are always linear transformations, and we're free to define a vector space whose elements are represented by mathematical object that are not even mappings.
On the other hand I already knew that "isomorphic to the dual of something" has an interesting (and slightly surprising) answer, and I also know it is common to skip the "isomorphic to" wording, relying on the reader to understand it implicitly.
Finally, this space cannot be dual to itself, because there's a linear functional for each map from N to R, without the restriction that only finitely many values are empty. And the space of such maps has uncountable dimension -- the set of functions of the form f(n) = a^n for some a in (1,2) is linearly independent, so the dimension has to be at least the cardinality of |R|.
Oh okay
Here dual of a space has the dimension of space itself . Idk how u r saying at least
Again, the dimenions are only equal if the dimension of the original space is finite.
lets say you have a c such that
c = (B^-1 A^-1)
c(AB) = I
can you say then that by associativity, that (AB)c = I as well or do u ahve to prove that separately?
i guess my question is
is there any property of matrices where i can trivially say since c(AB) = I then (AB)c = I too
from c(AB) = I the only thing associativity says is that (cA)B = I as well
sorry i meant commutative*
ik matrix multiplication isnt commutative
but this is the identity matrix so i was wondering if theres anyway we can trivially say (AB)c is the identity too
AB = I implies BA = I so long as all matrices involved are square
If AB is a square matrix, then you know that the existence of either a left or right inverse means that AB (or really the linear transformation it represents) is bijective.
For a bijective map a left inverse is automatically a two-sided inverse.
amazing tysm
(And similarly for a right inverse).
i ask bc this was a hw, and i got points off for not proving (AB)c bc i only did c(AB)
so im gonna ask my professor
bc he also made mistakes on two other problems so its not totally out of field that he messed up here as well
but i just wanted to clarify before i ask him for pts
Just because it can be proved is not the same as you don't have to prove it ...
i agree but for one, for example, our professor said we dont have to prove that a subspace is non empty only scalar multi and vector addition
and then he took pts off for not proving its not empty
even tho ik thats the definition
so i vaguely recall he said smt about this too but i wanted to clarify
im still a bit confused on how this is the answer
When doin the laplace transform of S(t-c) is the correct form e^(-cs) or (e^(-cs))/s?
can anyone help me out w this problem im not so sure where to begin
do you know what proj_a(v) ? thats where i would start
yeah ik that however im confused bc theyre asking for the magnitude of the projection to be 0 right??
Hmm I have an idea for it, think about orthogonal vectors.
Sorry, I decline.
its alright dw
@cold flint the functions are NOT the same. delta denotes dirac delta. u denotes the unit step function
Thank you
if i got a given formula to get a matrix
they ask for the matrix where the reflection is in the plane x_3 = 0
how do i apply this?
Let $\mathbb{A}^m$ be an inner product space with tangent space $\mathbb{V}^m.$ We also have the inner product space $\mathbb{B}^n$ with tangent space $\mathbb{W}^n$.
We will use the standard euclidean metric d on $\mathbb{A}^m$ and $\mathbb{B}^n$, where $d(p_1,p_2)=|p_1-p_2|.$
Show that any isometry $F : \mathbb{A}^m \to \mathbb{W}^n$ is an affine map and its differential $$dF : \mathbb{V}^m \to \mathbb{W}^n$$ $$v \mapsto F(p+v)-F(p)$$ is an orthogonal map.
If I am asleep pls ping me 
fake neko
Operator notation, D means differentiation and as defined (T(f))(x) = x^2f(x). It's demonstrating that the two operators do not commute: (TDf)(x) = (T(Df))(x) = (Tf')(x) = x^2f'(x)
(DTf)(x) = D(x^2f(x)) = x^2f(x) + 2xf(x) from the product rule
suppose the coefficient matrix of an m × n linear system has n pivots. is it true that the system has a solution?
if it does have a solution can someone explain why that is
in general, no
if m > n, then the image of the matrix is only a subspace of the codomain
as an easy example, consider a 2x2 identity matrix, and append a row of 0s to it
making it 3x2
the image is the span of [1,0,0] and [0,1,0], so vectors spanned by [0,0,1] have no sol x so that v = Ax
im sorry to bother u but could u show the example thru here?? im having some trouble visualizing it
ohh i see
tysm :))+
Guys, orthogonal basis = basis right ?
Because in orthogonal basis, its element are all perpendicular to each other, and for basis, all its element is linear independent, and that mean they all are also perpendicular to each other ?
An orthogonal basis is a basis by definition
But not all bases are orthogonal (for example {(1, 1), (0, 1)})
And not all orthogonal sets are bases or even linearly dependent (for example, {0})
💀
So orhogonal basis can be called a basis, but a basis can't be called orthogonal ?
But any orthogonal set that doesn’t include the zero vector is linearly dependent, so it follows that any orthogonal set with n vectors (where n is the dimension of the vector space) that doesn’t include the zero vector is linearly dependent
Do you recall what the definition of an orthogonal basis is?
It’s a basis that’s orthogonal
So yes, obviously an orthogonal basis can be called a basis
And yes, like I said, not all bases are orthogonal
Hmmm, so a basis imply orthogonal, but an orthogonal set is not a basis and could also be linear dependent
No
I just said, not all bases are orthogonal
So basis doesnt imply orthogonal
But yes, an orthogonal set can be linearly dependent (if and only if it contains the zero vector)
Why zero vector make it linear dependent ?
If the zero vector is in any set, then the set is linearly dependent
Like suppose you have a set ${v_1,\dots,v_n,0}$. Then you can take the following sum:
[ 0\cdot v_1+\cdots+0\cdot v_n + 1\cdot0 = 0 ]
So you have a zeroing sum where one of the coefficients is not zero. So the set is linearly dependent
Ahhh I see it now
Glad that I ask this question, otherwise I would have failed the exam 
Thank mate !
Np good luck!
@haughty berry ?
Show that every plane through the origin in R^3 may be identified with the null space of a vector in (R^3)^* . I didn't get this que how can they talk about null space of vectors of dual of R^3 without defining LT from dual of R^3 to some other vector space and what is meant by identified with null space ? Are they saying i have to find isomorphism ?
It just means find a normal to the plane
And then $f_n(\cdot) =\langle n, \cdot\rangle$ is the element
criver
Since you know that $\langle n, x\rangle = 0 \implies x \in plane_n$
criver
Okay ty !
I am trying to figure out how to incorporate an affine constraint into a projected gradient descent procedure.
The affine constraint can be turned into a linear constraint on the gradient of the form:
$\boldsymbol{1}^T \begin{bmatrix} \boldsymbol{I} & \ldots & \boldsymbol{I} \end{bmatrix} \boldsymbol{d} = 0$
criver
where the middle matrix is made of m identity matrices stacked next to each other
it's clear that one solution is:
to split d into m equal pieces
and then for each piece to impose the constraint
$\boldsymbol{1}^T\boldsymbol{d}_i=0$
criver
which would consist of projecting d_i on a normalized version of 1 and subtracting that from d
I don't think this is the projection of the steepest descent, since additionally one also wants to maximize the similarity with the initial negated gradient
$\max_{\boldsymbol{d}} \boldsymbol{v}^T\boldsymbol{d}$
criver
criver
with the caveat that d must satisfy the aforementioned constraint
those two aren't really the same though
I know
what's the original problem
I am guessing that |v-d| would be the equivalent of the projection in the sense of L2
while d dot v is just something I thought of
the original problem is constrained gradient descent with affine constraints
since I am minimising an L2 energy, it probably makes sense to prefer the L2 projection
i.e. this
gradient descent is usually not the original problem
it's the proximal of the 1st order taylor approx
what's the original cost func and constraints
criver
where u depends nonlinearly on c
there are also the constraints on c I mentioned
I derived the gradient for the above
and I would like to apply projected gradient descent to it
in order to satisfy the aforementioned affine constraint on c
I basically have the negated gradient v
and want to project it onto the set
$X = {\boldsymbol{x} ,:, \boldsymbol{1}^T\begin{bmatrix}\boldsymbol{I} &\ldots & \boldsymbol{I}\end{bmatrix}\boldsymbol{x} = 0}$
criver
If the matrix with the Is was not there, then it's fairly simple as x_proj = x - (1 dot x)/|1|^2 * 1
i.e. removing the component parallel to 1
well but, the way this constraint is written is separable
yes, that's exactly equivalent
is it?
do the linear algebra
if you multiply the 1^T from the left, then 1^T replaces all of the I matrices
say I have a d that I split into m blocks
and vector equivalence is done elementwise
and 1 dot d_i = 0
then let \sum_i d_{i,j} = k
now I can choose the different j differently
and this will still satisfy the constraint
however one would clearly have a higher energy
I think it's because [I ... I] is a rectangular matrix
so there are multiple ways to satisfy this
it takes us from a larger space (namely m times larger) to a smaller one
so there are multiple solutions that will seem equivalent, but I do not think they are equivalent under an L2 norm when considering |d - v|^2
this is already captured in the 1^T d_i
each of those is a hyperplane
they're algebraically equivalent
ah, is it because the spaces are orthogonal
when I split it into m pieces
each piece is orthogonal to the others
ok, that's great, thank you
wait
lemme look at it again
yes
if it were a large I matrix, it'd just be 1^T d
but it's in blocks
yes
this chops up d into independent pieces
each one has its own hyperplane
if you know how to do the projections for a constraint of the type 1^T x, you just have to do it N times (however many I blocks there are)
great, I was worried that the two may not be equivalent
but I guess because they are linearly independent
it can be split up
thank you
hmmmmmm
actually
it's easier
it's just one long 1^T vector
i messed up the multiplication from the right
it's a single projection
1^T [I I I...] just makes one long 1^T vector
this is even simpler, then
I messed it up too, hence why I thought something was off
😛
I mean it makes perfect sense, it's just a different grouping of the terms 😂
it takes 2 to tell each other they're dumb
not sure in what channel I should ask this but why does the constraint Tr(X) = 1 increase numerical stability in semidefinite programming
positive determinant implies that a linear transformation stays in the 1st or 2nd quads right
positive determinant implies no odd number of reflections
e.g. change of handedness in 3d
idk what it means for a linear transformation to stay in the 1st or 2nd quads
A rotation matrix has determinant of 1 and can send an input vector to any quadrant
i'll rephrase then
what does it mean for a linear transformation to preserve orientation
wait im stupid
basis vecs dont flip
Well imagine an identity matrix with one of the 1s being a -1
That's a reflection along the axis
And changes the handedness
An even number of reflections yields you a rotation
An odd number yields you a negative determinant so a change in orientation
If you were to draw an example you can take a basis, and then negate one of the basis vectors
If you want you can also think of a hyperplane with normal n, flipping its normal changes its orientation, then you can extend this to manifolds too
e.g. think of flipping the normal of a sphere in R^3 to the inside
Basically det < 0
Also makes sense if you think of the determinant as computing the signed area of a high-dimensional parallelepiped with the edges being the matrix's columns
If you flip an odd number of the edges the sign and orientation flips
the easiest class of counter examples to consider are 1x1 matrices
yea thats what i ended up doing, tysm!
what does it mean when someone says training data as i.i.d?
independent and identically distributed
What properties of matrix and vector algebra ensure that Ay = 0?
these are the theorems i have to choose from
this question doesn't make much sense. Assuming A is a matrix, Ay need not be 0 in general
yea thats why im hella confused
If y was 0, you can definitely use a and b to show Ay = 0.
do you have a screenshot of the question?
okay i guess we need to know what A is too lol
how is your understanding of property d? @keen siren
it should be said that a_j denotes the j'th column of A
Okay, so if A is a m x n matrix, you can write A = [a1 a2 .... an] where a1, .., an are the columns of A. So its saying that Ae_i picks out the ith column of A
d) can be found by direct computation
well, this is kind of a weird question tbh, but the idea is that technically you can use properties a, b, and d to perform any matrix multiplication
maybe think about how
oh i get what you're saying
so like you're basically saying that is it able to be multipliable because it has the same amount of rows as a column vector
assign nonzero weights to each vector
nope. im saying that if you want to compute A(x,y,z) for example, then you can start by writing (x,y,z) = x(1,0,0) + y(0,1,0) + z(0,0,1) = xe_1 + ye_2 + ze_3
Then by property a, A(x,y,z) = A(xe_1 + ye_2 + ze_3) = A(xe_1) + A(ye_2) + A(ze_3)
and then by property b, A(xe_1) + A(xe_2) + A(xe_3) = xA(e_1) + yA(e_2) + zA(e_3)
and then by property d, xA(e_1) + yA(e_2) + zA(e_3) = xa_1 + ya_2 + za_3
So A(x,y,z) = xa_1 + ya_2 + za_3 where a_1, a_2, a_3 are the columns of A
Any non-zero?, I tried that but I get it wrong
eg 1u+1v
ahhh okay this makes sense ty
I keep getting that wrong, also thought it was 1
did u compute 1u+1v
Confused on how to do that
see the definitions of vector adding & scaling
The only thing I learned is that I can add/subtract the numbers within the brackets
Im also getting the 1 in front of the u and v wrong without even computing
vector scaling is multiplying each component by the scalar
im still confused, could you provide an example
c(x,y,z)=(cx,cy,cz)
Oh i did that before, but how would I apply that here?
IT WORKED
I LOVE YOU
Woudl it be the same process for the second part?
what would i be multioplying the u and v by in that part?
any nonzero weights, just not the same as before
So then based on what you're saying this would have the same answer as the previous one, right?
A remaining the same exact matrix and z being :
yea. Like i said before, these are kind of strange questions. It sounds like they want you to see some trick, but I'm not really seeing it. a, b and d are technically needed to compute any matrix multiplication by a vector though, so a, b and d are "not wrong"
Alright thanks that's what I thought. The questions are pretty weird
A linear combination of 1v + (-1)v = 0 holds right? so it's not linearly independent? Sorry if it's a dumb question but im new to this
yes so S is linearly dependent right? 1,-1 are nonzero scalars
no
1-1 = 0
so it IS a 0 scalar
which definition of linear (in)dependence are you using in your course material
LD
Hey, I'm about to start linear algebra next week and was wondering if there was anything I should read or watch before I start the class
3b1b ELA is a good overview of things you'll be doing
i would advise against that one, those videos make more sense to watch after you have seen the topics in class
It did help me tho, could be a different experience for others
idk, the whole time he's referencing future knowledge

Yeah I agree, for me I feel like 3b1b videos are only good for giving a different perspective of the material after you already know it
I don't feel like his videos are so great at introducing new topics, but they are very good at giving intuition and different perspectives
Anyways, the point of a class is to teach you, so usually there isn't a reason to prepare for a class...
analytic geometry is great to study before or along with linear algebra
gives most of the geometric intuition you would need
Do you understand what it means the line is normal to (x, b/(x+1)^2)?
Draw a diagram if that helps and try to think about it for a sec.
I am trying to figure out what it means to take a derivative wrt the index of a Kronecker delta. In the continuous case with a Dirac delta it looks like the d_x operator if applied inside an integral
$\lim_{h\rightarrow 0} \frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h} = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\lim_{h\rightarrow 0} \frac{\delta(y-(x+h))-\delta(y-x)}{h}f(y),dy$
I am not quite sure how legal this is though
criver
Or what happens in the finite dimensional case with a kronecker delta
to me it looks like I'll get a 0 in the finite dimensional case
Is it just supposed to differentiate the other function and then multiply it with a dirac delta?
so in the finite dimensional case the analogy would be a discrete derivative multiplied by a dirac delta?
i.e.
$\langle\delta'{ij}, f\rangle = \langle \delta{ij}, f'\rangle = f'_i$
Where D is some discretisation of a derivative (e.g. forward differences)
criver
I think it should have a minus sign actually
it makes sense because of integration by parts
$\langle \partial_x f, g \rangle = -\langle f, \partial_x g \rangle$
criver
if f or g vanishes on the boundary
is this right ?
$a_i\in A_i\iff A_i={a_i}\implies A_1\times A_2\times A_3\stackrel{?}{=}{a_1,a_2,a_3}$
oh ok
DonutsenPLS
i don't understand how n-tuples work
$A\times B:={(a,b)|a\in A & b\in B}$
Mosh
oh ok thanks
this thing looks a lot like distributional derivative to me
But I don't that's you meant
so I'll pass
so if $A_i={a_1, a_2,\dots ,a_n}$ then i don't understand what is $A^n$
DonutsenPLS
going by your previous messages, A_i is a set
A^n is the cartesian product of A n times
the difference is that A^n is an ordered list where you really want to consider a list with n elements at the same time, in a particular order, to do something with it
whereas with sets, you care about each element individually satisfying some property
so A_i^n would be a tuple of n elements taken from the set A_i
and you really consider all n elements at the same time
the tuple itself is a single object that may or may not have additional properties
ok thank you, i think i understand it now
if you just run into {x,y,z} in the wild, there is no way to know which of the two it was without further context
but yeah, recall that a set is defined in set builder notation as a collection of individual elements satisfying some property
okok thank you again
Turns out it's that, I looked it up, and it seems to match what I wrote. I guess it really depends of whether I want to treat the Kronecker delta as a discretisation of the Dirac delta or not, so the answer is likely application dependent.
I have inner products classified as positive definite bilinear forms, how do I show that any two inner products are equivalent via linear transform on a vector space?
Only working in finite dimensions
i mean ok like
i think you can just take two bases, one of which is orthonormal wrt the first inner product and the other orthonormal wrt the second, and have the linear transformation in question send one basis to the other
ah yea I can see that happening
Pick one of those equations, solve for either x or y, and substitute into the second solution; that way you can solve for that particular variable, and then find the second variable value afterwards
thank you
here if t is in R
its a line through X_0 and parallel to t right?
and the (1-t) translates the X_0
isnt (1-t) a scalar for x_0 should t be in R
"parallel to t"
sorry parallel to x_1
in general, what kinds of linear transformations/matrices preserve the angle between vectors
3x + 6y =4
3x = 3 - 6y
x = 1 - 2y
2x - 10y = -9
2(1-2y) - 10y = -9
orthogonal transformations/matrices
whats an orthogonal transformation lol
there are alot of characterisations maybe the easiest one is that the inverse of a orthogonal matrix is the transpose
if you look at the column vectors of a matrix, the dot product of two columns is zero
but there is no general formula for them
@ember vessel @still lodge orthogonal maps on R^n have a canonical (usual) representation. if A is orthogonal then there exists an orthonormal basis of R^n in which the matrix of A has, along its diagonal, a string of 1s, a string of -1s, and a string of 2x2 rotation blocks
ie in this basis, for some axes A does nothing, for some A reflects, and for some axis pairs A rotates by some angle
Rotations
Reflections also preserve angles but they flip orientation
For orthogonal transformations you have R=R^T
And thus dot(u,v) = u^Tv = u^TR^TRv = (Ru)^TRv = dot(Ru, Rv)
it means that the columns/rows of R form an orthonormal basis
In mathematics, the orthogonal group in dimension n, denoted O(n), is the group of distance-preserving transformations of a Euclidean space of dimension n that preserve a fixed point, where the group operation is given by composing transformations. The orthogonal group is sometimes called the general orthogonal group, by analogy with the general...
heres what a decomposition of an orthogonal map may look like
note that pairs of 1s (identity) & pairs of -1s (reflection) can be written like the 2x2 rotation blocks, theyre just rotations with respective angles 0,pi
There can be a lone -1 somewhere if the matrix changes orientation
that just means time reversal
sure, i meant take pairs of axes at a time when rewriting as rotations
to a set A={v1, v2, v3} be a set of orthogonal vectors it has to have every dot product to be 0 or just one is enough?
any vector dotted with any other vector must be 0
ok thanks
Oh gawd fuck latex I'm just gonna post a mere translation
Let {u1, . . . , a} and {v1, . . . , vn} two bases of E. Let P be the passage matrix from {u1, · · , un} to {v1, · · , vn}. If u ∈ E with A = P{u}{u1,...,un},
so P{u}{v1,...,vn} = P−1A.
Could someone explain me where the inverse is popping off from?
This is the diagram associated with that thing
Theorem 4.2.5 states that if {u_1, ..., u_n} is a base of E, v_1, ..., v_n in E constitute a base of E if and only if P^{v_1,...v_n}_{u_1,...u_n} is invertible
That's pretty much the only other place where inversion is mentioned around
"abstract algebra"
in this definition
would covariance go away only when x and y are independent? because isnt E(x-mu_x) = 0?
,rotate
this isn't linear algebra
wait it is tho right bc im using this to figure out the EPE stuff
Your mom is independent
what if Cov(X, Y) is an inner product 🤔
covariance matrix
my undergrad brain is lost 😆
relatable
relatable
what does it mean to write something as a linear combination of something else?
is it just literally when u have
a column vector = scalar[col 1] + scalar2[col 2]
yes
for however many columns u have
pretty much
ok cool bc
i found beta thru xtx-1 xty
and now its like
write y_hat as a linear combination of X
but thats literally beta??
so i was like
is there more to this lmao
so from the pic above are the vectors linearly independent when there are no covariacne values
aka cov = 0
with the pivots as var(x_1)...var(x_k)
hint: that's a basis
@grave garden dimV is defined as the size of ANY basis of V
I see 👁️
wait I am not losing my marbles.. right?
31 is true just by linearity no?
and then 32 is the other way around, but how does 1-1 tie in?
assuming that T is a linear operator
i think you could do it that way, yea. pick a v_i, express it in terms of the other v_js and use linearity in 31
for 32
if {T(v_i)} are lin dep
then there is one T(v_j) that can be written as a sum of the remaining T(v_k)
then use linearity to say that T(v_j) = T(v_k + ...)
then use 1-1 to argue that v_j = v_k + ....
so that the v_i are lin dep by definition
wait for 31, how does that work exactly? say i get v1 = -a2v2 - ... - apvp/a1
so I take the transform of v1,...,vp, then what? i rewrite v1 with what I got?
yeah
i'll give you an example, you can generalize it yourself
say {u,v} are lin dep
then u = cv for some c in F
then consider {T(u), T(v)}
where u = cv
so this is equivalent to {cT(v), T(v)} which is lin dep
now use sigma notation for n vectors
Guys, if i have n linear independent elements, then the space generated by it has dimension = n right ?
Sounds about right
Guys, can you help me understand to get row rank + dim solution = n ?
I can't understand this part, if possible can you provide a linear map like how they solve it for the first part ?
rank nullity moment
so the basic idea is to keep in mind the definition of the image and null space of a matrix
and to consider that a matrix vector product is a linear combination of the columns of a matrix, as they show there in the line L(X) = ...
the image of a matrix is all vectors y such that Ax = y
the null space of a matrix is all vectors x such that Ax = 0
so given an equation Ax = y, the number of solutions depends on the dimension of the null space
if the only vector x for which Ax = 0 is x = 0, then Ax = y has a single solution (at most)
if not, then you can use linearity of matrix mult to construct more solutions
let w be the set of all vectors for which Aw = 0
then if Ax = y, A(w+x) = y too
since A(w+x) = Aw + Ax = 0 + y = y
then you consider the space of all y generated by Ax, i.e. the space spanned by the columns of A
its dimension is the rank of A, i.e. the number of linearly independent columns of A
there's a few more steps to go from there, but i'll jump to your second point
regarding the row rank, consider that the alternative formulation of matrix multiplication is via inner products
in Ax = y, each entry in A is the inner product of a row from A with x
so that in order to obtain Ax = 0, x must be orthogonal to all the rows of A
the rows are of size n, and there are r linearly independent rows
by this definition, the set of x for which Ax = 0 is the orthogonal complement of the space spanned by the r linearly independent rows
you can go from there
Thanks Ed !
I think i could see why now
( but not really clear about it yet, but i think i will soon )
If I have an overdetermined inconsistent system Ax=b, I can always find a solution minimizing it in an L2 sense: A^TAx = A^Tb. If I have an underdetermined system I generally have to add extra constraints, or drop some unknowns and columns, right?
That is, there are no other options (excluding minimisations wrt another metric for the overdetermined case), right?
Well, if you assume $A$ has an inverse:
[ 5A^3 + 3A^2 - 4A = 0 \implies A(5A^2 + 3A) = 4A \implies A(5A + 3I) = 4I]
[ \implies A^{-1} = \frac{1}{4}(5A + 3I) ]
Confused as to what we did in the third step
you did the mult wrong though
sorry i dropped the 4
in at least 3 places



