#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 277 of 1
This T is, in fact, nonlinear. But you can't just intuitively guess that
I agree the previous example has an easy way of looking at it, but that avoids the problem at hand I think
So why can't I convert to rectangular coordinates and get the result that way? I don't understand
Let $V$ the vector space of all real functions continuous on $[a,b]$. If $f \in V$, $T: V\to V, g = T(f)$ defined by $$g(x) = \int_a^b f(t)\sin(x - t),dt$$ for $a \le x \le b$. Determine if $T$ is linear, and compute the rank and nullity of $T$.
n/c
T is linear and it's not difficult to show that, but how can I compute the nullity or rank of this? We need $g(x) = 0 = \int_a^b f(t)\sin(x-t) ,dt$
n/c
So we need $\sin(x-t) = 0$ or $f(t) = 0$
n/c
So f could be the zero function, or sin(x - t) = 0 when x - t is a multiple of pi....
I'm confused on how to continue this
are you sure you are asked to find the rank and nullity? because your V is infinite dimensional
also space of all functions is too vague, there are non integrable functions
Non integrable continuous real functions?
Yeah how?
rank and nullity make sense for infinite dimensional too
The B & W Leather Company wants to add handmade belts and wallets to its product line. Both belts and wallets require cutting and sewing. Each belt requires2 hours of cutting time and 6 hours of sewing time. Each wallet requires3 hours of cutting time and 3 hours of sewing time. The cutting machine is available for 13 hours and the sewing machine is available for 21 hours. The company makes $18 profit per belt and $12 profit per wallet.
what will the constraints be?
well there some methods you can try, first note that your kernel sin(x-t) is separable, so write it in terms of sin,cos
then blah blah blah
if x = belts y = wallets
@uncut quartz This is not linear algebra, can you please get another channel?
ik but what channel would thi go in
I don't know, try one of the questions channels
i mean technically it will be a system of equations
but the help channels suffice for that
it's fine
it's Linear Programming

These are the constraints I got x < 8 y < 6 x + y < 13 x + y < 21
the underline is there in the <
idk how to add it
=<
I got it
you should also have non-negativity constraints x,y >= 0
since it's 2 variable, you can pick any 2 equation of these and solve for x,y and see which point gives you the max (min)
What about my problem?
.
Oh okay
So $\sin(x-t) = \sin x \cos t - \sin t \cos x$
n/c
yes
so $\int f(t)\sin(x-t) = \sin(x) \int f(t)\cos(t) - \cos(x) \int f(t)\sin(t)$ now assume $\int f(t)\cos(t) = c_1$ and $ \int f(t)\sin(t)=c_2$
just follow the article or google,
So $x = \arctan \frac{c_2}{c_1}$ for nonzero $c_i$ (otherwise it's a trivial solution)?
n/c
I really don't understand the article
so basically an exercise gives me a 4x4 Matrix and I have 3 linearly independent vectors that basically are basis if I am not mistaken. Then it asks me to find a 4th one that make up IR^4. How can I find the 4th one?
I hope I make sense
How do these 3 linearly independent vectors relate to the matrix? Or putting it another way, what does the matrix have to do with the question?
The 4x4 Matrix consists of those 3 linearly independent vectors and one random one which is linearly dependent to those 3 independent ones
but I need to find a 4th one that is not linearly independent
so just scale one of your 3 vectors..
{v1,v2,v3,2v1} will have the 4th vector be dependent on the others
assuming {v1,v2,v3} form an independent set
sorry mb , I meant to say a 4th one that is not linearly dependent
At least one of the four standard basis vectors will be linearly independent of the three you have. You can just check them in sequence.
it's true that the operation "take a submatrix" distributes, right?
Please ask your questions in the open channels.
i.e. if $A = BC$ and $A_{(i_1, i_2, i_3)}$ represents the submatrix formed by taking the rows + columns $(i_1, i_2, i_3)$ of $A$, then $A_{(i_1, i_2, i_3)} = B_{(i_1, i_2, i_3)} C_{(i_1, i_2, i_3)}$
capitalsigma
can somebody help me with this?
are thes two formula's the same?
bd i tried to solve this and it gave me zero
i used the second formula
How to check that given linear transformation has inverse ?
Got it
Can we find linear transformation whose matrix representation is given matrix . I mean is there any method do this ?
for a real mxn matrix A define T:R^n->R^m by Tx=Ax
Okay ty !
Let $V$ the vector space of all real functions continuous on $[a,b]$. If $f \in V$, $T: V\to V, g = T(f)$ defined by $$g(x) = \int_a^b f(t)\sin(x - t),dt$$ for $a \le x \le b$. Determine if $T$ is linear, and compute the rank and nullity of $T$. T is linear and it's not difficult to show that, but how can I compute the nullity or rank of this? We need $g(x) = 0 = \int_a^b f(t)\sin(x-t) ,dt$ So we need $\sin(x-t) = 0$ or $f(t) = 0$
n/c
We can split it up into $\sin(x-t) = \sin x \cos t - \sin t \cos x$ and so $x = \arctan \frac{c_2}{c_1}$ but I don't know how to proceed from here
n/c
is V not infinite-dimensional tho
also what are c_1 and c_2
what are you even doing
I'm expanding the integral and setting $\int_a^b f(t) \cos t = c_1$
n/c
and similarly for (...) * sin t = c_2
what for
if you don't know why you're doing something then why do it
About the Friedberg Method or something
still
why are they having you compute rank and nullity in an inf-dim vector space
that's what i'm weirded out by
are you SURE thats what the exercise wants from you
The exercise statement is verbatim
i mean ok like... $g(x) = \sin(x) \int_a^b f(t)\cos(t) \dd{t} + \cos(x) \int_a^b f(t) (-\sin(t)) \dd{t}$
Ann
so the image of T is spanned by sin(x) and cos(x)
so one could say the rank is 2
that just makes it more obvious that the nullity is infinite however
Why is it obvious?
V is infinite-dimensional
$g(x) = \sin(x) \int_a^b f(t)\cos(t) \dd{t} + \cos(x) \int_a^b f(t) (-\sin(t)) \dd{t}$
Ann
for every function f you have that Tf is a linear combination of sin(x) and cos(x)
thus im(T) ⊆ span{sin(x), cos(x)}
the reverse inclusion is annoying to show explicitly, and i would strongly advise against it unless you like prowling through page upon page of pointless algebra,
but it is in principle possible to find a function f that makes one of those integrals 1 and the other 0
But f could also be something else
wym
You said we can find f to make one of those integrals 1 and the other 0
there exists f such that Tf = sin(x)
and there exists f such that Tf = cos(x)
But f could be something else as well
ok f could be something else as well so what
my sub-goal here is to show sin(x) ∈ im(T) and cos(x) ∈ im(T)
this amounts to finding suitable inputs to T to produce sin(x) and cos(x) as outputs
But that's not enough is it? We need every linear combination of sin(x) and cos(x) to be elements of im(T)
once you have those, you can get any linear combination of sin(x) and cos(x) by linearity.
like
because T is linear
say you already have two functions $f_1$ and $f_2$ such that $Tf_1 = \sin(x)$ and $Tf_2 = \cos(x)$ then you have that $\alpha \sin(x) + \beta \cos(x) = T(\alpha f_1 + \beta f_2)$
Ann
i hope for both of our sakes that wasn't sarcastic.
No it wasn't it clicked perfectly
The whole problem that is, I appreciate your help
can someone help me show that this is a linear transformation
i know its just aT(x)=T(ax), and, T(x+y)=T(x)+T(y)
but idk how to show that
that's basically it, just do some substitutions
consider an (x1,x2,x3) and a (u1,u2,u3)
now try T(x1,x2,x3) and T(u1,u2,u3) and add them up
and then try T(x1+u1, x2+u2, x3+u3)
you already have an expression for these, so just apply your transformation T
Like this?
for scalar multiplicaiton?
its supposed to stay as minus i didnt mean to change it
yeah
now, the preferred way is to write it in a way that shows you can reach one expression from the other
so you could write this as kT(a1,a2,a3) = k(a1-a2, a3) = (ka1 - ka2, ka3) = T(ka1, ka2, ka3)
and the procedure is much the same for addition
in this case yes, assuming scalar multiplication works the usual way
just make sure to keep track of how scalar multiplication and vector addition are defined, since this might make it a bit trickier
but in this case, for usual vector addition and scalar mult, yes
ait thx
Looks like I should find some sort of "Gram-Schmidt-ish" algorithm for finding such Q, but I am lost on the details... any ideas??
This is my solution to the above question, is it sufficient? I was wondering if I should somehow show some algebraic operations to show their equivalent.
If $b = \sum c_iv_i = \sum d_iv_i$ then $\sum c_iv_i = \sum d_iv_i$ or $\sum (c_i-d_i)v_i = 0$. Since $v_i$s are independent, this must imply that $c_i - d_i = 0$ for each $i$ or $c_i = d_i$
n/c
@frozen turtle
Hmmm alright that works. But does that mean that my solution is incorrect per se? Or should i have also included what u said?
Not sure I just think your solution is bulky
It just seems a bit handwavy as well
Mine is more concrete
Hahah yea, i'm just v new to proofs so im not as concise as I'd like to be
For example, you use the fact that there must exist a pivot in each column which then implies a unique solution, but this requires a proof
My proof doesn't use that, it only uses what we're given
You're welcome
<@&286206848099549185>
Hello. Can anyone explain me what the image of a transformation is, and how to calculate it?
ok so one possible you can do it is by reversing the construction. given Q is orthogonal, we can multiply both side by Q and get $$QQ^TA-QDQ^T=QR \ \implies A-QDQ^T = QR$$
so A+QR = QDQ' which says it's symmetric
maybe work out from here
@brittle gyro ?
@sullen bay ok so you have 2b(a+b)=0, try find another equation by using their norm(v)=1
that was a weird typing experience ngl
I tried that
(thank you kindly for your help by the way)
Nothing really makes sense to me, I ended up with a bunch of algebra that didn't really got me anywhere 😅
like have u tried setting a²+3b²=1?

Solved it thank you @zinc timber
I managed to deal with a 2eq & 2unknowns
Thank you for the help

why are the "a1, a2, ... , a n" entries bold. isnt the x supposed to be the vectors and the "a" terms the weights (scalars)??
no. the columns a1,..,an of A are vectors. x is a vector but its entries x1,..,xn are scalars
I agree, but Im not getting how this improves the situation though, still can't describe Q and/or R from A and D
help <@&286206848099549185>
This is not the right place for this. See #prealg-and-algebra.
hello. im guessing id be able to put differential equation questions here too?
or should i do that in calculus
Differential equations go in #odes-and-pdes.
no
well, it depends what you mean by functional
its not a linear functional
are your functionals defined to be linear?
like, does a functional f need to satisfy f(cv + w) = cf(v) + f(w)
in that case, ye F(M) = det(M) is a good example
Is (AB)^n=(A^n)(B^n)?
not unless A and B commute

could i ask how do i prove the second theorem?
m not sure how to continue from here, cuz the cofactor of A has changed?
There doesn't exist a t such that A is not diagonalizable?
The geometric multiplicity of the Eigenraums is always 1.
The algebraic multiplicity of (-x+t)*(x-5)*(x+1) is always 1
Am I missing something?
they're called eigenspaces in english, just for the record
but also have you considered that there are values of t for which the characteristic polynomial has a repeated root?
such as t=5
or t=-1
without context, what's jup?
jup [, that works, I'm dumb]

If I have $C$ real skew-symmetric then I know that all of its eigenvalues are imaginary or zero. Let $C = B^HA + A^T\overline{B}$. Then it should follow that $C$ is zero correct? Since $C$ is real and thus the rhs must be real, and $(B^HA+A^T\overline{B})^T = A^T\overline{B} + B^HA$ implies that the rhs has only real eigenvalues.
criver
Or more simply $C^T = -C$ but $(B^HA+A^T\overline{B})^T = B^HA+A^T\overline{B}$
criver
looks like it
This only zero fulfills this (assuming C is real)
What happens if I set iC
Then the eigenvalues of iC are zero or real
But complex roots come in pairs
So it's indefinite
(though if the field is of char=2 then C may not be zero)
I am assuming $\mathbb{C}$
criver
yes
So iC implies that the rhs must be fully imaginary
only matrix which is both symmetric and skew-symmetric is zero
Can I say anything for the fully imaginary $D =B^HA+A^T\overline{B}, , D^T=D$
criver
If I identify $iC = D$
criver
Does this imply 0 only once again?
yes, for a short argument you can multiply both side of C=.. by i and conclude iC=D=0
thought there's a ^H in the exponent
My question is why would I be able to conclude this
but D still D^T=D and D^T=-D so it's ok probably
This is not the same as the initial problem
Ah it is
Yeah D turns into only imaginary eigenvalues
first by showing D is symmetric and then by assumption it's skew symmetric?
wasn't that the assumption?
No the assumption is that iC = D
oh I see what you meant
but then the matrix turns into a complex one
purely imaginary one*
skew symm has imag evs if it's real skew symm
it doesn't say anything about complex matrix tho
If C was real skewsymm then multiplying by i
Would make it indefinite
Each eigenvalue gets multiplied by i
So I get real eigenvalues, but they were conjugate pairs, so I guess +-
Is that fine to this point?
The initial assumption was that C is real skewsymmetric, them iC must be fully imaginary and indefinite
yes, also we can have 0's
Now requiring that $B^HA+A^T\overline{B} = D = iC$ does any being zero follow
criver
D is imaginary but D^T = D
I think it's simpler actually, if C was skew symmetric then
C^T = -C
$A = \m{0 & i \ -i & 0}$ then it's skew-symmetric but eigen values are +1,-1 which is not purely imaginary
yes but C was assumed real
no I was talking for D
Ah
I enforced that it must be purely imaginary since it kust equal a purely imaginary matrix
Finally if I have $C + iF = D = B^HA + A^T\overline{B}$, where $C$ skew-symmetric and $D$ either symmetric or skew-symmetric, does anything change
criver
It's clear that D is still symmetric, but now it doesn't have to be real or imaginary only
what's D? should be C+iD?
oh sry didn't see it
C is real skew-symmetrix, F is real skew-symmetric or symmetric
ok now $D^T = (C+iF)^T = C^T+iF^T = -C+iF^T$ do we know anything about F?
ok so either symm of skew
let me see: D= R + iI = R^T + iI
if it's symm then we get $D^T=D$ meaning $C+iF = -C+iF$ equating real and complex parts we get $C=0$ so D is purely imaginary
So I guess same thing
I was doing this to verify that Ax cannot be the derivative of any energy of the form
$\langle Ax, Bx\rangle$
is the answer satisfying?
criver
ok after this I have no idea
Yes, considering I was trying to prove there exist no A and B resulting in a skew-symmetric derivative: Cx
The above is
$\frac{d}{dx}\langle Ax, Bx\rangle = (B^HA+A^T\overline{B})x$
criver
Which means that there is no energy of the above form (A,B linear) whose derivative $Cx$ results in a skew-symmetric matrix
criver
i.e. if I integrate it I get zero
I am assuming it acts like an odd function
I took x to be real though, I have no idea whether anything changes with a derivative wrt a complex x
ya that's what I was wondering as well, $\ip{Ax, Bx} = x^TB^HAx$
now the derivative follows, I see
This all arose from trying to find an energy for
nice
$\frac{d^m f}{dx^m}$ where $m$ is odd
criver
For even degrees they have the energy
probably something to do with the operator being self adjoint
$\langle (-\Delta)^{m/2} f, (-\Delta)^{m/2} f\rangle$ resulting in differential operators $(-\Delta)^m f$
criver
because for odd degrees ddx is not self adjoint
Yes, odd degree derivatives are skew adjoint without extra boundary conditions
Which means there's no energy for those
Even degrees is the above
But if you set m odd, you get a pseudodifferential operator
And not d^m/dx^m
If I set boundary conditions that are not 0 at the boundary they show up in the adjoint though, so there the odd one is not exactly skew-adjoint.
I am an engineer 
Most of our methods get regularised implicitly by just discretising. The above is not the case though since it results in a skew-symmetric matrix even in the discrete case, which turns singular with Dirichlet BCs. So what's done is that one takes unsymmetric derivative discretisations (upwind schemes). I am assuming that corresponds to one-sided derivatives in the continuous setting, but I am not sure.
Either way, thanks a lot for the discussion. 👍
I figured out something else, let C and L be skew-symmetric matrices, then (LC)^T = C^TL^T = CL, that is, it is symmetric
To me this would imply that if I have another skew-adjoimt operator applied, then I would get something symmetric and thus derivable from an energy (or at least I think so). I'll have to think about what this means though. Some kind of integral of the derivative with a skew symmetric kernel.
Let $U,V,W$ be vector spaces over the same field $F$. Assume $S$ and $T$ are in $\mathcal{L}(V,W)$, and let $c \in F$. For any function $R$ with values in $V$, we have $(S+T)R = SR + TR$
n/c
The wording is a bit weird, this means R is also a linear map right?
I suppose not
We can define $R: X \to V$
you can come up with a counterexample
n/c
And then $[(S+T)]R(x) = (S+T)(v)$, where $V \ni R(x) = v$
n/c
And X need not be a linear space
Likew hat?
come up with nonlinear function f whose value are in V. I am thinking of f : R -> V= R where f(x) = x^2.
take something simple, like f(x) = (x^2, x^3 + 1)
and have S and T be some matrix of size 2x2
How does that disprove it?
Oh you meant prove that R need not be linear?
more like "disprove that R is linear"
Sorry I thought you meant counter example to the theorem lol
What about the way I did it?
Since R(x) in V, say R(x) = v for v in V, then (S+T)(v) = (S+T)R(x)
And (S+T)(v) = Sv + Tv by definition
So Sv + Tv = SR(x) + TR(x)
it's the same thing
To prove the theorem?
Did I do these proofs correctly?
how can you check that some linear operator $L$ is linear if you have $L(uv)$ where $u,v\in V$? is there like a condition for this
2M
i thought it was $uL(v)+vL(u)$ but im not sure
2M
@nocturne jewel V doesn't have to be a vsp
this V is not only a vector space. multiplication of vectors is extra structure
Bumping this
a map that obeys some properties
Which properties?
in my problem they are functions but i don think that makes any difference
yes that makes a difference, cause uv is actually defined
Okay so that's the definition of a linear map, assuming V is a vector space
it makes a big difference :x
And we define uv to be the composition of u and v
oh yea right, how does it look then if V is a function space
That is, let x in \dom V, and so (uv)(x) = u(v(x))
yea mb forgot
uv is product not comp
My text would define ST as the composition
ok ill state the question differently sorry: how can you check that some operator $L$ is linear if you have $L(fg)$ where $f,g\in V$? and $V$ is a function space is there like a condition for this
no condition
I don't understand what you mean by linear operator is linear
You are saying it's linear already?
you need to check L(f+g)=L(f)+L(g) and L(cf)=cL(f)
2M
L(fg) doesn't have any meaning when checking if L is linear
Anyway
I'm gonna repost my proof
http://mathb.in/70442 can someone check it please?
yea i just realized i read my text wrong
thx
This property does have a name though, but it has nothing to do with linearity
Called a Leibnitz rule
But yeah, Leibnitz rule isn't linearity, linearity is additivity and homogeneity
Hello. How do I find the values of a for which the inverse of A =
Use Fundamental Theorem of Invertible Matrices
Okay, thank you. I am going to look that up
I am going to search for an example because I'm lost haha
Find when the determinant is nonzero
In your case det = -a
So for any a!= 0
amazing tysm
Hey, guys, I'm finding the eigenvectors for this matrix with eigenvalues 2 and 3, and I'll explain my question right after I send my work here:
Basically, I came to this as my solution - checking on Symbolab, they seem to have let t = 2 in order to come to integer solutions for the vector
Thank you!
Is that necessary to do? Is it just to keep the solution simpler or is there an overlying reason for it?
okay, thank you!
The definition is simply that $Av = \lambda v$
criver
So any non-zero rescaling works
You also get the $(A-\lambda I)v = 0$ from the above and the subsequent $|A-\lambda I|=0$ characteristic polynomial
criver
so a vector space is a set of vectors. Could someone please assist with explaining what a basis is?
a basis set is a set of vectors that are linearly independent and span the entire space
Equivalently, you can write every other vector as a linear combination of all the basis vectors
(add "in precisely one way" to the second line)
A fruitful way to look at it is that a basis gives you a coordinate system for the vector space. If the vector space is just R^n, you have coordinates for it already, of course -- but vector spaces can be weirder than that, and then it's useful to be able to write vectors as coordinates by choosing a basis.
And even if it is R^n, some problems become much simpler if you switch to a different coordinate system than the one R^n comes with out of the box.
thanks guys - that really helps actually to conceptualize
apologies if i am butchering this but I have to approach this like im a 5 year old.
Vector space is a set of all vectors. Basis is how we plot these vectors within the vector space
im rereading yours and Trops explanation. one moment please
it sounds like the basis is the plane on which the vectors lie?
No, the basis is just a few vectors, not an entire plane.
A basis gives a way to describe the vectors in a space (think about vector form of a line that passes through the origin)
$\vec{x}=\vec{d}t$ is the equation of such line, and ${\vec{d}}$ forms a basis of the line
Mosh
For example we might say
I want to describe my vector space with a coordinate system with tree axes, such that I'll call this vector (1,0,0) and that vector (0,1,0) and that one over there (0,0,1), and everything else will have coordinates consistent with those choices".
Whether that actually gives you a description of the entire vector space depends on what "this" and "that" and "that one over there" vector actually are -- but IF it actually works, those three vectors are a "basis".
so it sounds like to me that the basis serves as a "template" for any vectors
i don't know if "template", more like "pieces"
because the resulting vectors won't necessarily "look like" any of the vectors you started with
a basis is an independent spanning set.
@nocturne jewel could you please describe an independent spanning set? I am unable to interpret. Im currently watching 3blue1brown linear algebra series
one step further please - "span the space"
span(B)=V
for basis B and space V
You can refer to your textbook for what span() is
that i will do - appreciate the help here fellas
do you have a preferred intro text on linear algebra?
@nocturne jewel the span of v and w (2 vectors) is the set of all of their linear combinations.
av + bw = linear combination
a and b are scalars which stretch or shrink the v and w vectors.
the span in this case is usually the entire 2D space.
"what are all the possible vectors we can get using vector addition and scalar multiplication?" = span
yes, span is the set of linear combinations
$$$ tysm
the span in this case is usually the entire 2D space.
Not always true, as you assumed Euclidean space
sometimes the vectors will lay on top of each other, in that case it would be a line. I mentioned usually because that is ususally the case (i think)
Yes, if the vectors are dependent, you don't have a basis
hecking heck its starting to make sense
Likely a simple question (and me being stupid again); feel free to ping me.
@thin wing u conflated set theoretic complement & subspace complement
this shouldve come up as a red flag anyway bc in nontrivial cases a set theoretic complement isnt a subspace hence it doesnt make sense to talk of its dimension
Ah thank you!
thats it
It's a bit confusing of the text to write that complement as $\mathrm{ker}(\tau)^c$, as if it were a uniquely determined function of $\mathrm{ker}(\tau)$, though.
Troposphere
they do say ker(T)^c is a complement instead of the complement, but indeed its a bit misleading
@thin wing see this too
Yeah I was wondering about that earlier, since we know 0 isn't within the set complement of ker(τ), making it not a subspace. Thanks for that explanation!
hey guys, can someone explain this to me?
Let me know if "linearly independent" is a new term.
I know what linearly independence is, but for my explanation I am confused as to what to write, should I just write out the linear combination
Well the explanation is akin to explaining if 3 vectors can be linearly independent in a 2D space, and vice versa: can 2 vectors be linearly independent in 3D space.
Omg my Discord is freaking out, didn't mean to spam lol.. I kept pressing "retry" as it fails to send, but apparently that means "send 100 copies".
Anyways, you follow?
How do I show this if I don't know if matrix multiplication commutes here?
If this were MEa it would be straightforward since Ea is guaranteed to b e in V, and L maps V to V but I'm not sure how to do this since M is in the middle
@tired jungle does Ea denote a linear combo of e1,e2,e3 with the entries of a as coefficients?
yes
from Lv=EMa it seems M should be a matrix representation of L
yea I got that but I'm not sure how it all works since shouldn't M be on the outside then
since v = Ea, L(v) would be MEa no?
if M is the matrix representation of L
actually I'm not even sure what the question is asking anymore
V is an arbitrary space. Ea isnt necessarily in R^3 so MEa doesnt make sense as a product
so M should somehow represent L in the sense that Ma is the coordinates of Lv wrt E
wait why isn't Ea in R^3? I thought it would automatically be there since V is a 3-d vector space
oh wait nvm I get you
if a=(r,s,t) then Ea=re1+se2+te3 is in V, which itself isnt necessarily R^3
ok yea I get you its an abstract vector space
So L(v) = EMa, how does this all work exactly? E is a basis (?), M the matrix representation of the linear map L, and a is a vector in R^3
if we evaluate it left to right, from E to M to A, i'm not even sure what comes out when EM is done
M is the matrix representation, so if L:V→V, then M:V→V, so EM∈V
@thin wing no
Ma is a vector in R^3
now recall i asked u this
does Ea denote a linear combo of e1,e2,e3 with the entries of a as coefficients?
u confirmed it
i just said a is in R^3
I was wrong
ah yea I know a is in R^3 but I don't know if M can act on a if it isn't in V
since R^3 and V are different
We want to preserve the basis, so M:ℝ³→ℝ³
M is a matrix
oh
not a map
yea lol
just reposting so we can see it again
a is a vector in R^3
M is a matrix
Ma is a vector in R^3
so EMa is the linear combo of e1,e2,e3 with the entries of Ma as its coefficients
use the hint that M should represent L to construct M
ok thanks will try
more specifically this
so M should somehow represent L in the sense that Ma is the coordinates of Lv wrt E
again wrong. M is a matrix, not a map, and the question requires lots of care to distinguish between the two
It's because I'm implicitly talking about the "multiplication operator" between M and a, so ‧:M₃ ͓₃(ℝ)×ℝ³→ℝ³. I see that M itself is not the map. To be frank, I am thrown off by this question, so I'll take some time to ponder it as well.
Btw, sorry for interrupting. As you can see, it's also helping me learn heh..
thats not the map either. again, M should represent L
The binary operator is not a map? (M₃ ͓₃(ℝ) is to represent the set of all 3×3 matrices, not the same as M in the problem.)
So I just have a question about this, MA outputs a vector in R^3. However, if this is not the same vector as the original vector a, how can it be guaranteed to land in V?
EMa is in V
the role of M here is to represent L, not a map R^3->R^3
hi this is part 2 of the question, what exactly is f() here?
this directly follows from the first
the first is found here
I'm pretty sure that's a typo, it's meant to be F. If I'm wrong, I probably should move to Pluto.
yea you're probably right
It is weird why now they're using parenthesis, so I am nervous.
Is this one of those symbol modification questions where I edit both sides of a matrix equation
seems like it since R is invertible
so E(Ma) = F(Nb)
E(Ma) = ER(Nb)
or am i going the wrong way
Yeah that's what I did.
how do u identify a polynomial
look at it and check if it meets the definition, however that's more apt for #prealg-and-algebra
how did you eliminate the b and a? since the question states for only R,R-1,M?
Since you know v=Fb and v=Ea
was I not supposed to cancel the E's then
(hint: Use the fact that F=ER)
Yep
wait why A, I thought that was a typo for a
fake tree
So bring everything to one side
I don't think M or N are invertible though
Additively, not multiplicatively
There you go
R⁻¹ has an inverse.
could you elaborate on that? So you want to move R^-1 to the other side?
RR^-1M = RNR^-1
M = RNR^-1
How about the other way?
Matrix multiplication is associative, is it not?
yea
So doesn't matter which order you multiply (hense no parenthesis)
ok i get you now
I forgot linear algebra thanks
Yeah they're weird terms to learn the first time (elementary school doesn't count, even I forgot them from there).
Btw, I think to be pedantic, a doesn't necessarily have an inverse so you can't really divide by it. So what really happens is since you know (R⁻¹M-NR⁻¹)a=0, and a isn't the zero vector (which is another case, which is trivial), then R⁻¹M-NR⁻¹ must be 0.
sorry, I get the associative part but how does it eliminate NR^-1 again?
(RN)R^-1 = R(NR^-1)
Well if R⁻¹ has an inverse, then it has a left and right inverse.
Nope, undo that move.
Yes, so what you did that took you to the wrong direction was you multiplied by a matrix R to the left, but you should multiply by a matrix to the right.
but how is that possible? using associativity I mean
I thought matrices were always multiplied to the left of an existing expression
Not necessarily
As long as you do to one side you can do to the other then you're fine.
Oh
ok thanks I guess that makes sense
since we can take R = R
and multiply that equivalent expressnion to both sides?
i mean R^-1M = NR^-1 to both sides?
Note this is not the case for certain cases like with functions. i.e. take f∘x=x², then f∘x‧x doesn't make sense since (f∘x)‧x≠f∘(x‧x).
is that what you mean
so why is it applicable now is it only because it's invertible
Because we're only doing matrix multiplication (which is "well behaved"), not function composition
oh
So to be safe, always use parenthesis. In this case R⁻¹M=NR⁻¹⇒ (R⁻¹M)R=(NR⁻¹)R, but we know matrix multiplication is associative with itself, therefore (R⁻¹M)R=(NR⁻¹)R⇒R⁻¹MR=NR⁻¹R.
Sure
matrices are hurting me today
At least this problem's basically done.
Cheers
ty for your help btw
Np, just unfortunate I made a lot of big blunders earlier lol.
how do you get good at the abstract stuff
like I don't see the point of all this abstract space
like Hom(v,w) or something or like V* that maps like v to a real number
like sometimes I read the notes and it is so far removed from what I see on the hw like this slide
Will I ever need that stuff in a future class I mean, cause I low key just want to focus on the concrete stuff that I see in hw and leave the abstract stuff for a later class
What's your major?
cs
With practice. In my case, a good start was watching "Lectures on Geometrical Anatomy of Theoretical Physics" lectures by Frederick Schuller. It's a lot of abstract math, but I love the professor's way of teaching things so simply.
Some documents may assume you know it (although for CS it's usually understood you may not have a strong background) since it's usually an important way to simplify/answer problems depending on your field.
How do I show this without using a dimension argument?
I'm assuming that they don't want me to use one cause the sets orthonormal which probably has something to do with inner product idk
and cross product has not been introduced
<@&286206848099549185> any tips without a dimension argument
Oh jeez, would I be correct to replace (e₁,e₂) with {e₁,e₂}, and [E] with span(E)?
So then it's up to us to find a vector in ℝ³ that is linearly independent from {e₁,e₂}
isn't this like abstract though
no concrete stuff to work with
unless you mean like let e_1 = (a1,b1,c1) e_2 = (a2, b2, c2)
and try to find something
I suppose, but this is standard for a linear algebra course.
I mean, that could work.
Write the equation of dependence for those two, and use the conditions for them to be linearly independent and you should get a free variable, which can form the third basis (which is a nonzero vector not in the span of E).
by equation fo dependence, do you mean:
$\alpha_1 e_1 + \alpha_2 e_2$ = 0?
fake tree
Yea
But I may be jumping to the wrong thing, since they don't say e₁ and e₂ are linearly independent.
I'm not sure why they included normal since the length shouldn't matter, but I'm not sure if "orthogonal" implies linearly independent was proven.
Anyways, yeah I think using the equation of dependence is okay, let me try it and see if it really works.
yea I think orthonormal implies independence since you can use inner product to prove it
Yeah I'm pretty sure if you wrote an equation of dependence for e₁, e₂, and v you can find a v such that all the coefficients must be zero, meaning v is linearly independent from E, thus not in span(E).
Assume F is a field not of characteristic two, let $W_1$ be the subspace of $M_{nxn}(F)$ of all skew-symmetric matrices and let $W_2$ be the subspace of $M_{nxn}(F)$ of all symmetric matrices. I need to show $M_{nxn}(F) = W_1 \bigoplus W_2$ where $\bigoplus$ denotes the direct sum of $W_1$ and $W_2$.
I meant I wasn't sure if they proved that for you yet, but anyways doesn't seem relevant. Or maybe I gave you a nuke, lol.
Plegasus
just proved that 1 problem ago 💀
Oh, gg
where are stuck exactly?
I am confused on how I should start this.
show their intersection is {0}
then any M_nxn can be written as a sum of symm part and skew-symm part
so W1+W2 = M
when you include v, do you mean that $a_1e_1+a_2e_2+a_3v=0$? Or do you mean re-arrangements of the first equation $a_1e_1+a_2e_2=0$ and try to wrangle something
fake tree
The first case, since you can find an arbitruary v such that a₁,a₂,a₃ are all zero, which implies L.I.
Alternatively, for the second case what'd you do is a proof by contradiction: Assume to the contrary that v is an arbitruary vector in ℝ³, and that any v can be written as a linear combination of E: v=αe₁+βe₂. If you worked that out component-wise, you'll find that you have to restrict the components of v, which is a contradiction to the "any v can be written...".
sorry, could you elaborate on the first case? So you are trying to find an arbitrary v, from a1,a2,a3,e1,e2 such that the only way that the equation is 0 is if the constants are 0?
Yes, so the equation of dependence is αe₁+βe₂+γv=0, if you prove that ∃v∈ℝ³: αe₁+βe₂+γv=0⇒α=0, β=0, and γ=0, then you proved e₁,e₂, and v are linearly independent, thus v∉span(E).
Ok I will try thatl, thanks
Just to confirm, define $T(1,0) = (1,0,1)$ and $T(0,1) = (-1,0,1)$. Then the matrix with ordered bases (1,0) and (0,1) with cod bases (1,0,1), (-1,0,1),(0,1,0) will give the diagonal matrix, correct?
n/c
Need a sanity check
Yeah that's how my text defines diagonal
then according to your text, it's diagonal
yes
Thanks. Is there any software I can use to confirm this?
I know how to use matrices in wolframalpha but not how to specify bases
I meant in general, what if I have like a 6x10 matrix
Then it'd be really annoying to confirm it by hand
any software with mat mul support
ex-WA
you need to put the basis on your own
P^{-1}TP
is what you need to use
The change of basis formula?
yes
Okay thanks
So this is the Gaussian-Approximation. We have an orrthonormalsystem psi.
On the fourier series we have this:
Isn't ak supposed to have the factor pi^(-1/2)
Same for bk.
if you have a linear map $\phi: T\to D$ $T,D$ are vectorspaces with $v\mapsto D_v$ where $D_v$ is a differential operator, to prove this map is injective does it suffice to prove that $v = D_v$?
2M
for some value of D_v
$\phi(v)=\phi(u)\implies u=v$ is injectivity
Mosh
hmm im follwing this proof and its supposes D_v = 0
and then it follows v = 0
then they say its injective
i was wondering why that also works
Yeah, Ker(T)={0} iff T is injective
oh great
thanks

Let V have basis (1,x,x^2,x^3) and define T: V->V to be the map xp'(x) = T(p(x))
Let D be the differentiation map i.e. p(x) is mapped to p'(x) under D
I am trying to find the matrix for T^2D^2 - D^2T^2
I did this by computing D^2 first which gives us 0, 0, 2, 6x for each respective basis vector and then applying T^2 which then gives us 0,0,0,6x
Then I computed T^2 for each basis vector to get 0,x,4x^2,9x^3 and then applied D^2 to get 0,0,16,81x
So then $T^2D^2 - D^2T^2 = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 0 & 6 \ 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix} - \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 0 & 16 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 0 & 81 \ 0 & 0 & 0 & 0\ 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix}$
n/c
But this doesn't give the right result... I have the components in the right places, but it should be -8 and -48, not -16 and -75
Can someone find the mistake?
hold on
what's the second derivative of 4x^2?
one would think it's 8, not 16.
@wintry steppe
the function is $\phi: T_p\mathbb{R}^n\to\mathscr{D}_p\mathbb{R}^n$ such that $v\mapsto D_v$, how the hell does this prove surjectivity?
2M
carefully write down what it means for that function to be surjective
and you'll see that's exactly what the picture proves
yes thanks!
i got it now
does this correspond to only this orthonormal basis or also for an arbitrary basis?
another basis (orthonormal or not) will correspond to a different set of derivations
you have an isomorphism of vector spaces. it takes any basis to a basis
so what would the set of derivations look like for a basis that is orthogonal and have a length of 2
?
maybe work it out
i think that'd be a good exercise
if you know what the standard basis is sent to under this isomorphism then certainly you can figure out what any basis is sent to
care to send a hint?
i think this is something you should work out yourself
i will say that i don't have any particular result in mind
i have no idea how to begin
you have a map $\phi\colon T_p\bR^n \to \mathcal{D}p\bR^n$ given by $\phi(e_i) = \partial/\partial x^i|p$, which means $$\phi(v) = \phi(v^1,\dots,v^n) = \sum{i=1}^n v^i\left.\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}\right|{p}.$$ this is a linear map. you are asking the following: "if $e_1',\dots,e_n'$ is another basis of $T_p\bR^n$, not necessarily the standard basis $e_1,\dots,e_n$, then what is $\phi(e_1'),\dots, \phi(e_n')?$
TTerra
maybe i don't understand the question
yes this is exactly my question
each e_i' can be expressed in terms of the standard basis
you get a change of basis matrix
you know how phi acts on the standard basis, so you should then be able to compute how phi acts on your new basis
this should all be review, it might be in tu's linear algebra appendix
right, thanks!
What does it mean if a space is too rich
And rich enough
Also, I’m confused about abstract vector spaces and their dimension
Something like R^3 is obviously dim 3 but what about something like the space of continuous functions
If the functions have domain of R2 is that space also dim 2
as far as i'm aware "rich" doesn't have a precise mathematical meaning here. can you give the context?
infinite-dimensional
Sure it’s related to borel/lebesgue sets in R^n and general space
It was in probability class
But it was mentioned in passing and idk what that is supposed to mean
hey i need help with my algebra 2 homework i am half way done i am just stuck on a few topic i just need some help understanding them
This isn’t the algebra 2 channel, try #precalculus or something
I'm really getting stuck on what exactly elemental matricies are
And it's making homework really difficult
I get the concept of elementary operations, but I'm not sure how to expand that the elemental matricies...
Like this - I'm not 100% what it's asking
I can row-operate my way between A and B, but I don't think that is what is being asked here
Oh
Am I just stupid?
Could I get a (non-specific) example of the difference between standard notation and 3x3 format?
what is standard notation
That's the hangup here
3x3 makes sense to me, right? It's the standard notation that's tripping me up
i would look back in your lecture notes, presumable in the lectures referenced there in the image
i don't recognize the term at a glance
I somehow worked out how to do the standard first
Because it was just stating the row operations
How can I interpretate this term?
We are dealing with gaussian-approximation. So we have the L2-Norm and a vectorspace over functions.
And psi is just a orthonormal basis of lets say the polynoms, and f any function C0[a,b], gN is the best approximation.
The basic idea I know is: We try to find a function g, that satisfies |f-g| < TOL. So we tolerate it if the error is smaller than that.
Maybe the square-error is easier to analyse. But whats the deal with TOL*(f,f)?
The prof said this is what we try to achieve, TOL is relative error.
I need a nudge in the right direction, after someone helps Toge
Just like a general idea of how to approach the problem
what's the entire question?
I need help computing the Jordan decomposition for this
So from my understanding it has algebraic mult. 3 and geometric mult 2 with eigenvectors (1,0,0) and (0,1,1)
So the Jordan canonical form is
3 1 0
0 3 0
0 0 3
but when I tried to find the change of basis matrix it doesn't work
Wouldn't it be
1 a 0
0 b 1
0 c 1
And then we do AW = WJ to find a b c?
but that gives 3a+1 = 3a
Why is the cartesian product not a vector space?
It is a vector space.
Yeahh I really thought so
But I am reading some book and it states. “Not all metric spaces are vector spaces. The cartesian product V x V can be turned in to a metric space ( another example which is not a vector space) bij defining some metric …..”
So it is implying that V x V is not a vector space which seems wrong to me, right?
just define addition coordinate wise so (a,b) + (c,d) = (a+c, v+d)
and c(u,v) = (cu, cv).
is V assumed to b a vector space?
Yess
Yeah, I think it is certainly just a typo
Thx tho
weird. yea
ami just dumb or is there not infinte solutions for this problem
99% sure im doing something wrong
You are right if you row echelon matrix is correct(didn’t check), you just need to add no solution if k not equal to -4 and 4. Since you know there a unique solution of k^2 - 16 not equal 0, you can easily deduce when you have infinite solution.
ok but what about the k-24
dont i have to get all 0s for it to have infinite solutions
Only matters if k^2 - 16 = 0 which happens k = 4 or -4.
In which we have k - 24 is not zero, so the system has no solution.
holy shit it should be positive 10
not negative

@halcyon spindle thx for the help btw
what is |$\phi$> in math notation lol
Neko
ok that didnt come out right
|v> is that just a matrix 💀 not familiar with notation for this physics class i'm in
@sleek sundial vector. physics calls them kets
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bra–ket_notation for details
thanks
A linear operator T is continuous because |Tv-Tw| < norm(T)*|v -w| and the operator norm on T gives an upper bound on how a vector is scaled. Does this sound correct?
If you have reason to know the operator norm is finite, yes.
can somebody help me with a question in the voice chat?
Potato
because it isn't
haha
because elements of $U\times V$ are of the form $(u, v)$
yes I know it's true
just x is not used in the context of vector spaces
Ahhh I see you cross it out 
what is your best candidate for the basis of UxV?
$\dim U \times \dim W$ ?
Potato
no
say ${u_1, u_2, \cdots, u_k}$ be a basis of $U$ and ${w_1, w_2, \cdots, w_l }$ is a basis of $W$
now think how should the basis of UxW will look like
consider any element $(\sum a_i u_i, \sum b_j w_j) \in U\times W$ and use linearity
plz guys I really need help
that's not actually a basis because wj are being repeated
that's why it's written as U \oplus W not times
anyway your basis $(u, w) = (u, 0) + (0, w)$
you get the basis $(u_i, 0), (0, w_j)$
Do you know linear algebra 2? @zinc timber
just put your question here
u can translate
lol
Hebrew i think
yes
lines and arcs
in short you need to find all of the Jordan forms
this is what I understood so far, $A\in \mbb{C}^{5\times 5}$ with rank(A) = 3 and $A^4 = -A^2$
what can $(u_i, w_j)$ be written into ?
ok
can you translate the whole question 
I mean you have this and the matrix is only with real components
is it given that A^4=-A^2 is the minimal polynomial or that's just an annihilator?
assuming it's only an annihilator, $f(x) = x^4+x^2$, we have $m(x) | f(x)$ or $m(x) | x^2(x^2+1)$
you need to find all the possible minimal polynomials first
( I could see why it is repeating now, thanks Ryu-sama
)
i think is has to be x^2
it doesn't have to x^2
ok give another form
first find all the possible factors then we shall take into account the rank(A)=3
we are not considering that for now
yes, we'll come to it later
ok
בהצלחה במבחן אחי
Here are the steps of the Method of Conjugate Gradients. I need to prove that the all of the $d_k$ are $B$-conjugate, that is, $d_k^T B d_j=0$ whenever $k \neq j$. The "obvious" induction approach led me nowhere. It is easy to show $d_{k+1}^T B d_k=0$, but even the simplest case, like $d_2^T B d_0$ for instance, feels like a dead end...
Sydd
Here is f
<@&286206848099549185> let me know if there's another channel where this question would be more appropriate. Thanks!
I am not sure whether there's a proof in Saad's book, but you can take a look there.
מישהו העלה פתרון לאתר
Hello
I am in my first year of university. Today my maths teacher gave me a problem to solve and no one in the class understood.
It was an application problem. I knew that I had to proceed by double implication but I didn't know how to continue. Can anyone give me the solution to this problem?
Let F:E-->F E and F be finite sets
show that f is injective if and only if some A is a part of E, A=f**(-1)(f(A))
In the picture, you will find the clue in french given by our math teacher.Thanks you very much
we dont give full solutions here. this is also more suited for #proofs-and-logic or #discrete-math
a hint is to unpack all relevant definitions (image, preimage, injective, etc)
Let F:E-->F E and F be finite sets
u mean F: E -> A?
oh wait
well F: E ->F still doesnt make sense right?
and this is relatively simple proof, think about what injective means in terms of invertibility of that function
@proper tundra ^
big hint: if $F : X \rightarrow Y$ is injective, it means that there is at most one $x \in X$ such that for a $y \in Y$, $f(x) = y$. that means that $F^{-1} : Y \rightarrow X$ right? if $A = F^{-1}(F(A))$, then $A = A$ because you are mapping from $X$ to $Y$ in $F$ and from $Y$ to $X$ in $F^{-1}$. can $F$ be injective if F^{-1}(F(A)) \not\in X?
koala
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
im trying to think of B before A. That's not possible because that implies rank = nullity and by the ranknullity theorem,
dimV = dim range T + dim null T = 5, so rank = nullity 2.5, and we aren't dealing with fractals so thats not possible?
Hey guys, suppose youre given a matrix, how do you know what sequence of elementary row operations to do to get the row echelon form or reduced row echelon form
is there any guide or do i have to grow an intuition
There’s an algorithm, but it won’t always be the most efficient
You essentially reduce each column one at a time
if doing it by hand; probably just try and filter by leading zeroes, then go column by column and zero all all but 1 row if possibile
Can someone give their opinion on if they think this is right? I emailed my teacher but im slightly unsure what it is to say the range and nullspace are "equal"
By equal they mean that they’re equal?
Anyways yes, I’m not sure why you used v_1… as coefficients in your vector (it’s not really an issue but it is confusing), but your proof is correct
like just the subspaces formed by them are equal?
I guess since L(V,W) is R4 to R4, V = W
They are subspace themselves? Wdym “formed”?
(Also I’m assuming the range is the image and the null is the kernel?)
yea
The image of T and the kernel of T are both subspaces
i think the think that made me hesitant was that range is a subset of W and nullspace is a subset of V, but since V=W its okay
so for this answer in order to be consistent lambda has to = 1 and -2 so i include both solution sets right??
@hardy inlet set equality, not much room to interpret anything else
?


idk why

pain

