#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 274 of 1
show me where the book says a subset must be independent
S is just a subset
Yeah, but if S is a subspace of V, it has to be equal to L(S)?
yes
Why?
use ur def of subspace
A subspace S of V is a subset of V which contains 0, closed under addition, and scalar multiplication
hence closed under finite linear combos right?
Huh I guess it must equal the span then, since the span is just all linear combinations...
So we only really use span for a subset that isn't a subspace? Because otherwise we could just say S
Yes I do
so u can take the span of a subspace but indeed theres 'redundancy' in that u get the same set
hey, I am not sure if this falls into this section but I'm trying to prove that given these two d-dimensional vectors, I can prove these given distance functions are a metric
I tried going to my TA's but they're all confused, and me and my peers are also completely lost
any form of guidance/resources would be greatly appreciated!
Your TA's are confused? They don't know the answers? That seems hard to believe.
we have a new professor teaching this course and the way he is teaching isn't like the old professor. So the TA's have not really had experience with these types of questions
For (c), the triangle inequality fails to hold. There's a simple counterexample with d=1. Consider x=0 and y=2.
The first two are indeed metrics, so instead of seeking a counterexample, you will need to prove that the conditions for a metric are satisfied.
bungo, you are a literal life saver
(b) is the harder one to prove. You will need the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality.
do you know any good resources I could consult to see how to prove?
need a bit more than that
Yeah, I didn't mean to imply that it's all you need. 😁
The first one is called the L1 (or taxicab) metric and the second is the L2 (or euclidean) metric, searching for these terms might help.
http://mathb.in/69878 Can someone review my work?
I'll look into that, I'm also just confused what the L22 means, my prof didn't really explain it. I'm sorry if this is a basic concept
A general class of metrics is of the form $$\left(\sum_{i=1}^{d}|x_i - y_i|^{p}\right)^{1/p}.$$ where $p \geq 1$. These are called the $L^p$ metrics. Your (a) is the special case where $p=1$ and your (b) is the special case where $p=2$.
Appreciate the help! I'll look around online and do some of my own research. If you still happen to be around when I finish this problem do you think I could show you my work?
OurBelovedBungo
Sure, feel free to ping me. If I'm not around, I'm sure others can help.
great thank you!
hey all quick question
what is the second part of this asking for
i got the whole 'multiply AB and take the inverse'
but what is it saying by computing A^-1 and B^-1 and using ur previous answer
you know (AB)^-1 = (B^-1)A^-1
second part thinks you knew that and commands you to get the same answer from this
@wintry steppe
my pleasure
So I got these arbitrary matrices. It's given that they meet the criteria of the first line relating to the delta function. It's given that they are Hermitian and "i" runs from 1-4. The other lines were me starting to try to solve the problem but I'm at a bit of a loss as it's been 3 years since LA.
Question is trying to show that all eigenvalues of each gamma matrix is +/- 1. How is this possible given what we have here? Seems too arbitrary
i would emphasize that u are assuming that U is a subspace iff h is in U iff int h = b = 2b iff b = 0
the chain of implications needs to start off somewhere
so like im looking at some stuff online and its a mess of proof by contradiction
it makes sense that its true in the reverse direction
but the forward direction is where im losing my marbes with the contradiction
ah okay that makes sense thanks
if U is not a subspace of W and W is not a subspace of U, then there are vectors u in U and w in W with u not in W and w not in W.
if u + w is in the union of U and W, then u + w is in U or W.
if u + w is in U, then u + w + (-u) = w is in U, contradiction
if u + w is in W, then u + w + (-w) = u is in W, contradiction
fax indeed
looks good
this one smells 🐟 , like can I take the cardinality of a vector space?
V is non-trivial, so there is some non-zero vector v in V
{0_V} can't possibly be equal to V
i miss my real analysis...
i just said that the additive inverse of a in one subspace must exist by definition, but if it does then b must exist because (a + b) should be a member of the union and with (a + b) + (-a), b must also be a member of that subspace (and vise versa for b and the other subspace)
lmao, what course is this?
advanced LA
ah okay
yeah it is
How to right finite dimensional vector space over field in union of proper subspaces of V? Or it is true only for finite fields?
I need to do some tweaking and understanding here. like i sorta get it
we start by assuming that they are disjoint sets
and then the contradiction shows that the element has to be in both sets, thus a contradiction
it just feels fuzzy and like im missing some details. Like is this all I need for the forward direction?
no
well in the contradiciton we're assuming that right
not disjoint, just that they are not contained in each other
ex) take the intervals (-2,1) and (-1,2). neither is contained in each other, but they are not disjoint
oh
right
different thigns
sigh
so there exists at least one element from each that aren't in the other, but our contradiction says that it must be in the other
yea, we are really proving the contrapositive
like are we "proving the contrapositive"
no need for contradiction
proving the contrapositive by contradiction
am i 'allowed' to simplify the words "U is not in the subspace of W" to "U \not\subseteq W"?
im hesitant bc subset and subspace not same
U and W are both subspaces of V so its fine here
ok thats what I was hoping for but didn't know if it broke math
and do we need it to be a proper subset?
a lot of the proofs i was looking at are proper
nah, doesnt matter here
also are the logical and and ors acceptable in non-discrete math?
or ig non boolean
and should these commas be ORs (nvm those are guaranteed at least one true since non containing)
it doesnt have to be all symbols, but if you want it to, it would be
$(\exists u\in U:u\not\in W)\wedge(\exists w\in W:w\not\in U)$
c squared
its fine as written now tho
but if i get rid of the parenthesis it works
ok im done touching the forward direction. Is the final therefore safe?
aight bet. Now can we just say the reverse by definition or something? I know its supposed to be easy
if U subset W or W subset U, what is U union W?
the larger
is what i have atm
this is where we use the definitions of W and U right
doctor do we have the all clear? (after moving the forward/backwards arrows to the lhs)
all clear
Epic. thank you c²
yw MattDog_222
Just got to subspaces and vector spaces in my class, the logic looks sounds to me
Why does everything in linear algebra sounds like something out of a sci-fi movie
i mean sci fi movies are made from linear algebra so
example?
“Captain! We’ve entered the null space!”
"Quick! Grab ur eigenvectors!"
alr, that was good
“The alien morphed into its row echelon form”
not to minimod but the mods are gonna get mad if memes keep getting posted here
indeed
edd are you angry now
aight math. for (a) i just need to show identity, closed under + and *?
wdym by identity
And that the 0 vector/matrix/whatever exists, but yeah
additive identity 0
Oh wait thats identity
group theory shaking intensifies
Not latexing matrices if its wrong, but it this good (albeit out of natural ordering)
looks ok, maybe make a comment on the form of the sum
like "which is of tje form..."
is \in W_1 not a sufficient claim?
ok
I have literally no idea what part B means
like its asking for the intersection,but the heck
what form does it have
x -x
-x y?
yeah
so is (c) asking to show that W1+W2 spans M_{2,2}?
how is that possible
isn't it isomorphic to R^4?
or is it only a homomorphism
isomorphism
so how can 2 vectors span R4
but its fine. you're just decomposing R^4 into the sum of two subspaces
W1 and W2 are subspaces of M_{2,2}
you just want to show that any vector M in M_{2,2} can be written as the sum of a vector in W1 and a vector in W2
so i need <a,b,c,d> = xW_1 + yW_2?
idk what that means
r4 vector = constant * W_1 + constant * W_2,
actually that probably isn't a constant
its ambiguous as stated rn, W1 and W2 are vector sub-spaces, not vectors
show that if m =
a b
c d
is a two by two matrix, then there is a matrix w_1 =
x -x
y z
in W1 and a matrix w_2 =
e f
-e g
in W2 such that
m = w_1 + w_2
ok so with the constants the 4th coordinate is a given. so we just need to make the other 3 uniquely
since the 4th is independent of the other cells
why not 0?
idk, just seems less trivial
to come back to your question
the matrices are written with different coefficients
you can decompose them into the canonical basis
or some basis
is what i made at the bottom of that image a basis
e.g. if it helps you, [a, -a; b, c] = a[1, -1; 0, 0] + b[0, 0; 1, 0] + c[0, 0; 0, 1]
so that type of matrix forms a dim 3 subspace
oh wait i can have more than 2 matrices 🤦
its been a while
we've not covered dimension and ranks yet in the course
i see
idk if my wxyz example answers the question, l ike is showing a particular arrangement enough to show W1+W2 is V
Does this get me anywhere
yes, that's how i would've done it
so i wrote
v_1 = a + x
v_2 = b - x
v_3 = -a + y
v_4 = c + z
which is similar to this in different orders
well different letters
do i need to zero out the duplicates, such as z and c being direct duplicates?
i don't know what you mean by that
like if we remove z[0,0,0,1] from the span we still span M_2,2
so we can 'throw it away'
what you can do is substitute c + z by another variable
if you "throw it away" you're fixing a value of 0 in one of the matrices
this method is in general wrong
so i just leave it as c+z
you have to share the full question if you want help
i really hate that you are equating vectors with vector spaces
type mismatches 🤢
also the variable names got swapped?
🤦 yes. i've been up like 20 hours
which part are you stuck on
well i was stuck on making it some weird linear combination but i dont even think thats a valid approach since its a vector space
i thought we already solved this
up here. take e = 0 = g (might have gotten the letters mixed up)
why not?
idk they said "this method is in general wrong"
idk they never elaborated
um
well, you really just have to show that V is a subset of W1 + W2
or you can do a dimension count (or give an explicit isomorphism, there are a lot of ways to show that V = W1 + W2)
this is probably the most accessible
like show V is a subset of w1+w2 and w1+w2 is a subset of V therefore V = w1+w2?
yes
but we already did that up here. take d = 0 = f
then just solve for a, b, c, e in terms of w, x, y, z
variable names keep changing but anyways, i've reset to the original variables in the problem
yeah it pains me that idk what that means
if W1 and W2 are subspaces of V, then W1 + W2 = {w1 + w2 : w1 in W1 and w2 in W2}
an element (called a vector) w of W1 + W2 can be written as w = w1 + w2 for some vectors w1 in W1 and w2 in W2
it makes no sense to write W1 = [a b c d] since W1 is not a vector, it is a vector space whose elements are vectors
mattdog, this is why i rewrote (several messages back) the matrix as a sum of matrices that are 0 almost everywhere
You're typing this latex?
to make it clearer to you that it refers to some element produced through a linear combination
$\begin{bmatrix}
x & -x \
y & z
\end{bmatrix}$
riemann
yeah im using latex
im looking at my book and cant find jack
we never really cover anything useful in class
you're just solving a system of linear equations
made up of what
this will be a system of linear equations very similar to yours
ok but where are you reading this
idk what you mean. im just answering question (c)
yeah but u said "as defined in your book" where do you see a V \subseteq W_1 + W_2
theres not even a subset symbol
W1 + W2 is defined in your book
definition 1.36
our goal was just to show that V is a subset of W1 + W2
and this does exactly that
yeah but where are you even deriving this equation
what equation?
v1 -v1
v3 v4
im just setting up one vector in W1 to add it to another vector in W2 to get back v
the process behind it is as follows
where is this methodology from. I see nothing close in the pages
like i sorta see whats happening but its not described
c squared
just play around with the equations at the bottom now
so is the only different that I had W1 not w1 and column vectors instead of matrix notation?
er well u didn't split
you seemed to for some reason not understand what i was doing. im just explaining my reasoning
this?
this was really all scratch work. i wouldn't include it in my proof without also including commentary around it
I mean i had something like that with different variable names
for example, i would have questions about equality of v and w1 + w2
oof
there's no context/commentary supporting why you want those two things to be equal
so i gotta show w1+w1 \sub V
other way
but didn't we just show that $V \subseteq W_1 + W_2$
MattDog_222
are v_1, v_2, ... vectors here?
scalars
in this i mean
ye
okey than
my bad, didnt know you were trying to finish the proof
should be clear that W1 + W2 is a subset of V
oh cause they're subspaces to begin with
therefore combining 2 subspaces is never larger than the original vectorspace?
just from definition 1.36
alr, well forget it if you cant see it rn.
if w is in W1 + W2, then w = w1 + w2 for some w1 in W1 and w2 in W2
both w1 and w2 are in V
and because V is a vector space, then ...
w in V? but why does it matter that V is a vector space
because addition is closed in V. the sum of two vectors in V is again a vector in V
right, and those 2 vectors are w1 w2
right
W1 + W2 subset V
dude ur good. gts lol
gts?
go to sleep
I´m hoping this goes here, because I have no idea where to put it. For the generators of a Lie algebra, are they one per continuous parameter? as in, are they proportional? or can a parameter have several generators? Was wondering.
yes
That can't be reduced to R REF
Ty ig 💀
No, every matrix has an RREF
So you can always have leading 1s with 0s above and below them?
yes
bump
Anyone?
For notation: A^(H) = Conjugate(transpose(A))
Given A is not the zero matrix, A is of order n x n and it is complex.
Assume A^(H) * Av=0 and prove Av=0.
--
If that helps i found that A*A^(H) is normal
but I got stuck
are you asking $A^*$ is non zero and $A^*Av = 0$ then show $Av=0$?
yes
because ^H notation is a little confusing to me
yea sorry I just didn't know how to put this as notation here
we usually put * in above the letter, so A* = Conjugate(transpose(A))
instead of the H
so assume A*Av=0 and prove Av=0
is this hint good enough?
The right side is equal to 0 because A*Av is zero right
yes

awesome
anybody know any general interesting problems/theorems in LA to attempt to prove?
try proving that the eigenvectors of a symmetric matrix are orthogonal
how easy or hard?
ok so on a serious note, you can try 'Berkeley problem book', problems are good
a very elementary one is that orthogonal vectors are linearly independent
ive done that a few times on 5 different tests
show that the pseudo inverse is an orthogonal projection onto the row space of a matrix?
oof ty ill try that out
f(t)+g(t)=0 -> ln(f(t))+ln(g(t))=0 -> rt+st=0
wont it be true if r=-s
or does r=s also mean r=-s
what is F(R, R)?
you can try something similar to wronskian
Let $V$ be a finite-dimensional linear space, and let $S$ be a subspace of $V$. Prove that $S$ is finite dimensional and $\dim S \le \dim V$.
$V$ is finite dimensional so it has a basis ${e_1,\dots,e_n}$. Similarly $S$ is a subspace of $V$ so it has a basis ${e_1,\dots,e_k}$. If $k>n$, then by a previous theorem which states that a set which has $n$ vectors that form a basis yet the cardinality of the set is $n+1$ is dependent, we conclude that ${e_1,\dots,e_k}$ would not be a basis, which implies that $k\le n$, and so $S$ is finite dimensional and $\dim V = n \le \dim S = k$
n/c
Does this proof work?
its not for my question right?
check the last line
ig it's alright, unless someone finds a logical error which is invisible to me
why is the basis of S finite
ah yes, nice
considering thats part of the question and you present no argument, i think its incomplete
@subtle walrus well because k ≤ n, and n is a natural number
(and k is natural too)
what is k
k is a natural number
ok? how is it related to the argument
you just claim that S has a basis of k elements, but why
Because it is a subspace of V
thats circular
the first part of this proof is to show that a finite dimensional vector space cannot have a infinite dimensional subspace
so you kinda cant use that
(you can also ask for a hint if you cant think of an argument)
Okay, let $B$ be a basis for $S$, so $B$ is independent and $L(B) = S$. Assume that $S$ is infinite-dimensional, which implies that $B$ is not a finite set of elements. However, $S$ is a subspace of $V$ which has basis ${e_1,\dots,e_n}$, and therefore $|B| > n$, yet a previous theorem states that given a set of $n$ independent elements of a vector space V, any n + 1 elements from the span of that set will be dependent. Therefore, $B$ is dependent which contradicts that it must be a basis for $S$, and so $S$ can't be infinite dimensional
n/c
does that work?
L is span?
Yes
by independent you mean linearly independent?
Yes
the wording is a bit weird, specifically "from the span of that set" but i think you have the right idea
this also solves the exercise immediately
Right basically I'm saying that |B| > n, so for example |B| is definitely at least as large as n + 1, (being infinite and all), so with B being a basis we should have n + 1 elements in the span of B that are independent, yet it contradicts the theorem
Okay, it's just that apostol doesn't use linearly independent, just independent which is a bit strange I guess
hm ok
Axler does specifically use linearly independent
there are other notions of independence so maybe i am nitpicky
they probably dont appear in a book on linear algebra
Oh well, the subchapter is titled dependent and independent sets in a linear vector space
So that might limit it
how does the first -> follow?
cant i just do the logarithm
wont it count as scalar multiplication
no
:(
you have to show $\lambda_1e^{rt} + \lambda_2e^{st} = 0$ implies $\lambda_1 = 0 = \lambda 2$
Lochverstärker
ah
in no world is "applying ln" scalar multiplication
scalars come from some field, and multiplication is well, generally multiplication
how would i show it then :8
you try to work with $\lambda_1e^{rt} + \lambda_2e^{st} = 0$ or equivalently $\lambda_1e^{rt} = - \lambda_2e^{st}$ and see what kind of things this implies
Lochverstärker
yeah i tried that too but idk how that helps really
hint: ||the exponential function has no roots in R||
yeah i thought about it, so e^st=-e^rt is never possible
but what if lambda_2 is just -1
can you find $s \neq r$ such that $e^{st} = e^{rt}$?
Lochverstärker
in fact you cannot
why do you think i mention this hint?
one can also use ||exp is injective & plug some t values||
the way i went is ||plug t=0,1||
but isnt it supposed to apply for all t values
yes so in particular it holds for ||0,1||
yeah but t=0.1 but what is r and s
i dont get what you mean for t=0 its just a=-b
ah
and the same a and b has to apply for all t
right?
yes
but like
a*e^rt+ b *e^st=0
do a and b have to be unchanged and fullfill it for all t
a,b are constant. this eqn holds for all t
so
a e^rt = -b e^st , look at t=0 -> a=-b -> a e^rt = a e^st -> observe that only true for r=s
is this correct?
justify ‘observe..’
u divided by 0
For an inner product, why is (z,z) ≥ 0 when defined axiomatically?
Where z = ax + by, for scalars a,b and nonzero vectors x, y in V
(z, z) >= 0 because that's part of the definition of an inner product
surely you're not asking why a definition is true
It just that it is used to prove the cauchy-schwarz inequality which states that |(x,y)|^2 ≤ (x,x)(y,y) however we haven't even defined | | yet
that means absolute value
I know
This is the proof they do, (z,z) = (ax + by, ax + by) = (ax, ax) + (ax, by) + (by, ax) + (by, by) = aa*(x, x) + ab*(x, y) + ba*(y, x) + bb*(y, y) ≥ 0
Where * represents the hermitian symmetry I guess?
Or companion relation
complex conjugation.
Yes
whats the difference between similar and congruent matrices? for me it seems the latter is identical to similar matrices just moved to bilinear forms (not implying transpose = inverse just saying they act the the same)
maybe a geometric view might help illustrate the idea better 
this is false, correct? Im thinking for the counterexample let \
$U_1 = { (x, 0) }\
U_2 = {(0, y)}\
W = {(x, x)}\
V \equiv \mathbb{R}^2$
MattDog_222
is \oplus here sum of subspaces or direct sum?
Direct
your example doesn't work then
that much is true, but that sum is not direct
isn't the intersection 0 tho?
the dimension of a direct sum is equal to the sum of the dimensions of the subspaces involved
wait i'm a doofus, i was reading W as {(x,y)} this whole time

yeah i thought saying {x,x} was a bad idea for r2
should I say like {z,z} for clarity
or like
a,0
0,b
c,c
so then does that form a counterexample when reread
mhm
also when writing the sets should i use = or \equiv
i think it's ok as it is
i think this one is straightforward enough that you can just claim it. or if you really want, show it for U_1 + W and say it's similar for U_2 + W
should be simple enough to do it in 1 or 2 lines
so i'll prob add the U_1 + W = V and similarly for U_2, but aside from that does this make sense?
looks ok to me, idk if u want a separate symbol for the 0 vector, for clarity
the book used {0} so i'll leave that alone, although i personally prefer \vec{0}
ok does this properly show what u were saying (changed conclusion)
seems pretty clear to me. admittedly, i'm bad at this stuff cuz i haven't dealt with it much. maybe others will say it's too verbose for their taste, but looks good to me.
verbose meaning too much?
is this pretty much what I literally just did for showing U1 + W = V? just an extra coordinate?
like just a raw computation
yeah, looks like it
but if they're asking for it there, then they also probably wanted it in the previous one
yeah i'll ask the guy if my 'similarly' is acceptable 😂
(i mean its literally the same thing with (0, y-y)
well no
uh
(0, y-x) and (x,x)?
yeah. i would say that's certainly within the realm of "similarly" 😛
i used matrices augmented with I_3 from the prereq to prove something last HW and he said I cant do that bc we haven't gotten there so Imma just type it explicitly 😅

i mean i got partial credit cause it was right but the wrong method
he's a picky boi
lookin 🔥 ?
idk what to make of this. Like it implies v1:v4 are L.I. , so adding or subtracting from one another cannot create a zero vector or change the span. Like it makes perfect sense that its true just how to elaborate that
but wait it doesn't say they're linearly independent, just that they span... :/
then just show you can obtain the original vectors from these
ye those replacement lemmas
hi, how can i do these 2
to find the RSS its just XTX * XTY for beta hat right?
wait sorry
im just a bit confused on how to visualize the 'solve' function on R
bc i have this for RFF
RSS
sorry
and i dont know how to understand what solve is doing
idk R so can't decode, sorry
no worries
ah ok so this is beta hat then
so do I start with ${v_1,v_2,v_3,v_4}$ and arrive at ${v_1-v_2, v_1+v_2, v_3+v_4, v_4}$ or the other way
MattDog_222
other way unless you wanna show the operation is invertible
so is that a valid operation/step?
i cannot parse this
Let $T$ be a linear operator on a vector space $V$. Let $V_\lambda$ be the subspace of eigenvectors associated with $\lambda$. We show that for any $v\in V_\lambda\setminus {0}$, $(T-\lambda)^m(v)\neq 0$ for all $m\in\mathbf{N}$. Use strong induction on $m$. For the base case, take $m=0$, so that $(T-\lambda)^0(v)=v$ for all $v\in V_\lambda\setminus{0}$. For the inductive step, assume the statement is true for all $\leq m$. We have $(T-\lambda)^{m+1}(v)=(T-\lambda)^m((T-\lambda)(v))$, where $(T-\lambda)(v)\in V_\lambda$ is nonzero by the inductive hypothesis. And we can apply the inductive hypothesis again for $(T-\lambda)^m$.
Croqueta
This is very silly, I know.
I can't see what is wrong with it to be honest, although it is of course complete nonsense, as $(T-\lambda)(v)=0$.
Croqueta
This is a question about induction
you use strong induction
so assume it's true for 0,...,m
btw, I don't really know how strong induction works (that's why I'm asking, so maybe the mistake is just very obvious)
yes but (T-\lamba)^1 = (T-\lambda)^0 \circ (T-\lambda)^0 or what?
no
so your inductive step assumes m>1
so there is no way you get from m=0 to m=1
if you did manage to prove it for m=1, the induction works out
the inductive hypothesis gives $(T-\lambda)(v)\neq 0$, since $0\leq 1\leq m$ (?)
Croqueta
ok I think I se what you are saying
this is the "all sheep are black proof"
you assume that you can write (T-\lambda)^m = (T-\lambda) \circ (T-\lambda)^{m-1} but this is only true for m > 1
Yeah, I applied this same argument (starting at m=1) to show the intersection of generalized eigenspaces is zero, but as it seemed too easy, I tried non sense and I arrived at this
yeah I see
if m were 0, the inductive hypothesis wouldn't apply
Okay, thanks
is this proper/correct?
looks good but it should be \subset and not \in for your basis
(or remove the curly braces)
also i have to mention this only works in characterisitc not being 2 please ignore this
Any sites that are good for self teaching linear algebra?
Can someone please check my computation over here: 1/p + 1/q = 1.. I am literally brain farting and can not figure out which step of the computation went wrong..
The answer should've been |x|^2 instead of 1
@winter flume KhanAcademy i believe has a decent LA section. Or you can always go my favorite route and use /sci/ wiki's recommendations for books and get them from LibGen
Also, I've got a problem here. I have 4 matrices $A_i$ where i runs from 1-4, they meet the following criteria:
1: They anticommute in such a way that ${A_i, A_j} = 2\delta_{ij}$
2: $Tr(A_i) = 0$
I am to try to prove that these operators can only act on even-dimensional spaces. How in the world is that possible?
Ferret
ugh. i guess my LaTeX sucks. That's supposed to be a kronecker delta so it's 0 when i =/= j and 1 when i = j
if it helps, i've also shown that A_i's eigenvalues are equal to +/- 1
do we need to use matrices to get eigenvectors??
because I just spent a ton of time doing it with equations, and don't wanna have to redo it again if I don't need to
an eigenvector is just a vector v that satisfies Tv = lambda v for an eigenvalue lambda
you can represent T as a matrix or a more conventional function
and either representation can let you compute the eigenvectors
oh thank god
does {Ai, Aj} mean their commutator?
oh i ended up figuring it out @zinc timber. That's their anti-commutator though. Ended up being "A is hermitian, so it's diagonalizable. It's diagonaled Trace is a summation of N eigenvalues. W/ eigenvalues of +/- 1 we need even N entries (since Trace has to be 0) to get 0."
so the way you check if a vector space is indeed a vector space is by checking if it's closed?
shit, prof dave might be even better than trev tutor
gonna do basis and dimension tomorrow
after that linear regression and orthogonalization
to check if a set is a vector space you need to check if the axioms that define a vector space are met
when you say closed i assume you meant closed under addition and scalar multiplication
should also mention you get most of the axioms for free when working over a field like R but thats not always the case
yes closed under addition and scalar multiplication
wdym by "most of the axioms for free"?
like they are automatically true?
pretty much
for example addition is commutative and associative naturally by definition of a field
well considering you do prove the set is closed under addition and scalar multiplication over R (or any field K)
then you get them
hello
no, one technically must check all vector space rules, but if theyre satisfied its often due to the field structure
eg addition in R^n commutes bc addition in R commutes
Hi could someone please check my steps for a problem. I have a 2x5 augmented matrix and I’m asked to make the row 1 value 2 and row 2 value 4 variables pivots. Would I just make column 1 0’s and then get the values above and below x2 and x4 to be 0s?
show example
So I have this matrix and I’m asked to find a basic solution by pivoting x2 in 1 and x4 in 2
Sorry for some reason the image didn’t upload
3x1 - x2 + x3 -2x4 = -2
X1 - 2x2 -x3 +x4 = 1
So would I just get zeros in the first column
And then a zero below row 1 column 2
And a zero above row 2 column 4
i see
You just need to kill(make it zero) the entries below first entry of column 1 , then your basically done. Doing that will get you REF so you can do a back substitution. You will end up having 2 free variables x_3 and x_4.
Thanks for the response. So if I wanted my pivots to be x1 x2 would this be the right solution:
A little bit more work but yeah from here you should be able to find the solutions.
If you want to find x_1 and x_2 by reading it up the augmented matrix you need to scale be (1/3) for row 1.
Wait hmm.
x_3 and x_4 can be anything, I usually just set it to 0.
Mb I’m a little confused. If I want x2 and x4 to be pivots won’t they be 1
Ah wait sorry I misread you, hold on a sec.
I am a bit confused now, you want the column corresponding to x_2 and x_4 to be pivots that is not possible, since 3 in column 1 corresponding to x_1 is a pivot, then 1 in column 2 corresponding to x_2 would be our second pivot. We cannot have anymore pivots after that.
Here’s the wording:
Find a basic soluiton by pivoting x2 in equation (1) and x4 in equation (2).
Yeah I am not sure, I need to reread that section in my book again to see if I missed something.
Idk if this makes a difference but this is from an operations research class
is there any theorem or like something I can tell, about a matrix that is diagonalizable over R ?
If a matrix A is diagonalizable over R by a unitary matrix , so I can say that A is real and symmetric, heremetian, normal.
but in case it's just diagonalizable not by unitary matrix can I say anything about A?
Not much. It's a sufficient condition for an n×n matrix to be diagonalizable that it has n different eigenvalues (and there are a lot of matrices with that property), but that is not necessary.
yeah, only properties related to being diagonalizable, if you have no other info
like comment on the geometric and algebraic multiplicity
okay good to know, thank you two )
I'm working on a gram schmidt orthogonalization algorithm rn. There is a line under my second for loop that is Q[:,k]=Qj@Q[:,k] which goes through each column of k and makes it orthogonal to the column qj. Does anyone know what happens if Qj@Q[:,k] = 0, and any tips on what the algorithm should do if that happens?
nothing, Q[:,k] is just already orthogonal to qj in that case
er
mb
i meant that Q[:,k] is parallel to qj
so it would have zeroed out anyway
Could someone please help me understand how to “choose” a column to pivot on? I thought pivot columns just occurred. Here’s the wording of the question and it’s a 2x5 augmented matrix. This is in relation to operations research if that helps
Find a basic soluiton by pivoting x2 in equation (1) and x4 in equation (2).
<@&286206848099549185>
If you get a 0 throw that vector away, it's linearly dependent on the others and continue with the remaining
,rotate
What would be the fastest way to solve this set of 3 equation, knowing that the marked numbers are the same
Yup, that's also an option, but isn't there a shorter method whenver those marked numbers are the same?
I need to solve a lot of these without a calculator
And everytime, those numbers will be the same
The matrix is symmetric, you can do cholesky if you want
But tbh for a 3x3 matrix even direct inversion is easy
i.e. cramer's rule is 3 cross products and 1 dot
Invert the matrix then
Diagonal is not the same?
The main diagonal is never the same, but the others ( from left to right, bottom to top) are always the same
Sorry could you tell me how this would work exactly? I'm an engineering student and I haven't seen this method yet
whatever just set variables a,b,c on the diagonal and compute the inverse
On the internet I found something with "LU dec"
You know how to compute inverse using row reduction?
Transpose?
Do you know how to compute the inverse using row reduction?
I know how to do rref, yes
Then do it by substituting a,b,c on the diagonal
Or you can directly compute the adjoint terms since 2x2 dets are easy
Then you'll have the inverse in tetms of a,b,c
Then you can plug in any abc
Okay, I'll try this method rn, thanks for your help!
As for the Q^T * D * Q thing
That would be the eigendecomposition
I doubt you want to solve potentially cubic polynomials though
Also once you get the determinant in terms of a,b,c
Check for what abc it's equal to 0
It sounds interesting but I'm in my first year of uni. We haven't seen any advanced mathematics yet
Because those make the matrix singular
Okay, let me try
for 3x3 matrices det = dot(r1, cross(r2,r3)) btw
The adjoint elements can also be formed by cross(r2,r3), cross(r3,r1), cross(r1,r2)
How is this a definition? This seems like more of a theorem
(x,y) is the inner product
of V
I guess it would work as a definition for inner product space
Because there cos(theta) will lose its original meaning
e.g. consider L_2(a,b)
But you can nevertheless define the meaning of "angle between two functions" to satisfy the above
I agree that for R^n it should be a theorem though
Also for other euclidean spaces
Does L_k denote the subspace spanned by the first k elements in your list?
In mathematics, the Lp spaces are function spaces defined using a natural generalization of the p-norm for finite-dimensional vector spaces. They are sometimes called Lebesgue spaces, named after Henri Lebesgue (Dunford & Schwartz 1958, III.3), although according to the Bourbaki group (Bourbaki 1987) they were first introduced by Frigyes Riesz (...
It could be a theorem in R^2 and R^3 where we have a preexisting concept of angle, but even in R^4 it begins to feel more like a decision than a deductive consequence of something we already know.
Based on which definition?
That seems to be very close to the inner-product definition anyway.
that would be the point of the theorem
To show that u^T G v = cos(theta) * |u| * |v|
where G is the metric tensor
But it would be a definition for arbitrary inner product spaces, that I agree with
I mean, the thing I feel is a definition in higher dimension is the decision to use the word "angle" about a number derived from what we think its cosine should be rather than something that more intuitively measures some quantity in a more or less additive way.
But even in R^d
Two vectors (non-collinear) span a 2d subspace
So it's back to the usual definition of cos
For example, in contrast to defining something like: Euclid taught us what an angle in 2D is; if we can embed Euclids plane isometrically in our space, then we'll declare by definition that the image of two lines have the angle in the ambient space that Euclid says they had in 2D.
It's for stuff like functions that this definition cannot be derived anymore from your basic middle school geometry
Since students usually know cos(theta) = b/c before they know what an inner product space is, I understand where the question is coming from
Can't we just as well embed the usual 2D plane in a function space, once we have an inner product?
I can pick two curvy functions
The cosine between them has no meaning wrt the school geometry studied
The functions might be individually curvy, but the subspace they span is isomorphic and isometric to the usual plane.
what's the map between say exp and cos and 2d vectors?
If you say b/c then how do you know what b and c should be without having an idea of right triangles? And you need the inner product to be able to speak about the triangle being right.
Since students usually know cos(theta) = b/c before they know what an inner product space is, I understand where the question is coming from
If you were taught inner product spaces in middle school I agree
Yes, that's what I don't understand.
How do you apply "b/c" in a space other than R^2 or R^3, if you don't have an inner product yet?
The theorem the user is asking for would obviously define what the inner product is
And then it will ask to prove that cos(theta) = ... wrt that inner product
You can probably cook up an inner product for which the geometric meaning does not hold, idk
I guess the point is that one could prove this as a theorem given what they know from middle school
I wouldn't be surprised if it's an exercise to prove it for R^2 or R^3 in some lin alg textbook
Yup, they do prove it as a theorem in a number of places
Albeit typically for orthonormal
But the non-orthonormal version is just u^T G v
@wintry steppe here you go
@spare widget I know about that
However that does not use a general inner product
That uses the dot product
An inner product of a vector space does not have to be the dot product
I thought you wanted it as a theorem because you wanted the proof, but yes it's for dot product
I know how to prove it for the dot product case, however it does not seem clear to me at all how it can be a definition for the (much more) general case
The general euclidean inner product would require u^T G v = cos(theta) * |u| * |v|
For non-euclidean stuff, e.g. L_2 it becomes a definition
i.e. it loses its meaning of cos(theta) = b/c
It's just a definition at that point by analogy to the euclidean case
Then what does it mean, if it loses its meaning?
that is a generalization of the meaning of angle for functions for example
For functions it would still measure how different those are in some sense
How do you define angle in that case then?
$\langle f, g \rangle = \int_{a}^{b}f(x)g(x),dx$
criver
And then you just choose theta to be the value that satisfies cos(theta) = <f,g> / (|f| * |g|)
Then this is the angle between f and g wrt this inner product
You could define a different inner product though
This is only true for C(a,b) though, no?
Then you'll get a different angle
For example
$\int_{a}^b\int_{a}^b f(x) k(x,y) g(y),dy ,dx$
criver
And k chosen to satisfy the properties of inner product
Then you'll get a new definition of theta wrt this inner product
And you can have as many definitions of theta as you have inner products
They don't have to agree either
There was a good video with an example, let me try to find it
See 56:40 for an example: https://youtu.be/2c8XQlQApx8
Full playlist: https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PL9_jI1bdZmz2emSh0UQ5iOdT2xRHFHL7E
Course information: http://15462.courses.cs.cmu.edu/
0:00 Linear Algebra in Computer Graphics
3:27 Vector Spaces
— 8:42 Cartesian Coordinates
— 10:46 Vector Operations
— 16:04 Vector Spaces
— 19:48 Functions as Vectors
— 23:54 Vectors in Coordinates
—...
L_2 is not C
You can take any inner vector space and use its inner product to define an angle
Yeah no offense I can only think of an angle geometrically
I don't get how you could do it any other way
Did you check the video?
Just think of it as a similarity between two vectors (not necessarily geometric vectors)
Then how can you use the word angle?
By analogy/generalization
That's the point, one sees that cos(theta) = <u,v> / (|u| * |v|) is true for euclidean vector spaces
So to generalize one now uses this as a definition instead of a theorem for other vector spaces that have an inner product
It's a standard way to generalize things in mathematics
I can give you an example from numerics
It's a common problem there to have some function f (e.g. an image) that we want to compress
f is typically from an infinitely dimensional vector space
We choose instead a finite dimensional subspace with basis vectors some functions and want to find the best approximation of f there
This leads you to a Galerkin formulation
hey y'all
JPEG for instance uses cosine functions as a basis
does anyone have a good summary sheet for the most imp theorems in this course?...
While JPEG2000 uses wavelets
i'm 3 weeks in and it's already hard to keep track of all the theorems
or a cheat sheet or smthng
The most important theorem I remember was about symmetric real matrices having real eigenvalues
i don't think we reached this part...
How does this follow from because (x_1,x_1) != 0? Because we haven't defined the inner product for V
In fact, why is $c_1(x_1,x_1) = 0$?
n/c
we're still in matrices and determinants and stuff...
Then all of those are baby stuff I guess
the important ones are the ones to do with vector spaces
The row reduction and determinant theorems are just tedious
yeah we won't cover those until like week 5
Eitherway, for the end of your course: https://www.engineering.iastate.edu/~julied/classes/CE570/Notes/strangpaper.pdf
Axler starts with those
Linear algebra done right. He is the author.
yeah we're doing the howard anton's book
never heard of this guy tbh
As for keeping track of theorems, just do the exercises.
Halmos, Axler, Hoffman Kunze, there was some other but I forgot the name, all standard
Bumping this, why is $c_1(x_1,x_1) = 0$?
n/c
tbf I don't remember the row reduction and det th/proofs
Also Sergei Treil linear algebra done wrong.
yeah i do that, but would be useful to have all the theorems in one sheet
Why?
dot the sum with x_1
each theorem is a consequence of another one
But we haven't defined the dot product to be the inner product of V
And use dor(x_i,x_1) = 0 for i!= 1
Instead of dot use inner prpduct
the one that you defined
There is no defined inner product though, that's the thing
We just have axioms for what it must satisfy
And they also should have defined <x,y> = 0 if x,y orthogonal
However, there is no reason why V can't have multiple inner products
They should have defined that if x,y orthogonal then <x,y> = 0
Then by using this definition
And because we haven't defined any inner products on V, why would I use the dot product?
That seems arbitrary
because the theorem says orthogonal vectors
Yes, which means the inner product is 0
And if it says orthogonal vectors it assumes a definition of orthogonality
Yes
So use that
But you know that orth => <x,y> = 0
I do
Then use it
Use it how?
$\sum_i c_i x_i = 0 \implies \langle x_1, \sum_i c_i x_i \rangle = 0$
criver
Yes I can I think, thanks let me try
how do I show that {1, cosx, ..., cos nx} are linearly independent on [0,1] without using matrix techniques?
my prof wants us to somehow turn
p(x) = a0 + a1cos(x) + ... + an cos(nx)
into a polynomial of degree n
and show that this polynomial only has finitely many zeros
Okay, so, $\left(x_1, \sum_i c_ix_i\right) = (x_1, c_1x_1) + (x_1, c_2x_2) + \dots + (x_1, c_kx_k) = \sum_i (x_1, c_ix_i)$
Do you know Chebyshev polynomials?
n/c
no
Shame; they're tailor-made for this.
lemme look into it
Then $(x_1,c_ix_i) = (c_ix_i,x_1) = c_i(x_i,x_1) = c_i(x_1,x_i) = c_i \cdot 0 = 0$
n/c
So all of the other terms die for sure, which means that $\left(x_1, \sum_i c_ix_i\right) = (x_1, c_1x_1) = c_1(x_1,x_1)$
n/c
You may need to derive them yourself using cosine addition formulas and sin²(x) = 1 - cos²(x).
But actually, I don't know that this inner product is equal to 0 @spare widget
Why is the implication true?
Oh nevermind I am dumb
I guess it's because the inner product of 0 and any vector is 0
you could use $\langle x_1, \vec{0}\rangle = \langle x_1, 0\cdot\vec{0} \rangle = 0\langle x_1, \vec{0}\rangle = 0$
criver
If you need that <0, x> = 0
Except $\sum_i c_ix_i \in \mathbb{R}$
For $0\cdot x = \vec{0}$ you need a separate proof from the vector space axioms
i.e. it's not a vector
A real number is a vector.
Sorry you're right
x+y is a vector, a * x is a vector
There's no 0 dot x in the proof
First time seeing that type of indexing.
n/c
I guess that's less ambiguous
$\langle x_1, \sum_i c_i x_i \rangle = \langle x_1, \vec{0}\rangle = 0 \implies c_1 \langle x_1, x_1\rangle = 0$
criver
Indeed
The first equality is from sum..= 0
No don't worry I got it now, thanks for the help
My best advice is to pick several books up, it helps a lot with proofs
since some show the proofs in a different way
I found that this book is vastly different from the book I used before (Axlers)
Halmos has a whole book of solved problems
though his are rather interesting compared to today's books
I think it's called solved problem something something finite dimensional vector spaces
$||x||^2 = \sum_{i=1}^n |(x,e_i)|^2$ if $x \in V$ and $V$ has orthonormal basis ${e_1,\dots,e_n}$
n/c
Does this mean that this formula does not hold if V does not have an orthonormal basis?
Because it's supposed to be a generalization of the Pythagorean theorem for an arbitrary vector space
if V doesn't have an orthonormal basis then yes you are right, but again all finite dimensional inner product spaces have an orthonormal basis, so you are wrong as well (kinda)
(gram-schmidt)
And if parseval's identity holds, then the orthonormal basis e_i is termed closed
$\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}|v - \sum_{i=1}^{n}\langle v, e_i \rangle e_i| = 0$
criver
Parseval's identity and the basis being closed are equivalent
so if the parseval identity holds/the orthonormal basis is closed then the generalized parseval identity holds
What you know as dot product:
$\langle u, v\rangle = \sum_{i=1}^{\infty} \langle u, e_i \rangle \overline{\langle v, e_i\rangle}$
criver
The bar on top is conjugation, if you're not working with the complex field it's redundant
The infinities are also redundant for finite dimensional vector spaces
You can prove the above from parseval's identity + the polarization identity
This is in fact quite an important result in practice
It lets you find the best finite number of terms approximation of some function
As an example
$|u-f|^2 = |\mathcal{F}[u] - \mathcal{F}[f]|^2$
where F[x] is the fourier transform of x
criver
That means that in the discrete setting you can just sort F[f] to find the m largest coefficients and use them in F[u] while setting everything else to 0, and this will give you the best approximation with m coefficients in the L2 error
In practice one chooses the DCT basis for images for example
Basically orthonormal bases => allow you to find the best m-approximations
Hello, I would need some help at solving a differential equation Y'=AY, with A not diagonalisable
Is there anyone free to help ?
hey can someone please help me out on this question:- im not really sure how to do it/what to do ?
i tried something like this but it didnt work ik its wrong
can you explain the purpose of your calculations?
i think there is a much easier way to do this
you need to add extra elements from P_3 in a such a way that they are not in span(p_1,p_2) and that span P_3
and i'm certain you don't actually need to go through all this legwork at all
so what you need to do is complete to basis, of P3
what we know about P3 is that it constructed by 4 variables: ax^3+bx^2+cx+d
you found that p1 and p2 are linearly independent but you are missing two more polynomials to complete the basis.
if you take p3 = x and p4 = 1 you will have a spanning set which is also linearly independent(basis for P3).
dim(p1,p2,p3,p4) = 4 and dim(P3) = 4
P3 = span{p1,p2,p3,p4}
umm i wanned to try to make it into the identity matrix for coefcinets to see if it spans but i got lost like half way thru but yh if easier way yh lmk plz
well elay_dadon kind of already gave away what i have in mind
since dim P_3 is 4, they are two vectors from P_3 so it will not work
you can take p_3 = x and p_4 = 1
you are missing two vectors anyway and these are inexpressible as linear combinations of yours (think about the high power coefficients in any such linear combination)
hmm like how did u guys figure it out straight away tho is what i dont get lol ive been trying for ages
and why them specific ones how du know its p3 is x and p4 is 1 straight away
Do you know how to find a solution to an underdetermined system?
Or find vectors spanning the complement of a subspace
there are many other ways to complete your basis
this is just the simplest one
so the intuition for it is that since you have only two vectors, so you have two vectors that are linearly independent, and also we can see that their degree is 3 and 2.
let's look at the standard basis: {x^3,x^2,x,1}, we have two polynomials that have x^3 and x^2.
for the basis to be linearly independent you need to more polynomials that will be linearly independent with p1 and p2.
when we look at the basis what pops out is x and 1 because x^2 and x^3 already there and for them to be linearly independent, we need to more polynomials that will satisfy it and span P3.
if you mean finding the general sol yh
Well then do so
but that was for matricies not polynomials...
But the poly have coefficients
You can write a poly as p(x) = (x^n ... x 1)^T v
v is a vector from R^{n+1} there
Kaishin