#linear-algebra
2 messages ยท Page 273 of 1
no, that doesn't mean the space is real
self adjoint operator are used extensively in quantum mechanics
no obviously is not, but maybe the properties it would have it would resemble those of a real space
ex the Strum Liouvill operators are self adjoint so they have a spectral decomposition
where the characteristic polynomial splits in R
I was asking because in the chapter I'm reading the author (it's friedbergs,.. book) didn't include an explicit theorem on when self-adjoint complex operators exist (it is inmediate from other results nontheless)
exists? like why shouldn't they exist?
hey all im a bit confused on how to show this
i think orthogonality affects this somehow?
not sure how to go from there tho
what are you stuck on?
you have a biconditional statement. which direction have you tried first?
Is y arbitrary or something you already have assumptions about?
arbitrary would be my interpretation
In that case $\mathbf{y+X\beta}$ is \emph{itself} arbitrary, and writing the arbitrary N-vector that way seems to be a feint.
well i think u need something with orthogonality
i think going from XT(y-xB) = 0 -> y-XB might be easier?
Troposphere
is there some theorem about range direct product null space equals the span
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rankโnullity_theorem
yea this one
If we set z=y+Xbeta, then it should be clear (from the definition of matrix multiplication) that X^Tz=0 iff z is orthogonal to each row of X^T, and those rows are the columns of X, i.e. the generators of its range.
can anyone help me, i keep doing this and am not getting the same answer as the back of the book. 2.f)
this is the answer
,w plot 5/(x^2+x-6)+1/(x^2-5x+6)-6/(x^2-9)
in general dependency relations arent unique
u may get a different linear combo equaling 0
hey all im super confusedo n what this is asking us
how do u even simplify something like that
"simplify" seems to be a bit of a stretch -- it looks like it just wants you to write it out in components rather than matrix algebra.
Definitely looks sloppy of the problem setter to write $x_{i,1}$ in one line and then suddenly switch to $x_{1,i}$ in the next...
Troposphere
hi guys, could someone tell me what this means?
im pretty sure it means for all real numbers
but im not sure
belongs to the set of real numbers
okay, thanks man!
hmm i still am not sure how to set it up though
have a question as well. if the vector space is P2. What dimension would the subspace V={1-x,1-x^2,1-2x+x^2} have?
Definitely more than 1, since your vectors are not all parallel.
Definitely at most 3, since that's how many vectors you have.
(I'm assuming you mean V is the span of {1-x,1-x^2,1-2x+x^2} instead of {1-x,1-x^2,1-2x+x^2} itself, which isn't even a subspace).
So it comes down to whether your set is linearly independent, or not.
idk why i thought that was for what i posted but then i realized its not
Sorry. I'm afraid I don't have more intelligent responses about your problem.
no worries haha im confused too
@wintry steppe its not so much that tropo cant fully answer the problem
oh like without giving it away?
its that finding a basis of V takes a nontrivial amount of work
yeah so do it urself, recall how to find a basis of a space
then dimV is the size of ur basis
right but if x = [x0 x1] how can u even multiply that with something infinite?
I think X is Nร2.
so it would be 1 x 1, thus would it just be x0 + x1 + y?
Note how in the definition of X that looks like a single column, the entries are actually x_i^T, where each x_i is a vector with two entries ...
Just to add to the confusion, the boldface x_0 and x_1 with indices are defined to be the columns of X, so each of them contains elements from all he lightface x_i's.
oh gosh
(That's horrible notation but there you go ...)
hmm yea i have no idea how to multiply those with y
so if its XTy then its
2 x N for XT and i think N x 1 for y?
so 2 x 1 for the result
would it just be x0y and x1y for both of the rows?
My advice would be to write out the matrices and vectors with all the elements explicitly visible (which the question doesn't deign to do itself), to get a feeling for what's going on.
You can use "..." for the middle indices between 1 and N.
Im confused as to where to start on this question
so for example let A=[a,b//,c,d]
then a+c=b+d for the rule that they have equal column sums
but then where do i go?
Check each of the parts of the definition of "subspace" in turn.
im assuming this is a reply to me
Yes.
okay i will look
It dows fit under the definition of a subspace
does*
but now, how must i find the dimension? That is where I am really confused
I think the answer is intended to be something like "the dimension is such-and-such because here is a basis for the subspace with that many elements. I know it's linearly independent because [...] and I know it spans the entire subspace because [...]".
a hint for finding a basis: how many "degrees of freedom" do you have? that is to say, how many things can you "meaningfully change"?
You're probably expected to puzzle out a basis by unsystematic exploration.
its not, there is not answer in the pack of the book for a, but for b it is the same thing with 3x3 matrix and it says the answer is 7
note that, if we pick specific values for 3 entries of the matrix, the 4th entry is "forced"
this might give you an idea of where to start looking
so like [1,2//c,6] for example?
right, the value of c is "forced" to be 7
theres no freedom
since we need 1 + c = 2 + 6
yes, that would make sense
so intuitively, theres only 3 meaningful "degrees of freedom", so we'd expect the dimension to be 3
this is b, and the answer for be is 7, Im not sure how they get it
to be clear, this is not a formal proof
its just a starting point
the logic for (b) is similar, we have 7 degrees of freedom instead of 3
by pidgeonhole, 7 is the minimal number such that an entire column of a 3x3 matrix is filled
construct a basis and show that it satisfies the definition of a basis
i.e.:
- The elements are linearly independent, and
- They span the entire set.
The basis would be 4
so start by picking 3 linearly independent matrices that satisfy the column-sum rule
what?
if im correct
do you know what a basis is?
sorry the max dimension
{4} spans the space \s
would be 4
okay, then try to construct a linearly independent set of 4 matrices that each satisfy the column sum thing
||you won't be able to||
a basis is a set of vectors in a vector space that satisfy 1. independent, 2 v=span of that set of vectors
If i am correct^
yes.
there's an equivalent characterization as the MAXIMAL linearly independent set
i.e.
- The elements are linearly independent, and
- if we add another element from the set, NO MATTER WHAT ELEMENT WE ADD, the basis will no longer be linearly independent
this is what i was hinting at exploiting earlier with the "3 degrees of freedom" argument
In that case just see how many independent matrices in the subgroup you can find.
At least that will be a start, and while looking for them you might notice some patterns.
like i know how to do this if it gives me a span with real numbers, im am just so lost when it is given arbitrarily
these are arbitrary matrices?
No, there are matrices with the specific property that the column sums are the same.
yes, so V={[a,b//c,d]|a+c=b+d} i understand that, but where do i go after
It sounds like your psychological problem here is that you cannot immediately see how to get all the way to an answer. The way to overcome that is to start playing around with the situation, see what you can reach, see if you can find something that feels like it would be an ingredient in the answer.
Write down some example matrices!
See if you can find a way to generate matrices in the subgroup that you'll know will be linearly independent!
Are these matrices with real numbers?
Yes.
(At least that ought to be the default assumption on this level when nothing else is specified in the problem).
okay
arbitrarily lets say [1,1//0,0],[0,0//1,1], [1,0//0,1], [0,1//1,0]
how is that a dimension of less than 3?
nvm i see it now, i used a matrix
In general, when does an n-th root of a linear map or matrix (over an algebraically closed field) does not exist? A has an n-th root if A=B^n for some linear map or matrix B.
or do they always exist? I don't know, haven't thought about it. The existence of n-th roots when A is nonsingular is clear
Certainly, if n is big enough relative to the size of the matrix (dimension of the space), then if the matrix/map is singular, there is no n-th root for dimension reasons
you can say something similar from looking at the rank of the matrix/map.
probably not too interesting anyway
besides this trivial cases, I wonder if there are other limitations
they always do
ex take the diagonal matrix of one of roots of xโฟ-1
ok wait
I thought you are talking about nth root of I
hello, i took a quiz and was given the solutions to the quiz, and I am confused about what i did wrong.
well we can't say what you did wrong if all we see is your assertion in the answer that the (1,2) entry of A is 1

happens to everyone
If you do the inner product of 1xn matrix with nx1 matrix and have an answer as a 1x1 matrix, are u allowed to just write the number like 7 or do you have to put it like [7]
i think there's no harm in pretending 1 x 1 matrices and scalars are the same thing
Any hints ?
the kernel of pi is W
its kinda like a generalization of the first isomorphism theorem if you're familiar with that
Yeah I showed that in the previous part but can't see how to use that
No not really
Okay, so lets let $\varphi : Maps(V/W, V') \to U \subset Maps(V,V')$ be the map in question (where $U$ is the subspace of maps $T$ such that $T(w) = 0$ for $w \in W$). Can you see that $\varphi(f) = f\circ \pi$ is well-defined?
kxrider
and for that matter, a linear map as well?
Okay i think i kinda get it
Now we show injectivity and subjectivity right ?
Surjectivity*
yep
Injectivity follows from the kernel ?
it would suffice to show that ker(phi) = {0} for injectivity, yes
What about surjectivity ?
for surjectivity, you would just have to use the definition: that given a linear map g : V --> V' such that g(w) = 0 for all w in W, there is a linear map f : V/W --> V' such that g = phi(f) = f circ pi
npnp
For a particular map
I'm looking at the proof of part (b)
I came up with my own proof, which I think is a little cleaner. I wonder if it's valid
Suppose $Tu = Tv$, then $Tu- Tv = 0$, which means that $u-v \in$ null T. By 3.85, this implies, $u+$null T = v + null T. This shows that $\tilde{T}$ is injective
Minh Pham
yes, this is correct
Ans is false, How to get it?
try to think about what the eigenvalues of A can be
only 1 is possible i think
Hi, Can we say in a surjective function a co-domain sets and image sets are equal?
yes that's what being surjective means
@zinc timber Thank you.
I don't understand it why is the next statement true/correct?
Let A be normal matrix, A isn't the zero matrix.
It's impossible that: A^(2021) = 0
A is normal matrix then D=UAU*, where D is diagonal matric and U is unitary matrix. A=UDU* implies that A^2=UD^2U*, ... , A^(2021)= UD^(2021)U*, since D is non zeros because of non zero A, Hence A^(2021) is not Null matrix.
oh wow yes you're right, thank you :]
๐
are you sure you didnt mean UDU*
as-is, $(UDU)^2 = UDU^2DU$
Ann
yes yes sorry
@heavy crown please check the mistake, sorry
I have absolutely no clue how to do part 3.b. I could do part a, but in part b I'm very confused as to how to use lagrange multipliers with matrices.
Can someone help me out ? Even tagging helpers didn't help in the help channel
yes, span of a set of vectors is the set of linear combinations
lagrange multipliers are linear algebra

downgraded from ryu sama to ryu kisama


I want to calculate the dimension of U
however the triplet (u1, u2, u3) is not a basis, because they are linearly dependent
Could someone give me input on this?
stick them up in a row-matrix and calculate the rref
rref?
reduced row echelon form
ahh
anyone?
the important parts are that it's a projection matrix for a projection p: R^2 -> R^2
yes, so we know it looks like this, but I got stuck in the next step
to be honest more info is needed, since the 0 matrix works here
unless i'm missing something
it can't be the 0 matrix because it is the projection matrix
yea I feel like more info is needed too but this is all the information given in the question, question from an exam from last year ๐ญ
doesn't the 0 matrix satisfy the definition of a projection mat?
it's idempotent
unless i'm missing something, the question is lacking the bit that it should project onto a dim 1 subspace
then you can use that info to find the orthogonal complement of the null space
A projection matrix should have eigenvalues of 1 and 0.
If it is the zero matrix it means Av = cv, in our case Av = 0 = 0 * v. always equals to 0.
So it can't be that Av = 1 = 1*v (which we seek because we need the other eigenvalue).
I have no clue :[ thanks for your help
orthogonal complement
I know what you mean but I don't know where to begin with because there isn't any info there haha
a zero matrix has eigenvalues 1 and 0
really hmm
but i guess my question is what does that actually mean
the image of the matrix X is a subspace spanned by its columns
you can take those columns and do gram schmidt to construct an orthonormal basis for this subspace
then, extend this to an orthonormal basis for all of R^n
the extra vectors you added are a basis for the orthogonal complement of X
any vector in (im X)^perp is orthogonal to any vector in (im X)
I understand you I think. We did it in the class in general case.
We said V=R2, U=sp{u}. Av=Pu(V). We look for finding A which is the projection matrix.
u= {(a, b)} is an orthogonal basis to U subspace. (No need for gram schmidt because it's dim1 so it's obviously orthogonal)
So using the projection formula. We found a general representation for that A matrix that meets those requirements.
and what I wrote on the left side is the general representation we found
oh I understood how to answer it now
thank you)
i really don't think your problem has a unique solution
there should be 2
the one listed there, which makes the projection matrix rank 1, and also the 0 matrix is valid
continuing from here, we find that a=-2b
Which means that we had u=sp{(a,b)} = sp{(-2b,b})
Now the solution is really simple because as we see In what we need to prove we need to multiply A by (-2,1)
Which belongs to u (the sp)
And according to the projection matrix Pu(v), if you put there v that belongs to u. So Pu(v)=v (=Av)
Which is the exacly the proof we're looking for
seems wrong in the first step
can you not just move them around bc of the commutative property of the dot product?
this is not dot product this is matrix multiplication
commutative property of dot product is <u,v> = <v, u> if it's over R
this means u^T v = v^T u
where u and v are vectors in R^n
that's not what you did
you said u^T v = v u^T, which is false
u^T v is a scalar, v u^T is a rank 1 matrix of size n x n
hmm but
if i did this
then im not sure how i would be able to get the transpose of A as well
you didn't do that
you said u^T Av = Av u^T
substitute Av = w, because it's a vector
then you said u^T w = w u^T
when it should be w^T u
that's what i did
just substitute back and use the properties of the transpose you were given
what distributive property
dot product
no distribution is happening
aren't yall overthinking this
Ann
yes
sorry im just starting rn ;/
c = (c.n)n+(c.m)m
For unit basis {n, m} this is true, right?
What's the result called, tryna look it up
Write a monomial and a trinomial with the variable x of your choice. The monomial must have a negative coefficient.
how do i do this
please check out #prealg-and-algebra
by unit basis you mean orthonormal?
well, unit usually refers to normal here, from norm. the ortho part is orthogonality (confusing nomenclature, i know). n is orthogonal to m?
no
then it is not necessarily true
take for example a basis [1,0] and [1/sqrt(2), 1/sqrt(2)]
and a vector c = [1,0]
the procedure yields [1,0] + [1/sqrt(2), 0] instead of [1,0]
@carmine echo ^ nope.
Urgh
Ok, so basically the problem is this
We are given 2 non-coincident planes in R^3
r.n = a
r.m = b
And want to find the equation of the line of intersection
r = k(nxm) + c
This is the progress, but stuck on finding c
what's r here
the variable
you can write this as a matrix vector equation and just solve that
[n,m]^T r = [a,b]^T
oh oops, lemme fix
I was expecting something nice kinda
well, yes
the matrix is 2 x 3, so it has a nontrivial kernel
a null space of dimension at least 1
meaning the planes intersect at at least a line
or at most a plane
Without going into coordinates I can't seem to write c
solving this will give you the parametric equation of a line
in terms of the other vectors explicitly?
uhh, this was for Rยฒ though... for R^3 you can go for c = (c.n)n + (c.m)m + (c.mxn)(mxn) m,n,mxn have hats plz understand๐คฆโโ๏ธ
m, n linearly independent
Yeah, xm + yn would still cover the plane containing vectors m and n, while mxn covers the 3D being perpendicular to both vectors
Ok for now lets assume n, m are unit (a and b can just be rewritten)
c.n + (c.m)(c.n) = a
This aint necessarily true is it?
r.n = a => c.n = a then? hmm?
hmm?
yes
if this true then c.n +(c.m)(c.n) = a + (c.m)(c.n) = a => (c.m)(c.n) = 0?
IF it is true
This is what I get after plugging your formula for c into the 1st plane equation
unless ab = 0, it aint true.
But you're close.
But no, this feels like an impossible task with n, m not necessarily orthogonal
There's no way this formula for c doesn't involve a and b
You can't have c inside the formula
For $\bR^3, , \vec{c}=(\vec{c}\cdot \hat{m})\hat{m}+(\vec{c}\cdot \hat{n})\hat{n}+(\vec{c}\cdot \hat{m\times n})\hat{m\times n}$, is false?
I'm quite sure it is.
Ansh
hmmm
If m and n arent perpendicular you encounter problems. Just dot that formula with n
And you get c.n = (c.m)(m.n) + (c.n)
We require (c.m)(m.n) = 0 for this to be true
And similarly, we require (c.n)(m.n) = 0
Hence c.m = c.n = 0 or m.n = 0
okay yeah right ๐คฆโโ๏ธ I need m.n = 0 for this
this feels like idk. Super annoying we can't get a closed form in terms of a b n m
in which case you can just pick 3 non-independent vectors and replace mxn with that one... mxn is a make do in case you got two perpendicular vectors m and n
c = (c.n)n + (c.m)m + ???
c = (c.n)n + (c.m)m + ???
c.n = (c.n) + (c.m)(n.m) + ???.n
c.m = (c.n)(n.m) + (c.m) + ???.m
not n, m... another vector say p or something
condition is am + bn + cp = 0 has no soln.
-c.m = p.n/(n.m)
-c.n = p.m/(n.m)
Find p so this is true
-(c.m)(n.m) = p.n
-(c.n)(n.m) = p.m
Huh?
c.n = (c.n) + (c.m)(n.m) + (c.p)(p.n)
-(c.m) = (c.p)(p.n)/(n.m)
Seriously? you got the first equation wrong from the start
c.n = (c.m)(m.n) + (c.n) + (c.p)(p.n)
c.m = (c.m) + (c.n)(n.m) + (c.p)(p.m)
c.p = (c.m)(m.p) + (c.n)(n.p) + (c.p)
๐คฆโโ๏ธ
0 = (c.m)(n.m) + p.n
0 = (c.n)(n.m) + p.m
it's (c.p)(p.n)
man im going to #latex-testing sorry for hogging channel
what why
not only p.n
because look at this
c = (c.m)m + (c.n)n + (c.p)p
yeah im kinda done
What are you guys proving?
Given
r.n = a
r.m = b
non-coincident planes (treat n, m as unit vectors if you want)
Find the vector equation of the intersection
Progress:
r = k(nxm) + c
Finding c seems to be hard/not possible in closed form
Also, given 3 non-independent m, n, p, is it right to write c = (c.m)m + (c.n)n + (c.p)p ? m, n, p are unit vectors
Sorry for being dumb, but whatโs the plane here? 
Whatโre n,m?
n, m are normal vectors and r is (x,y,z) 
yes
n m a b constant
wait wait wait, this looks helpful
c is the a in that post at the bottom
Isnโt the intersection just
[ {an + bm + c(n\times m)\vert c\in\bR} ]
?
Slurp
Or am I pulling a stupid
if m and n arent orthogonal
orthogonal?
?
m is orthogonal to its plane
n is orthogonal to its plane
They aren't necessarily orthogonal to each other
Ok yeah, that answer makes sense
We kinda need convert a, b in the plane equation
Basically, it's a pain in the current form
(r-a).n = 0
(r-b).m = 0
This would make it much more doable
A straightforward way to proceed would be to set v=(x,y) and start calculating.
it should be simple but I don't get it still sorrry
you could also check the eigenvalues of the matrix A and see if you can diagonalize it
There's not much to get, just unfold the definitions and start simplifying.
A third way would be to notice that sqrt(1/10)A is orthogonal.
you mean orthonormal, I understand it this way more
but idk can you show me how in this way?
Yes, that's a more logical name for the property. Unfortunately "orthogonal" is kind of traditional.
I'm not going to do your homework for you.
it's not my homework, i'm preparing for my exam hahaha
tropo's suggestion builds up on the definition you already wrote
all you have to do is capitalize from associativity
where "capitalize from associativity" really means "remember your high-school algebra".
sorry. I mean I literally forgot how to open <Av,Av> ( not has to do with remembering algebra , crying from shame haha)
if v=(x,y) then how do I proceed.
I just need to see one example of this to understand..
Look, if you don't even care enough to write the definition of A instead of the letter A, and write (x,y) instead of v, and then start applying the definition of matrix multiplication, then why should we do it for you?
There's clearly a huge conceptual misunderstanding here that has nothing to do with the problem at hand
okay that made me understand now better haha sorry for being dumb.
I literally didn't know what to do but now I made it
thank you!
the question is solve for X
i set up a system of 6 equations in 6 variables
and solved it
everything checks out
except the element in the 2rd row 3rd col ๐
[-4 9 -4]
[-3 5.5 -4.5]
that's the matrix i found
when you multiply the 2 matrices you don't get 10 in the 2nd row 3rd col u get 3/2
first thing that comes to mind is to check your arithmetic, or try doing it with a different method and see if you catch where you made a mistake
Obviously something must have gone wrong along the way. But there's a trick you can use to avoid having to solve 6 equations.
i used an online gaussian elimination calculator.......
huh
how
you might've input the matrix wrong
the easiest way here seems to invert the 3x3 mat
you can do that by augmenting it and then doing GJ on that
at least off the top of my head
maybe tropo has a more clever idea
i don't think we learned that in class hmmmm
we still haven't covered how to find the inverse of a matrix
First transpose your equation so it looks like A X^T = B for some concrete 3ร3 matrix A and 3ร2 matrix B (which I'm giving names jsut because I don't want to repeat their values over and over). Then if only you had A^-1, you could multiply with that from the left and get A^-1 A X^T = A^-1 B, that is X^T = A^-1 B. Now, applying a matrix from the left amounts to doing row operations, so what you can get the effect of multiplying by A^-1 by forming the block matrix [ A B ] and doing Gaussian elimination on that until reduced row echelon form. Then the A has become I and B has become A^-1 B.
Is this the correct way to check vector space axioms? I haven't done it in a long time
I didn't check all of them because I want to make sure my work so far is correct, maybe I'm making a silly mistake on each proof.
i'm so confused rn
it's def something that we still haven't covered
idk why it's in the hw tho
tropo's suggestion is equivalent to doing gaussian elimination twice on two small systems
if you're careful, you can do this for two separate systems in 3 variables
yeah when i did that i got a def wrong answer
instead of one huge system with 6 vars
y-xB must be in the kernel for X and the kernel = range X ^ orthogonal
but idk how beyond that to actually 'prove it'
when i separated the 6 equations into 2 systems
well, i can't say anything other than check your arithmetic :x
i got a whole def matrix
again, i used an online calculator lol
you evidently did something wrong though
i'll try again and check idk
i'll type the augmented matrices for the 2 systems here
notice that the part circled in red is precisely the definition of being in the orthogonal complement of range X
it might be easier to see if you substitute X^T with something else
but i think the direction here is to do something with the kernel space no?
since we know that
lets say z = y - xb
then we have X^T z = 0
thus we must be able to say that z is in the kernel space no?
hmm im not sure yet since i didnt start the proof but
that was my thinking behind this proof
what you said is the same thing i said
\begin{bmatrix}
-1 & 2 & 3\
0 & b & c
\end{bmatrix}
oh sorry lmao
lemme try to write it out and see if i can try it myself
I think that should have been X at the end, not X^T, right?
\begin{bmatrix}
-1 & 1 & 3 & 1
0 & 1 & 1 & 5
1 & 0 $ -1 & 0
\end{bmatrix}
yes, my bad. forgot about the transpose
It may help to be explicitly aware that the kernel of a matrix is the same as the orthogonal complement of its row space.
Would this be an acceptable argument for showing that a matrix with orthonormal columnvectors is orthogonal? Let Q be the matrix with orthonormal columnvectors, then:
$$(QQ^){i,j} = \sum{r=1}^{n} Q_{i,r}Q_{r,j}^{} = \sum_{r=1}^{n} Q_{r,i}^{} Q_{r,j}^{} = \sum_{r=1}^{n} (Q_{r,j} Q_{r,i})^* $$
$$= <Q_{,i} , Q_{,j}> = \delta_{i,j}$$
and likewise for $Q^{*}Q$.
Kaishin
this is the augmented matrix of the first system
the augmented matrix for the seconds system
http://mathb.in/69867
Is this the correct way to check vector space axioms? I haven't done it in a long time
I didn't check all of them because I want to make sure my work so far is correct, maybe I'm making a silly mistake on each proof.
Reposting my question from earlier as it got buried
Note that f(x)+g(x)=g(x)+f(x) as they are elements of R.
why isn't the proof of commutativity done here?
(same for associativity)
you do a lot of unnecessary work
Like what?
Yeah isn't that what I do?
sure, but why do you think that (f+g)(x) = f(x)+g(x) = g(x)+f(x) = (g+f)(x) does not suffice
you write a lot more
you did that in (1)?
for both f+g and g+f
(as it holds for f and g by assumption)
as I show that the bijections=U between the sets $L(\mathbb{R}^{m},\mathbb{R}^{n}) \ y \ M_{n x m}(\mathbb{R})$ and $\mathbb{R}^{nm} $ are isomorphic
alexix21
Oh okay, so I should've just stated by (1), the rest follows
i mean, you have f, g satisfying that property by assumption, f+g and g+f as well by (1) and you only have to show f+g = g+f
i am not quite sure why you want to show more than that
you already showed "additive closure" before, and you show it again
there is no reason to even mention it
Yeah okay
in (5) you don't mention that g is in V
since you did everything else in a lot of detail, it seems like you forgot to check
yes, you show that such a g exist as a function R -> R
but you do not confirm that it is in V
I see what you mean so I should add a line like g(x) = 0 = g(1 - x), so g in V
i miss a "clearly g \in V" after defining g
yes, exactly
everything else looks good to me
Thanks for the feedback
maybe a thing to mention
if you know that the functions R -> R are a vector space already, you can save yourself a lot of work
since then you only have to show that V is a subspace and you get commutativity/associativity for free
I see, yeah
(also distributivity and the compatability thing)
Distributivity is compatibility isn't it?
Oh okay yeah
It seems like you are assuming that $Q_{ri}$ is real? You can just show that the rows are orthogonal, it follows that the columns are also orthogonal (you can apply the same result to $Q^t$). From the second equality, note that $Q^*{rj}=\overline{Q{rj}}^t=\overline{Q_{jr}}$. And so the sum equals $\sum_{r=1}^n Q_{ir}\overline{Q_{jr}}$ whcich is the dot product of rows $i$ and $j$.
Croqueta
To bring this to nicer forms, is the usual way of doing it by multiplying the 1-degree terms by another variable, say z, and then appplying Jacobi's theorem or principal axis theorem (not sure how you call it) and fix the new variable z, so that z^2 is just a constant ?
I've finished most of the theorem, can someone verify that I'm doing the correct ideas?
(I could list axioms used, but I'd need to include a screenshot of which axiom is which, but it's just the standard vector space axioms)
im not understanding this question
Pn is the vector space containing all polynomials of the nth degree
one of these are "no" but I dont understand why
@native ore Have you gone through the axioms for each one?
They got help already
hey guys general question here, a linearly independent set written;a1v1+...akvk=0, can it have a non trivial solution?
so it must only be a trivial solution?
We just say that if not all of the c_i are zero then it's a nontrivial solution. However, because the set is independent, you can't get 0 without all of the c_i being zero
makes sense, i read something but I had a feeling is wrong, thanks
What did you read?
also,
how would i evaluate to see if 2.f) is linearly dependent
how do i make a system of equations to evaluate? the fact that it is in the denominator is messing with me
What do you mean system of equations? There is no system right now, just use the definition and make an equation, and see what happens then
Also I haven't seen that notation before. Does that mean functions with domain [0,1] to F?
the definition of linear (in)dependence
dont write $\vec{0}$
Mosh
it implies coordinate vectors
Just multiply through by the denominators like you normally would?
however, write it all as 1 rational function
Just keep in mind the domain restrictions
But they're easy to factor so that shouldn't be a problem
write it as $\frac{P(x)}{Q(x)}=0$
Mosh
Or just P(x) = 0 if you remember the domain restrictions for where it is undefined
so add them all together first?
yes
OK, why would you do that out of curiousity
want a sum of fractions = 0
and easier to solve that when you have fraction = 0
cause then it becomes numerator = 0
ie you get rid of the rational expressions and end with a polynomial
sure, could've been simpler
cause factors are repeated I believe
however, you now have a quartic = 0
whose coefficients are functions of a1,a2 and a3
which cannot be independent
what in the world
http://mathb.in/69868
I've finished most of the theorem, can someone verify that I'm doing the correct ideas?
(I could list axioms used, but I'd need to include a screenshot of which axiom is which, but it's just the standard vector space axioms)
Reposting from above since it got buried
so i get a solution of a_3(-5/6. -1/6,1)
so how do i use that to answer the linear combination?
you have infinitely many options for how to pick the scalars
pick 1 that isn't the 0 vector
Can i get some help on this, i might forgotten a lot about dual spaces
with response to this
i have written up this proof
do you have any thoughts on this?
i meant to write kernel of x transpose but besides that
Has anyone seen the new Matrix movie? It wasn't as good as the old ones, but apparently WB is using it to launch a whole cinematic universe of linear algebra-themed action movies. Personally I'm really looking forward to the upcoming Quentin Tarantino-directed The Tensor Product. Michael Bay's Gaussian Elimination, slated for 2024, also doesn't look terrible, and I'm normally not a fan of his work.
If we have a infinite dimensional space V, can we find a linear transformation from V to a subspace W in V ?
I am trying to solve this and thought maybe if we find such a mapping then we can take the function on W and construct a function on V, then we prove i is surjective
functional*
what i gave is surjective onto {0} lol
also i think you might want to refresh yourself on the definition of adjoint maps
bumping for 3rd time
what is basis space of linear functions โ ( ( โn, โm)
think about matrices. These are mxn matrices
i.e. how would you construct a basis for the space of mxn matrices?
Any hint on this ?
carefully write out what it means for i^\vee to be surjective
(if you haven't, figure out what i^\vee is in the first place)
should we find some projection from V to W to find i* ?
i don't really know what you mean
well, maybe i do. it'd work, but it doesn't really address either of the things i wrote, at least not directly
so u say there is a simpler way of finding i*? cuz at the first i was using basis to find this projection but i was pointed out that I shouldn't assume finite dimensions
I think i roughly i understand dual spaces and transformations, could clarify more about finding i and will go back and refresh my understanding ?
if f is a linear functional on V, what is i*f?
a linear functional on W ?
which one?
not sure
you have to review the definitions in your book/notes/lecture, then
yeah I should review this topic. Thanks a lot
I am sorry, could u clarify what does "i given by the inclusion of a subspace" mean?
it's the map from W to V which sends every element w of W to w.
TTerra
this maybe looks a little silly
but it is important
this is a linear transformation, so you can talk about its adjoint linear transformation
so i just reviewed the definition
if we have v' in V'
then i guess i' v' should also be v' ?
because <iw, v'> = <w, i' v' >
well, you have to be a bit careful about the domain of v'
v' is defined on V, but i'v' is only going to be defined on W
yeah i was gonna say it should restricted to W right ?
I think surjectivity should follow from this nicely even though i can't see immediately how
there are a few ways to show i* is surjective
thinking concretely, you want to show that every linear functional on W extends to one on V
right?
sure
since restricting the extension is just gonna give you your original functional back, and that says it's in the image of i*
hahn banach 
lmao
a more abstract way to do it is to use the fact that surjectivity is equivalent to having a right inverse
passing to adjoint transformations switches around compositions, so you'll want to find a left inverse to i. but that's injectivity, so...

figuring out how to do it in terms of extending functionals is probably the point of the problem
~~or you can use hahn banach
~~
Isn't the intuition given here is sufficient? or should we construct the right inverse ?
you should show how to construct an extension to V of any linear functional on W
maybe best to ignore the abstract stuff i said about finding right inverses, for now
i only brought it up because you mentioned projections of V onto W earlier, and that's where that comes in
well
but can i just do a silly extension? like just let it be a constant function on V\W ?
eh, both ways are fine. either showing you can extend functionals, or showing that you can find a projection. they're basically the same problem
why would that be linear?
you gotta extend your functional W -> F to a functional V -> F, so it's gotta be linear
was thinking the identity function but not necessarily linear aswell
it's something to think about
can't think of something tbh
how to assume basis if it is not finite dimensional ?
hmmm
well, bases still exist
you can still find a basis of W and extend it to a basis of V, for example
something something axiom of choice
maybe that'll help
bumping for 4th time
so the extension just puts zero on all other coordinates that's not in W ?
i think you've got the right idea
Oh okay that's nice, thanks a lot. Is it okay to ask for a hint for the second part? or did I ask too many questions ?
for that one i recommend slowly unpacking the definitions
you want to relate functionals on V/W to functionals on V, somehow
(since one side of the isomorphism is (V/W)* and the other side lives in V*)
so Ker(i') is just the functionals on V that are 0 for all w in W right ?
righgt
all i think about is that pi from V to V/W is zero for all w in W but this is probably irrelevant
the quotient map might be relevant
hmm
is this channel free
big hint: it might be a good idea to think about the quotient map and its adjoint
okay so in a previous part
I proved that L(V, V') and L(V/W, V') are isomorphic for another V' vector space
sorry i didnt wanna interrupt a convo but its a linear algebra related one
does it make sense to just apply this with V' = R ?
can you post a screenshot of that part?
it doesn't seem right to me as you've stated it
yeah, you can apply this
yeah it makes total sense
you got it

hey all im trying to solve this https://cdn.discordapp.com/attachments/495064710278938662/936132911088939098/Screen_Shot_2022-01-26_at_11.37.31_PM.png
this is the matrix im trying to solve it with
but i have no idea how they work together
How would I find RREF of Augmented matrix from a solution set
did you mean eigenvalues?
also this isn't true in general unless you say something else about A
$A = \bmqty{1&0&0\ 0&2&0 \ 0&0&3}, t_1 = 1$ and $t_1 = 2$ does not satisfy $(A-t_1I)(A-t_2I) = 0$
Ann
@teal flare
@dusky epoch
well why didn't you say so
Sorry, could you help me?
anyway in that case this is just cayley-hamilton
plugging a matrix into its own characteristic polynomial gives 0
though if you don't know this theorem then there are other ways to explain why your result holds
I'll try to understand that, but if you have others, I'd like to hear them, if you don't mind.
how familiar are you with the concept of diagonalization
in that case, notice that your matrix has 2 distinct eigenvalues and is diagonalizable
so let's say A = QDQ^-1
and notice also that QQ^-1 = I
that can be substituted into (A - t1 I) (A - t2 I)
as (QDQ^-1 - t1 QQ-1)(QDQ^-1 - t2 QQ-1)
then notice that the Q and Q^-1 can be factored from each term, leaving you with
Q(D - t1 I) Q^-1 Q(D - t2 I) Q^-1
and the Q^-1 Q in the middle can be replaced with another I
so now we have Q(D - t1 I)(D - t2 I)Q^-1
then recall that D will have as diagonal entries t1 and t2
so D - t1 I is a matrix of the form [0, 0; 0, t2 - t1]
similarly for D - t2 I, where we get [t1 - t2, 0; 0, 0]
so the product of the 2 inner terms is 0
I see. Thank you.
Q 0 Q^-1 = 0 (where 0 is the 0 matrix)
this holds more generally for matrices that are not diagonalizable, but you'd have to look the cayley hamilton theorem as ann said
nobody said t1 โ t2 though
good catch
i saw your example and was like "ah, t1 = 1 and t2 = 2" lol
the argument still works under the stronger assumption that the matrix isn't defective
otherwise i guess they'd need jcf
Could someone help me with these two problems?
I'm having some difficulty writing stuff out... it's as if it makes sense, but I can't structure my thought process.
what is P(R)?
Polynomials with coefficients in $\mathbb{R}$.
Kaishin
and ' stands for dual?
Yes
I think defining an isomorphism between them would probably be the easiest way, but I'm not sure how. Perhaps if we define
$T \colon (P(\mathbb{R}))' \to \mathbb{R}^{\infty}$
as
$$T ( \phi) = (\phi (1), \phi (x), \phi(x^2), \ldots)$$
maybe?
Kaishin
I think that should be an isomorphism; not sure...
Which map preserve area? From following.
I'm just curious: are area preserving maps the same as isometries?
Idk
no
a map can preserve areas without being an isometry
I see
don't think this will work because dual space of P(R) is not that simple
I don't know what's the dual space of P(R) is tho
I'm not sure here, but I don't think the first one preserves, as it sends the triangle with corners (0,0),(1,0),(0,1) to (1,0),(6,3),(3,1), I think.
2 sends same points to (0,0),(1,1),(1,1), so th area is 0, so also not preserving, I think.
Don't know about 3rd. @proper cradle
something something || determinant ||
The set of all linear functions from P(R) to R, but it's infinite dimensional, so we can't do the simple ol' basis switcheroony
AH, of course. Forgot about the geometric meaning of this.
But they are not linear transformations so how to find det
jacobian
Sorry, I don't know what induced norm and complete mean.
also are these TIFR prev year questions?
Yep

How to proceed after this?
Yep
and?
If they independent of variable then they preserve areas?
No, do you know the geometrical meaning of the jacobian?
No
in simple words jacobian at point x_0 measures the infinitesimal distortion of volume (area) at point x0
alright then?
bumping for 5th time
it works
in (c) you don't mention that additive inverses are unique (which you need)
Why do I need to do that?
(-a)x is the additive inverse of ax
you can't speak of "the" additive inverse until you know additive inverses are unique
in (d) everything after "Now assume x \neq O" is unnecessary and you also messed it up a bit
Oh okay, yes I do know that, just wondered why
everything else is correct as far as i can tell
I need to prove both cases don't I though?
So (d) is incorrect?
no, you don't. you have proved a โ 0 implies x = O, which is equivalent to (a = 0 or x = O)
your two cases are a=0 (in which case you are done) and a\neq0
by material implication
or that
the part that starts with "assume x โ O" can just be erased
alternatively everything before that (but you would have to fix the stuff that comes after)
No after rereading it I understand now what you mean
(this would correspond to the cases x = O or x \neq O)
We work under the assumption that $ax = 0$. Assume that $a \neq 0$. Then $ax = O$ and $a$ is an element of some field, so $a^{-1}$ exists. Therefore, $a^{-1}(ax) = a^{-1}O = O = (a^{-1}a)x = x$. Therefore, $x = O$. Notice that if $a = 0$, then by (a) we are done.
n/c
also
I think that's good enough for (d) then
a is an element of some field
this is unnecessarily vague
a is an element of the base field of your vector space
which you don't give a name, but it's not "some field"
if you want, you can give the base field of your vector space a name at the beginning (usually it's called F or K) and refer to it by name when needed
Like let V be a vector space over the field F?
I just don't want F to be interpreted as R or C
it won't be unless you explicitly say you're only considering real or complex vector spaces
(or context indicates as much)
this or "let V be an F-vector space"
How to solve this?
is this a true/false?
a hint: if you could find a proper non zero invariant subspace, that corresponds to a non-trivial factor of the characteristic polynomial
Its true
in particular for identity map which one is invariant?
got it span by eigen vectors
every subspace is invariant wrt identity
I did several "versions" of proving something is a subspace. I need feedback on which one is the best, or which parts of each version are the best and more correct
(I know I didn't compute dim S)
ohh yes, what happen if some linear transformation have only one eigen value with AM and GM equal are n(dim of v) then there exist any proper invariant subspace for this transformation?
if GM=dimV then ur map is a multiple of the identity
then eigen space with respect to this eigen value will be V right, so it is not proper
doing all these exercises from axler seems like a waste of time, i know how to do the computation so its reasonable to skip these right? or is there some reason axler is including tons of very duplicate looking exercises
since it is bijective, then ker is zero and range V, so my question is then which subspace W is invariant for this such transformation?
which is non-zero proper
in every exercise, U is changing if you are comfortable with finding the basis of U in every ex then it is fine to leave
yes but any proper subspace of V is invariant
see msg about identity map
but for every map T, any subspace of V is not invariant under T
Anyone?
Let A be a normal matrix of order n x n. A has exactly 2 different eigenvalues: b, c.
Show that if b=-c, then Aยฒ is a a diagonal matrix.
--
We know that: Aยฒ = PDยฒP^(-1) = P * {{c^2, 0} ,{0, c^2}} * P^(-1)
How do I show it's diagonal matrix the result?
Dยฒ is constant multiple of identity
this is P * c^2 I * P^-1
im talking about ur example (GM=dimV), not in general
bump
oh you're right thank you two ryu and ann
All are good
@proper cradle Thanks but surely one is better than the other?
Anyone?
A and B are matrices of order n x n that have the same characteristic polynomial. Show that A-B is invertible.
Means we want to do find |A-B| != 0 ? but how
If A = B this is not true though
That's the full question(from an exam)
A and B are matrices of order n x n that have the same characteristic polynomial. Circle the correct statement (1) or (2):
(1) A is invertible if and only if B is invertible.
(2) A - B isn't invertible.
I didn't know how to answer both options lol and I thought the answer is (1) is the correct answer.
So assumed the (2) is wrong = A-B must be invertible(?) thus my question above
yea youre right hm
nvm about the thing i deleted
yea I'm thinking hmm
okay the first one is correct
because if their char polys are the same, A has 0 as an eigenvalue iff B has 0 as an eigenvalue @heavy crown
oo you're right damn. haha
so both share the same eigenvalues then neceserrialy both don't have the 0 eigenvalue so both are invertible if one is
yep
so how to prove A-B is invertible? haha
is that supposed to be true?
it could be sometimes true, sometimes false or something like that
yea it makes sense to me thinking about it more this way but
if we ticked (1) as correct, so (2) must incorrect and (2) says A-B isn't invertible.
thus A-B is always invertible somehow
or maybe this exam is broken haha
that's not how negating statements work
aha yea I guess it just means then that it could be invertible or not
the negation of the second statement is that there exists A and B with the same char poly such that A - B is invertible
npnp
If I have a linear transfomation and it's matrix T, is the Im(S) the vector space generated by the vectors I get from applying the transformation to each generator of S?
If we define L(S) to denote the subspace spanned by a subset S of a linear space V, then how can we define the set S? Is it just some basis vectors of V, or scalar multiples of?
Because if S subset T subset V and T is a subspace of V, then L(S) subset T, but how do you justify that unless T is a set of (even more) linear combinations as well
Since T is a subspace of V, we have T is closed under scalar multiplication and vector addition. So taking a subset S of T we have L(S) is a subset of T. wdym by how do we define S? If we have generating system in V we can define S as the span of that system. Is that what you mean?
@halcyon spindle I meant can we explicitly construct S? Because for example, given e_1,..,e_k basis vectors of S, $L(S) = { \sum_{i=1}^k \zeta_i e_i : \zeta_i \in K, e_i \in V}$ where $V$ is a v.sp. over the field $K$
n/c
hmm wait a second you have a basis for S, so you can construct S and S would be a subset of L(S).
right
But that depends on what S is
Is S just some basis vectors, or scalar multiples of that are fixed?
The dimension of a subspace is at least one less than its parent space right?
@tender zenith no
A subspace can be equal to the 'parent' space as well
@halcyon spindle I think we need to define S to be equal to the span of S, if we want S to be a subspace of V
no, any space is a subspace of itself. but this is true for proper subspaces (assuming finite dimension)
I don't understand. We define $S = {x_1,x_2,\dots,x_k} $ of $k$ independent elements from some vector space $V$. Then we let $L(S)$ to be the subspace spanned by S. So how can $L(S) = S$, ever?
n/c
whats S, whats Im
nvm didn't see who you tagged.
@gray dust this is the linear transformation
and this is S
and Im is the image, that is what we obtain when we apply the transformation to the space S
what I did was find the generators of S
and then applied f to every generator of S
and said that Im(S) was the span of the vectors that I obtained
Is that correct? If not, then how do I find the image of a subset given a transformation?
Image is the subspace of output vectors, yes
Thx it made sense in my head but I wasn't sure
ic, Im(S) isnt the usual notation
if f is a function & A is a subset of the domain then f(A) denotes the image of A under f
so here we say f(S)
and indeed, if S is a subspace of the domain then f(S) is a subspace of the codomain
wdym how we define S?
@gray dust I'm just trying to explicitly construct S
here's my question
who said L(S)=S?

