#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 248 of 1
yes
what's the definition
@lavish jewel if you can find values to build a vector from others
you're gonna have to write it down as an equation
like a_1x_1 + ... + a_nx_n = 0 with a_1 = ... = a_n = 0
right, that means that the x_i are linearly independent
yes
"with" should be implies
now notice that that thing you wrote is equivalent to the matrix-vector product $[x_1 x_2 \dots x_n]\begin{bmatrix} a_1 \\ a_2 \\ \vdots \\ a_n\end{bmatrix}$
Edd
where the x_i are vectors
yes
if the columns are linearly independent, then the system Mv = 0 only has the solution v = 0
if the columns are linearly dependent, then Mv = 0 has nontrivial solutions for v
you could then do elimination and find that the solution is parametrized in terms of free variables
those solutions are a basis for the null space of the matrix M
and they have the property that Mw = 0, for any such vector w in the null space
which is the same as saying Mw = 0w
or in other words, the vector w has an associated singular value of 0
all as a consequence of M having linearly dependent columns
and trivially, Mw = sigma w, with sigma nonzero, means w is a singular vector of M with a singular value sigma
beyond that, i'll just direct you to the rank-nullity theorem
@lavish jewel i mean you have that the rank is the dim of M - dim ker f
now use that and what i just explained
you remove the number of vectors that build Mw = 0
i don't understand what you mean. remove them from what?
i don't get this part
why having Mw = 0w => M having linearly dependant columns
you told me yourself
that's the definition of linear dependence
if w is nonzero and we can still get Mw = 0 = 0w, then M must have linearly dependent columns
since Mw = 0 is the same as the definition of linear dependence that you gave me
here
if the a_i can be nonzero, then that means the x_i are linearly dependent
i mean
if it's not linearly independent, then surely it is linearly dependent

i don't think i will be able to explain this to you, i would strongly recommend you just start over from the beginning
or maybe someone else can explain it here
ok got it
until that it's ok
so based on the nullity theorem, rank f = dim E - dim ker f => rank f = number of independant vectors => Mw = sigmaw with sigma != 0
@lavish jewel so if rank(f) = n, you can find n sigma and w to have Mw = sigmaw with sigma != 0 ?
yes
k for the sake of conceptual understanding
take a columnspace of some matrix A
say the rref of A is equal to some matrix B
so is it true that the basis of the rowspace of A is equal to the basis of the rowspace of B
since the rowspace of B is equal to the rowspace of A
no
the same subspace can have many bases
as a simple example, [1,0] and [0,1] span R^2, and so do [1,0] and [1,1]
Being a basis for the one is the same as being a basis for the other, since they are the same. The main issue is the use of "the basis" since there is no one basis.
the operations you do in RREF are the same as what i did there, just adding (scaled versions of) the basis vectors together in some way
for the common cases of R^n and C^n, any subspace has infinitely many bases
except {0}
My snarky {0} reply was sniped 
i know about the infinite basis thing i just forgot about that when asking the thing
i meant
are the sets of bases for row(A) and row(B) equal
You started off talking about a column space, so btw, this is not true for column spaces since col(A) ≠ col(B) in general
wdym sets of bases
row(A) and row(B) are the same thing. Everything about them is the same.
yeah i know
it's the same subspace, you just found two different bases for the same subspace
okay cool
In any vector space ax=ay implies that x=y . Is This statement True ?
@wintry steppe no
Why ?
Okaay ty !
How do I find a linear transformation $T:\mathbb{R}^5\rightarrow\mathbb{R}^3$ such that
$$
\text{nul}(T)=\text{span}\left{\begin{pmatrix} 1 \ 1 \ 0 \ 0 \ 1 \end{pmatrix},\begin{pmatrix} 1 \ 0 \ 0 \ 0 \ 1 \end{pmatrix}\right}
$$
timmmm
I'm just finding it hard to work from a nullspace
like I understand that from here you can say that {x1+x2+x5=0,x1+x5=0}
but like I'm tryna think of how to get a 3x5 coefficient matrix from that
You can uniquely define a linear transformation by describing what happens to the basis vectors of your domain. So you can extend those two vectors to a basis of R^5, send those two vectors to 0 and the others to something nonzero.
alrighty so uhm
it may be nearly 5 am and things are having a hard time penetrating my brain
but is there a way in which you could elaborate on that just a bit more
Can you give me a basis of R^5 that contains those two vectors?
note that you were not given enough info to write a unique transformation T, you'll have to make some stuff up
{e1,e2,e5}
ah okay so a basis would be {e1,e2,e3,e4,e5}
Yes, but I want a basis that has as two of its basis vectors, those two vectors
Yeah that works
ooh fun
Now because I'm lazy I will call those b1 b2 b3 b4 b5 in the same order you listed them
So you can define T(bi) = ci for any ci in R^3 and that will define a linear transformation, do you agree?
yes
We need T(b1) = T(b2) = 0 so that b1 and b2 are in the nullspace
So now it's just about sending the other three to something else so that no linear combination of them can map to 0
Except the zero lin comb
So 0 ≠ T(a3 b3 + a4b4 + a5b5) = a3 T(b3) + a4 T(b4) + a5 T(b5) unless a3 = a4 = a5
And that's the same as saying T(b3), T(b4) and T(b5) should be lin independent
yep
So you can map them to any three linearly independent vectors
And then that transformation is what you want
👍
so would this new basis of dimension 5 be the range of the transformation?
oh right that makes sense
The basis is in R^5, the range is in R^3
right so I came up with the transformation
$$
T\begin{pmatrix} x_1 \ x_2 \ x_3 \ x_4 \ x_5 \end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix} x_1+x_2+x_5 \ x_1+x_5 \ x_1+x_5 \end{pmatrix}
$$
timmmm
But T(1,0,0,0,1) = (2,2,2)
oh shoot
Look over your work again, maybe you made a mistake when converting it to this form
how do they calculate this? (is this the determinate or something different)
determinant
nvm
looks like they found the cofactors for the first row
since one has to multiply the minors by the corresponding entry in the matrix, this immediately means you're adding 1*(some minor) + 0 + 0
and the minor should be (-1)^2 det([-1, 4; -2, 8])
which comes out to 1*(-8 - -8)
does anybody understand why F^n can be seen as a function, this is from linear algebra done right
like i thought F^n is just a set
Could you explain the S-lemma? What is it?
Are there any intuitive explanations?
F^n is basically the same as the set of all functions from n to F
for example, take a function f from {1, 2, 3} to R
then:
f(1) might be 3
f(2) might be 5.5
f(3) might be -1
this function f corresponds to an element in R^3
the element (3, 5.5, -1)
For simplex method, how does slack variables transform inequalities into equalities? it makes like no sense to me
if, say, x < y, then one could add some c so that x + c = y
and this c needs to be >= 0
Good morning
what do you need help with
How is that a2 = [a][a] = [9 8 9] ..
do you know how matrix multiplication works?
Explain it to me
this image is the only thing i'll provide you with
google is a thing, and you presumably have a book and/or course material as well
otherwise, go to the help channels instead
Let $u \in T^{\perp}$. Then, $\forall v \in T$ we have that $\langle u,v \rangle = 0$. In particular, since $S \subseteq T$, we have that $\forall v \in S$ it is the case that $\langle u,v \rangle = 0$, thus $u \in S^{\perp}$ and $T^{\perp} \subseteq S^{\perp}$.
MISTERSYSTEM
Was just a matter of using the definition of orthogonal complement.
Your proof and explanation made it clear for me to understand it, thank you very much (:
Np!
Hello all, suppose if I have
$$Av_{1}=v_{1}$$
and
$$Av_{2}=v_{2}$$
then what conditions do I need to say
$$v_{1}=c\cdot v_{2}$$
for $c\in\mathbb{R}$? In other words, Is there a way I would know they share an eigenvalue and indeed the multiplicity of this eigenvalue is hopefully $1$
ShatteredSunlight
Hmm, I think in general it's not possible?
one sufficient condition is that eigen space corresponding to eval 1 is one dimensional
this guarantees that the geometric multiplicity of eval 1 is 1, but not necessarily the algebraic multiplicity
Yeah, indeed, I require the geometric multiplicity to be 1
I'm not sure if I can show that, so I will have to do my problem using high-power theorems I don't comprehend again...
this one shouldnt need any other heavy machinery
the original question is a bit weirdly formulated
since v1 = c v2 has nothing to do with the matrix
you could simply normalize the vectors and then use cauchy-schwarz to show whether they are parallel
FWIW I'm doing the doubly stochastic matrix proof of stationary distribution (yet another proof)
A lot of the online proofs basically 'consider solution' and say it is the solution by uniqueness.
For me I don't like how it comes about, so I wanted to see how much I can push it.
The only additional thing I could add is that the vector of all 1s is linearly dependent to the final stationary distribution, given by
$$\mathbf{1}^{T}P=\mathbf{1}^{T}$$
under bistochasticity and
$$\pi^{T}P=\pi^{T}$$
under existence of stationarity
Then Perron-Frobenius says the there is only one eigenvector with all positive entries, so I finally get
$$\pi = c * \mathbf{1}$$
ShatteredSunlight
In essence I'd like a more algebraic a priori result of the stationary distribution rather than 'guess and check'
And no Perron-Frobenius if I can help it, since I didn't prove PF
can anyone explain what the minimum rank of any matrix can be?
Will need more context lol but the true minimum across all possible matrices of any size is 0 since dimensions of vector spaces are nonnegative
well
in the context of an nxn, mxn, nxm i mean to say
like the maximum rank of a matrix cannot extend beyond the # of columns and # of rows
on the other spectrum
what would the minimum rank be
would it be dependent on the type of matrix?
i see
not dependent on the size of the matrix. any n by m matrix with every entry zero has rank zero. it may depend on the properties of the matrix. for example, minimum rank of all symmetric matrices is still 0, but minimum rank of n by n invertible matrices is n
ok
?
y is a function of x. there is no fixed value for y
y = 2x is saying that given x, y is going to be twice the value of x
x is not by default 0, whatever that means
should be y = 6 if y = 2x
this is not a linear algebra question btw. but still not clear what your question is.
yes, it’s redundant to write y = 4x + 0
btw, this isnt linear algebra
google matrix inverse
oh
Im gonna guess it's wrong
im dumb alright
since that matrix isnt invertible
huh
6 6
1 1
This isn't invertible
right
so its inverse doesnt exist
not sure how to go about this problem
the diagonal is right but not the rest
nvm nvm got it
columns aren't scalar multiples of each other
and you can see if augment that matrix with the 0 vector
there will be a pivot in each non augmented column thus has only the trivial solution
note that it can have atmost rank 3 because of the number of columns
so that 0 row is ignored there are no free variables
hopefully that helps im not too good at linear algebra
I need to find the the matrix T, B2_T_B1
I know how to perform the change of base with real numbers but how do I compute this since it involves complex numbers?
Is it the same process as performing the Gram Schmidt process on complex space?
I have already shown that B2 is an orthonormal basis for C2
although I do not understand why we were asked to show that B2 is an orthonormal basis for C2 in the first place
any explanation will be greatly appreciated
What do they mean by T_B2, T_B1 ? Is it asking us to find the matrix of T with respect to the basis B2 and B1?
Yes, this is what they mean
Transforming from one basis to another
I don't know if I phrased that correctly
hopefully you understand what I'm trying to say
Alright
So, the first column of the matrix T_ B2,T_B1 will be given as follows
I suppose (1,2) is written in the standard basis of C^2
So what we have to do
Is find those coordinates
With respect to basis B2
This means that we must find constants a,b
For which:
$$
\begin{bmatrix}
1 \
2
\end{bmatrix}
a
\cdot
\begin{bmatrix}
1/\sqrt{2} \
- i / \sqrt{2}
\end{bmatrix}
b \cdot
\begin{bmatrix}
(1+i)/2 \
(-1+i)/2
\end{bmatrix}
$$
MISTERSYSTEM
So we basically want to write (1,2) = a* w_1 + b *w_2
For some constants a,b
These constants
Are the coordinates of (1,2)
With respect to basis B_2
These coordinates
Will be the first column of the matrix we are trying to find
Are you fine with this?
I see
do I do the same process for the other columns?
Yup!
Now
You will see why B2 being orthonormal is so useful
Notice that, a priori, we would have to solve 3 different systems of linear equations
But since B2 is orthonormal
We don't have to
Notice the following
Take the inner product with respect to w_1 on both sides
We will be able to simplify things down as follows
$
T(v_{1}) = a w_{1} + b w_{2}
$
This implies that:
$$
\langle T(v_{1}), w_{1} \rangle = a \langle w_{1}, w_{1} \rangle + b \langle w_{2}, w_{1} \rangle
$$
But $B_{2}$ is orthogonal, meaning that $\langle w_{1}, w_{1} \rangle = 1$ and $\langle w_{2}, w_{1} \rangle = 0$. So in fact we have that:
$$
\langle T(v_{1}), w_{1} \rangle = a
$$
MISTERSYSTEM
So in fact, what we found out is that in order to calculate the first coordinate of T(v_{1}) with respect to B2
All we have to do is take the inner product of T(v_1) with w_1
We can do the same calculation to find the second coordinate of T(v_1)
Just take the inner product with respect to w_2 on both sides
mindblown
Thank you so so much for that explanation, It was spot on
Np
Just do the same thing to find the other coordinates
Take the respective inner products and so on
will do
thank you so much again
hope you have a great day!
I get that the eigenvectors of a matrix are the vectors that don't get rotated, only get scaled so they're always on their span and the eigenvalues of that matrix are the magnitude of the eigenvectors
but
how do I compute them for a given matrix?
and eigenvalues an eigenvectors should exist for non-square matricies right?
eigenvalues are only computable for square matrices
If A is a n x n matrix, you can find its eigenvalues by solving the det(A - λI) = 0
where I is the identity matrix
what's lambda?
ah so you solve for lambda to get the eigenvalue
First of all, it doesn't make sense to talk about eigenvalues and eigenvectors for non square matrices, because notice that given a $n \times n$ square matrix $A$ over a field $\mathbb{K}$ we define a non zero vector $x \in \mathbb{K}^{n}$ to be an eigenvector of $A$ if $\exists \lambda \in \mathbb{K}$ for which:
$$
Ax = \lambda x
$$
Notice that this makes sense, because since $A$ is a square matrix, it sends vectors with $n$ entries to vectors with $n$ entries as well, so that asking $Ax = \lambda x$ makes sense. Notice, however, that if $A$ is an $m \times n$ matrix with $m \neq n$, i.e it is a non square matrix, we have that $A$ sends a vector $x$ with $n$ entries to a vector with $m$ entries, so that $Ax$ is a vector with $m$ entries and $\lambda x$ is a vector with $n$ entries, so asking for:
$$
Ax = \lambda x
$$
Doesn't make sense.
MISTERSYSTEM
so once you find lambda, would you like do
(A - λI)V = 0
to get the eigenvectors?
Yeah, once you have λ you basically have to solve the system of equations Ax = λ x where x is unknown.
ah right
can a set of vectors give a basis for a certain space if the set of vectors is < the dimension of the space?
they can right, but not if there are more vectors than the dimension of the space?
I think it's the other way around
I have been struggling with my math homework, so basically I have to solve systems of equations using the Gaussian Elimination Methtod but it’s been making my head hurt trying to do it
Can I send a picture of it?

No lmao
Like
The dimension of a vector space is defined as the cardinality of a basis set
The reason this concept is well defined
is because the cardinality of any basis you take is the same
It is unique
so for a set of vectors to be a basis, we have to have the same amount of vectors as the dimension
that's one of the requirements, yes.
But they also need to be linearly independent.
yes i understand all that
lin independent and span
so its not worth checking if a set of vectors form a basis if i have less than the dimension of the space, how would i denote that to my professor
What's the exercise, exactly?
a is not a basis bc it is linear dependent
b has more vectors than the space so it’s also not a basis
c has less so i thought i had to check it for linear independence and spanning but you say i don’t have to since it can’t be a basis
and d is a basis since it’s linear independent, don’t need to check spanning since we have 4 vectors in R^4, so spanning is given
You can explicitly show that at least some vector in R^4 can't be written as a linear combination of vectors in the set described by (c)
If you don't want to use the fact that dimension is well defined
also
I am not sure if you professor has discussed the definition of dimension and proved that it is well defined + every vector space has a basis
So checking things out using the definition would be a good exercise
well defined?
By well defined I mean the following
Given a vector space
We define its dimension as the cardinality of a basis set.
Now
There's two things we have to be careful here
First of all
What guarantees us that every vector space has a basis?
Maybe there are vector spaces which do not admit basis, so we'd have to verify that.
Turns out every vector space has a basis, so we are good for now.
But there's also another problem we have to check
Because even if every vector space has a basis
What guarantees us that a vector space might admit two basis with different cardinalities? It's not obvious at first, and you explicitly made a question regarding this.
And turns out that the cardiniality of any two different basis sets of a vector space are the same.
So we can, first, guarantee that every vector space has a basis and the cardinality of any two basis are the same. Thus talking about the dimension of a vector space makes sense, or in mathematical jargon, it is well defined.
why are the cardinality of any two basis the same?
It is not straightforward
For finitely generated vector spaces
just useful to know?
This is a consequence of what is called the steinitz exchange lemma
And the proof is quite nice
It doesn't use anything fancy
You can even prove this result using stuff from system of linear equations
The Steinitz exchange lemma is a basic theorem in linear algebra used, for example, to show that any two bases for a finite-dimensional vector space have the same number of elements. The result is named after the German mathematician Ernst Steinitz. The result is often called the Steinitz–Mac Lane exchange lemma, also recognizing the generalizat...
The wikipedia article has a proof of this
i’m gonna look into it after i finish these review problems i think
For vector spaces which are not finitely generated
We need more tools to prove this
It involves something called Zorn's Lemma (Or you can be fancier and use something weaker like the Ultrafilter Lemma but shhh)
Which usually isn't covered in a first year course
And is a tool from set theory/order theory
Yeah, it is definitely useful to know these more conceptual facts about linear algebra
i took differential equations before linear algebra and i’ve already seen a lot of the conceptual relationships between them
dude i have no idea
i kinda struggled in it too bc he kept alluding to linear algebra and how stuff works but i didnt know what was going on
like for systems of diff eqs i was just mindlessly doing the computations bc i didnt understand what the point of finding these eigenvalues was
You have to do a lot of diagonalization and jordan canonical form machinery in an introductory differential equations course
a background in LA helps a lot
In mathematics, the dimension theorem for vector spaces states that all bases of a vector space have equally many elements. This number of elements may be finite or infinite (in the latter case, it is a cardinal number), and defines the dimension of the vector space.
Formally, the dimension theorem for vector spaces states that
Given a vector s...
yeah it seemed like it would while i was taking it
Btw, here's the general theorem
This article has a proof for the infinite dimensional case
while the other one describes the finite dimensional case

Are you doing engineering?
If you are doing physics
At some point you will have to
Oh nice 
At some point you will have to get yourself used to this zorn's lemma machinery and so on
It's not as hard as it sounds
Plus, infinite dimensional vector spaces are as useful as finite dimensional ones
im sure ill cross that bridge at some point
they appear everywhere
yeah they seem more real life based then finite dimensional spaces
maybe im wrong though
Idk what real life based mean
But it's just that a lot of the vector spaces we care about in mathematics, in particular analysis, are spaces of functions which are in a major part infinite dimensional
Like the L^2 space, which is the main framework where one does fourier analysis
Or the space of real valued smooth functions on a manifold
or the space of continuous functions on the real line
Or the space of entire functions on the complex plane
and so much more
i appreciate your help and insight

@winter harbor i think i found the proof lol
What theorem is it referring to when it says "the above theorem"?
not sure, maybe one on a previous page
Is it possible for a finite set to span an infinite-dimensional vector space?
i am confused on that
there is a true or false that says
and this is false
but i am unable to understand how that is possible
if anyone could help that would be greatly appreciated
R^2 is spanned by all of its vectors, an infinite spanning set, but R^2 is not infinite dimensional as a vector space over R
no, but this is not the same question as the one in the picture you posted. a finite set spans a vector space with dimension the same as the number of linearly independent vectors in that set
which is always finite
@teal grotto hey i was wondering if u could help me on this problem
I pinged helpers multiple times but i think there's no one available rn
i can try. what problem
Oh
Thank you for clarifying
do you know what the answer should be, im running out of time almost xD
i know the idea that for 1-1 u gotta get 2 polynomials to equal the 02x2 matrix but idk how to figure it out because the matrix given to us has all variables in each slot
so u cant even isolate for a degree
@teal grotto do you know how to do it
for 1-1?
ye
so <1,0,0> = [0,0,0,0]?
idk
my brain honestly fried after 50 attempts
of different maps
r^3 p2 m2x2
lol
just set a = 1, b = -1, c = d = 0 and compute brah
the zero polynomial. all its coefficents are 0
yea
yes
well, it wont be
uhhh idk
would 1,1,1,1 work?
idk try it
wait
alright
is e^x the eigenvector of the derivative and the integral operator?
e^nx to be a bit more general
was that a guess
it was an educated guess
because
i just looked at row echelon
and just went w putting non zero on dependant basis vectors
just need help with this now
^
for injectivity, check if the matrices are linearly independent. if not, then its not injective.
for surjectivity, check if the matrices are spanning. if not, then its not surjective.
this is a general way to do this
yeah im just pressed for time rn otherwise i'd do it the normal way
use symbol lab or something and put the matrices in as column vectors to check linear independence. like, put them in a four by four matrix. if it has zero determinant, then you know the matrices are linearly dependent. otherwise, theyre linearly independent and your matrix is injective and surjective
yh just did that
this thing has rank 3 so its lin dependant
just need to find an example of not 1-1 now
lol
thats the hard part
and an example of not onto
do you know an example that could work
Yup, it is! Notice that if we have an open subset $U \subseteq \mathbb{R}$, we can think about the space:
$$
C^{1}(U) := {f : U \rightarrow \mathbb{R} , \vert , \text{f is differentiable with continuous derivatice} , }
$$
Notice then that the derivative can be seen as the operator:
\begin{align*}
D : & C^{1}(U) \rightarrow C^{1}(U) \
f & \mapsto \dfrac{d f}{dt}
\end{align*}
Which is a linear operator. Now, $C^{1}(U)$ is an infinite dimensional vector space. In any case, the definition of eigenvalues and eigenvectors stays the same, i.e we define a function $f \in C^{1}(U)$ to be an eigenvector of $D$ if $\exists \lambda \in \mathbb{R}$ for which:
$$
D(f) = \dfrac{d f}{dt} = \lambda f
$$
And as you can see, the function $ f(t) = e^{\lambda t}$ satisfies this since:
$$
D(f) = D(e^{\lambda t}) = \lambda e^{\lambda t} = \lambda \cdot f
$$
@teal grotto do u know of any that would work
ahh okay awesome
Yeah, one thing with operators on infinite dimensional vector spaces tho
how does C^1(U) work? like I have never encountered that notation before
that text going off the screen lol
well, you should be able to figure this out now that you know some more information. i cant think of any examples on spot, but you have enough
i like my functions continuou
MISTERSYSTEM
It's still going offscreen
must now interject with "derivatice"
Lol
$$C^1(U) := {f\colon U \to \bR : f \text{ differentiable, } f' \in C(U)}$$
TTerra
oh so it's basically a set of functions which map U to R with continuous derivatives?
does the 1 indicate that it only has 1 continuous derivative?
We can talk about C^k functions too
Which are functions wich are k times differentiable
ahh
And all its derivatives are continuous
Naturally
We can also talk about C infinity functions
Which are functions whose all derivatives exist
And all of them continuous (trivially in this case)
would the set of all polynomials be a good example?
Yup
They are one of the nicest examples
The exponential function is also C^infinity
Sine and cosine too
In fact, they are analytic
the poly mention ties nicely into taylor's theorem
Which is stronger
does that mean it has a complex derivative everywhere?
In this case, I mean that they have a Taylor series expansion everywhere
ahh okay
this?
Which is a detail we have to care about when we are dealing with operators on infinite dimensional vectors
Yeah
ohh
Basically
In infinite dimensional vector spaces, some of the stuff we know about eigenvalues breaks down
oh how?
In the following sense
In infinite dimensional vector spaces
Not every linear operator is continuous
We usually call continuous linear operators bounded operators.
oh that's strange
Yeah, and turns out because of this
And some other technical details
It is more fruitful to talk about the spectrum of an operator
Rather than its eigenvalues
Its basically a generalization of what an eigenvalue is
In the finite dimensional case we don't have to care about this
A generalization in the sense that every eigenvalue of an operator is in the spectrum of its operator, but not necessarily the converse is true.
This is the detail I wanted to mention
wow functional analysis is so cool
But this is basically the only difference between dealing with eigenvalues on an infinite dimensional vector space
The definition is the same
But turns out that
We can talk about more general things in the context of infinite dimensional vectors
Which comes with the spectrum and so on
Its quite nice
In mathematics, particularly in functional analysis, the spectrum of a bounded linear operator (or, more generally, an unbounded linear operator) is a generalisation of the set of eigenvalues of a matrix. Specifically, a complex number λ is said to be in the spectrum of a bounded linear operator T if
T
−
...
so the spectrum of on operator works even if the operator is not continuous?
Yeah, we can talk about the spectrum of a bounded operator in a Banach Space.
can k be real or complex? like using the fractional derivative? so can we talk about something like C^(5.4 + 2i)
hello i am having trouble computing jordan normal forms
Never really messed around with fractional derivatives
So I don't know
me neither, I was just curious
i know how to find algebraic and geometric multiplicity. so i can find the jordan normal form up to reordering of the jordan blocks on the diagonal. is this sufficient to find a matrix's normal form?
i.e. are all jordan normal forms of a given dimension similar.
Yup, the Jordan Normal Form is unique up to ordering.
So this should not be a trouble.
i thought this just means that if a matrix has two jordan forms, they are the same but reordered on the diagonal. how does that show that the two jordan forms are similar?
like is there a matrix P such that PJP^-1 reorders the blocks or something?
If you have two Jordan normal forms J_1 and J_2 for a matrix A with, possibly distinctic orders, then act on J_1 via a permutation matrix to get J_2.
Permutation matrices are invertible
And I think you can work out the details
hm. my textbook (artin's) says unique up to reordering of the jordan blocks on the diagonal. i dont think permutation matrices alone can reorder jordan blocks of different dimensions on the diagonal.
i'm pretty sure you can set up block permutation matrices
would u mind showing me a quick example on a three by three jordan form with say, dimension 2 and dimension 1 blocks? i tried for a bit and got kinda stuck
smth like this for a MWE
and of you call these T
you'd get smth like PTT^-1JT^T T^T,-1P^-1
terrible notation lol
$P T T^{-1} J T^\text{T} (T^{-1})^\text{T} P^{-1}$
Edd
whoa lol
where, for clarity, the Ts on the right of the J can be different from the ones on the left
but that shouldn't happen here since you wanna move blocks along the block diagonal
then just associate as needed to get an equivalent form
if you're more familiar with it, perhaps, it's the same as why singular value decompositions are unique up to rotations
im not familiar with those
i really dont understand what you mean here. so i take T to be a matrix of the form you drew??
yeah
what is P?
yep np
let's say there is some matrix A whose jordan normal form is PJP^-1
then another equivalent jordan normal form is the one i gave above
what i did was construct a similarity transformation between some J1 and another J2
ah thats what i thought
some of the transposes and inverses can be removed from what i wrote, thanks to the properties of permutation matrices
yeah, you can remove the transposes on the right of J. then, if desired, replace the inverses with transposes (for the T only)
but why would there be transposes? J' being similar to J just means there is X such that XJ'X^(-1)=J
because permutation matrices are orthogonal
so X^-1 = X^T
i think i put in the original transposes by mistake tho, to be honest 
$P T T^{-1} J T (T^{-1}) P^{-1}$ so this should do
Edd
and you can replace T^-1 by T^T
there you can see that there's a similarity transformation acting on J, and that the resulting P' = PT matrices are the same as the original, but with shuffled columns
im not sure if we are talking past each other or not
im trying to show that any two jordan normal forms which are the same except the blocks on the diagonals are shuffled are similar
that's exactly what is written up there?
TT^-1 J TT^-1 is just J lol. thats not a jordan normal form with different ordered diagonal blocks
bruh
maybe im just being slow.
$(P T) (T^{-1} J T) (T^{-1} P^{-1})$ how about now
Edd
now let $(P T) (T^{-1} J T) (T^{-1} P^{-1}) = P_2 J_2 P_2^{-1} = A = P J P^{-1}$
Edd
then you can solve for J in terms of J_2
oh! lmao
I want to write that the abs. value of eigenvalue is less than or equal to the sum of each row in a matrix in mathematical notation . Would I just notate this as .: $|\lambda | \leq \sum_{i=1}^n A_{ij}$? Or does this sum over the entire matrix what I have written?
Fredrikpiano
what you wrote adds the elements in a column
idk if that's what you meant
pick a column and add up all the entries in it
and if you wanted to say that this should work for any column, i would toss in a \vorall 1 <= j <= no. of cols.
Its related to Gergorin's disc theorem where I have a symmetric matrix and I want to give a bound for the eigenvalues. If I understand correctly then the eigenvalue should satisfy being less than or equal to each row in the matrix as well as for each column.
This is what I'm trying to convey in mathematical notation
sure
well, fixing j and iterating over i in the sum adds up the entries of a column
on the other hand, fixing i and iterating over j adds up the entries of a row
so if you take what you wrote and add \forall j, this would say that the absolute value of an eigenvalue would be larger than the sum of the entries of any column of the matrix
i'm guessing you also have to specify an eigenvalue though
unless you mean this holds for all of them
so, I add a $\forall j = (1,2,\dots, n)$ columns and $\forall i = (1,2,\dots, n)$ rows right?
Fredrikpiano
one or the other, depending on what you're adding up (entries of columns or entries of rows)
yes, thank you
means I will write the expression twice. Once for adding columns and once for adding rows
this matrix is equal to (a-b)I + bJ where I is the 4 by 4 identity matrx and J is the 4 by 4 matrix with all entries set to one. try figuring out the eigenvalues of J and how many times they occur
Hmm, haven't studied about eigenvalues yet.
they’re really helpful here : (
well, i guess it’s small enough to do laplace expansion
Hello,
how can i show that
R3 ⊆ {(2, 1, 0), (-1, 2, 1), (0, 3, 0)}
where R3 means real numbers in 3 dimensions
this is very clearly false as stated
did you by any chance mean to ask how to show R^3 ⊆ span {(2, 1, 0), (-1, 2, 1), (0, 3, 0)} ?
Let (x,y,z) be an element of R^3. We want to show that (x,y,z) is in the span. So find a,b,c such that
(x,y,z) = a(2,1,0) + b(-1,2,1) + c(0,3,0)
is it (0, 0, 0)?
Is what (0,0,0)?
(x, y, z) = (0, 0, 0) when a = b = c = 0
That's true
But (x,y,z) has to be an arbitrary vector of R^3
Because you want to show that every element of R^3 is in the span
Now you have to find a b and c in terms of x y and z
So that its not 0,0,0?
you mean like this?: (2a - b, a + 2b + 3c, b)
You cannot give it specific values
Well, if you simplify the RHS, that is what you get
So (x,y,z) = (2a-b, a+2b+3c, b)
Now you need to find what a b and c makes that true
I have no clue beside from a = b = c = 0
You are not understanding what you have to do
If you want to show that a set A is a subset of another set B, then you have to show that every element of A is also an element of B.
We now want to show that R^3 is a subset of the span of those 3 vectors
So you must show that every element is also an element of the span
The elements of R^3 look like (x,y,z) where x y and z are real numbers
The elements of the span look like a(2,1,0) + b(-1,2,1) + c(0,3,0)
So you have to take an ARBITRARY element (x,y,z) and show it belongs to the span
And the way to do that is to write (x,y,z) in the form a(2,1,0) + b(-1,2,1) + c(0,3,0) where a, b and c depend on what x y and z are
So you are not working with specific values for x y and z
So you cannot just say it is 0
Im not sure how to insert it right
I will do an example
Let's say we wanted to show that (x,y,z) is in span {(1,2,0), (0,3,0), (0,0,1)}
Then (x,y,z) = a(1,2,0) + b(0,3,0) + c(0,0,1) = (a, 2a+3b, c)
So we get
a = x
2a+3b = y
c = z
Subbing a = x into 2a + 3b = y, we get
b = y/3 - 2x/3.
So,
(x,y,z) = x(1,2,0) + (y/3 - 2x/3) (0,3,0) + z (0,0,1)
This shows that (x,y,z) belongs to the span since we have written it as a linear combination of the three vectors.
thank you for the great example, ill try it on my own
👍
2a - b = x
a + 2b +3c = y
b = z
Subbing b = z into 2a - b = x, we get
a = 2/z + x
Subbing a = 2/z + x into a + 2b + 3c = y, we get
c = 1/3( -(2/z + x) - 2z + y)
So,
(x, y, z) = 2/z + x, 1/3( -(2/z + x) - 2z +y), z
If (3x-1) is a factor of x^2+17x+k what is the numerical value of k?
You did your substitutions wrong, and your conclusion is wrong too
(x,y,z) = the linear combination of the vectors with those coefficients
(x,y,z) is not (a,b,c)
This is not linear algebr, but if 3x-1 is a factor then we can write
x^2 + 17x + k = (3x-1)(ax+b) for some a and b, multiply out and compare coefficient to get the values of a and b, and then you can get the value of k
@marble lance can you tell me where my mistake slies in the 1st part?
Subbing b = z into 2a - b = x, we get
a = 2/z + x
or was the method right and i just twisted some numbers?
how about the ac test? ac=mn and b=m+n where m and n are factors
a = 1/2(x + z) whoops, my bad, thank you
why is the 0 vector not considered the eigenvector of every matrix?
Because it doesn't have a single associated eigenvalue
thanks
this proposition is in artins. but for the matrix $A=\begin{bmatrix}0 &1\ 1&0 \end{bmatrix}$, i think this is false(???). the eigenvectors of A are exactly those on the diagonal, which is a 1d subspace. but A is similar to a diagonal matrix. how can there be a basis of $F^n$ of eigenvectors?
dunno where i'm going wrong with this.
shortcut
(to be clear A is a matrix over the reals)
The proposition is certainly true
For starters saying the eigenvectors are on the diagonal must be a mistake, do you mean eigenvalues? And that's unfortunately incorrect too as that's true only for triangular matrices, which this is not
The eigenvalues of A are 1 and - 1 as the characteristic polynomial is x^2 - 1
(you might be confusing this diagonal (ig the antidiagonal) with the main diagonal)
||or tired||
dw
||Orthogonalize||
I am trying to understand any vectors v in the vector space V can be uniquely defined by its coefficients in the decomposition. I know if V has a basis then every v can be expressed as v = $\sum a_kv_k$.
Outlander
suppose that a vector can be represented in two(or more ways) by different coefficients, then try to come up with a contradiction
do you understand what the basis does?
yeah. The basis lets us express every represent every vector v in V as a unique linear combination.
each vector can be represented by its coefficients in an ordered basis
these are just namely its "coordinates" wrt the basis
and its convenient to use
@pallid rampart I did this recently, xd. Try to use the Riez Representation Theorem
are you familiar with ordered basis?
Not really.
its a basis with more information provided namely which vector comes 1st and 2nd etc so if you have some basis B={v1,v2...,vn} and you have a vector v=c1v1+c2v2+..cnvn the scalars c1,..,cn are the coordinates of this vector
and you can identify each vector using them only when the basis is ordered which should be clear to see why this would not apply to any basis
or in other words we can say there is a 1 to 1 correspondance between each vector v-->(x1,..,xn) to all of n tuples in F^n
I see, it still a confusing but I understand why we can represent a vector with its coordinates with respect to a basis. Thanks.
i was correcting something and i had a blackout 🤦
what i meant was each ordered basis makes a 1 to 1 correspondance between all vector v in V and all n-tuple (x1,..,xn) in F^n
v-->(x1,...,xn)
or creates/determine is the proper word i suppose
the n-tuples will naturally be unique by this
you can ofcourse prove that anw
by 1 to 1 correspondance you mean for each vector v we have a n-tuple (x_1,...,x_n) in F^n. So a basis allows us to have that.
but ordered basis? why does it only work for it.
take some unordered basis and try to assign some coordinates
lets say you get
2v1+3v2 and 2v2+3v1
are these the same?
we don't know.
can you identify a vector with its coordinates
just take some example and you'll see they are not
ok.
moreover its not unique
this only works when you know for a fact
the 1st vector is v1
the 2nd is v2
so on
else the whole concepts fails
beauty of this is each n tuple assigns a vector in V for some ordered basis
and you can do addition and scalar multiplication normally as mentioned
this might be a bad example but imagine the coordinate system and you want to assign a point (1,2,3)
would this work if the coordinate system wasnt ordered as (x, y, z) in that order?
oh I see it would be confusing. Ok let me see I get it. For a basis B is a just a collection of vectors. There could be different linear combination of B for example if B = {e,b,d}, so for any v in V can be a_1e + a_2b + a_3d or a_1b + a_2d + a_3e etc. But if B was ordered we know which comes first.
Meaning a ordered basis is just a n-tuple of vectors. Am I getting it right?
eh sounds about right
should be clear why order is important to represent vectors as coordinates
yeah. thanks for much.
Ok I want to deeper insight why a system of vectors v_1, v_2, ..., v_n in V is linear independent if only the linear combination of the zero of V is trivial? Also what should I be doing when I encounter definitions that I understand but I do not understand why that definition was considered?. Sorry for the questions.
it's another way of saying that you can't solve for any of the vectors in terms of the others as a linear combination
Also what should I be doing when I encounter definitions that I understand but I do not understand why that definition was considered
try to understand through examples
definitions aren't made out of thin air
there's always some reason something's defined
ok thank you.
Hello
I have a simple function R -> R, x -> x², how can I test if it's surjective?
I tried writing down f(x) = x² but got no further
dunno how to start
iff it's not surjective, there's some y such that no x in R satisfies x^2 = y
mhm
if it was surjective, how would you start there?
well it's not
but just explicitly find an element
like if it were x^3
show that cbrt(y) works
cube root
okay
I also need to prove that the functions are well-defined
for the x->x² function, I just said that if x in R, then x² in R
is that enough? 😅
First of all
A function has 3 informations
A domain, a codomain and an assignment
For the x->x^2 function, I assume you are taking as domain and codomain R
So we have f : R->R which maps x->x^2
To check this function is well defined
We have to verify that for every element in the domain
I can assign f(x) to it
And we can do that in this case
For every real number we can assign its square
As a counter example
Consider g : R -> R given by x->√x
This is not well defined
Because we can't assign a real square root to a negative real number.
If we changed the domain say working with the non negative reals R+, then yes, g : R+ -> R which maps x->√x is well defined.
After checking if the domain makes sense
We have to check that the codomain makes sense
Namely
We have to check that the function indeed assigns an element in the domain to an element in the codomain and not another different set
For instance
Consider the negative reals R-
And the "function" f : R -> R- which maps x->x^2
This is not well defined
Since the square of a real number is always non negative
Or the "function" f : R -> [0,1], where x->x^2
This is not well defined
Because the square of a real number might be bigger than 1
Ofc, f : R -> R x->x^2 makes sense, since the square of a real number is always a real number
And similarly, f : R->R+ x->x^2 is well defined since the square of a real number is always non negative.
We have so far only checked that the domain and the codomain make sense.
Now we have to check if the assignment makes sense
Namely, if there's no ambiguity
For instance, the assignment f : R -> R where x->x^2 makes sense
Because the square of a real number is always unique
An assignment that has ambiguities is the following one
Is it enough for me to say that every x² is unique?
I don't need to prove that right
I mean for ambiguity
You don't need to, it's just straightforward.
But consider this one
\begin{align*}
f : & \mathbb{Q} \rightarrow \mathbb{Q} \
\dfrac{a}{b}& \mapsto a + b
\end{align*}
MISTERSYSTEM
This assignment is not well defined
what's the connection between the dual of a vector space and the inner product defined in that vector space?
Why? Well, it seems that the domain and codomain make sense
But notice that 1/2=2/4
While f(1/2) = 1+2 = 3
And f(2/4) = 2+4=6
Which are different
A function must assign a unique value to every element in the domain
So we must check that
And in this case, it doesn't.
But that's basically all the technicalities you must be careful about @autumn kraken
There's tons of
oh nice
Namely
Something called "Riesz Representation"
Let's work over a finite dimensional vector space, for simplicity
thank you @winter harbor
for surjectivity of x->x³, I just said that for every x³ in R, there is cbrt(x³) in R, which means every element in R has at least 1 archetype/prototype (??? I don't know the English term, in German it's Urbild). Is this correct or not sufficient?
yeah square root to the power of 3 is kinda dumb ngl lol
Let $V$ be a finite dimensional vector space over $\mathbb{R}$ or $\mathbb{C}$ where $V$ is endowed with an inner product $\langle \cdot, \cdot \rangle$. Notice that we can define a function:
\begin{align*}
\flat : V& \rightarrow V^{\ast} \
v& \mapsto v^{\flat}
\end{align*}
Where $v^{\flat}(u) = \langle u,v \rangle, \forall u \in V$.
\
\
Notice that since $\langle \cdot, \cdot \rangle$ is positive-definite, in particular it is non degenerate and so if $\exists v \in V$ for which $v^{\flat} \equiv 0$, this means that $\forall u \in V$ we have:
$$
v^{\flat}(u) = \langle u, v \rangle = 0
$$
Thus, $v = 0$ (by non-degeneracy) and as such $\flat$ is an injective linear map. Since $\text{dim}(V) = \text{dim}(V^{\ast})$ and both $V$ and $V^{\ast}$ are finite dimensional, this implies (by rank-nullity) that $\flat$ is an isomorphism. So notice that an inner product on $V$ induces a canonical isomorphism (that does not depend on a basis) between $V$ and its dual.
MISTERSYSTEM
This is a baby version of what we call the Riez Representation Theorem for Hillbert Spaces
Turns out that in the infinite dimensional case
A Hillbert Space is also canonically isomorphic to its continuous dual (i.e the space of continuous linear functionals on V) via the musical isomorphism $\flat$
MISTERSYSTEM
MISTERSYSTEM
wait I'm a bit confused by that notation of v^bflat
here
What is confusing?
there's a function bflat mapping stuff from V to it's dual and what does v^bflat denote?
Ah
v^flat denotes a linear functional
What it does
Is that it takes an element in u
And what this functional does
Is take the inner product of u with v
v^flat(u) = <u,v>
This is what v^flat does as a linear functional
ah okay
And flat maps V into its dual via v -> v^flat
So it indeed sends vectors to linear functionals
And we can show that this map is injective, and thus an isomorphism
That fact that injective => isomorphism uses heavily the fact that we are working over finite dimensional vector spaces here.
shouldn't it be bijective for it to be an isomorphism?
Yes, but an injective map between finite dimensional vector spaces of the same dimension is always an isomorphism.
So we don't even have to explicitly write down an inverse.
I see
Just for completeness
The inverse of flat does the following
\begin{align*}
\sharp : V^{\ast}& \rightarrow V \
f \mapsto f^{\sharp}
\end{align*}
Where $\f^{\sharp}$ is the unique vector in $V$ such that $\forall u \in V$:
$$
f(u) = \langle u, f^{\sharp} \rangle
$$
MISTERSYSTEM
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
So in some sense, this tells us that every linear functional on a finite dimensional vector space
Can be represented by a unique vector
Where the linear functional is just given by taking the inner product with this vector.
Np, you can search up "musical isomorphisms" or "Riesz Representation" for more information.
I do not know how a) and b) can be done but I know that c) and d) follows from a and b.
What is the 0 vector in the vector space of polynomials?
use the definition of the kernel and the 0 element in the codomain
or if it helps you, you can write a larger matrix that transforms a vectorized form of M_22 into a vector isomorphic to a poly in P1
[(a+b); (c+d)] = [0;0].
I tried this.
and I got { a = -b, c = -d, b and d are free in R }
How is this?
$\begin{bmatrix} a + b \\ c + d \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 1 && 1 && 0 && 0 \\ 0 && 0 && 1 && 1 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} a \\ b \\ c \\ d \end{bmatrix} $
Edd
this represents the same thing
and it's possibly easier to find the kernel of
at least easier in the sense that you already have the intuition for it
then I'll reduce that to rref then check for linearly independent columns?
if you don't see why this is equivalent, though, i strongly recommend you stick to the original formulation and follow mistersystem's tip
I got dim(ker(L)) = 2.
f: R->R, x²->x
this function is not well defined, is that correct?
because (-3)² != -3 for example?
It is not well defined because if you take 9
Then 3^2 = 9
And so f(9) = 3
But (-3)^2 = 9
So f(9) = -3
The same input gets mapped into different values
oh
I thought the x has to be the same
but you can do f(3^2) = 9 ?
I don't understand
it's not one-to-one then?
now, i'll have to go with basis(Im(L)).
how do i do that?
let x=-3, then f((-3)^2) = -3 <=> f(9) = -3, which is fine, but also for x=3 we get f(3^2) = 3 <=> f(9) = 3
ahh I see
thanks
Yup
Also
This is not really linear algebra
I guess this is more suitable for #prealg-and-algebra I guess
dunno my module is called linear algebra 1 lul
so I got dim([a,b; c, d]) = 4.
Yeah, but this topic is specific seems to be mostly just a bit of HS algebra review.
You can try using rank-nullity to find a basis for the image of L if you have seen that already.
Or just use this.
I have a small question
the dimensions of the column space is the same as the dimensions of the transpose of the column space correct?
and this same concept applies to the row space
What is the transpose of the column space? Do you mean the column space of the transpose?
Because that would just be the row space of the original matrix
yeah my bad
i mean to say like
dim(ColA) = dim(ColA)^T
but yeah that makes sense
the column space of the transpose is the row space
and the dimensions of row space and column space are the same
Yes
Can I ask something about surjectivity here or should I go to #prealg-and-algebra ?
If it is related to vector spaces and linear maps somehow
Sort of a dumb question but does anyone know whether this is true or false?
The dimension of the vector space of signals, §, is 10
It's a true or false question in my textbook and I have not read anything about vector spaces of signals but yeah if this is sort of irrelevant then feel free to tell me 😅
depends which signals lol
What is a space of signals 
same as usual. can be a vector space of some specifically shaped vectors in R^n, or something like that
signal usually only means it has some property or another that makes it more or less easy to fourier transform
yea idk lmao thats literally just the question
its all good
i doubt that type of specificity will show up on a exam
there needs to be more context or it makes no sense
if that is all there is, the correct answer is "what the fuck"
what is \mathbb{S}
Update on this, I have considered alternative algebraic proofs which use 1-pi, and later on use the normalisation equation and distribution uniqueness later on to solve for a unique pi. There is no use of Perron-Frobenius, but rather on Kolmogorov Axioms/Probability axioms. In a way, this is nice in showing the resulting stationary distribution is a uniform discrete distribution.
However, I have decided to use Perron-Frobenius due to what it allows me to say: the linear dependence on the stationary distribution vector with the vector of all 1s, as achieved for every doubly stochastic matrix, means having a uniform discrete distribution as the stationary distribution happens only for the the family of all doubly stochastic matrices. In essence, there is a converse result achieveable with use of Perron-Frobenius which I think is a good addition.
In other words, by probability axioms and uniqueness of stationary distribution,
$$\text{Doubly Stochastic}\implies\text{stationary distribution is uniform discrete}$$
But Perron-Frobenius additionally says
$$\text{Doubly Stochastic}\iff\text{stationary distribution is uniform discrete}$$
ShatteredSunlight
Probability axioms cannot do the converse for it says nothing of the dimensionality of the eigenspace of Perron root of ergodic transition matrices, and so cannot comment too much on the linear dependence of vector of 1s with the final stationary distribution
That said I really should look at a proof of Perron, and see if I can really 'get it'
I figured out a way in the end, but I’m interested to see how you did it with riesz representation
Let $\lambda_{1}, \cdots, \lambda_{m} \in \mathbb{R}$ be distinct positive real numbers and $V$ a Hillbert Space.
\
\
Let $f \in V^{\ast}$ be such that $\forall i \in {1, \cdots, m}$ we have:
$$
f(v_{j}) = \lambda_{j}
$$
And whose support is the closure of $\text{span}(v_{1}, \cdots, v_{m})$.
\
\
Since $v_{1}, \cdots, v_{m}$ are linearly independent vectors in $V$, this in fact induces a unique continuous linear functional on $V$ and thus $f$ is well defined. By Riesz Representation Theorem/Musical Isomorphism $\exists ! f^{\sharp} \in V$ for which $\forall v \in V$ we have:
$$
f(v) = \langle f^{\sharp}, v \rangle
$$
In particular, $\forall j \in {1, \cdots,m}$ we have that:
$$
f(v_{j}) = \langle f^{\sharp}, v_{j} \rangle = \lambda_{j} > 0
$$
Thus, by taking $w = f^{\sharp}$ the result follows ; $\square$
MISTERSYSTEM
I didn't take as hypothesis that V is a finite dimensional vector space. Which makes things harder because we have to guarantee f is continuous in order to apply the Riesz representation theorem.
And I think I was a bit handwavy there when making f vanish outside of the closure of the span of v_1, ...,v_m.
Because idk if it is straightforward if, in this way, we make f continuous.
But I suppose we can do something along these lines.
The finite dimensional case is more straightforward
Hey, just making sure I understand basis' correctly. A certain set is the basis if the determinant != 0, right?
How do I find two orthogonal vectors that are orthogonal to themselves and the plane? I can't figure any out that work
if you put the vectors as columns of a matrix, this works. vectors need not be tuples of numbers, though, so this is too restrictive
are you sure you phrased correctly what you are looking for?
'two vectors orthogonal to themselves and the plane' sounds sus
even if you replace 'themselves' with 'each other'
ah maybe I wrote it wrong but the dot product of the two vectors has to be 0, and they both must be orthogonal to the plane
they must be orthogonal to the plane's normal
not to the plane itself. they must be ON the plane
you only need one. you could find the second using a cross product, which will by definition satisfy the conditions you're looking for
constructing just one is simple enough
cross product?
say (-3, -1, 1)
ya
at any rate, you can write is as a system of equations and use the techniques you already know

