#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 247 of 1
i'm not sure what you mean, honestly speaking. I have bases B and C and I need to find [I]^B_C using the standard base
idk, column vectors are more common, so one would often compose transformations from the left, the one on the right acts first
I thought maybe thats how i find that
so this reads to me like e->c b->e which makes no sense
you want to apply some matrices that represent the transformation, yeah?
so something like BAx = y
sorry if I'm not understanding, this si what i'm trying to accomplish
the vector is originally in the basis B and you want to represent it in the basis C, yeah?
what if I write it like this?
$$[I]^B_E * [I]^E_C = M $$
ischelle
and presumably you know the transformation in the canonical basis, or some other basis E
still no
Is that what I'm doing? I thought I'm finding the transformation matrix
Edd
OK it looks like I'm writing it wrong
let me check with my notes to be sure... I've already fallen on bad notation in other classes 
lol yeah
. [I] B2 B3 [I] B1 B2 = [I] B1 B3
yeah ok
so to go from b1 to b3, you go from left to right....
why is this a thing
this moves from b->e then e->c?
yes
i explained why above
you're looking for matrices
and matrices are usually, purely by convention, written so they act on column vectors
I know matrix multiplication is not interchangeable but still I would expect AB = C to start from A
ah
interesting
it still works, mind you
so it really depends on whether you wanna work with row or column vectors
column is more common, but by no means the only way
so if i have a Base for R^3, like the standard base
do i write the matrix as like
actually that;s a bad example
wait
(1, 0, -1), (2, 1, -1), (-2, 1, 4)
do i write it like
1 0 -1
2 1 -1
-2 1 4
or
1 2 -2
0 1 1
-1 -1 4
basically v1 goes as a column or row?
like if I don't know that this is a base, either way matrix elimination would be fine?
yes, but not because of this
and does that mean i can eliminate using columns instead of rows? can I mix?
but rather because the row rank = column rank
you can tell the rank either way, but you cannot find a basis either way
if you are given no context, the matrix anyway means nothing and is useless
that will never happen
you need to be told whether it acts on rows or columns or it makes no sense
hmm
well lets say i'm given B = v1, v2... vn and tasked to know whether it is a base for R^n
is there a difference between R^n cols vs rows?
like can v1... vn be a base for R^n_cols but not rows?
no, there is never a difference between the 2 as long as you know which one you're doing
and yes, transposing a matrix in general yields a different matrix
no, the row rank equals the column rank
as i just said
you can find out the rank
and if you put the v_i as rows, that is one basis
if you put them as cols, that is a different basis, if you still want the matrix to act on the same kind of vector
what i mean is
Ax is NOT the same as A^T x
but it DOES behave the same way as x^T A^T
(assuming x is a column vector and the vectors of the basis go in the columns of A)
Okay, sorry for the broken writing, laptop keyboard too hard
Lets say i need to determine whether these vectors are a base for R^n cols
now I can write it either way right? to eliminate
1 0 -1
2 1 -1
-2 1 4
or
1 2 -2
0 1 1
-1 -1 4
as long as i'm consistent
since they act the same way
sure
no
the reason is the same as what we just explained for composition
say Ax = b
elementary operations on rows and columns can be represented via full rank matrices, so it is also true that such operations can be represented with an invertible matrix T
so that TAx = Tb
but if you wanted to do column operations on that...
you'd get
ATx = ???
since matrices don't commute
mm
alright, got it
so row operations it is
To find $$[I]^B_C$$, I need to find $$[I]^E_C [I]^B_E$$
mhm
ischelle
have you taken multivar calc?
yes but like 3 years ago
or algebra, really
this is the same way one takes higher order partial derivatives
and also the same way one composes functions
like g(f(x))
$g \circ f (x)$
Edd
So which operation is g here?
you do the operations from right to left
doesn't matter what it is, it's some other function composed with g
also when you take $\frac{\partial f(x,y)}{ \partial y \partial x}$
Edd
you take the partial derivative with respect to x first
g would be [I]^E_C
right
so, same as always
why isn't (a) a vector subspace of R^n?
i don't get it
what does the fact that $x_1\in\mathbb{Z}$ doesn't allow W be an subpace of $\mathbb{R}^n$?
not closed under scaling
leonardomoura
how so?
you scale by real numbers
so scale a vector by pi, you no longer have integer entries in the vector
or pick any other number from Q or R that isnt in Z.
i get it
and about (c), it says x1 is irrational, then it cannot be a subspace vector of R^n because the 0 vector isn't in W?
If I've got $A_n = (a_{ij})$ for an $n \times n$ matrice with $a_{ij} = (i - 1) n + j$ and I've gotten a bunch of numbers from a $A_4$ matrix. How would I start out doing a general expression for it?
HrJonas
wdym doing a general expression for it
So I need to find $\det(A_n) = 0$ for $n > 2$
HrJonas
Our professor hinted us in the direction that we may need to look at a general expression, but I am unsure where to dig in
are you familiar with this or nah
We've just covered it, but this assignment was not aimed at specfic type of questions, but more for just determinant (we've also got hinted that we could use a set of row vectors u=1,2,3,n and v=1,1,1...1
yes, (i-1)nv + u will be the ith row vector of A_n
hmm
Quick question, why are we doing n times v? is the row vector v called something special or what is it purpose?
you gave me what v was. i just put some of the pieces together. but we multiply v by n because you have to if you want to get a closed form for the rows of A_n
Ahh alright, thanks a lot for the help 🙂
i wanna say it’s zero for n >= 3
c squared
the rows of this matrix just either won’t be spanning or won’t be linearly independent
so it’s determinant has to be zero
help plz
i was thinking doing it in R3 and a 1d affine subspace, intentionally displacing the 0 element when transforming it onto the number line
that would be great if it worked. (idk)
Take a non invertible linear map A : V -> V and take b a non zero vector in the image of V. Now define T = Ax-b. Then, T is non linear. We have that the subset W = {x in V for which T(x) = 0 = Ax-b} is an affine subspace of V (that is not a linear subspace). But, T(W) is a linear subspace of V (Indeed, it is just {0}).
it do not
thx
so the original one doesn't work
unfortunately, not with this constraint
For example, let $V = \mathbb{R}^{2}$ and take:
$$
A
\begin{bmatrix}
1 & 2 \
2 & 4
\end{bmatrix}
$$
Then, take $b = (1,2)$ which is in the column space space of $A$. Notice that if we define $T(x) = Ax-b$, then the set for which $T(x) = 0$ has to be the solution set of $Ax = b$. Notice that the null space of $A$ is spanned by $(-2,1)$. So the solution set of $Ax = b$ is given by:
$$
W = {(-2,1) \cdot t + (1,2) , \vert , t \in \mathbb{R} }
$$
Which is an affine subspace of $\mathbb{R}^{2}$ which is not a linear subspace! Moreover, $T$ is non linear since $T(0) = b \neq (0,0)$ and
$$
T(W) = {0}
$$
since any element $x$ of $W$ is defined to be a solution of $Ax-b = 0$.
Thus, $T(W) = {0}$ is indeed a linear subspace of $V$, while $W$ itself is an affine subspace of $V$ which is not linear and T itself is not linear!
MisterSystem
ok thx
ok thx
Try to construct other examples using this same idea.
As an exercise idk
lul
For example, let $V = \mathbb{R}^{2}$ and take:
$$
A
\begin{bmatrix}
1 & 2 \
2 & 4
\end{bmatrix}
$$
Then, take $b = (1,2)$ which is in the column space space of $A$. Notice that if we define $T(x) = Ax-b$, then the set for which $T(x) = 0$ has to be the solution set of $Ax = b$. Notice that the null space of $A$ is spanned by $(-2,1)$. So the solution set of $Ax = b$ is given by:
$$
W = {(-2,1) \cdot t + \left(0,\frac{1}{2}\right) , \vert , t \in \mathbb{R} }
$$
Which is an affine subspace of $\mathbb{R}^{2}$ which is not a linear subspace! Moreover, $T$ is non linear since $T(0) = b \neq (0,0)$ and
$$
T(W) = {0}
$$
since any element $x$ of $W$ is defined to be a solution of $Ax-b = 0$.
Thus, $T(W) = {0}$ is indeed a linear subspace of $V$, while $W$ itself is an affine subspace of $V$ which is not linear and T itself is not linear!
Yup it is indeed 0 as you mentioned really well. Is the determinant at 0 even defined?
MisterSystem
Correcting a typo reee
“determinant at zero” could u try to be more clear about what you mean by this?
If $\det(A_n) = 0$ would that be defined or does it have a meaning regardless?
HrJonas
yea, determinant is define for all square matrices
Sorry, not native english so I give the best bet at what it would be correct
ah it’s fine
but yes when matrices have zero determinant, it means they’re not invertible
Yea thats true, it must be defined then.
the converse is also true, so if a matrix is not invertible, then it’s determinant is zero
Ahh neat
I think that was enough linear algebra for today. Huge thanks for the help, I appreciate you explaining it so its a bit more clear. Have a nice day / night 🙂
My professor told me that there was an easy proof for Cauchy Binet formula from the exterior product definition of the derivative
I am really bad with exterior products
Could someone help me out with thid
*this
is darren correct? can i really show that if the wronskian is equal to zero then the functions being tested are linearly dependent? i don't think so?
Yeah, Darren is wrong here lol. There are in fact linearly independent functions with continuous derivative such that their wronskian vanishes everywhere
A classic example is $x^{2}$ and $x |x|$.
MisterSystem
I remember seeing this first on a youtube video
wait
Hold on a second
Please Subscribe here, thank you!!! https://goo.gl/JQ8Nys
Linearly Independent Functions with Wronskian Equal to Zero. In this video we look at Peano's original example discovered in 1889. I believe this was the first example ever discovered. A graphical approach is taken to show linear independence but one could easily prove this via the defini...
I think we need to add more hypothesis on the functions in order to show they are in fact linearly independent.
x|x| has continuous derivative?
In any case, if a set of functions is linearly dependent, then necessarily their wronskian vanishes everywhere. The converse of this is more interesting, meaning that if the wronskian doesn't vanish everywhere, then these functions are linearly independent!
that's just blown my mind right there
So like, the wronskian is a really good tool to prove linear independence
but not linear dependence
in order to prove linear dependence via the vanishing of the wronskian, we need more hypothesis
yeah, it's 2|x| for x \neq 0 and 0 for x=0
yeah i see it
What's the Cauchy Binet formula ?
First time I have heard of that tbh
Ah
I see
I don't think you need much
Are you familiar with the fact that the determinant is an alternating multilinear map?
Then what you can do is the following
Is there an example where the ratio of the two functions isn't locally constant?
Let $A$ be an $m \times n$ matrix whose columns are given by $A_{1}, \cdots, A_{n}$ and let $B$ be an $n \times m$ matrix for which we denote it $(i,j)-th$ entry by $b_{i,j}$. Then, we have that for $1 \leq k \leq m$ the $k-th$ column of $AB$ is given by:
$$
\sum\limits_{j_{k} = 1}^{n} b_{j_{k},k} A_{j_{k}}
$$
So, we have
$$
\text{det}(AB) = \text{det}\left(\sum\limits_{j_{1} = 1}^{n} b_{j_{1},1} A_{j_{1}}, \cdots, \sum\limits_{j_{n} = 1}^{n} b_{j_{n},n} A_{j_{n}} \right)
$$
Where we are now interpreting the determinant of as a multilinear function on the columns of $AB$. Now, use the fact that the determinant is multilinear and alternating and you are set.
MisterSystem
Kind of like how you show det a tensor b
With the block matrix I tensor b or whatever and then switching arguments
Right?
But wait
Where are the mxm minors
Oh
Wait
Ok
Idk just reminds me of that proof
Like reduce the the rows of A to unit covectors
And B to unit vectors
Idk which one you are referring to specifically tbh 
One second let me find it it's a really nice picture
Hope I didn't make any typos
Urgh can't find it
if V is the vector space of all square matrix
why the set of all matrix such that AB=BA $B\in V$ where B is a fixed matrix is a vector subspace of V?
But it is tho
The set of matrices that commute with a given fixed matrix is a subspace of the vector space of all square matrices
To prove this
yes it is, sorry
leonardomoura
Notice that it is indeed the case that 0B = B0, for the 0 matrix; since both of these products are equal to the 0 matrix. Moreover, let A_1 and A_2 be matrices that both commute with B. Then, (A_1+A_2)B = A_1B + A_2B.
By hypothesis, A_1 B = BA_1 and A_2 B = B A_2. So A_1 B + A_2 B = BA_1 + B A_2 = B (A_1+A_2).
Therefore, (A_1+A_2)B = B(A_1+A_2) and so it is closed under addition. It is closed under scalar multiplication since if AB = BA, then for any constant k we have that (kA)B = k(AB) = k(BA) = B(Ak).
i came across this definition for singular value decomposition in sheldon axler's linear algebra done right
can you construct this decomposition using any two orthonormal bases for V?
i.e. are the orthonormal bases in this definition unique?
Certainly not always... example being if T is the identity matrix
ahh yes
thank you so much
Find out if $(R^+,\oplus,\odot)$ is vector space over R, if we define $x\oplus y=xy$, $c\odot x=x^c$ for $x,y\in R^+$, $c\in\ R$.
Michal
What have you tried?
You need to verify the axioms or see which ones fail
What have you looked at
I can send photo, but texts are not in english
Okay
3rd one from these properties of vector space
Oh, part 3
You made a mistake there
c+d is addition of scalars, not vectors
So it's just normal addition
Not the vector space addition
but we do not have normal addition in this example
You do between scalars
The vector space operations ≠ the field operations
You are asking whether this is a vector space over the normal R
So between scalars, the normal operations holds
It's only between vectors or between a vector and a scalar that you use the new operations
👍
but the second property on the paper is right ?
Yes
ok thanks a lot
It helps to use different symbols at first
Use $\times$ and + for operations between scalars, and $\otimes$ for multiplication between a scalar and a vector, and $\oplus$ for addition of vectors
Lunasong the Supergay
Then you are only defining the ones with a circle differently
And if this $\oplus$ operation is defined as x*y, it means that zero vector is 1 ?
Michal
Yes
ok so zero vector is 1 and inverse vector is 1/vector
Yes
I proved the other properties and my conclusion is that is vector space
but what is scalar is negative ?
Huh?
if a matrix is symmetric, and has equal column sums (and therefore also equal row sums) does it have to be symmetric at both diagonals as well?
is there a way to prove this?
or disprove it?
addition is defined as multiplication so thats the reason
guys?
look the image
If $A$ and $B$ are two vector spaces such that $A\subseteq B$, that $B_A \subseteq B_B$?
CoolShot
where $B_V$ denotes the basis set of $V$
CoolShot
would this be correct to say?
there's more than one given basis for any vector space
let A be {(x, y, 0)} as a subspace of B = R^3
then a basis for B would be (1, 0, 0), (0, 1, 0), (0, 0, 1), obviously
and then a basis for A would be (1, 0, 0), (0, 1, 0), which is a subset of that basis for B
but another basis for A is (1, 0, 0), (1, 1, 0)
which isn't
or consider C in B where C is {(x, x, 0)}
this can only be generated by some (k, k, 0)
so would it be correct to say $\exists B_B$ $B_A \subseteq B_B$ at least?
CoolShot
gotcha
Can anyone explain why can we defined the Trace of a linear operator as the trace of its B matrix? Im having a brain fart rn.
By that I mean if $T: V \rightarrow V$ and B is any basis for V, then $M_B(T)$ is the B matrix
Kurama
tr(AB) = tr(BA), so tr(T^{-1}AT) = tr(TT^{-1}A) = tr(A), so the trace is invariant under change of basis
while we're at it, one common pitfall
tr(AB)=tr(BA) doesn't mean you can just change the order of multiplication willy-nilly
tr(ABC) != tr(ACB) in the general case a priori (no, i don't have an example)
however tr(A(BC))=tr((BC)A)
So be careful to use the given and only the given
hey i have a question concerning the simplex algorithm,
do i always need the row-echelon form or can I alredy begin with the simplex algorithm if i have for e.g.:
5 unknown variables, 3 equalities , with 3 pivot colums in the form:
[1-2-0-0-4|2]
[0-3-0-1-3|5]
[0-4-1-0-2|6]
if H is a full rank rectangular matrix and V is a square matrix. Can i write det(H^T.V.H) = det(V.H^T.H) ?
Is 1. (a) just the unit vector of the line? also need help figuring out 1(b)
yeah for 1a you can simply factor out the t, and this is already the definition of a linear combination
for 1b, try putting it equal to 0
does it remind you of something?
maybe some dot product...
linear dependency?
ohhhh
so the subspace would be all points exisiting in that plane?
mhm
an easy solution would be to find a vector orthogonal to the normal by inspection, say (1,1,-1)
and then find the other one using a cross prod
hey a really random question - can we say that reduced row echelon form is a part of row echoelon form like if a matrix is reduced row echelon form then its also in row echelon form??
like its kindof like a subset if thats the correct word for it?
yes
the set of RREF matrices is a subset of the set of REF matrices
thats one way to phrase it
another is that being in RREF implies that you're also in REF
or, if a matrix is in in RREF, then it's also in REF
ooooh okk yh that makes sense and yh i was confused of how to phrase it properly lol
thank you!!!!
If I have a matrix like this, how do I write out its trace using sigma notation if I extend it to nxn?
$$\begin{pmatrix}
a_{11}+b_{11} & a_{12}+b_{12} & a_{13}+b_{13}\
a_{21}+b_{21} & a_{22}+b_{22} & a_{23}+b_{23}\
a_{31}+b_{31} & a_{32}+b_{32} & a_{33}+b_{33}\
\end{pmatrix}$$
Kurama
$\text{Tr}{M} = \sum_{n=1}^N a_{nn} + b_{nn}$?
Edd
thank you
im not sure if this is the right channel, but I guess it is
it isn't, calculus might be a better fit
also the two don't seem to be related. (1) describes a telescoping sum, which seems unrelated to (2)
yeah that's my problem
I see, thank you. It made sense to me, I thought I'd just ask just in case
who specializes in stats here
Question
How should you write your row space?
Should you write it horizontally like this
or is vertical fine
or does it not matter
I am having difficulty showing that these two vectors form an orthonormal basis for C2. The dot product is not 0 which should indicate that they are not orthogonal and thus aren't independent
This is the entire question for reference
You are making the mistake of supposing that the inner product on $\mathbb{C}^{2}$ is given by:
$$
\langle (x_{1}, y_{1}), (x_{2}, y_{2}) \rangle = x_{1} x_{2} + y_{1} y_{2}
$$
While in reality it is given by:
$$
\langle (x_{1}, y_{1}), (x_{2}, y_{2}) \rangle = x_{1} \overline{x_{2}} + y_{1} \overline{y_{2}}
$$
MisterSystem
this is called the hermitian inner product on C^2
Now do the same calculation taking the complex conjugate into consideration
,w (1/sqrt(2))(1-i)/(2) + (-i)/(sqrt(2))(-1-i)/(2)
Np
This is completely out of context, but why do your professor denotes C^n by C_n??? It looks like we are localizing C at n 
I honestly never learnt any other way to denoted it other than C_n 😆
That's cursed 
One other question
the length of w1 would be the square root of 1/2 + -1/2
this gives the square root of 0
but to be an orthonormal basis, the vectors should have unit lengths
Am I doing something wrong again
idk if that's a silly question, but I'm still a bit confused
You are not computing the norm of w_1 correctly
again, you are forgetting about taking the complex conjugate into account
\begin{align*}
\left\langle \left(\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}}, \dfrac{-i}{\sqrt{2}} \right), \left(\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}}, \dfrac{-i}{\sqrt{2}} \right) \right\rangle
\
\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \cdot \overline{\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}}} + \dfrac{-i}{\sqrt{2}} \overline{\dfrac{-i}{\sqrt{2}}}
\
\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \cdot \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}} + \dfrac{-i}{\sqrt{2}} \cdot \dfrac{i}{\sqrt{2}} = \dfrac{1}{2} + \dfrac{-i^{2}}{2}
\
\dfrac{1}{2} + \dfrac{1}{2} = 1
\end{align*}
\
\
So, $| w_{1}| = \sqrt{\langle w_{1},w_{1} \rangle} = \sqrt{1} = 1$
MisterSystem

I am once again having problems with LaTeX formatting
I recommend you looking up hermitian/complex inner product on google
You might find some material
have u tried drawing some pictures?
Yeah
Hi, I am not sure what this notation means. The basis for the eigenspace corresponding to eigenvalue 1 is {(0,1,0)} but what does the
{0} U mean ? Sorry if this is a dumb question.
It's just union of sets.
Gotcha, thanks
well you just need the reflected coordinates now
ur pretty much done
I'm just confused on how you do it with matrices
Using elementary matrix operations find the following determinants..
can someone help me out I dont quite get the answer for this one.
Let $(x,y) \in \mathbb{R}^{2}$ be any point in the plane and denote $R : \mathbb{R}^{2} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^{2}$ the map that reflects the point $(x,y)$ along the line $y=2$. Since $y=2$ is horizontal, if we reflect along this line the $x$ coordinate won't change, more over, the distance between the point $(x,y)$ and the line $y=2$ is $y-2$. So if we reflect a point $(x,y)$ along such a line, the point now has $y$ coordinate given by $2 + (2-y) = 4-y$.
\
\
So the function we are dealing with is
$$
R(x,y) = (x,4-y) = (x,-y) + (0,4)
$$
Notice that this function is not linear.
MisterSystem
This is an intuitive approach to the problem
Notice that, a priori, we can't write R as a 2x2 matrix because R is not a linear function
It is an affine function tho
There's a way to view this map as a function if we think about it in terms of homogeneous coordinates
If the line we were dealing with passed through the origin, we could write it as a 2x2 matrix tho. Look up something called ''Householder transformation''
Yeah, precisely!
where can i read about monge gauge stuff
like i search it up and its just some long research papers
I'd guess same thing as a polynomial being factored over R vs factored over C
might help to see an example, 90 degree rotation matrix is not diagonalizeable over R cause its eigenvalues are i and -i
so if you say diagonalizable over R you're restricting the eigenvectors to be in R^n?
or eigenvalues to be in R?
the eigenvalues will be from R
youre restricting the entries of the diagonalized matrix to be from R
which means the eigenvalues are as well
since diagonalization takes the diagonal entries as the eigenvalues iirc
so is it true that diagonalizable over R => diagonalizable over C?
yeah
ahh okay so R just forces you to only use real eigenvalues
makes sense
thank you guys so much
Hello
so I got the above
but I feel like the last part wasn't good enough
(it wasn't convincing enough)
any critique?
hmm you know phi_1,...,phi_n is a basis for the space so if you write any arbitrary vector as a linear combination of these then it must go to 0 because of linearity
$T(a_1\cdot \phi_1+\dots+a_n\cdot \phi_n)=T(a_1\cdot \phi_1)+\dots+T(a_n\cdot \phi_n)=a_1\cdot T(\phi_1)+\dots+a_n\cdot T(\phi_n)=a_1\cdot 0+\dots+a_n\cdot 0=0$
bad use of scalars
sorry
tushar

Since {phi_1,...,phi_n} forms a basis of R^n, v:=c1*phi_1+...+cn*phi_n for any v in R^n
Easy to then check that Av=0
what can you say about null(A) therefore?
every vector in R^n
yes the nullspace of A is R^n identically
so A=0 as that's the only matrix with that property
Most likely, however I think it's quick with contradiction
kk
or dimension formula works I believe.
Here's another approach, suppose by way of contradiction that $A \neq 0$. Since $\mathbb{R}^{n}$ admits a basis of eigenvectors of $A$, then $A$ is diagonalizable and so there exists an invertible matrix $P$ and a diagonal matrix $D$ for which
$$
A = PDP^{-1}
$$
Now, since the characteristic polynomial of $A$ is $\lambda^{n}$, by Cayley-Hamilton we have that $A^{n} = 0$. And so:
$$
A^{n} = PD^{n} P^{-1} = 0
$$
This implies that $D^{n} = 0$ which happens iff the diagonal entries $D_{ii}$ of $D$ satisfy $D_{ii}^{n} = 0$. So $D_{ii} = 0, \forall i \in {1, \cdots, n}$ and $D = 0$. So $A = P 0 P^{-1} = 0$, a contradiction ; $\square$
MisterSystem
This works for any field btw
I'm very confused on how you use this formula
You can use the function you obtain via data fitting to calculate V(10) and calculate the residual error at t=10 sec.
You may add Q7: Find residual error in fitted velocity at t=10 by using the formula given in the last page of Exam II formulae cheat sheet above.
Oh my bad
Np
it actually was linalg
^ I mean that's what class I'm in so I was surprised they said it wasn't
have you already done the fitting?
you're presumably expected to minimize $\Vert Ax - b\Vert_2^2$ for a suitable midel matrix A and the data b
Edd
model*
in doing so you obtain the parameters a b c of the quadratic
then use them to predict v(10)
Can't I get the a b c by using RREF?
i would assumw not
you have more rows than cols
if the data were perfect, then yes
but my guess is the data is noisy and the problem is inconsistent
so rref will say no solution
Oh okay
I'm kinda lost trying to understand this ngl
one would rather use a pseudo inverse to project onto the row space
well, try rref and see what happens
RREF on the whole table?
Only part of it for a separate question
should be a 6 x 3 matrix
im gonna go back to sleep, im sure mistersystem can help with the rest
Yeah RREF doesn't work
Oh, I thought it was some sort of physics question lmao
My bad
I will give a better look
Okay 👍
Ok, so I suppose that this sheet gives us the observed velocity for some times t, right? And what we want to do is, given this data, find via linear regression/least squares a quadratic polynomial that best fits this data. And then, we calculate the error at t=10.
Is that correct?
👍
I believe so
Alright, I have actually never messed around with actually computing least square solutions myself, lol. But I suppose you must do something of this sort:
https://www.varsitytutors.com/hotmath/hotmath_help/topics/quadratic-regression
Varsity Tutors connects you to top tutors through its award-winning live learning platform for private in-home or online tutoring in your area.
After finding the least squares solution
You are set
and all you have to do is apply the formula for the residual error.
x=((A^Transpose * A)^-1 * A^Transpose * b)
Fitted b = (Ax=b)
Isn't it something like this?
ok ill spring into action, that website wasnt all that hot
yes, that's the least squares sol
the matrix A should have one column of all ones, one column with the values of t, and one col with the values of t^2
and the vector b has the values of the velocity
you can use that to get the estimate
just mind the order of the columns
Is it a different regression model?
looks ok
And so I would use those A & b for this?
mhm
actually yes, that regression is doing a rolling average, so it does something different
Oh shit
you can tell from the Hankel structure
I don't actually know any numerical linear algebra
, thanks for the advice
Am I doing this right so far? I feel like these numbers are huge xd
it's aight, it's a sum of squares andthen gets inverted
keep going, i'll throw this into octave and check it out myself
Alrighty
i have no idea whether that's correct cuz i never computed that explicitly
you'll have to find out at the end of the procedure lol
Oh wait I messed up
Earlier I did A * A^T instead of A^T * A
Now I just need to do final calculation
Wait how do I continue?
Oh nvm
derp
@lavish jewel This is what I ended up with
yep, same as mine
So now I do what with them? xd
now you have the coefficients of the polynomial
this one
the order you put the data in means the values in your image are a,b, and c, in that order
Yeah
So I just plug them in?
Wait no?
Fitted b - actual b?
then square those?
and then add total?
and sqrt it?
yeah, just plug into the formulas you were given
idk, you sent this earlier
whatever they ask you to do 😛 you're the one that knows
"by using the formula given in the last page of Exam II formulae cheat sheet above."
This is that formula
Ah so to get y fit I do this first
No a project thing :/
This gave me = 221.69851763
hey another really random question in my notes it says that this is false 'If a linear system has more unknowns than equations, then it must have infinitely many solutions.' but i dont get it like how?? it dont realy make sense
can some one please explain
not necessarily, but that is usually the case
ooooh wait a min can i say that its false cuz usually when we turn it into rref then we sometimes find that it doesnt always have infinately many it can have 0 or 1 solution?
if you write it as a matrix, you will notice it necessarily has free parameters
so it will have either infinitely many solutions or no solutions
free paramenters? meaning ?
you know when you get a row of all 0s in a matrix when doing rref
yhhh
if you don't, you're not ready to look at this problem and have to go back a little
lol wdym?
i get how we get all 0s lol at the bootom then we sometimes see it has no solutions like that?
those 2 things are not related
having a row of all 0s means the matrix is rank-deficient and has a nontrivial null space, or equivalently, free parameters
but even when this happens, one can still have no solutions for the system
i swear we havent learnt all that with them big words
with the big words, probably not
but you should have learned what "free parameters" or "infinitely many solutions" means
and also what "no solutions" means
lol i did cntrol f to search free parameters and it only appreard once in the whole doc lol and it was in the last sentance of the chapter in a proof
but yh we did do infinately many solutions meaning
and no solutions
this was the only place it was used
anyways thank you for the help 🙂 -- i think i get it now though
that's not really the best text, since it is assuming the system is consistent
lol i didnt write it .....but yh i find the proofs are generally hard to follow on there
do yall study maths in college or r u just interested
a bit of both
do tensors come under linear algebra?
or are they considered a multilinear algebra topic?
since they're like multilinear maps
soory i have another random question please dont laugh but i was doing this question
and ive done the proof and got the answer to [1 0 01] with the hint but i was wondering why do we do 2 sep cases and make a=0 and anot equal 0
like i wouldnt have been able to do it without the hint tbh but i was wondering like yh why do we do do that ...... like idk if im making sense its hard to exp
I think it is because for the first entry, in the first row, "a", in order to make it 1, u would have to multiply 1/a to row 1 right?
If a=0, then you will have a divide by 0 error. Thus, there is a need to consider the two cases.
yh i did that
but i did if a is equal to zero then i swapped the rows?
then divided by c
I think that is the intended approach
oh ok i just wanted to know tbh why we sated by assuming a=0 and not =0
like why not assuming b or c or whatver and how it realtes to the ad-bc not equaling 0
like why did we specifically start there if u get what i mean?
The determinant of that matrix is ad-bc. If the matrix is invertible, then the determinant is not equal to 0. This means that the REF of the matrix will yield the corresponding identity matrix.
oh we havent done invertible matrix yet we doing that next week i believe well tmrw
It is more of making sure that (1 0)(0 1) is attainable than relating to the a=0, a!=0
ooh ok
thank you for the help and explanation!!
okk im soory but im stuck again
how would i do this im soooo confused
the only thing ive done is turned them both into an argumented matrix
ShiN
And i'm not sure what is going wrong here
I can post the code if that helps but it's pretty ba
bad
hmm off the top of my head the procedure seems right
is there any special reason you dont want to consider the matrix [v1, v2, v3]^-1?
or if it is in higher dims, M^T after orthonormalizing the vectors
I need the functional representation to define a polytope afterwards
ic
the only thing i can think of is that maybe the vectors v_i were defined via a head and a tail position vector and you accidentally took only one
Wdym
like v1 = head - tail, but you accidentally used only the head in the cross products
(just guessing here)
hmm
thinking about it for a bit
since all of the vectors are with reference to the origin, the way you wrote the normal makes it so that you need all of the inner products with the normals to be negative

i'm not sure, but i think that might be it
hmm nvm i'm not sure that works
i think what you did should work, was the result off by so much that you couldn't attribute it to rounding?
I'm using rational numbers, so idk if there should be rounding errors. Thing is i'm getting that the intersection of these half spaces is 0 which is not true. And also there are vectors close to the origin that are supposedly not a positive linear combination of the 3 vectors, but have a positive inner product with the functionals
the only thing i could come up with is that A(I + A + A^2) = A + A^2 + A^3 = A + A^2
so that I + A + A^2 = I + A
That's what I did too, but how do you conclude it equals I+A, if A is not invertible?
good point
(And A cannot be invertible since that would imply A = 0, a contradiction, so b is wrong)
mhm
|| (I-A)(I + A + A^2) = I + A + A^2 - A - A^2 - A^3 = I ||@earnest sigil
so i/i-A
ohh ok thanks
@lavish jewel ugh, it was a rounding error
the inverse of the matrix didn't multiply to the identityt
that must have fucked it up
I still don't understand the weird intersection business tho
maybe that's also rounding errors?
probably
rationals won't behave as such in general
i can't really recommend anything to mitigate the error in your scenario
oof
like i'm guessing you're trying to cordon off a set of rationals, but the error might be so large that you get a different rational than the particualr one you were looking for
Is this the right channel for simplex/ linear/nonlinear programming?
I have a variable number of base variables (20+), and a variable number of constraints (70+). I've been looking for some lecture videos. Everything seems to only be working with 3-5 variables.
And my constraints aren't linear. They're more like piece-wise binary
i think applied computational math might be a better fit
Could scalars in linear algebra be imaginary? Sorry, I'm new to it.
yes
we use scalar fields, so C, R, Q or Z_p
Okay, thanks!
In the triangle ABC, there's a point P in BC such that the length of BP is 1/3rd of the length of PC. There's also a point Q in AC such that CQ is 2/3rds of AC. Here is a simple drawing of it:
Write the vectors AB and AC as linear combinations of AP and BQ
honestly not sure where i should even start
how do you get from AP and BQ to AB
maybe if one of them is negative?
let AC be a
let CB be b
then AB = a + b
AQ = a/3
QC = 2a/3
CP = b/3
PB = 2b/3
so AP = AC + CP = a + b/3
BQ = -QB = -(2a/3 + b)
shouldnt it be to write AB and AC as linear combinations, not AP and BQ?
yeah
wow thank you! you didnt write any words but just from the symbols i understand what you're doing
How does one find the area of this?
This is a circle
Why am I panda copped? 
so just square both sides
Oh
the center is (pi,17)?
Yes
Yes
👍
i've got to come up with a real matrix with no eigenvalues whose complexification is not diagonalizable, so it has to be at least dim4, im trying to make the characteristic polynomial x^4 - 2x^2 + 1 work but im unsure how to guarantee that the geometric multiplicities are not equal to the algebraic ones, so do i need a minimal polynomial of degree 2?
The rank nullity theorem states that is V,W are vector spaces where V is finite dimensional and
S:V->W are linear transformations then Rank(S)+Nullity(S)=dim(V)
Now , ker(S)=T(U)
The nullity of a linear transformation is the dimension of the kernel
Therefore, dim(U)=Nullity of S
Since S is onto, for every element in W, there is an element in V
hence Rank(S)=dim(W)
Hence, dim(V)=dim(U)+dim(W)
Can someone please verify if this proof that I attempted is correct?
Let $A$ be the matrix:
$$
\begin{bmatrix}
0 & 0 & 0 & -1 \
1 & 0 & 0 & 0 \
0 & 1 & 0 & -2 \
0 & 0 & 1 & 0
\end{bmatrix}
$$
Then, its minimal and characteristic polynomials are both equal to:
$$
p(x) = x^{4} + 2x + 1
$$
Indeed, $A$ is just the companion matrix of $p(x)$ described above. As such, we have that $p(x)$ splits over $\mathbb{C}$ as:
$$
p(x) = (x-i)^{2}(x+i)^{2}
$$
Thus, $A$ is a real matrix with no real eigenvalues. Moreover, verify that the minimal polynomial and the characteristic polynomial of the complexification of $A$ are also given by $p(x)$, thus the complexification of $A$ is not diagonalizable over $\mathbb{C}$ since its minimal polynomial does not split into distinct linear factors.
MISTERSYSTEM
Hope this helps
Here's the sketch
yeah it helps a lot im trying to decompose how you did it though, like the jordan matrix is 2 distinct jordan blocks of size 2, then from there you have some basis matrix, invert that matrix, multiply it all together in conjugate form and the result is A? but how did you come up with the basis matrix?
How I did what?
Come up with the matrix A?
Oh
I just used some nice tricks related to the companion matrix of a polynomial
Basically
If you have any polynomial over a field
You can associate to it a matrix, called the companion matrix of such a polynomial
And this matrix satisfies a bunch of nice properties
The one that is most important
Is that the minimal and the characteristic polynomial of the companion matrix of a given polynomial are both given by the polynomial we started with.
So I just used your observation that x^4 + 2x + 1 does not have real roots and does not split into distinct linear factors over C.
And if we found a matrix A whose minimal polynomial was given by this
We would basically finish the problem
And I just chose the most natural matrix associated to this polynomial, which is its companion matrix
and the companion matrix satisfies what we wanted
This is correct. However, you didn't explictly mention the fact that dim(U) = dim(T(U)), this can be done using the fact that ker(T) = 0 (T injective). This is not a mistake tho, It's just that since you are doing this as an exercise, it is good if you explicitly state when and how you are using the hypothesis that the problem gives you.
alrighty so I know how to do the first one
and I know it isn't a subspace
but like
I'm not too good at conceptualizing abs value stuff
so from S1 you can say x+y+z= z or -z right
can you turn that into a system of equations
I see
Thank you so much for clarifying
hmm okay, so i actually constructed a matrix that has that as it's characteristic poly but how do you know it doesn't split over distinct factors i guess is my question
Yeah, you can. S_{1} is actually given by the union of the solution set of two linear equations.
x+y+z = z or x+y+z = - z
How would I go about showing that it's not a subspace using its system form
because like I solved the aug. matrix corresponding to the system
You have to verify its minimal polynomial doesn't split into distinct linear factors, not its characteristic polynomial.
and I ended up with a line passing through the origin
And that's why the companion matrix is nice, because given the characteristic polynomial we already know its minimal polynomial and they are equal.
It's not a system of linear equations strictly speaking. $S_{1}$ is given by the union of two sets $X,Y$ with $S_{1} = X \cup Y$. For which:
$$
X = {(x,y,z) \in \mathbb{R}^{3} , \vert , x+y+z = z}
$$
and
$$
Y = {(x,y,z) \in \mathbb{R}^{3} , \vert , x+y+z = -z}
$$
Notice that $X$ and $Y$ are both subspaces of $\mathbb{R}^{3}$. And generally, the union of two subspaces is not a subspace, it would be a subspace tho if either $X \subset Y$ or $Y \subset X$. So what you can do is solve the system of equations defined by $X$ and the system of equations defined by $Y$ and then verify that $X$ is not a subset of $Y$ and $Y$ is not a subspace of $X$.
MISTERSYSTEM
That's one way to do it
Ah alright
If you are not familiar with this result
that makes sense, but can you do so using the additivity property of subspaces
like if u,v is in S1 then u+v also in S1
like how do you apply the additivity property to the union
Yeah, we can do it
notice that we can take (1,-1,0) and (1,1,-2)
notice that both are in S_1
sure, you can do it with a counterexample, but is there a general approach
as in taking two generalized vectors and applying the property
Nah, I don't think so.
That's frustrating
Like, at some point we have to use the definition of S_1 and explicitly choose some elements in S_1
If I have vectors u and v, is there any particular property of u and v such that u⊗v is unitary?
First of all, are we working with a general normed vector space $V$? If so, how are you defining the norm on $V \otimes V$? If we are working over an inner product space $(V, \langle \cdot, \cdot \rangle)$, then we can endow $V \otimes V$ with the unique inner product $(\cdot, \cdot)$ that satisfies $\forall u_{1},v_{1}, u_{2}, v_{2} \in V$:
$$
(u_{1} \otimes v_{1}, u_{2} \otimes v_{2}) = \langle u_{1}, u_{2}\rangle \langle v_{1}, v_{2} \rangle
$$
If that is the case, then if both $u,v$ are unitary with respect to $\langle \cdot, \cdot \rangle$, then $u \otimes v$ is unitary over $( \cdot, \cdot)$, since:
$$
(u \otimes v, u \otimes v) = \langle u, u \rangle \langle v, v \rangle = 1 \cdot 1 = 1
$$
MISTERSYSTEM
This is a property we can impose on u and v for which u⊗v is unitary
Hi there small question
If an nxn matrix is to be linearly independent and have pivots in each column
Can you declare that the matrix is invertible by the invertible matrix theorem?
What's the invertible matrix theorem?
Or are there exceptions
It's a list of logically equivalent statements that apply to invertible matrices
@winter harbor
And by an n×n matrix being linearly independent I suppose you mean its rows/columns are linearly independent, right?
i mean
my class has always looked at linearly independence mostly through columns
but if each column were to have a pivot then each row would have to as well
so yes
rows and columns are linearly independent
we can say that
Yeah, if a square matrix has linearly independent column/row vectors, then it is invertible.
alright
Thank you
that is what i would like to make sure
just from that one piece of evidence itself
thank you again mistersystem
Np
How many unitary operators share a characteristic polynomial
Hi sorry I forgot to mention, |u> and |v> are in hilbert space Hn, and |u><v| is an nxn matrix. Thanks for the answer
I think I know how to do non unitary
By calculating a product of the descending value partitions for each degree of irreducible factor
I don't see how A* A= I does anything
By ''how many'' I suppose you mean classify all conjugacy classes, right?
of unitary operators with this given characteristic polynomial
Yeah
Yeah, unitary operators are diagonalizable
So what you can do is the following
split the characteristic polynomial into linear factors
and since this operator is diagonalizable, its minimal polynomial splits into distinct linear factors, more over, every linear factor of its minimal polynomial is a linear factor of its characteristic polynomial
With this information
We know that unitary operators with same characteristic polynomial
Also have the same minimal polynomial
This already gives us some information
for n<4, linear operators over a finite dimensional vector space with same minimal and characteristic polynomials are similiar
so we know there's only one conjugacy class in this case
now work out the case n>4
The main results I have used here is that unitary operators are diagonalizable via the spectral theorem
And this
Your idea was correct, basically
The key to classify such operators is to look at invariant factors/rational canonical form or the Jordan Canonical Form.
Thanks
Give me a sec to process this
I wonder if there are any other interesting patterns of conjugacy classes
The number without conditions seems pretty free
How would I go about defining the following in a set notation
$$
\text{nul}(A)=\text{span}\left{\begin{pmatrix} -1 \ 1 \ 0 \end{pmatrix}\right}
$$
timmmm
setbuilder?
like is there a way to translate this to “the set of all vectors <x,y,z> that are spanned by the vector <-1,1,0>”
that's literally what span denotes
right, but is there a way not to say “span{…}”
I feel like I’ve seen something like that before
what's the span of a single vector defined as?
probably something like ${\boldsymbol{x} \vert \boldsymbol{x} = t[-1,1,0]^\text{T}, t \in \mathbb{R}}$
Edd
a span of a single vector would be the set of all linear combinations of <-1,1,0>, which is really just all multiples of it, since it’s one vector
so would it be something like $\left{t\in\mathbb{R}:t\begin{pmatrix} -1 \ 1 \ 0 \end{pmatrix}\right}$
timmmm
no, the form of object goes on the left of :
hm, one sec
$$\left{\begin{pmatrix} x \ y \ z \end{pmatrix}:t\begin{pmatrix} -1 \ 1 \ 0 \end{pmatrix},t\in\mathbb{R}\right}$$
timmmm
something like this?
would it be the reverse of the answer before this one?
$$\left{t\begin{pmatrix} -1 \ 1 \ 0\end{pmatrix}:t\in\mathbb{R}\right}$$
timmmm
yes
no prob
There is only one eigenvalues for an eigenvectors or can u have multiples eigenvalues for one eigenvector ?
how does an eigenvector having multiple eigenvalues make sense?
Think of the definition...
If x ≠ 0, Tx = ax = bx implies a = b
this can happen in some sense for repeated eigenvalues. one calls such matrices "defective"
i don't get the last 2 parts
in general that is not true, since M could be rank deficient
the number of nonzero singular values of M is <= min(m,n)
if m =/= n, M has no eigenvalues
but python gives me eigenvalues even for m != n matrix
the number of nonzero eigenvalues of M^TM is equal to the number of nonzero singular values of M

that makes no sense
I passed a matrix of size 49 93 for a pca
oh it's you again lol
and it does a dsv in the process
yes bro XD
I still don't get it and i'm going crazy
evd ?
eigenvalue decomposition
in the code they do a dsv
what is dsv
decomposition in singular values
oh it's the same sorry
then it does either an SVD of M, or the SVD of MM^T (and the SVD of symmetric matrices is equal to the EVD)
the SVD has nothing to do with eigenvalues in general
but the thing that i don't understand
it gives you singular values
that part
well, tell me the singular values of a 4 x 10 matrix of all 0s
you'll notice that for such a matrix, all singular values are 0
and 0 <= min(4,10)
yeah but 0 is < 4 and < 10
yes, exactly as we said
i mean
do you understand what this means?
0 <= min(4, 10) but also 0 <= max(4, 10)
yes but a matrix cannot have more than min(4,10) nonzero singular values
yes
the number of nonzero singular values is equal to the rank
but that's the part that i don't understand
do you know what the rank of a matrix is?
yes
tell me
mhm
and now tell me, for a 4 x 10 matrix
what is the maximum number of linearly independent columns you can have
10
wtf
but i mean
and this means its basis has 4 linearly independent vectors only
an independant column is like she can't be writter using others
exactly
except that is impossible because the columns are in R^4
say the first 4 columns of your matrix are [1,0,0,0], [0,1,0,0], [0,0,1,0], [0,0,0,1]
tell me how you would produce another vector in R^4 that is linearly independent from those 4
also idk what system you mean, there is no system
ok i get it
you will need to go review the definition of vector spaces, linear independence, and dimension
(pretty much restart linear algebra)
meaning you will have to review it yourself 😛
because in a masters, you're expected to know what you learned in your bachelors
I get it
because each vector of the matrix
is produced by the based of R^n
so in the best scenario you can have n independant vectors
OK
@lavish jewel love you brother
@lavish jewel I understood your rank explanation
But why is the rank related to the number of non-zero eigenvalues

