#linear-algebra
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Oh
so do i say like, suppose there exists A and B. then i do p(A) and p(B) and then something happens and we find out A=B?
Ok, so we have $P(\mathbb{F})$ the space of all polynomials over $\mathbb{F}$, what this function does is that for each polynomial $p(x) \in P(\mathbb{F})$, $\gamma$ assigns to it the evaluation function.
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Meaning that for each polynomail $p \in P(\mathbb{F})$, $\gamma(p(x))$ is the function that evaluates an element $\beta \in \mathbb{F}$ of the field to $\gamma(p(x))(\beta) = \sum\limits_{k=0}^{n} a_{k} \beta^{k}$, where $p(x) = \sum\limits_{k=0}^{n} a_{k} x^{k}$
MisterSystem
This can be a little bit confusing
for instance
suppose F is the field of real numbers
and we have p(x) = x^2
what gamma does
is assign to p(x) the function f(x) = x^2
this is really just a formalism
because formally we don't think of polynomials as functions at first
okay i think i understand now, thanks for explaining this
so how do i prove f(x)= f(y) then x=y
and the ker = 0
Suppose that there is a polynomial $p(x)$ such that $\gamma(p(x)) = 0$
MisterSystem
ok
what does this means?
it means
calm down
ok ;;-;
\gamma(p(x)) is a function
this means that for any \beta in the field
we have this $\gamma(p(x)) = 0 \iff \forall \beta \in \mathbb{F}, \gamma(p(x))(\beta) = 0(\beta) \iff \gamma(p(x))(\beta) = 0$.
MisterSystem
Notice that we made an abuse of notation in the beginning
we are using 0 to mean the consant function 0
and 0 as the element of the field F
ok, so this means that
$\sum\limits_{k=0}^{n} a_{k} \beta^{k} = 0, \forall \beta \in \mathbb{F}$
MisterSystem
ooo okay i understand that notation
how do i prove this though
I am just using the definition
Now we want to prove that a_{k} = 0, \forall k \in {0, ..., n}
or equivalently
that p(x) is the polynomial that is constant to 0
ok so so so we have to do that cuz B is not always 0 so we gotta prove that ak = 0 so
the polynomial that gives us that is
p(x) = 0?
and that is indeed a polynomial?
๐๏ธ ๐ ๐๏ธ
the information that we have is that p(x) is a polynomial that when evaluated to every element \beta in the field gives us 0
and we want to prove p(x) = 0 is the constant polynomial equal to 0
try to prove the converse
suppose p(x) is not constant equal to 0
then there exists b an element in the field
that when we evaluate p(b) this gives us something different than 0
that's one way to go
if \gamma is always one to one?
yeah
f(a) = f(b) then a=b
how do i dis
Please Subscribe here, thank you!!! https://goo.gl/JQ8Nys
How to prove a function is injective. Injective functions are also called one-to-one functions. This is a short video focusing on the proof.
ok imma watch this vid first
i have a midterm in 2 weeks n its not looking that good hahaahahhah
๐
We are working over vector spaces
so we can just prove ker \gamma = 0
Let $f : V \rightarrow W$ be a linear transformation between vector spaces over a field $\mathbb{F}$, then $f$ is injective iff $\text{ker} , \f = {0}$
Try to do this as an exercise
MisterSystem
ok
This is in fact even more general and works for other algebraic strucutres
ok gimmie a sec
idk lol
if its a linear transformation then its closed under scalar mult and addition
so T((a)+ f(b )) = T(a) + T(b)
OH proof by contradiction
suppose you have f != g
and T(f) = T(g)
then f = g
because lin trans
am i on the right tracklol
yeah so
if f : V -> W is linear and injective
to prove that ker f = 0 we go as follows
if x \in ker f
then f(x) = 0, but it is always the case that f(0) = 0
so f(x) = f(0) and since f is injective this means x=0
and so ker f = 0
the converse goes as follows
if ker f = 0
then if f(x) = f(y) for x,y \in V
this implies f(x) - f(y) = 0
but f is linear
so f(x-y) = 0
this means x-y \in ker f
but ker f = 0
so x-y = 0 which implies x=y
and f is injective
so to prove a linear transfomation between vector spaces is injective
we just need to check if the kernel is trivial, i.e consists solely of the 0 element
ok so a few questions i have is
why dont we check the other values?
what if f(a) = f(b) but a!=b ?
oh
also how do we know f(0) = 0
np
yeah so
the original question boils down to proving that for F = Q,R,C
If a polynomial evaluates to 0 for every element in F
Then this polynomial is constant equal to 0
We can do this using the fact that every polynomial of degree n in a field has at most n roots
And since all these fields are infinite
The result follows
For finite fields it is a bit more tricky
if a set of vectors span R^m they must also have to span R^n for 0 < n < m right
No, because vectors in R^m are not in R^n
Eh, the most natural to me would be a projection onto the first n coordinates
Vector spaces of the same dimension over the same field are always isomorphic, so this sort of construction can always be done
How do I actually find a basis for a space?
Specifically, I have that $W$ is the orthogonal complement to the subspace generated by $(2,1,1,-1)$
feather
RREF the corresponding augmented matrix
Then you get a subspace plane of solutions
So W is just that plane
(W is called the nullspace of the coefficients matrix)
But how can I actually find a basis for that plane?
Here is the solution I got to the system
(Where x_3 = s and x_4 = t)
Could I just split this into two vectors (t-s, s-t, 0, 0) and (0, 0, s, t)?
If you take any two linearly independent vectors that satisfy (t-s, s-t, s,t) this will give you a basis for the plane W.
So in particular
You could take the point in W corresponding to t=1 and s=1
You mean independent right?
And the point in W corresponding to t=1 and s=0
Yup
Anyways, yeah, just take two linearly independent vectors that satisfy (t-s, s-t, s,t)
You can find these by substituting t and s for some values.
What do you mean by "satisfy"? What does it mean to satisfy a vector?
$W = {(t-s,s-t,s,t) \in \mathbb{R}^{4}}$
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So what I mean by a vector $x \in \mathbb{R}^{4}$ satisfying $(s-t,t-s, s,t)$ is $x \in W$.
MisterSystem
Satisfy in the sense of satisfying the property of being an element of W
How do I know they (two vectors x, y in W) span W? I never took a proper linear algebra course, I'm sorry :(
Ok so
Just a shitty watered down version for engineers where all we did was compute solutions to systems
Oh
it means that every element in W is a linear combination of x,y
and that x and y are linearly independent
Yes
a basis for a vector basis is a linearly independent set of generating vectors
ok so let's do this by the definition
I will take two vectors in W
and show they span W
Sure
take s=0 and t=1
we have the vector (-1,1,0,1) in W
and if we take s=0 and t=1
we have the vector (0,0,1,1)
we will show they are linearly independent
$[t-s,s-t,s,t] \ =t[1,-1,0,1]+s[-1,1,1,0] \ =\text{span}{[1,-1,0,1],[-1,1,1,0]}$
Mosh
Yes we can do this, but i wanted to show via the definition since he doesn't know how to prove two vectors span a vector space
Don't you have to set up some generic vector then show that it can be written as a linear combination of the two vectors? And we check this by computing the determinant of the augmented matrix
if you have n n-dimensional vectors, yes
since determinants only apply for square matrices
That's right
Anyways, I will take (1,-1,0,1) and (-1,1,1,0), suppose that there exists $\alpha, \beta \in \mathbb{R}$ such that $\alpha (1,-1,0,1) + \beta (-1,1,1,0) = (0,0,0,0)$.
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We want to show $\alpha, \beta$ are both $0$.
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This means that $(\alpha - \beta, - \alpha + \beta, \beta, \alpha) = (0,0,0,0)$ and by definition we must have $\alpha = \beta = 0$
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So $(1,-1,0,1)$ and $(-1,1,1,0)$ are linearly independent.
MisterSystem
Now we want to prove that they are a generating set for W
This is also clear taking the basis Mosh has shown before
but it would be a bit of more work to do using the basis I had used before
Basically, given $x \in W$ we want to show that there exists $\alpha, \beta \in \mathbb{W}$ with $x = \alpha (1,-1,0,1) + \beta (-1,1,1,0)$ but $x \in W$, so $\exists s,t \in W$ for which:
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$x = (s-t,t-s,s,t)$
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So $x = (s-t,t-s,s,t) = t(1,-1,0,1) + s (-1,1,1,0) = \alpha (1,-1,0,1) + \beta (-1,1,1,0)$
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So if we take $\alpha = t$ and $\beta = s$ we see that $W = \text{span}{(1,-1,0,1),(-1,1,1,0)}$.
MisterSystem

ye reply pings unless you turn it off
No, I didn't mean to reply in the first place lol

Anyways, I was just trying to highlight how a proof that a set of vectors span a vector space goes
with this set we have chosen it is quite trivial
but the way to go is this
This is nice
Yeah, we first proved that they are linearly independent
and here we have shown they generate W
and so they are a basis
as an exercise
you can try taking a different set of vectors
and checking if they form a basis
(also make sure you understand why the span of a set of vectors is in fact a subspace of the vector space)
ie show that for $v_1,...,v_n\in V$ means that $\text{span}{v_1,...,v_n}$ forms a subspace of V
Mosh
Thank you both!! Maybe I'll try that exercise when I read through a real LA textbook ๐ฅด
I mean if you know the definition of subspace and span, the proof is relatively quickly, referring to my "challenge problem"
"if"s in definitions are usually "iff"s
its... confusing
but yes, this statement goes both ways
is there a reason or just convention?
Cause I really dont see a reason to just not use iff 
thanks also
theres a sort of implicit "...and we dont call it that otherwise"
but we dont bother to state it
i agree that iff would make more sense
Mosh
what do you think?
take any vector (x,y) in R^2, you can write (x,y) = (x,x) + (0,y-x)
Anyways
You didn't check the case V_1 + V_2 by yourself, did you?
You would have known
I'd recommend checking these examples the book gives you
Notice that $V_{2} = \text{span} {(1,1)}$ and $V_{3} = \text{span}{(0,1)}$. Since $\text{dim} , \mathbb{R}^{2}$ and since $(1,1)$ and $(0,1)$ are linearly independent and $V_{2} \ocirc V_{3} = \text{span} {(1,1), (0,1)}$, then $\mathbb{R}^{2} = V_{2} \oplus V_{3}$.
is this how
omf
omfg
im so dumb
i couldve just thought about linear indepencen
facepalm
thanks
MisterSystem
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I mean
You could do this via definition
basically
all you want to check is that V_2 and V_3 have intersection 0
which is trivial
and if you take any vector (x,y) in R^2
oh
you can write it as a sum of an element in V_2 and an element in V_3
okay i get it now thanks
also
i have another q
this statement is so confusing
i understand it but im confused on one part
About what exactly?
- the upper + lower matrix = a new matrix right
- But since the union of LM and UM is nontrivial it does not fit the definition of o plus
so
wtf
?
wtf is the dif between + and o plus
So like
$\forall U,W \subset V$ subspaces of a vector space $V$, we always have that $U+W$ is another subspace of $V$. We can always construct this.
MisterSystem
Now, the direct sum has a slight difference
If $U,W$ are subspaces of $V$ such that their sum is the whole space $V$, i.e $V = U + W$ and at the same time $U \cap W = {0}$ we say that $V$ is the direct sum of $U$ and $W$.
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We denote this by $V = U \oplus W$. We also say that $U$ and $W$ are a decomposition of $V$.
MisterSystem
So you can think of the direct sum as a particular case of sum od subspaces
where the direct sum is a decomposition of your whole space
wait just to clarify W1 + W2 (both subspaces) is also a subspace because it is inside of V which is closed under scalar mult and addition ?
and
thanks this makes sense
and 0 \in W1+W2
try proving that the direct sum is in fact a subspace
this will give you some intuition
ok give me min rn
wait it is
- the zero vector is in it bc intersectio is 0 vector
- it is closed under scalar mult and addition because it is inside of V
which is a vector space so we know for sure cuz W1 and W2 is inside
That's not an argument
sorry
like
your second argument is basically
''it is closed under scalar multiplication and addition because it is inside of V, aka being a subset of V''
But being a subset of a vector space is not enough for it to be a vector subspace
Also, as I have said before, the intersection of two subspaces is not necessarily the 0 vector
and sum of two subspaces is always defined even if their intersection is non trivial, i.e equal to 0
we want this to be the case for direct sum tho
yeah so, I sort of understand your intuition
the idea is that you take a certain matrix in M_n \times n
and you decompose it
as the sum of an upper triangular matrix
and a lower triangular matrix
yeah, I think that's what you meant you wrote it this way
Yeah, I think it is alright
Is anyone from here able to help me in questions-7, I should probably have asked it here from the beginning
Let $W_{1}, W_{2} \subset V$ be subspaces of $V$ a vector space over $\mathbb{F}$ , we have that $0 \in W_{1} + W_{2}$ since $0 = 0 + 0$, where $0 \in W_{1}$ and $0 \in W_{2}$.
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Now, $\forall u,v \in W_{1} + W_{2}$ and $\lambda \in \mathbb{F}$, we have that $\exists w_{1},w_{1}' \in W_{1}$ and $w_{2}, w'{2} \in W{2}$ where $u = w_{1} + w_{2}$ and $v = w'{1} + w'{2}$
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So $u+ \lambda v = w_{1} + w_{2} + \lambda (w'{1} + w'{2}) = (w_{1} + \lambda w'{1}) + (w{2} + \lambda w'{2})$. Since $W{1} \subset V$ and $W_{2} \subset V$ are subspaces of $V$, we have that $w_{1} + \lambda w'{1} \in W{1}$ and $w_{2} + w'{2} \in W{2}$, so $u + \lambda v \in W_{1} + W_{2}$
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With this, we finish the proof that $W_{1} + W_{2}$ is a subspace of $V$ ; $\square$
@zenith junco
Idk how much used yoi are to writing proofs
but here you go
You can read the solution after trying by yourself
MisterSystem
i dont understand the 7th line
how is w1 + lambda*w_1prime inside of W1 ?
we only established that w1, w2 is inside of W1
because W1 is a subspace of V and w_1, w'_1 \in W_1
what is the proeperty subspaces have with respect to the operations on a vector space?
oh
how can w1prime exist inside of it
typo
im familiar with proofs and reading them, but writing my own is hard rip
Let $W_{1}, W_{2} \subset V$ be subspaces of $V$ a vector space over $\mathbb{F}$ , we have that $0 \in W_{1} + W_{2}$ since $0 = 0 + 0$, where $0 \in W_{1}$ and $0 \in W_{2}$.
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Now, $\forall u,v \in W_{1} + W_{2}$ and $\lambda \in \mathbb{F}$, we have that $\exists w_{1},w_{1}' \in W_{1}$ and $w_{2}, w'{2} \in W{2}$ where $u = w_{1} + w_{2}$ and $v = w'{1} + w'{2}$
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So $u+ \lambda v = w_{1} + w_{2} + \lambda (w'{1} + w'{2}) = (w_{1} + \lambda w'{1}) + (w{2} + \lambda w'{2})$. Since $W{1} \subset V$ and $W_{2} \subset V$ are subspaces of $V$, we have that $w_{1} + \lambda w'{1} \in W{1}$ and $w_{2} + w'{2} \in W{2}$, so $u + \lambda v \in W_{1} + W_{2}$
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With this, we finish the proof that $W_{1} + W_{2}$ is a subspace of $V$ ; $\square$
MisterSystem
btw
for checking the subspace, we have to do under scalar mult and addition but you just combined the both right?
Just use the definitions
the definition of equality of sets
then the definition of span
and the definition of sum of subspaces
To get a bit warmed up, let us prove that
$$
\text{span}(S_{1} \cup S_{2}) \subset \text{span} , S_{1} + \text{span} , S_{2}
$$
Let $u \in \text{span}(S_{1} \cup S_{2})$, then there exists $n \in \mathbb{N}$, $v_{1}, \cdots, v_{n} \in S_{1} \cup S_{2}$ and $\lambda_{1}, \cdots, \lambda_{n} \in \mathbb{F}$ such that
$$
v = \sum\limits_{i=1}^{n} \lambda_{i} v_{i}
$$
Then, we have that $\forall i \in {1, \cdots, n}$ we have that $v_{i} \in S_{1} \cup S_{2} \iff v_{i} \in S_{1}$ or $v_{i} \in S_{2}$
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Now, suppose $v_{1}, \cdots, v_{n}$ are ordered such that for some $k \leq n$ we have that $v_{1}, \cdots, v_{k} \in S_{1}$ and $v_{k+1}, \cdots, v_{n} \in S_{2} \setminus S_{1}$, then:
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$v = \sum\limits_{i=1}^{k} \lambda_{i} v_{i} + \sum\limits_{j=k+1}^{n} \lambda_{j} v_{j}$
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Now, we have that $s_{1} =
\sum\limits_ {i=1}^{k} \lambda_{i} v_{i} \in \text{span} , S_{1}$
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Moreover, we have then that $s_{2} = \sum\limits_{j=k+1}^{n} \lambda_{j} v_{j} \in \text{span} , S_{2}$
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So, $v = s_{1} + s_{2} \in \text{span} , S_{1} + \text{span} , S_{2}$ and
$$
\text{span}(S_{1} \cup S_{2}) \subset \text{span} , S_{1} + \text{span} , S_{2}
$$
@zenith junco
MisterSystem
Try to prove the converse
This should give you an idea of how to do it
you just need to unwind the definitions
there's nothing so deep
thanks ill have to think about it for a bit
i dont understand how that sum is a linear combination of the union between s and sprime
I mean, it's pretty much by definition
Each u_i \in S, i particular each u_i \in S union S'
And each w_j \in S', so in particular each w_j \in S union S'
And that is a linear combination between the u_i's and w_j's
Each of which is an element of S union S'
The determinant is nonzero so I think it has a solution
Idk man I am so lost
Im skipping this question fuck this
Gaussian elimination
I've been trying
Nothing works
I get solutions that satisfy two equations
But not the other two
How do you compute the determinant of a 4ร3 matrix?
and I've tried like 8000 different combinations of row reduction
Well I went on MSE and it said to subtract the constants and then find the determinant of the corresponding matrix (which would now be 4x4) and then if that's nonzero then the system has a solution
I can't anymore, I'm skipping this :/ I've spent way too much time on it. Here's the system
Sure, thank you for all your help and explanations man
Including those in #math-discussion
You've been so helpful
Appreciate you too @nocturne jewel 
It's so wild how the professor's homework problems are so much easier than the textbook's
I have
V4
Where A, X_{n}, B and Y_{n} are all NxN matrices. Given a large data set of X's and Y's, how can I determine the optimal A and B that minimises the following
V4
luckily for you, you can vectorize the expression
replace the sum of frobenius norms for a sum of 2-norms after vectorizing Y_n and A X_n B
and nicely enough:
This is amazing! Thanks so much
separating B and A later is another issue, but yeah
cuz here you get the 2 together
I will have to learn what vectorizing a matrix does though, but it looks like I'll be able to solve it
Do you have any thoughts on separating B and A later on?
only up to a scaling factor
if you need the specific entries, this won't work and you'll be better of doing some alternating optimization
Like an iterative approach?
mhm
Oh man. Guess I might have to do that
Was really hoping for an analytical solution
Does it simplify things if A is in SO(3), and B in O(3)?
so(3) means its a rotation?
this eliminates the scaling ambiguity, yes
since then you know any scaling factor is associated to B
oh, and B is also orthonormal
yup
yeah you can just rescale as needed
you can solve it with least squares using the vectorization stuff
then just do something like average out the blocks in the matrix resulting from the kronecker product
this'll give you a scaled version of A
rescale it so that it's in SO(3)
and then use A to get B^T from B^T kron A
the averaging isn't needed if X and Y aren't noisy
So I'm not super familiar with vectorization and the kronecker product. It looks like vectorizing just stacks the matrix columns on top of eachother? And the kronecker combines two matrices of nxm and pxq to np x mq?
multiplying each component of matrix A by the entire matrix B, and that becomes an "entry" in the big matrix
Not 100% sure how it ties in yet. And then I'd have to find the gradient of that massive thing?
Oh actually, I guess standard least squares result would apply if I can get everything in the form of Ax ~= B? No need to compute the gradients
yep
sounds about right. i think the result should be the average of all the least squares solutions (average of pseudo inverses)
you can double check
V4
ah i guess it's not quite the usual least squares, since the variable is on the left of a matrix product instead of on the right
you can transpose the problem tho
Like transposing the matrices before taking the frobenius norm?
mhm
$L(A, B) = \sum_{n} |Y_{n}^{T} - B^{T}X_{n}^{T}A^{T}|_{F}$
V4
i guess it makes more sense to transpose after vectorizing
(y - (B^T kron A) x )^T = y^T - x^T (B^T kron A)^T
now this one is least-square-ey
you get outer products of the vectors
The x there should be vec(X), right?
i wrote them lowercase cuz they're vectors now, yes
oh I see, cool
both y and x
that makes sense
x is the variable right, doesn't the first one match (standard) least squares better? y - Mx where M = (B^T kron A)
you said you want to find B and A, so
oops, sorry
B^T kron A is the variable
Okay, I think I'm getting somewhere. I don't know how to undo the kronecker product. I have a matrix B^T kron A
lol
don't laugh, I'm a newby haha
Where can I read up on this?
You're not going to believe it Edd, it almost looks like I have to do a second optimisation problem to undo the kronecker product https://math.stackexchange.com/a/321424
normally you would, as i had said before
but you know the structure of your matrices
that should make it easier to do something without needing optimization
A general question, is there a name for sum(kron(x1,x2)), where x1 and x2 are vectors?
i can't think of any off the top of my head
looks like a scaled version of the "grand sum"
if the matrices themselves have some physical meaning, then you could come up with something from there
like a total energy or something
otherwise, kron x1 x2 is isomorphic to some linear transformation that can be represented as a rank 1 matrix, and i don't think the sum of the elements of such a matrix has any special meaning
hey i need help, i have a set of data points temperature compared to pressure, but how do i make a formula that is non linear i have no idea how i change by points into ax2+bx+c=0
https://www.agas.com/media/2421/r507-pt-chart.pdf?fbclid=IwAR3wD-L-LneYod4jaxyLc9uEHa4jEf-ODrHJwO7BK4lOKmbCH9aA3305GR4
these are the data point i need to find a formula from barg to celcius, any1 can help ?
asking #linear-algebra for nonlinear formulas is a bold move
this is known as "curve fitting"
haha i couldnt find non linear ๐
its a technique in statistics, excel can do it
you might hear synonyms like "regressions"
i hate my life i cant even make a graph in excel for some reason it just shows up completely wrong all the time
you CAN write it in matrix vector form tho
if you know the input and output values and you have good reason to believe the model is quatratic
then you can associate the inputs and outputs by making a matrix whose rows are M_n = [x_n^2 x_n 1] for each input x_n
and then each output y_n satisfies y_n = M_n [a, b, c]^T
you can stack several samples into a vector y, and build a matrix M that corresponds to it
then you can find the parameters a, b, c with your favorite way of solving $\text{arg}\min_v \Vert y - Mv \Vert_2^2, ,, v = [a,b,c]^{\text{T}}$
Edd
Can someone please explain how the hell my teacher just turned that into that ?
2x2 inverse
All I know is something about 1/detA but I didnโt really understand that
$A=\begin{bmatrix}a&b\c&d\end{bmatrix}\implies A^{-1}=\frac{1}{\abs{A}}\begin{bmatrix}d&-b\-c&a\end{bmatrix}$
Mosh
what didn't you understand about it?
Yeah
She didnโt explain what determinant is. She only used it in this example for 2x2 matrix and didnโt show what she did. Determinants is the next chapter. But I see it now.
for now, you can think of it somewhat like the... "size" of a matrix. when you divide by a number, you can also represent it as multiplying by that number's reciprocal, or "multiplicative inverse"
when you take a matrix inverse, you are finding the matrix's multiplicative inverse as well, and so something like the "reciprocal of its size" shows up
if in a linear transformation we are getting the coordinates where the basis vectors for our n dimensional vector space land on the coordinates of the vector space which are described by the matrix. then what does it mean if one of the coordinate's of any basis vector is complex? how is 1 dimension enough to plot the complex number? what would the vector look like ? and how can i understand the transformation geometrically?
TLdr: what is the geometric interpretation of doing linear transformations using complex numbers?
i dunno how far geometric intuition is gonna take you on that one
at least for a 3 dimensional space their should be some geometric idea about it
at this point i'd rather think of vectors and matrices more abstractly, based on their definition
because just taking 1 complex number as an input and another as an output requires 4 dimensions to "visualize"
even taking eigen vectors whose span don't change and it makes it easier to describe transformations as based on the axis (eigenvalue) and the amount of rotation
how do you define the span of 2 vectors with complex numbers as it's coordinate ?
same as always
all linear combinations of the vectors
same way you do it when the vectors are functions, or anything else
regarding your original question, the best you could do (imo) is take the real and imaginary parts of the vectors and stack them into a vector twice as long
and make the matrices 4x larger
so basically linear algebra defined in a vector space of more than 3 dimensions is studied only mathematically and not geometrically?
will try that thanks
in this sense, C^1 is the only thing you could visualize, cuz vectors of 2 complex numbers already need 4D
sure, though i guess you meant visually
yep
cuz the stuff still has a geometric interpretation with angles and the like, just in a way that is difficult to visualize
i saw 3blue1brown's videos that's why i was interested if such an awesome model was there for even complex numbers
thanks @lavish jewel
Okay where did I go wrong ?
I was supposed to get this right ?
the determinant isnt 4x
you do the inverse first then multiply the 2 through.
$\abs{A}=(2x)(3)-(x)(5)=x$
Mosh
Got it. Thanks.
Imo matrices are simply a bookkeeping device for keeping the track of the linear transformations
"just" is a bit dismissive but yeah
thats fundamentally what they are
this is very useful though
Matrices are for alpha males
Quick question; So I'm currently trying to show (to prove another statement) that $B = \frac{1}{q} \sum_{k = 0}^{q-1}{A^k}$ is a projector. Knowing that $A^q - I_n = 0$ with A being a matrix in Mn(R).
Der Gegenstand ist einfach.
The thing is, I don't know for sure if q is the order of A
so I can't justify that the application that for all A^j in <A> gives A^k A^j is an isomorphism
Is it still possible to show that B is a projector in this way ? Can B, under these conditions, not be the matrix of a projector ?
$$ dim(Ker(A โ I_n)) = \sum_{k = 1}^{q} {Tr(A^k)} $$ is the statement that I'm trying to show is true
Der Gegenstand ist einfach.
So the idea I had was : 1 - Using the lemma of decomposition of kernels in R^n, I show that Rank(B) = dim(Ker(A - I_n))
And if B is a projector, then it is similar to a J_r = diag(1,...1,0,..0) , thus dim(Ker(A-In)) = Rank(B) = Tr(B) = the right hand side
... if I set p = o(A), then p divides q, then the second sum becomes q/p times the sum from 1 to p ...
and I can then easily apply the isomorphism to simplify the sum..
(I think)
Yeah.. that ended up being it : )
If I have two 2x2 matrices, say (2,2,2,2) and (2,3,3,3), and I want to show their linearly independent. I should show the only solution to a(2,2,2,2) + b(2,3,3,3) = (0,0,0,0) is when a = b = 0 right?
So i get 4 equations, put them into a matrix, and show it gets to an upper triangular matrix equalling 0
But what happens if the two matrices are not linearly independent, and I try the same thing?
non-null solutions?
specifically, for the two matrices
say : A and B
you'll find lambda such that A = lambda B
You don't really need to put them back into matrices to find a and b, you can just solve it by hand !
right lol
for the two matrices that you showed us, we find that : 2a + 2b = 0 and 2a + 3b = 0
if we substract the first equation from the second one, we find that 2a + 2b -(2a + 3b) = 0
i.e. : -b = 0, thus b = 0
and since 2a + 2b = 0, it follows that a = 0 also
So if we get 2 equations like 2a+2b = 0 and 4a + 4b = 0. We'd get (4a+4b) - 2(2a+2b) = 0, then this just becomes 0 = 0. Hence, infinitely many solutions, which suggests theres infinitely many u and v, such that u(2a+2b) + v(4a+4b) = 0. Hence linearly dependent.
the two equations :
2a + 2b = 0 and 4a + 4b = 0 are one and the same !
you get the second one by multiplying the first by 2
so in fact, there is only a single equation
And, as a general rule, if you have less equations than unknowns (equations that "are not similar"), then there is a non-zero solution
for the equation we end up with : a + b = 0, if we fix a value for b
then by choosing a = -b, we get a non-zero solution
(a = 1,b = -1) ...etc
Perhaps I'm being unclear and confusing :"
Is that the full statement you want to prove or are there some other assumptions? What is q here?
just an integer
I've already solved it ^^ thanks for your time though !
Nono, it's making sense.
Oh, ok then.
Btw
If it is not that much of a deal
Could you post the whole question?
Maybe I will try to do it by myself.
np dude ^^
give me a sec
Let A be an endomorphism of $$\mathbb{R}^n$$ such that : $$ A^q - I_n = 0 $$ q being a positive integer. Show that : $$ dim(Ker(A โ In)) = \frac{1}{q} \sum_{k = 1}^{q} { Tr(A^k) } $$
Der Gegenstand ist einfach.
(It was originally posed in french..)
What makes the equations "not similar"?
them being lineary dependant., just like with matrices.
actually exactly like matrices !
Are you familiar with the fact that matrices represent systems of equations ?
As in taking coefficients of the system of equations to be the enteries in the matrix?
yep
I just suggested that solving such a system by hand is easier than putting it back into a matrix
especially with systems of two or three unknowns. It'd be quicker to solve it by hand, manually, than putting it back into a matrix and solving it using them
yo the topic is simple long time no see
ikr
haven't had the time recently
cuz trying to catch up on maff and physics.. but today is sunday so : ) kinda chill
what did u try?
okok understood.
.
maybe some induction might work?
thanks
?
lol
np
what u doing here anyways @wintry steppe
u supposed to be hanging out in abstract algebra
:" )
yeh
oh ok thank you now I dont have to read all these paragraphs
wot
so I'm probs gonna hangout more often here or smth
on the side yeh
but in class it's technically a week and a half
that we spent with our prof on it
what did u cover in just a week and a half
you got ur answer : )
- Basic group definitions and theorems : def of group, sub groups, normal subgroups, cyclic groups, generation of groups, Lagrange theorem, Poincarrรฉ theorem, index formula, simple groups, classification of finite abelian groups, group actions, cyclotomic polynomials, cyclicity of Z/nZ* , Carmichael numbers, Asymptotics behavior of prime numbers, Arithmetic functions
- Rings, Polynomials of multiple indeterminants
can be in french
here, to not keep u waiting :"..
idk myself my dude.. wait, I have here the exact number of online zoom classes we had :
so whole week and a half was just this class then?
It was this and physics
but starting from next week we might have engineering and CS too
Hmm okay maybe I can see how prof goes through all of this in like 8 lectures 1.5h long
but I dont see how (at least me) one can understand it in that much time
well, we've been working towards this since first year..
idk feels like you have to study 6 horus a day besides attending
(we usually study more though ...)
what
I dont remember the last time I actually spent like 6 hours on learninng pure math
my brain is kinda fried after 3
ik.. but we kinda don't have a choice

yeh.. that's why I usually just alternate between subjects
I'd do 3 math, 3 phys, 3 math for ex
it actually works out well
9 hours not possible
Dude.. we have this guy in class who hasn't shaved in a year
yes you do\
we just want this to be over
id go through 73 mental breakdownns
yeah...
I feel you
im now kidna hyped for myy semester starting
but the hype ends after 2 weeks usually 
I think we have until month 4 of next year
we'll have written exams for like a month ..
Start by plugging in A^T
i dont understand this solution or what the question is askin
obviously asinx + bcosx is linearly dependent
You have to show that sine and cosine are independend vectors
you can show that they are orthagonal for example
how can span{sinx, cosx} be lin indep when they have a non trivial solution
they don't
which
but
the solution approach literally shows you can only get 0 if both coefficients are 0
Note it's for all x
Functions f and g called linearly independent if setting af(x) + bg(x) = 0 for all x means a = b = 0
oh
the same a and b have to work for every single x
you have to show that
but
A nice way to think about it is to forget about x in the definitionand just say af + bg = 0 (as functions!) implies a = b = 0,
so it's like anything else
1 * sinpi + pi/2*cospi = -pi/2
i think you're getting mixed up in the 0 part
the 0 given there is a 0 function
you get 0 for every single x
or this solution which is a bit more difficult to understand
what they then do is realize that sines and cosines both cross the x axis periodically, and at different values of x
this means for some values of x, either the sine or the cosine vanishes
and then if you still want the sum to be 0, the coefficient of the sine or cosine must be 0
i dont understand why taking the limit shows linearly independence
it'S not the limit
wait hmm can someone clarify what it means for two functions to be linearly independent again
integral*
potato gave you the definition just now
here
here, as a function of x
oh
what mxffin proposed is to show sin(x) is orthogonal to cos(x), which is also valid
it's Inner product space
if two functions are orthogonal it implies they do not lie on the same vector right
so it would be indepdent in R^2 space?
i guess im confused because for this definition
pi/2 * sin0 + 0* cos0 = 0
pi/2 can actually be anything
this is a nontrivial solution ๐ฆ
this is linear independence
but yes, orthogonality implies it
lemon, it isn't
because it doesn't work for ALL x
oh
change x to 0.1, for example
,w pi/2 * sin (0.1)
the a and b are the same for all x
oops
same a and b for ALL x
oooo
i get it now thank u
um sinc ur here can i ask another question
๐
i asked on piazzza and my professor was like its in the lecture notes i alrdy explained
but idont get it
shes so mean ;-;
anyways could someone please explain these two to me
well, the largest is all of V, so that's not it
well
(AโB)โง(BโA) means they are disjointed sets AโฉB=โ
W1 + W2 is a bit easier to see, I think. If any vector space contains both W1 and W2, then it contains the sum of any vectors in W1 and W2
It turns out that this rule alone is enough, and produces the smallest space that contains W1 and W2
๐
Any part of my explanation that isn't quite clicking? Maybe I can express that more clearly
what?
" If any vector space contains both W1 and W2, then it contains the sum of any vectors in W1 and W2 " ???
Sorry I think Mx decided to talk about โฉ and I decided to talk about +
oh lmfoa
I got you confused haha
oof
yeah
i dont get it
that's what vektor spaces are defined as
Know how Span() works? Basically, we're taking the span of everything in W1 and everything in W2
wait are utaking about + or intersection
Span() is following the least amount of rules that it has to, in order to make a vector space. So we get the smallest possible
if you look at the definition of โฉ you can see that it is the largest space contained by A and by B
๐ฆ
since it is all the xs in A and in B
are we talking about the intersections now?
well we solved A+B didn't we?
if you have two vektors, they span a vectorspace
this makes sense but
meaning that you can create any vector in that vectorspace by using those two vectors
for example the coordinate system is a vectorspace
yo
i think iget it now but let me summarize my understanding
W1 intersect W2 is the largest vector subspace of V that is contained in W1 and W2
This is because every value that is contained in both W1 and W2 HAS to be in the intersection
yes
W1 + W2 is the smallest vector subspace of V that contains W1 and W2 because
the definition of a span is closed under vector addition, scalar mult.
the addition is only part of the span
yes
my teacher is so mean
she couldnt just tell me thi
ss
๐
makes me feel so stupid rip
thanks for yalls help
You're fine, these aren't easy concepts to generalize and abstract
Np, feel free to ask if you have anything else
i shall, im planning on doing math all day. thanks so much yall helping me through this class ๐ฉ
the ยฌฯ should've been ฯ^(-1)
yeah
Ok, so did you try my advice of putting in A^T? if we suppose A = (a_ij), then what did you get for det(A^T)?
haven't been using this one much since it is inefficient to me
$\sum_{\sigma \in S_n} \text{sgn}(\sigma) \prod_{i=1}^{n} a_{\sigma(i),i)}$ is what you should get
potato
yup, exactly
Now there's one snag here obviously - we want to 'swap' where we've written ฯ(i) and i
However, there's an important property of permutations
(linked to the hint)
we invert the sigma function?
Pretty much. In the sum, we can let j = ฯ(i) and then i = ฯ^-1(j), so it becomes
$\sum_{\sigma \in S_n} \text{sgn}(\sigma) \prod_{j=1}^{n} a_{j,\sigma^{-1}(j)}$
potato
Now let ฯ = ฯ^-1 and try to write everything in terms of ฯ
so i is identity
itself
Wdym?
just written down differently
Oh i mean yes, i've just written it in a different way, yes
you can think of this as essentially er
in the product, the terms will be $a_{\sigma(1),1)}, a_{\sigma(2),2)}$ etc, but we could instead put them in order by ฯ(i)
potato
so it'd become $a_{1,\sigma^{-1(1)}$ etc
potato
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Does that make sense?
so we substitute for i this and get a_(ฯ(ฯ^(-1) (j)),ฯ^(-1) (j))=a_j,ฯ^(-1) (j)
oof wait
Yeah sorta
just relabelling yes so it becomes this
So are you happy with this being the same as what we originally had for det(A^T)?
what is tau
I've defined ฯ = ฯ^-1
is it just the hint thingy
Yeah, essentially
a muchas gracias
So try to write everything in terms of tau in that sum/product etc
genau
is it like this
Not quite, I'd put it as ฯ^-1 in S_n
But... the important thing is
We're summing over ALL permutations ฯ
which means we're also summing over all possible ฯs
so you can just write it as the sum of ฯ in S_n
:)
ah right ๐
And now all that's left is the hint :)
since it's a group they are identical
Yeah, exactly
Thank you very much
np :)
spent 5 hours solving that
This is one of the fairly rare cases actually using the Leibniz formula is useful i think, lol
i think there is an easier solution
This is the standard proof I've always seen, but I reckon there's a way in terms of EROs
yeah so it's a common question?
I wouldn't say more of a question, it's more a standard proof you'd see in a linear algebra text
But I guess it was just given to you as a problem instead
studying for my 2nd exam that is in 3 days
this was a question from a homework i had to do this semester and the funny thing is that it was only worth 1 point more than getting the sign of these permutations
I reckon something along the lines of saying
-Det is multiplicative for elementary matrices (if E is elementary, det(EA) = det(E)det(A)= det(AE)
-if A is invertible, then we can write A as a product of elementary matrices and then taking the transpose of both sides won't affect the determinant, so A = A^T
-det(A) = 0 <=> A not invertible <=> A^T not invertible <=> det(A^T) = 0
Lol
$\begin{bmatrix} 9 & 0 & 0 \ 9 & 9 & 0 \ 9 & 9 & 9 \end{bmatrix} ~ \begin{bmatrix} 9 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 9 & 0 \ 0 & 9 & 9 \end{bmatrix}$
maximo
is this the case?
because if so the implication is that $\begin{bmatrix} 9 & 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 & 0 \ 9 & 9 & 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 \ 9 & 9 & 9 & 0 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} ~ \begin{bmatrix} 9 & 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 9 & 0 & -1 & 1 & 0 \ 0 & 9 & 9 & -1 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix}$
maximo
but also: $\begin{bmatrix} 9 & 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 & 0 \ 9 & 9 & 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 \ 9 & 9 & 9 & 0 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} ~ \begin{bmatrix} 9 & 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 & 0 \ 9 & 9 & 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 9 & 0 & -1 & 1 \end{bmatrix}$
maximo
i just realized the ~ are missing, but i'm doing row operations
ThreeLives
i just realized my mistake.
Can someone explain to me what exactly the determinant of a matrix is? Like I know how to calculate it but what is it?
Like yeah I can find the determinant if someone asks me but id like a bit more understanding about it
It represents how much it scales something
So if you took a 2x2 matrix and applied it to the unit square then it would increase the area of the unit square by a factor of the determinant
Or if you took a 3x3 matrix and applied it on another matrix then it would represent the change in volume
Can someone give me a start on this problem?
Im not sure how to begin
I think the easiest direction to start with is to suppose B is invertible.
Pick an arbitrary, non-zero vector x and then choose y (in terms of x) such that x^T By is non-zero; this shows ฮฒ is non-degenerate (since there's no x such that x^T By = 0 for all y)
The hard part is finding such a y
intuitively: B annoys you, but you know how to remove it: it's sufficient to yield something like B.B^{-1}
that could give a clue maybe.
to prove that B has an inverse, maybe prove its kernel is null
@granite wren
The problem is that the determinant isn't only one thing. One representation is scaled volume. If you make a parallelogram with n vectors, then apply T to those n vectors, you'll get a new parallelogram. det(T) is the ratio of those two parallelograms' volumes.
However, a geometric approach fails for a lot of vector spaces. I think the most useful way to see the determinant is a "multiplication shortcut". Multiplying two matricies is hard, but getting the determinant of their multiplication is much easier. That way, you can know things about a matrix product without actually carrying out a matrix product
One big goal of a linear algebra class is to find basis-independent properties of linear transformations. These are very valuable. The determinant is one of them.
This is what the solution says, dont understand where the red came from?
why it's not $(a_0+b_0)k + (a_1+b_1)kx +...$
42_Toxic_Potatos
nvm
if i have $A$ is a 2x4 matrix and $B$ is a 4x2, and the equality $AB = I_2$, does that imply that $A$ and $B$ are invertible since $(I_2)^{-1} = (AB)^{-1} = B^{-1}A^{-1}$
maximo
You just assumed B^-1 and A^-1 exist
inverses only exist for square matrices
(because B is the inverse of A if and only if AB = BA = I and for those equalities to make sense A and B must be square)
yeah that's what i got from the book, so the identity (AB)^-1 = B^-1 A^-1 is only true if A and B are both invertible?
yup
it would not make sense to write B^-1 if B wasn't invertible, for example
And that formula would not make sense altogether
alright thank you both
can anyone assist me with this
defn. of linear independence
I am still a bit confused
linear independence asks whether there is a solution to Ax = 0, other than the trivial solution where x = 0
there will be non-trivial solutions only if there are free variables
which of those statements would suggest there are free variables to the system?
i just realized the top says A has linearly independent columns
Does that change what you said above
it changes the answer
since we know, by definition, that Ax = 0 has only the trivial solution
let me think about it for a sec
well my understanding of the question is that A has linearly independent columns, which is to say, Ax = 0 only has the trivial solution
so simply by being linearly independent we can conclude that (E) the equation Ax = 0 never has nontrivial solutions
for a transformation to be one-to-one and onto it must have a square standard matrix right?
we got E
good to know

