you might as well. if $q(x) = x^TAx$ for any matrix $A$, and if the characteristic of the field is $\neq 2$, then $$x^T\left(\frac{A+A^T}{2}\right)x = \frac{1}{2}x^TAx + \frac{1}{2}x^TA^Tx = x^TAx,$$ and the matrix $(A+A^T)/2$ is symmetric, so you can always assume when working with things of the form $x \mapsto x^TAx$ that $A$ is symmetric
#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 228 of 1
MOTHMAN
sometimes the "symmetric" is baked right into the definition and you don't need to worry about this
Yeah I see thx a lot
Of course characteristic 2 comes up
take U = span(1,0,0) and V = span((1,0,0), (0,1,0))
then the direct sum of U and V is still well defined, but U intersect V is equal to U.
would this be an upper triangular matrix?
what would be the diagonal in a 3x4 matrix?
I know it doesn't make sense but I don't see why not according to this question
the diagonal is just the entries A_{ii}, this always makes sense
but then this is an upper triangular matrix
yeah it is according to the definition you just posted
looks like a trapezoid now instead of a triangle
ikr lol
Hey, If a complex matrix is skew symmetric, can I say that the matrix is also hermitian?
My textbook definition of hermitian matrix is A^H = A => A is hermitian matrix
unsure if A^H = -A also implies A is hermitian
No it is not Hermitian, but it is a Hermitian times i (Hermitian has real eigenvalues, Skew symmetric has imaginary eigenvalues)
sorry, confused with what you mean by hermitian times i,
So lets say A is matrix such that A^H = -A, then iA is hermitian?
yes
interesting, and I assume the sign does not matter here, that is it -iA is also hermitian
yup thx a lot
if A^H = -A we call A^H skew hermitian btw
Is the answer false?
Because it just has infinitely many solutions?
any x in its respective vector space is a least squares solution?
If A is the zero matrix, what is Ax going to look like?
0
So if b is not 0, can any x be a solution?
key word normal equations (least squares)
xD yeah i should have provided context mb
should be false, yeah
cause A*Ax will be the 0 vector for all x, and A*b will be the 0 vector as well
Uh... I have another question xD
The explanation for the answer to this problem makes sense
but
lest say col A spans a plane in r^3
maybe z=0
wait
nvm im stooopid
xD
I was thnking we oculd have a vector (x,y,1) that would be perp 😆 🤦♂️ '

let $\mbb{K}$ be commutative field and $E$ be a $\mbb{K}$-vector space.
let $k \ge 2$, $(Vi){1\le{i}\le{k}}$ is a finite family of $k$ subspaces of $E$ ( $V_i \not = {0}$ and $V_i \not= E$). if $E = V_1\cup{V_2}\cup{...}\cup{V_k}$ show that $\mbb{K}$ is a finite and $k \ge Card(\mbb{K}) + 1$.
cos/ ev
(aren't all fields commutative by definition?)
Emmm no but the commutative ones are useful
Just to say i'm not talking about theorem of Wedderburn
Because i generalize if the field is finite or not
Anyway it isn't our topic in the problem
@hard drum are you familiar with the field of quaternions?
why was this question posted by 2 people?
from the wikipedia article
but obviously this is a bit of topic lol
@hard drum people haven't same idea about quaternions
(the quaternions almost form a field. They have the basic operations of addition and multiplication, and these operations satisfy the associative laws, (p + q) + r = p + (q + r), (pq)r = p(qr). ... The only thing missing is the commutative law for the multiplication.) from google
yup
But it's more logical to say field and commutative field
Because the other rules still the same
But most of fields are commutative
isn't that going against the normal definition of a field? what's wrong with saying division algebra here?
Normal definition is different from countries
I Think
It's like convention
It's like bourbaki stuffs
ah okie sure, sorry for getting this off topic aha
No worries
Why does the transpose move from the t to X after taking a partial derivative?
I have a question that requires me to find the inequalities of a convex hull
given a set of points
can anyone help?
mind elaborating on what the question is ?
i posted the question in the picture
it should be all of them
i thought the rows only span 1xn
all of the n linearly independent rows of A
i do not see a question in the picture you posted
wouldn't the rows of A spanning R^n imply that rank(A)=n?
yea, that is true in this case, since A is invertible
OHhhhh
lol
wait im still confused about the rows spanning 1xn
@wintry steppe another idea
i used this
if A is invertible then dont we know A^T is invertible?
and if A^T is in vertible the col A^t span R^n a.k.a row A span R^n
yes
oh okay
oh bruh, does your class make a distinction between R^n as a vector space of column vectors versus a vector space of row vectors?
Sorta what i was thinkin' but maybe the problem is just weirdly worded
Uhh
well i mean they are isomorphic....
because why else would anybody write "span the set of all 1 x n row matrices"
yea but they're not the same tisk tisk
that is very annoying
lemme ask the prof
huh?
its part of a question
all of the other "requirements" of the linear transformation are satisfied
due to properties of inner product spaces
but i am not sure about the T(0) = 0
yes <0,v> = 0 for all v in V
note that 0 = 0 * 1
RIGhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhttttt
apply linearity in the first argument
does anyone know how to do my question
Waiitt whaaaa???
i expanded
and got
$0 \leq 2\langle u, v \rangle + 2\sqrt{\langle u, v \rangle}$
And if $\langle u, v \rangle$
Elonmosqito96
is negative we get a negative complex number?????
Elonmosqito96
this follows from cauchy shwarz
uhh
how does this apply here?
directly
lol jk, but there are proofs of this online
i kind of dont feel like retyping and explaining them
what do i search to find the proof?
triangle inequality
here is a link: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Triangle_inequality#Normed_vector_space
In mathematics, the triangle inequality states that for any triangle, the sum of the lengths of any two sides must be greater than or equal to the length of the remaining side. This statement permits the inclusion of degenerate triangles, but some authors, especially those writing about elementary geometry, will exclude this possibility, thus le...
go to the section about normed vector spaces
you should see a proof of it there
also another dumb question is <x, y> = 0 an inner product?
its an equation involving an inner product

i mean like
would it be possible to define an inner product of u and v to be 0
or would thta not meet one of the reqs?
this is a perfectly valid definition for an inner product
you are defining <x,y> to be 0
wait what about the
<u, u> = 0 if and only if u=0?
you mean <x, y> = 0 for all x, y
yea
if so, then yeah, thats an inner product
wouldt that not meet <u, u> = 0 if an only if u =0 tho?
uh
if you require that, then yeah, its not an inner product
1 sec
ah wait. i mispoke.
it is a perfectly valid bilinear form, but it does not define an inner product
so this would be false?
from being an inner product
except over the trivial vector space
*true
well thats a different question
?
i was thinking it could be false if <u,v> = 0 was a valid inner product
i think thats true
it clearly follows
but thtas the only way i can think of
precisely
gonna pull a theorem from my textbook
no
thats not necessary
x = x + 0
so <x, y> = <x, y> + <0, y>
but then <0, y> = 0
hence y = 0
this says, given an inner product <.,.>, given a fixed y, it has the property that <x,y> = 0 for all x
by definiteness
oh...
huh
ty
it is a different question than what this is asking
its asking is it true that y must be zero if <x,y> = 0 for all x?
i'd do <y,y> =0
why this? <y,y> = 0 suffices, since it implies y = 0
oh misunderstood
thats faster yes
and cleaner
man idk what im thinking
im gonna check out lmao
being an idiot
lol same im so tired
its too late for math...
for this question i tried finding the line through each two points but i think that's too much work
in the collaz conjecture
what does iterations mean
does it mean the times it takes to get to 1
please don't multipost.
I don't understand how a direct sum of upper triangular matrix and a symmetric matrix makes the set of all square matrices
every n by n matrix can be written uniquely as the sum of an upper triangular matrix and a symmetric matrix
take $A \in F^{n \times n}$ and let $A = S + U$ with $S$ symmetric and $U$ upper-triangular
Ann
...wait is it actually unique hold on
ah9
U is not just upper triangular but STRICTLY upper triangular
no
wait
i got myself confused
@radiant yarrow W1 is the subspace of all strictly lower-triangular matrices
not upper-triangular
in any case
the decomposition is as follows: ||take the contents of A on and above the diagonal and copy them into S. fill in the subdiagonal portion of S to make it symmetric. then S is the symmetric component of your S+L decomposition, and L is what remains, i.e. L = A - S. it should not be hard to see that it cannot be any other way||
sub diagonal meaning when i<j?
Ok, but don't we already have a lower triangular matrix for subdiagonal place
what do you mean
You said A is lower triangular matrix
no, i did not
Wait
i never said that
But wait
don't put words in my mouth
i really don't like having words put in my mouth and my statements misinterpreted so wildly
Ok
how am i expected to account for such misinterpretations when explaining things?
swing and a miss..
no, W1 is a subspace, not a matrix
you're confusing matrices with sets of matrices
But A belongs to W1
So A is a lower triangular matrix right?
My words
Not yours. Sorry
no, i said A was arbitrary
Oh
we're trying to decompose an arbitrary n by n matrix A into the sum of a symmetric matrix (which i'm calling S) and a lower-triangular matrix (which i'm calling L)
Okay A is an arbitrary matrix with S symmetric and U as upper triangular
no
Oh
the only reason i said anything about upper-triangular matrices before is because i was mislead by your misidentification of W1 as the subspace of all upper-triangular matrices,
instead of the subspace of all strictly lower-triangular matrices that it is
ok sorry
and apparently my utterly algorithmic description of the decomposition i have in mind is too complex to understand
which strikes me as a huge surprise
Am I missing something?
you're missing a lot of things
we wish to find S symmetric and L strictly-lower-triangular such that A = S + L.
do you understand that this is our sub-goal or not
yes
okay
now let's look at my description again
- take the contents of A on and above the diagonal and copy them into S
- fill in the subdiagonal portion of S to make it symmetric
- take L = A - S
holy shit
Can I just say it won't be a direct sum if a vector doesn't belong to either W1 or W2 because the vector space isn't closed in the sum of two subspaces?
combinations of all the x+y such that x belongs in W1 and y belongs in W2
W1 intersection W2 = {0}
ye ofc
so like try to show both impliactions
assume each v in V can be written uniquely as x1 + x2, so just need to show that w1 cap w2 ={0}
Oh
if you show this, then you have to assume w1 and w2 make direct sum of V, need to show the uniqueness, which also should be quite easy
Okay
let me know if ure stuck
={0}, not empty
yes acn u read
To show uniqueness you need to make a contradiction of one of the vectors not belonging to either subspaces right?
assume its not unique and find a contradiction.
assume there are x1+y1 = x2+y2 for x_i in W1, y_i in W2
then you have x1-x2 = y2 - y1
BUT left side is in W1 and right side is in W2 (because those are subspaces, so closed under addition)
but they are the same thing
and the only same thing in W1 and W2 is 0
therefore x1-x2=0 => x1=x2 and y2-y1=0 => y2=y1
That shows uniqueness
There ARE vectors not belonging to either subspace, but this a sum, not a union, so any vector will be of the form w1+w2 with wi in Wi.
Oh
Got it
thanks a lot @wintry steppe
Sorry for late reply
Uh
I am a little confused
with symmetric diagonalization
why are we allowed to orthagonalize the eigenvectors
and still treat them as such?
wdym 'still treat them as such'?
the important thing with symmetric matrices in this connection is that eigenvectors corresponding to different eigenvalues are orthogonal, and even if two eigenvectors correspond to the same eigenvalue, we can find an orthogonal basis for the corresponding eigenspace by Gram-Schmidt
i am a little confused about the eigenspace part
if we use gram-schmidt the orthagonal vectors will not be eigen vectors so whats the point of starting with eigenvectors in the first place?
We're creating an orthogonal basis of the eigenspace, so all vectors in that space are eigenvectors, in particular the elements of the basis
Righhhhhhhhhttttt
why are you unsure?
idk

well if you know A = PDP^T what happens when you invert both sides
do note that the inverse of P is P^T
PD^-1P^T
yeah
so it's a
in an orthogonal basis defined by Span{v1,v2,v3} for the column space of a matrix that is linearly independent, does the dot product between v1 · v2 · v3 = 0? or is this true only for the dot product of v1 · v2, v2 · v3, v1 · v3?
wait if v1 · v2 = 0, then its just 0 · v3
is the dot product even defined for a scalar and vector
v1 · v2 · v3 = 0
what would that even mean?
it is not
so youre right, v1 · v2 · v3 is nonsense
but yes, each of v1 · v2, v2 · v3, and v1 · v3 is 0
so in order to check my work all I have to show is that the dot product between two of the vectors are 0
right, between every pair of vectors
Okay thank you very much!
is this true?
i mean it can be a projection on to the identity matrix??
because proj is
u*u^t y
and y can just be identity matrix?
it can be written as PDP^-1 where P is diagonal, and a diagonal matrix can be written easily as a linear combination of matrices with zero everywhere except for a 1 on the diagonal
and then you develop the sum and it becomes a sum of orthogonal projections since P is orthogonal
have you discussed spectral decomposition in your class?
I'm a high school student and have a bit of confusion with respect to Euclidean space, so if you have a vector space together with an inner product then we get a euclidean space which is your basic geometric space used in calculus. But how can you construct such a geometric space if there is no order relation with respect to the inner product. Or am I understanding something wrong, any help would be really kind 🙂
Having an inner product isnt a necessary axiom of a vector space. Most vector spaces have a standard inner product defined for them, but it's not required for something to be a vector space. You may want to look into the 10 axioms of a vector space
alright then. you know that uu^T is a projection matrix. how does that relate to spectral decomposition?
ye i figured it out 🙂
is there an easier way to do this?
what came into my mind was making x = [x_1, x_2]
and parametize the boundry x_1^2+x_2^2 = 1 with a sin x, cos x
or use some sort of lagrangian multipliers which is super overkill
but is there a method thats obsurdely easier
as i am pretty sure thats not the intended method
It is related to definition of matrix norms. Calculating 2nd norm of M is enough.
wait what?
Largest singular value is the answer.
hmm.
.i havent learned singular value decomposition yet
the largest value is the highest eigenvalue of M i think
Yes since it is symmetric.
and positive definite.
^
i think it follows regardless if the quadratic form is positive def or not
but M needs to be sym
It needs to be pos def. For example, consider -M, it is still symmetric singular values doesnt change, but its eigenvalues are negative now.
my bad, i read sentence like it says "largest singular value is the ...", I was replying to that
it doesnt need to be pos def. if the two eigenvalues are 4 and -2 then the largest value is 4 and the smallest is -2.
for example
its just the eigenvalues
for example the matrix $\begin{bmatrix}0&1\1&0\end{bmatrix}$. the quadratic form is $$Q(\vec{x})=2xy$$
nix (@ me for the love of euler)
$$Q\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt2},-\frac{1}{\sqrt2}\right)=-1$$
$$Q\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt2},\frac{1}{\sqrt2}\right)=1$$
nix (@ me for the love of euler)
and -1 and 1 are the smallest and largest inputs possible for a unit vector
Yes, it is totally true. In the original question, it is not a problem to use matrix norms because matrix is already pos def.
Do the columns of an mxn matrix A with rank(A)=n span R^m?
rank(A) is always less than or equal to m and n
I mean if rank(A) = n then we've said the colspace is n dimensional
And it's a map to R^m, so the answer depends on whether m > n or m = n
Hey guys how do you do domain/range/function linear graphs?
General notation I saw, if V is a vector space what's End(V)?
End(V) is the set of linear maps V->V
Err hello can i ask if identity map is the same as zero translation??
do you mean zero transformation?
if so no the zero transformation takes a T(v) = 0 for all v in V
the identity map is f(x) = x for all x
Ah ok i see
which maybe was your example
if you meant zero transformation, then they are the same if and only if your vector space is the trivial vector space, i.e., the vector space containing only the zero vector
Alright understood thanks c^2 and obedience🙏 that was the answer i was looking for
wait
this is a stupid question but is
*what is min {-1,0.5,-0.5,1}
NEVERMIND IM BIG BRAIN DUMB

thats just sad on my part
Uhhh what does it mean for a matrix to be negative semidefinite??
my textbook says " Other terms, such as positive semidefinite matrix. are defined analogously"
Which is.... awfully discriptive
yes
does this imply that none of the eigenvalues are positive?
u tell me
yes...
yea
ok wtf... am i mising braincells or do i not know how to read this question
whats the question?
i guess it's trying to ask whether or not you can go from y^TDy to x^TAx by setting y = P^Tx
anyone willing to help me with eigenvectors
it would be very much appreciated
:)
it involves checking something for me
ok thanks ann
I got the negative sign for the j component of v_1 instead of the i component
can someone do this and tell me if they get the same?
I'm not sure where I went wrong
This is my working out:
@sudden ferry scalar multiples of eigenvectors are eigenvectors
your answer is -(their answer) so it’s fine
Does anyone have a good Linear Algebra problem that tests multiple different skills?
I need to use a problem for an essay
and I want to find a problem that has multiple components to it so I can break it up into different sections/body paragraphs
here’s one i typed sometime ago, see if it’s worth writing an essay on
Take $\bR^n$ as a $\bR$-vector space under usual adding and scaling. For this problem let’s write all vectors in $\bR^n$ as columns.\
\begin{itemize}
\item Let $\mbf x,\mbf y\in\bR^n$ be non-zero vectors. Show that $\mbf x^T\mbf y$ is the dot product $\mbf x\cdot\mbf y$ and that $\mbf{xy}^T$ is an $n$ by $n$ matrix.
\item Viewing $\mbf{xy}^T$ as the standard matrix of an operator on $\bR^n$, find its image and kernel, then find the dimensions of these spaces.
\item Let $\mbf x_1,\mbf x_2,\mbf y_1,\mbf y_2\in\bR^n$ where $\brc{\mbf x_1,\mbf x_2}$ and $\brc{\mbf y_1,\mbf y_2}$ are linearly independent. Viewing $\mbf x_1\mbf y_1^T+\mbf x_2\mbf y_2^T$ as the standard matrix of an operator on $\bR^n$, find its image and kernel, then find the dimensions of these spaces.
\end{itemize}
The Singing Sands of Shangdu
indeed
I appreciate this
But I would prefer ones with actual applications
because I feel like I have a better understanding of those
but yeah this is a good example it has 3 components to it
maybe I can find a way to combine previous ones I have done
something like this could be interesting
Maybe instead of arbitrary vectors/matrices I can use actual values
and do some sort of polynomial interpolation thing
idk
Is there a quadratic form Q on r^2 such that Q(x) = 1 is an eclipse
yeah
$\frac{(x-h)^2}{a^2} + \frac{(y-k)^2}{b^2} = 1$
Elonmosqito96
@hard drum ?
Its almost a quadratic form
well how about an ellipse about origin?
x^2/a^2+y^2/b^2=1
🤦♂️ I meant to ask "Is there a quadratic form Q on r^2 such that Q(x) is an eclipse and is indefinite
oh lol fair
this isnt linear algebra, try #prealg-and-algebra or an open questions-_ channel
oof 
How are Lagrange Multipliers related to Linear Algebra?
I don't understand equation 4.68, what is the significance?
(Topic: diagonal matrices)
this is very broad
I guess they are related because of determinants?
What I am thinking is horribly wrong
the lagrange multiplier theorem itself is a statement that, given certain conditions and under certain constraints, the derivative of a function is a linear combination of the derivative of the given constraints with your lagrange multipliers being coefficients
hmm
Oh right ok that kinda maeks sense
I haven't taken calc 3 yet, but from my understanding
a Lagrange Multiplier is factor multiplied to one side of an equation of the gradients of two multivariate functions, essentially matching up the arbitrary gradient vectors
does that work ?
but then I don't have the connection to Lin Alg
I will have to understand the linear combination part
oh wait yeah that is linear
take calc 3
Wronskian's time to shine?
Why doesn't (III) hold?
1 0
0 0
Does that only hold in integral domains and the ring of matrices is not one?
yeah M_n is generally not an integral domain
unless n = 1 and your matrices have entries in an integral domain im pretty sure the example i gave (appropriately generalized) shows that it's never an integral domain
note as well that matrices with P^2 = P are (by definition) projections, which can help give some intuition
Get outa here



If I have a set of vectors, I can find out if they're linearly independent by creating a matrix with them and seeing if the matrix reduces to the identity or not. If it doesn't, shouldn't the solution (interpreting the row vectors as equations) give me the coefficients that show that one is a linear combination of the others?
I dont automatically see anything wrong with that statement
yea. won’t necessarily be the identity tho
can someone check my proof pls
essentially what needs to be shown is that there exists a vector in V that maps to either w1 or 0, since you could just form a basis from that vector?
so let that be v1
dim V = m
so dim range T =< m
now, if w1 is not in range T, then by the condition Tv1 = 0
and that fulfils all the criteria easily?
if w1 is in range T, there exists v1 such that Tv1 = w1
and then just extend that to a basis??
have i done something wrong? it feels wrong
i am very tired
<@&286206848099549185>
I think this is a “simple” question don’t over think it
Honestly I’m not sure if the second part is enough
Why does that show that there is a 1 in 1,1 and 0 everywhere else
uhhhh
ok i think that's what i was missing then ig
i didn't say anything about v2, ..., vm, but ofc i should have
kdsjf
I don’t think you need to mention v2…vm
Because we are extending w1 to a basis right like you said is def correct
ok what if
we find a space U such that range T is the direct sum of U and the space generated by w1 alone
then...
ok no first what are we actually doing i'm confused, lemme think
start over
I think what you had at first is basically right
I was trying to think if we could make it cleaner but that seems close
i've flipped my position, i think it's insufficient, it doesn't show that there's a 0 everywhere else
i'll think about it some more on my own
Yea but I think you were close
Isn’t this problem just the equivalent of subtracting the first column of the matrix times some appropriate scalar from all the other columns, and then scaling the first row appropriately? I think if you phrase this in terms of basis vectors it gets a little messy but should still be doable. Since your soln doesn’t talk about any of the other basis vectors, I feel like it can’t be correct. Atleast I don’t see why the first row has 0 in all other places
oh, yeah, i think i figured this one out but didn't post it here
essentially if we start with some random basis where Tv1 = w1, then if there's some wi that doesn't work, so wi (where i > 1) = a1Tv1 + ... + amTvm, we can just adjust the original basis?
so for example we could let vm* = vm + (a1/am)v1
and then replace vm with vm* in the original basis
and cancel out the issue
except we wouldn't want to be replacing vm, we'd want to be replacing vi, whoops
so for each wi that doesn't work, we adjust vi to vi* to fit, and it should still be a basis
This seems a bit backwards, you should see how Tvi is expressed in terms of wi’s not how a wi is expressed in terms of Tvi’s. Indeed it could be outside of the range
My point was, start with some random basis {vi}
Then look at Tvi’s, if none have w1 in the expansion, we are done
If one of them does, wlog Tv1=a1w1+smth
Scale v1 by 1/a1 to get Tv1=w1
+smth
well i was just ignoring the fact that it had to be 1 because it's so trivial to scale it
but ok
Then if w1 appears in the expansion of Tvi=aw1+smth, replace vi with vi-av1
Now these new vi’s will be the exact basis we need
that's basically what i was describing?
Why does wi have that expansion? I think I may have missed something you said
well that's what the matrix actually describes, right?
Shouldn't (5,-1,1) be a solution to this? Let z = t, then x = 5t, and y = -t?
wi = ai,1*v1 + ... ai,m*vm, that's what the matrix is, right?
M * v = w
thinking about wi as a summation of vi is the forwards direction of the matrix multiplication
surely?
Why is Mv=w?
I think maybe we are using different matrix conventions or something
possibly
or maybe i've just fundamentally misunderstood them
that would be funny
Ok so my understanding is that the colums of the matrix M, say the first column, is the coefficients appearing in expansion of Tv1 under the {wi} basis
ok
yeah, it's on my end
i've just gotten it all the exact wrong way round, lmao
well that's shit
I see, yeah we all have brainfart moments
i guess i've been working with M^-1 the whole time? essentially?? idek
it seemed to work out, lol
The problem is that M may not be invertible, but if it is something like what you say would probably work
yeah
ok i just need to start over again and approach it with the correct convention
this is pretty clearly a valid approach, i think, so at least i know where i'm going now
ty for the patience lol
Np
it is a solution to Ax=0 where A is that matrix
how do I find the determinant of this using the properties of determinants and how can you get just a number out of this???
pls ping if you have any insight
@fleet orbit first thing i'd do here is subtract col 3 from col 1 to zero out some entries
also i think you may need to know the determinant of [a b c d; e f g h; i j k l; m n o p]
but the first col is clearly almost a copy of the third
>> det([3 2 1 0 0;b a b c d; f e f g h; j i j k l; n m n o p])
ans =
2*a*f*k*p - 2*a*f*l*o - 2*a*g*j*p + 2*a*g*l*n + 2*a*h*j*o - 2*a*h*k*n - 2*b*e*k*p + 2*b*e*l*o + 2*b*g*i*p - 2*b*g*l*m - 2*b*h*i*o + 2*b*h*k*m + 2*c*e*j*p - 2*c*e*l*n - 2*c*f*i*p + 2*c*f*l*m + 2*c*h*i*n - 2*c*h*j*m - 2*d*e*j*o + 2*d*e*k*n + 2*d*f*i*o - 2*d*f*k*m - 2*d*g*i*n + 2*d*g*j*m
Not helpful
nope
i think by laplace expansion, you really don’t care about expanding on the second and last two entries in the first row, since they will be zero
I think doing expansion for anything over a 3x3 matrix is torture. I think bringing it to upper triangular form might be better
no but a bunch of stuff cancels here
focus on what happens when u expand on the first and third entries in the first row
you would just need to know the determinant of [a b c d; e f g h; i j k l; m n o p] like ann said
det(G) = 2det [a b c d; e f g h; i j k l; m n o p]
first thing i'd do here is subtract col 3 from col 1 to zero out some entries
yeah
i think lytei is withholding some info from us
spill the beans @fleet orbit 
😂
?
this is the same as I posted.
i just meant like “nope, nope, nope, not taking the time to read and understand that”
Yikes multiple 4×4 determinants.
Hello I was wondering if someone could tell me if this is true. If I have a finite dim vector space V and define K = V \directsum V' (V' is the dual of V). Then take the dual of K as K' = (V\directsum V')' . Would the dual of K just be V' \directsum V''?
yes this is true
amazing! tyvm
You need to find the amount of vectors that aren't 0 in Both W1 and W2
there are 20 0's in W2
and 25 in W1
X€(W1 intersection w2) if xi st i is divisible by 20
I don't realize what do you mean
W1 intersection w2 ={(x1,x2,.....,x100) : xi=0 if i is divisible by 20}
no
Why
W1 intersection w2 = {(x1,x2,.....,x100)} : xi = 0 if i is divisible by 4 OR by 5
at least by one of them
not by both
Intersection is logical AND
(x1,…,x100) is in W1 intersect W2 means that xi = 0 if i is divisible by 4 and i is divisible by 5.
so how many numbers are there of the form
1<= 4^k * 5^m <= 100 with m,k>= 1?
I know, another way to look at it is W1 intersection w2 ={(x1,x2,.....,x100) : for each i, xi not equals to 0 in W1 and in W2}
its the same thing tho
huh?
you need the vector to not be 0 in both the subspaces
3
I didn't get 40 60
@teal grotto what is answer that you get
because I think one of us is wrong
of the whole question
wait wtf am i stupid
20(k=1,m=1),100(k=1,m=4),80(k=2,m=1)
I will write here the vectors that are 0 in at elast one of the groups: {x4, x5, x8, x10, x12, x15, x16,....}
these vectors
AREN'T in the intersection
do you get that?
40 is divisible by both 4 and 5, so x40 should be zero. i set something up wrong
5×4 is enough?
this bottom part is wrong
don’t know why i said 4^k 5^m
it should be the number of integers k between 1 and 100 such that k mod 4 = 0 and k mod 5 = 0
my bad
its all wrong
you need the vector to be not 0 in BOTH groups
and then it goes into the intersection
what?
(x1,…,x100) is in W1 intersect W2 provided that xi = 0 whenever i is divisible by 4 AND i is divisible by 5
K=4,m=5
so do you say that the answer is 95? @teal grotto
because the only numbers are 20 40 60 80 100
these are divisivble by 4 and by 5
yes.
Numbers which are divisible by 5 & 4 are the numbers which are divisible by 20
yes. that should be right based on this
its not tho
nani?
the correct answer is 60
Its right
like the dimension
through what line of reasoning
.
and thats happens when i is divisible by 4 OR by 5
there are 40 numbers like that
Not OR ITS AND
This is correct....
so what your telling me is that (1,1,1,0,1,0,…,0) is in both W1 and W2
we are using X's not numbers
what is 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0
x1 is in the base of the intersection
as well as x2 x3 x6 x7 x9
a vector
but x4 x5 x8 isnt
and now that i’m thinking about it, it should be in both lol
bad example hold on
there we go
this vector is not in the intersection of both W1 and W2 since the fifth coordinate is not 0
true
Yeah
Yeah
its AND HERE:
but in order to find how much i there are
you can do it anyway you want
And it has to be we are intersecting two sets and intersection means both the conditions has to be satisfied for the elements belonging to intersection
u got the wrong answer lol
what is the correct answer?
95
its not
95 make sense right ?
its not true tho
ur argument is not convincing me because of this
but according to u it would be in the intersection
no it wont
because i = 5 is divisible by 5
@sinful acorn what kind of OR are you considering here INCLUSIVE / EXCLUSIVE?
yes but because i = 4 is divisible by 4 and the fourth component is 0, then it would be in the intersection, according to u
inclusive
that is irrelevant here
no it wont
explain this
the vector that has 15 zeros, then 1 one and the rest is zeros
Then there might be elements in intersection such that they are only divisible by 5
And same goes with 4
true
and
if they are divisible by only 5
So its wrong
yes because it’s not in W1
they AREN'T in the intersection
We want it to be divisible by both 5 & 4 at the same time
no
we want them to be divisible by at least on of them
if a number is divisible by at least on
he isnt in the intersection
the correct bese is: {1 2 3 6 7 9 11 13 14 17 18 19 21 22 23 26 27 29 30 31 .........}
and I already took down more than 5 numbers
wait sanity check. the dimension of W1 intersect W2 has to be less than the dimensions of W1 and W2, so it’s gotta be less than 80 and 75
welp
i’m fundamentally misunderstanding something here
due to this...
Do you realize this?
no i’m not seeing it just yet. i’m having trouble seeing where i went wrong
yes
and similarly for the next 20, and the next 20, ie. 21, 22, 23, 26, 27, 29, 31, 33, 34, 37, 38, 39
5 20s
and that's 12 numbers, 12 basis vectors
12 * 5 = 60
where did 12 come from dude lol
len(1, 2, 3, 6, 7, 9, 11, 13, 14, 17, 18, 19) = 12
Yep
\begin{align*}
W_1\cap W_2&={(x_1,\dots,x_{100}):i\mod 4 = 0\Longrightarrow x_i = 0}\cap{(x_1,\dots,x_{100}): i\mod 5 = 0\Longrightarrow x_i=0}\&={(x_1,\dots,x_{100}):(i\mod 4 = 0\Longrightarrow x_i = 0)\wedge(i\mod 5 = 0\Longrightarrow x_i = 0)}
\end{align*}
is $(i\mod 4 = 0\Longrightarrow x_i = 0)\wedge(i\mod 5 = 0\Longrightarrow x_i = 0)$ is true whenever $i$ is divisible by either $4$ or $5$?
c squared
Okay a implies b is false only when a is true and b is false then we will not consider that i . But if a is false and b is false still implication is true we have to consider i
Okay got it
i think this is wrong from the first line
the full condition for the intersect is that whenever i mod 4 = 0 or i mod 5 = 0, xi = 0
that means that i mod 4 => 0 and i mod 5 => 0
afaict?
i messed up on the first line???
explain
the first line is correct
I think this is the explanation for OR like behaviour of AND in this case
what do you want me to explain about it, it seems simple to me
thats the definition
no offence
dude ik. im not getting it
.
it's not
bruh am i just dumb?
same?
no, it's me, sorry
stupid question, did you at any point edit an or symbol into an and symbol
no
no worries
ok this looks right then
Guys is this correct?
im struggling to see why the condition from the second line turns into the condition you say it does.
is (p-->r) and (q-->r) equivalent to (p v q) --> r?
i have no idea what you're talking about, it's incoherent
Okay wait
so it's basically what you said in the last part of the first line
except i've shortened it
so if i mod 4 = 0, xi = 0; and if i mod 5 = 0, xi = 0
therefore if i mod 4 = 0 or i mod 5 = 0, xi = 0
right?
f
np
We wanted intersection of
(a implies b1) AND (c implies b2)
i such that i is divisible by 5 and 4 . So someone will consider i which is divisible by both 5 and 4 if take such i ans turns out to be wrong and if we consider same
(a implies b1) OR (c implies b2) then answer turns out to be right so i wanted to prove that there is no or between those two statement that and in statement just acts similarly like or coz of implication that i mentioned above
they are trying to prove the above in the case where
p is i mod 4 = 0
q is i mod 5 = 0
r is x_i = 0
but @wintry steppe it’s true regardless of what p, q, and r actually are since
(p v q) —>r = ~(p v q) v r
= (~p ^ ~q) v r
= (~p v r) ^ (~q v r)
= (p—>r) ^ (q—>r)
Yeah it is. so thats why @sinful acorn was saying OR ig
yup. i just didn’t realize that until kaisheng pointed it out for me
no need to ping ariel either lol
I realised it after you mentioned that logical equation
How do you know whether to pre-multiply or post-multiply a matrix by a transformation. I know how to do the pre and post multiply but how do I determine which one will give me the transformation I expect such as a horizontal shift or a clockwise rotation?
what do you mean? you could either learn it or just try on a model problem?
when you think of matrices as representing linear functions, they are usually written as left-multiplication
to match up notationally:
$T(\vec{v}) = M\vec{v}$
Namington
that said, in theory you could find a matrix that does the same thing, but upon right-multiplication instead
that is to say: there's no general rule, and you just have to compute what it does to a vector to see if it has the desired effect
(or memorize specific forms)
if anyone can help with this, i'd be really thankful
the question is how to prove (2)
So, how to prove that A** = A?
But 5(1)-2=3, not -3?
From
Rule 4
If your question has not been answered for a minimum of 15 minutes, you may use the Helpers tag once. Please do not try to bump your question using this ping unnecessarily. Do not abuse this ping. Do not individually ping users with the Helpers tag without their express permission.
<@&286206848099549185>
you delete your ping and then ping again, still ignoring the 15 minute rule that i just posted
wtf
Sorry
What's the point of C here
It seems entirely useless to define C only to immediately unfold the definition
But the proof itself is fine
Oh ok so i can put sum(a+b) already
Sure
Thanks bro
recall properties of a hermitian form.
in particular, $\langle A^*v, u\rangle = \overline{\langle u, A^*v\rangle}$
Namington
can you complete the argument?
@wintry steppe
(sorry for late response, you mightve already figured it out)
.
Yes, I can complete it now, thanks a lot!
I'm an idiot. I was setting it equal to the third column.
Thanks for that
@dusky epoch @teal grotto @tranquil steeple my bad guys, im notorious for not reading the directions, it was like a 10 part question with different scenarios so I forgot they gave me det|a,b,c,d;...]=5, but otherwise I solved it after realizing this, I did a cofactor expansion along the 1st column
thanks though!
so if you do $QR$ decomposition, $A=QR$ then will $A^TA=R^TR$?
taxminion
yup
Yes because $A^T=R^TQ^T$ and $Q^T=Q^{-1}$ so $A^TA=R^TQ^TQR=R^TR$
Sven-Erik
neato
Suppose $N \in L(\mathbb{C}^n)$ is nilpotent and $c > 0$. Can we prove that $N$ is similar to $cN$ without using the Jordan decomposition?
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
Maybe by using Schur upper triangularization?
Hi everyone! Hoping I could get some confirmation on this
When we're dealing with homogeneous coordinates, is the reasoning behind adding the third coordinate just so that we can convert a 2D point into a 3D point? I understand that this makes transforming a bit easier, i'm just wanting some confirmation on this
I'm currently getting into Computer Vision and so theres some math concepts that I want to make sure I understand before I continue on
I'm not sure what you mean by this. Are you asking why three homogeneous coordinates is like 2 regular coordinates?
basically 🙂
One reason is that there are copies of 2D within the three homogeneous coordinate grid
So you can send (x,y) to [x:y:1]
what do you mean by copies?
I'm also trying to understand what the one represents
I've graphed it to give me a visual of both 2D and 3D but even though it's still not there for me
when it comes to understanding the relation of the 1 in the homogenous coordinate
If you look at the set of all [x:y:1] inside of 3 homogeneous coordinates, it looks exactly like the usual 2D plane
1 isn't super special here, you can replace it with any non-zero number
i thought having the 1 there was special since in order to convert back to a simple (x,y) values we the homogenous coordinates by whatever the 3rd value is
Well I mean
[x:y:2] is the same as [x/2 : y/2: 1] so it doesn't really matter since you can always scale to 1
I think im starting to understand now
so we have it set to 1 because no matter what values x and y are, if we see it 3-D line (1,1,1) top down from the z-axis we will essentially see the 2D representation of it
the 3rd 1 makes it to where we can go from 2D to 3D and vice versa without changing the characteristic of the line
When solving for eigenvalues and eigenvectors, What implications arise when the eigenvectors are not all linearly independent.
@wise basin Eigenvectors corresponding to distinct eigenvalues are always linearly independent. More generally, the same holds for generalized eigenvectors.
and even if you have multiple eigenvectors corresponding to a single value, we can always turn that into a linearly independent set anyway
What can you do when you the eigenvectors are not all independent and the eigenvalues are degenerate? The symmetric matrices are used all for their independence properties, but what can we do when they are not all independent?
I guess what I am asking is what can we say about a system when the eigenvectors are not all independent.
Have you heard of the jordan canonical form for a matrix? When you can’t find independent eigenvectors, you can still find independent “generalized eigenvectors”. That is pretty much the best you can do in case of an arbitrary matrix I suppose.
How do I approach this problem?
all I have in my notes is that {area of T(S)}=|detA| {area of S}, which isn't very helpful
What is the question?
Whether (A+B)(A-B)=A^2-B^2 is a valid matrix equation
And
(A+B)(A+B) = A^2 +2AB +B^2 is a valid matrix equation
All of that is correct @rugged echo
Thank you 💝
@teal grotto what book did you use to learn LA?
the book that my class followed loosely was Hoffman and Kunze
did you take two classes or one?
just one so far. it wasn't explicitly called a linear algebra class per se. there was a lot of linear algebra tho.
anyone able to help with this one?
nvm figured it out!
It’s a little unclear if they’re referring to the internal or external direct sum here: in the book the external direct sum was notated with squares instead of circles for the finite case, but the internal one was not defined as an operation on arbitrary vector spaces but as a means to recognize a space as a “direct sum” of some of its sub spaces
If S and T are sub spaces of V and we can write V as a direct product of both on the two orders then clearly it’s commutative (internal) but in the external sense they are not the same set wise though they have the same structure (I haven’t reached the notion of an isomorphism for vector spaces but I assume it’s similar as for groups:in this case the sums are isomorphic)
Then there’s also the fact that the book hints to the fact that external and internal direct products are in fact in a sense isomorphic
probably skip this exercise until you know of the relationship between external and internal direct sum (they are in fact just different points of view of the same thing) and the notion of isomorphism (the questions are to be understood up to isomorphism)
your assessment is correct though
Alright good to know, thanks
Not that it matters, but I feel like the hermitian in second picture for the h in the tilde{A}_j should be a transpose? Unless I missed something
nvm nvm ignore
I have a math question
Let X be a full rank matrix so that at least one pair of columns are highly correlated (say X1 and X2 are correlated)
Let A be the Grahm Matrix X'X. Can we relate the smallest eigenvalue of A to the correlation between X1 and X2?
is linear algebra algebra 2?
hm @tardy vault are you familiar with the SVD? The short answer to this should be yes because X^T X will always be positive semi definite so we can find the eigendecomposition of the matrix Q /lamda Q and the eigenvalues of the lamda(the trace) will be the total amount of variance in the matrix
No
Nope, linear algebra comes after algebra 2.
LinAl is a typically first year course in uni
It's about the same level as calculus as far as when it's taken.
Linear algebra is the study of vectors, matrices, vector spaces (including inner product spaces, the geometry of vectors, etc.), and linear transformations
as well as the pinned message will give further info
yes, linear algebra can be algebra 2, i.e., a course that comes after your basic course in group, ring, and field theory
module theory is just linear algebra but it smoked some weed beforehand

very far from it
given a vector space V over some field F, is it possible to create a non-zero linear functional in V* without choosing a basis for V?
i have tried for a while, but no ideas really come to mind.