#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 218 of 1
So it's slightly easier on you
right
Yes
Mhm okay.
In the first unit, I went ahead with the lectures and then solved suggested problems, Unit 2 however was a lot better since I read the sub topics first... After which watching the videos on 2x becomes fun rather than a task
@wintry steppe
I'm doing unit 2 rn
Almost done
Nice.
So I'm going to read the chapters of the book first and then refer to the lectures I think. Plus watch 1brown3's (I think that's his name) videos at the same time.
Thanks for the help.
Oh actually, what was your mathematical level going into it?
Well I knew almost nothing about linear algebra, but I had learnt about matrices and determinants, I had also studied 3-D geometry... I basically knew the fundamentals(but lightly). I was weak at math though since I did not practice it much.
if you want to know about my formal education
Then I just entered my undergrad course
I had studied science up until that time
The only Maths I have is high school Maths plus some BC Calculus. Do you think that'll be enough?
It is sometimes easier to learn rigorous proofs in a subject if you have already developed some familiarity with the subject through a more computational approach. You might want to supplement it with a book that is just dedicated to matrix algebra. I learned matrix algebra out of the book by Lay.
yes I do think that is enough if you are diligent with the coursework and the textbook
do the problems well, break your head over the concepts until you understand them and you're good to go
What are real life applications of solving systems of linear equations in large number of variables? One use I can think of is polynomial interpolation, which can be used to describe datapoints.
Kirchoff Laws?
@nocturne jewel Ah, thank you
in what way were u thinking
you know when you calculate a det and you try to make zeroes
you are allowed to do that by adding columns so you can use the laplace thing to get the determinant easier, along this way
row operations change the determinant, so as long as you keep track of the changes you can get det(A)
Linear operations on matrices don't change the rank of the matrix so they are always allowed if you are simply seeking the rank via diagonalization. This is easy to see if you understand the contents of a matrix as a system of vectors. Linear operations on vectors do not change their linear dependence/independence
All matrices are diagonalizable through elementary row operations.
column operations are a valid way of simplifying determinants yes. doing so is equivalent to multiplying the original matrix on the right by an elementary matrix.
multiplying a matrix by a column vector on the right is the same as taking a linear combination of the columns. so the columns of AB can be obtained by taking linear combinations of the columns of A
so col 1 of AB is Ab1, col2 is Ab2 etc.
if b1 is the first column of B
@hollow finch I also love ooler
So you're telling me that you can operate on the right without changing the determinant?
well yeah
det(AB)=det(A)det(B)
same as det(BA)=det(B)det(A)
you adjust the determinant the same doing it from the left and right
another way to look at it is that the transpose does not affect the determinant
and column operations are just row operations on the transpose
This is a little confusing to me.
I get that we cannot operate on the rows without changing the determinant, but we can operate on the columns without changing it.
I think of operating on the right as effecting cols and on the left as manipulating rows. Is that incorrect?
both row and col operations have an effect on the determinant
It depends which operations though
adding a scaled version of another row or col does not
but simply scaling or swapping multiplies by some factor (the scaling factor, or -1, respectively)
by the way, what are the name of each of those operations ? I don't know them in English
i think they all fall under "elementary XXX operation", with XXX as row or col
In French they're respectively called "transvection", "dilation" and "exchange"
i've looked at like 4 different pages, and none of them give any of those names
i had never heard them in this context, yeah
I never said it wouldnt change it. I said it would change it identically in the exact same way
Because column operations are still just row operations, just on the transpose which has the same determinant
it's better to think of row reducing to calculate a determinant as applying a linear transformation to make it easier to compute. specifically left multiplying by an elementary matrix. column operations are the same thing but it's right multiplication
In English we usually either describe the operation explicitly every time (doing what with which row(s)) or sometimes label them as the first/second/third type of row operation. i like the idea of giving them appropriate names like you describe better tbh.
@twilit relic actually looking back i didn't specify that. I thought when you said "without changing the determinant" you meant that you'd still keep track of how the operations change it like you do with row ops. my bad
Alright so I am still new to linear algebra
and i am having trouble with the "free variable" concept
Why do we still keep this equation in the system?
I mean 0=0 yes sure
We don't need to know that
We can just see that the solution can be any one of these points
Why do we put stuff in for z anyway ugh
It says "ignore the third equation; it offers no restriction on the variables"
Read the last sentence
Also, I understand that if there are 3 variables, then there need to be 3 equations to find a solution (a single point), but here there are just a wide range of solutions
Yeah I undersatnd that
But why are we allowed to do that ?
0z=0
So z can be anything?
But by that logic 0x=0, x can be anything? 0y=0, y can be anything?
I feel like I'm not making much sense, but I just don't get it
precisely that
Yes but what about x and y then?
I guess there are other equations for those variables
they'll depend on whatever z you decide to pick
I see kind of
Because I mean
for there to be a solution to 3 variables
there has to be 3 equations
3 planes on the xyz plane
so a point can be formed
The solution can't be a line
am I thinking correctly?
But having three equations of three variables doesn't mean one solution
if they're linearly independent, then yes
Take a line, and imagine three distinct planes passing through it. That's what happens when you have one free variable
If you have only one coordinate, how are you going to describe anything larger than a line ?
the plane called "x=2" is the set of all triples (x,y,z) satisfying x=2
yes
You only have one variable being constrained here
Right
That leaves you with two variables that can take on any value
That makes two free variables
aka a plane
yes yes
For a system of 3 equations
there has to be 3 planes intersecting
So for this
Once I solve this into echelon form
6 variables ?
because there are 5 total variables, but only 3 restictions
For a system of 5 vars. there has to be 5 planes or whatever these are
3 variables -> 2d plane
We don't have restrictions on 2 of them because it's small
so for 5 variables, you get 4d hyperplanes
x+y+z=0 defines a plane
Yes
x+y+z+w=0 defines a volume (3D) in 4D space
x+y+z+w+t=0 defines a 4D hyperplane in 5D space
Oh right
Im not going to worry about 4d intuitively yet XD
But I think I am getting the idea
My next concern is how do I decide which my 2 free variables are?
That's on you
Do I just isolate every variable I have interms of the other variables, and whichvere variables I can't isolate I will just make them free?
Ok got it
You can rearrange the equations to make any two variables your parameters anyway
Got it
Any way I rearrange them, I will preserve my solution still right? I'm not tinkering with the actual equations]
Usually the latest ones are chosen to be free variables, but that's up for choice
Yes
Actually no, you don't really choose your free variables
Ok got it
Otherwise that'd mean the x=5 and y=5 planes are the same
Which is... not quite true
I'm not there with you on the intuitiion yet, but let me play around with the graph
my bad on the interruption
np
When you intersect two planes, you can at least get a line
You can get another plane if the two are the same, but never a point
likewise for volumes, when you intersect them you at least have a plane
In general, we call hyperplanes spaces that are one dimension less than the whole space we're working in
A plane is a hyperplane in 3D space
That is something
A volume is a hyperplane in 4D space, and so on
I am not familiar with
can you guys go through when done with the problem
Yeah, but look, terminology is hard
Right
When you intersect a hyperplane with anything else, the dimension of the resulting space can at most have gone down by 1
and it doesn't change iff the hyperplane contained the other space
you mean at least?
it decreased by at most 1
I don't have enough mathematical maturity for this
You shouldn't waste your time on me lol
Nahh, we're almost there
go ahead if you want, i'll wrap this up
An equation with n variables defines a hyperplane in n-D space
e.g an equation with 3 variables defines a plane in 3D space
yup
so then, a system of k linear equations with n variables is really just the intersection of these k hyperplanes
in n-D space
And since it decreases by at most one each time, you are left with a space that's of dimension at least n-k
That's it, that's what free variables means
if n>k, n-k gives the number of free variables
It's the amount of coordinates you need to describe the resulting space
coordiantes?
A better way of phrasing it
Is the amount of equations needed to make a point at the intersection
a single point
not a line
not a volume
just one point
is a solution
and that's why we need free variables sometimes because there is just not enough information
and if there is no information, there are no restrictions
yeah, i guess ?
i like the notion of coordinates because people know what that means from physics
i haven't taken physics yet
the idea is just that if you want to describe the position of something in 3D space, you're going to need 3 different numbers
yes
that's just what i mean
if the resulting space is a volume, you need three numbers to describe every location within it
those are your free variables
hmm
I don't completely follow your last explanation, but I undersatnd this sufficiently now
Thanks for the help
this looks correct, the last part could use some better wording but the idea is there
the idea is just "good luck finding an even and an odd number which give the same result"
anyway the injectivity should be obvious
wait
on second thought
continue
oh yeah no my bad
you're shifting every even number to an odd number
and every odd number to an even number
and you're shifting everything by the same amount
there's never gonna be a collision in hell
so is it correct or nah ?
yeah
even this ?
yeah, standard methods here
aight thanks man
if V and W are both n-dimensional, and L : V -> W is linear, can we immediately conclude Im(L) = W from dim(Im(L)) = n?
i feel like there's a step or two missing
think so
suppose (b1...bn) basis for V. then (L(b1)...L(bn)) must be linearly independent else the dimension of image isn't n. then (L(b1)...L(bn)) is a basis for W, so Im(L)=W?
i think something like that
Ah yeah perfect
O7
you don't even need to pick a basis, just appeal to the result that if a subspace has the same dimension as the larger space then they're equal
is there a "standard canonical" name for the transformation that sends linear maps to their matrix representation?
given $dim(V) = n; ~ dim(W) = m\text{, and a field }\mathbb{F}$
what is the name for :
$$? : \mathcal{L}(V,W) \to \mathcal{M}_{m\times n}(\mathbb{F}) $$
a rainbow powered ninny
hmm, arent they exactly the same thing
they are isomorphic....so yes.
matrix representation with respect to a base of V and a base of W
idk
you can't get much more than that without forgetting that it depends on choices of bases
there's no name that is common to use? there's no greek letter that is preferred for this?
no
what do you use?
when i studied linear algebra i liked the following notation
TTerra
wait you asked for name and i gave you notation
lol
idk i just call it by that. it doesn't come up often enough outside of LA to deserve a shortened name
that's fine.....it's kinda what i was looking for anyway.
Maybe,The "canonical" isomorphism
i've seen $\varphi$
a rainbow powered ninny
it's a bit of a disappointing answer but "there isn't really one" is all i can think of
i'm hesitant to call it canonical because it depends so heavily on choices
there definitely isn't a standardized notation for this, let alone a standardized "shortname"
i only use the word "canonical" to mean "well regarded as a standard in literature" how like all functions are "f, g, h" linear transformations are "T", etc.
how do you do that $[\cdot] ^{a}{B}$ ?
a rainbow powered ninny
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
[\cdot]_\alpha^\beta
[.]^a_b
$[\cdot]_{a}^{b}$
a rainbow powered ninny
okay, nice
$[\cdot]^a_B$
tyvm
Lunasong the Supergay
odd
'm looking for details on the following type of generalization of the Legendre symbol:
The function gets a number a and a prime p, and checks whether a^ 1/ 3 exists.
More generally, if exists, whether a^ 1/ q exist for a prime q that divides p-1
Is there an example of a linear transformation in V where null T + range T does not equal V (and V is finite-dimensional)?
im assuming you mean a linear operator T: V->V right?
Mhm that is correct
$T:\bR^2\to\bR^2$
$T(v)=\begin{bmatrix}1&-1\1&-1\end{bmatrix}v$
nix (@ me for the love of euler)
its a rank 1 nilpotent matrix. you can prove that this implies that col(A)=null(A)
since A^2=0
i just chose one where col(A)={(1,1)} since its my favorite vector in R2
i see, i haven't gotten to the explanation of nilpotent operators yet in my book (comes later). but i'll take a look.
thanks again
just reading about it now, did you mean rank 2 here? or does rank mean something different than index?
rank is the number of linearly independent columns and index is the smallest power k such that A^k=0
rank can also be thought of as the dimension of the column space
ah gotcha, that makes sense
for homogenous coordinates, why do we set w to the inverse of the scalar of the length rather than just the scalar of the length
is it literally that much easier to use zero instead of some sort of representation for infinity? so much so that it's worth dividing by w every time instead of multiplying? or is there some other reason?
It's been 45min since the last question, so I'm going to assume that no one can help that person for now. Pardon me if I'm intruding.
I'm trying to answer this question, and I believe I'm on the right track but I'm not sure how to explain an intermediate step.
I'm trying to show that the matrices will have the same number of linearly independent columns, since this number corresponds to the ranks of the transformation matrices.
But once I expand $[T]^{\gamma}{\beta}$ as $[[T(v_1)]{\gamma}, [T(v_2)]_{\gamma}, . . .]$, I'm not sure how to show that each term in the second matrix is linearly independent.
Chris24
Or, more accurately, that the set of transformed basis vectors is linearly independent
Is there a way I can show that to be true? My intuition says that it would really depend on the transformation.
What is $[T]^{\gamma}_{\beta}$ ?
modus ponens
matrix representation of T wrt bases gamma nad beta
Yes, just as @wintry sphinx said.
I mean the cheaty way is to write one matrix in terms of another with change-of-basis matrices and then appeal to the invertibility of those change-of-basis matrices
So because the change-of-basis matrices are invertible, they will have dimension n, since they will be n x n matrices?
simple question: if you have two subspaces U, W of a vector space V, how is it the case for u in U, w in W, that u+w in U+W? in proofs i see this conclusion made in a similar argument but not justified. what is the underlying logic?
by the definition of U + W
it's literally just all elements of the form u + w for u in U and w in W
ah, i see. so U+W is all the set of elements of u in U added to w in W so it's true by definition that for u in U, w in W that u+w is in the set U+W?
yes
okay awesome, i see it now. thanks
Is there any guarantee that a linear operator will map a basis to a basis?
I'm still working on my proof from before but I believe I'm very close to a good answer.
I tried what @wintry sphinx suggested beforehand but was unable to make sense of it.
No, Consider T:R^2->R^2
T(v)=(0,0) for all v
Rats.
I'm typing up my proof at the moment so I will be able to more clearly communicate my issues.
I'm actually curious regarding a problem I had a long time ago but never really found out how to do.
If I wanted to do a rotation around a custom axis, how would one go about it.
if its injective it will
Unfortunately I have no guarantee that this transformation is injective
rats
cats
bats
What I'm trying to show is that all of the rows of both transformation matrices are linearly independent, so since theyre mapping from an n-dimensional basis to another n-dimensional basis, they will have n linearly independent columns and therefore both have rank n.
But, as is so unpleasantly natural in proofs, there's a problem: I'm not sure how to show that T(v_n) wrt gamma is linearly independent
T being a linear operator, if it was not clear
Sorry, I'm trying to show that all of the $\textbf{columns}$ of both matrices are linearly independent.
Chris24
you can use stars around your text **like this** to make text bold without using the texit bot
Well said
only one star makes it italicized *like this* and you can strikeout text ~~like this~~
Rats Awesome!
okay, anyway
Oh wait
I think I can get what I need from the definition of linear independence.
Nevermind. @native rampart example also disproves that.
Rats.
i was going to suggest trying to show that the images are isomorphic
I thought of that earlier but I couldnt construct an isomorphism, at least I dont think
I thought $\phi : L(V) \mapsto M_{mxn}(F)$ would be a good idea.
Chris24
Since that is an isomorphism, and isomorphisms map sets of linearly independent vectors to linearly independent vectors, I'd have my result.
But I don't think that says what I think it's saying.
doesn't that say that L(V) can be represented with a matrix of elements from F?
yes
nothing about the rank of M
dimension is an invariant though
so if you already know it for L(V), you could use that
I don't know what an invariant is.
I mean, I know what the word means, but we haven't gone over that in class I don't believe so it'd be awkward for me to use it in my homework.
aight
At this point, I feel like I've committed too hard to a solution which might not be correct.
Because I'm not so sure I can guarantee that the transformations are linearly independent.
what's this theorem 3.3 they say you cannot use
i'd just use a crapton of "change of basis" transformations
That $rank([T]^{\gamma}_{\beta}) = rank(T)$ where T is a linear transformation and $\beta$ and $\gamma$ are ordered bases.
Chris24
Obviously, this would trivialize the proof.
you could change basis to the canonical one and then to the desired one
canonical?
e_i
I think that's what I'm supposed to be doing since the L_A maps between F^n and F^m
But I don't see how that's useful beyond guaranteeing that the range of both left-multiplications is the span of the columns
change of basis operations are full rank, so they don't change the rank of the original transformation
assuming you've already shown that
Someone earlier suggested the same thing and I tried to do so but I hit a roadblock.
I just don't understand how the argument would go.
But I will try again.
have you seen this
yea. seen that a while ago.
Cupping therapy in general or this delicately balanced gentleman in particular
the dapper gentleman in the cups
what I meant is that you can write $[T]{a,b} = A[T]{c, d} B$, where A and B are suitably chosen change-of-basis matrices; these are invertible and therefore preserve rank
Saccharine
In particular, assuming that [T]_{a,b} denotes the matrix repr of T where a is the basis of the input space and b is the basis of the output space, you have A = change of basis matrix from d to b and B = change of basis matrix from a to c
coycoy
Hi, I'm so confused
I have eigenvectors matrix and eigenvalue matrix but the result is not normal. why??? 😩
wdym it's not normal?
Hi
Well
This question is general
What is algebra and its branches and in which order should I study them?
Linear algebra, abstract algebra, modern algebra, commutative algebra and I think there's more
Lol, matrices, I studied them at hs
btw, eigenvectors, eigenvalues, where do you study that?
what is the difference between abstract algebra and modern algebra?
Linear Algebra is kind of separate from the rest, but is usually studied first. AA and MA I think of as the same thing. And CA is a part of AA, but usually AA refers to the introductory part and then CA is a continuation of that.
Usually, linear algebra.
Okay
I don't know, I was searching and I found those branches
Are they the same?
Okay. And do you have more branches there?
Sure, but there isn't a clear tree for which order you should study things in after that.
I've read that Linear Algebra Done Right by Sheldon Axler is one of the best lineal algebra books you can read
Is that possible to have more than one solution for 2x2 matrix linear differential equation involving complex eigenvalues and repeated eigenvalues?
The only LinAl book I've read is David Poole's Modern Introduction cause that was the course textbook 
hello im trying to understand how to check if a specific matrix is in the span of other matrices
i have those 3 and im trying to see if the bottom M_1 is in the span of the other 3
i found a video that explained it slightly, i put the vectors side by side and did guassian elimination
im just trying to understand if this is what im supposed to do?
yeah that sounds good
i didnt understand how to finish the guassian eilimination
i was using something like this in order to understand how to do the guassian elimination
i dont understand when to solve for x 1 x2 x3 though
not sure what you mean by that last comment
idea of gaussian elimination is you try to make the first column have all 0s below the first entry
and then you repeat trying to put all 0s below the next entry
oh so i keep going until each leading 1
until you get it completely to row echelon form
yeah
then what do i do for the span because in the video it says to solve for x1 x2 and x3
I don't know what 'x1 x2 and x3' means still
i think im supposed to put them on the side so the third line would be like x3 = 21?
sorry
x1 is the values from the first vector
oh I see what you're saying
x2 is the second colum and x3 is the third column
they're the scalars
then you have to go back up and delete things upwards
you're saying things we already know..
Gauss Jordan
after this point in the guassian elimination i dont know how to proof the m is in the span of abc
cause 0 doesnt equal -3
ah kk thanks
Im also assuming the gauss jordan was done correctly
i believe so
i tried to recreate it myself
and didnt see any problem with it
the thing is the first columns are abc
and the 4th is m
yeah you get 4 equations, one for each entry of the 2x2
so even though i have 3 leading ones
there is still a problem because 0 != -3
would i only be able to solve it if everything at the bottom was 0?
if the bottom was a 0 row, then you'd have a subspace of solutions
Not in the picture above. 3 pivots and 3 columns (not counting the augmented column) means no free variables
In that case a row of zeros just means the system is consistent
how do i prove that if A is a 2x2 matrix with a trace of zero, then A^2 is a scalar matrix? it works if i just square [a b; c -a] but its messy and there must be a better way
So consider two cases:
A has distinct eigenvalues a and -a.
A has an eigenvalue of 0 with algebraic multiplicity 2.
In the first case, A² has an eigenvalue of a² with geometric multiplicity 2.
In the second case, A² is 0.
Cayley Hamilton makes it pretty simple, as long as you are familiar with the fact that the linear term of the characteristic polynomial of a 2x2 matrix is -tr(A)
meguuuuu
How do I even begin to proving this?
I introduced basis for U, W and U + W
There is a theorem that says that $dim(V) = dim(W) + dim(W^{\bot})$
meguuuuu
unsure how to come to this
have you looked at the converse? i had a little time with it and it seems like one can show that the projection of x to U+W is as stated, by playing around with the inner product (while also using some reasoning) to show x minus (proj_U(x) + proj_W(x)) is orthogonal to U+W.
Yeah I have. This was what I had thought of. Suppose U is subset of orthogonal complement of W. Then define orthonormal basis A of U as {a_1, ..., a_k}. Define basis B of W as {b_1, ..., b_l}. Then basis C, of V should be {a_1, ..., a_k, b_1, ..., b_k}. And hence, projection onto V will use vectors from C = projection_{U + W}.
However, I realized later that the basis C I wrote may not be the orthonormal basis of V
so ya still stuck on converse as well rip
one point you might consider is that
C might not even be a basis when U is a proper subset of W^perp (youre missing some vectors from W^perp)
while it is not the approach i would initially use it might be possible to continue like this... maybe you can use gram schmidt on C, and then play around with it?
personally i think the introduction of orthogonal bases might not be necessary, and i would focus on the fact that proj_U(x) is the orthogonal projection of x in U, or that x - proj_U(x) is in the orthogonal complement of U. same for W and U+W.
Okay let me try that approach
although ill say that im still a student, like yourself, learning linear algebra at around this level, my advice might not be the best
im sure a veteran will chime in sometime
thx a lot for your reply though, I am working on that approach right now
let me see if I can figure it out
coycoy
coycoy
i have no idea the validity of that statement rn tho. i want to say that it is correct
just something that would make this go much quicker, since it would say that U and W intersect trivially.
this would actually just prove the entire biconditional if it’s true
Given that the dot product of the 0 vector and any other vector is 0, does that mean that the 0 vector is orthogonal/perpendicular to all vectors?
Depends whether your definition excludes 0 as a special case.
If it doesn't have a special case, then it is orthogonal
yes 0 is orthogonal to all vectors
Would this be correct?
yeah that looks right
yeah that all looks good
okay tyvm
Is that possible to have more than 2 eigenvectors for a 2x2 matrix?
No, my question was ignored and left unanswered yesterday
no
yes im sorry
cannot have more than two eigenvalues
depends on if you consider eigenvectors distinct if they're multiples of each other I guess
does anyone know how to go about this
i mean, then thats like "cant have more than two equivalence classes of e-vectors"
What about like [3, - 1] and [-3, 1] 1x2 matrix eigenvector? Are they the same
do $4I-A$. try and find the value of $h$ so that the kernel (or equivalently null space) of $4I-A$ is two dimensional
I suppose you're supposed to do it by inspection
coycoy
since it's clear that [1,0,0,0]^T is a an eigenvector with eigenvalue 4 and then you can look at the 3rd column vector and see what to do with your current eigenvector and pick h etc etc
same result
im a bit confused by what u mean here
i have my result from the subtraction
i think i got h = 8
can someone verify this?
yup to it being right or being able to verify 😛
try and find a different evector with eval of 4 other than something of the form (a,0,0,0)
no worries
thank u though! : )
do you mind giving more context if there is any?
@teal grotto what are you on aboot?
wdym? was asking a follow up question
What knowledge is it that you seek?
language was confusing. couldn't tell if they meant [3,-1] vs [-3,1] as a matrix or as an evector... was asking for clarity... from op. if you know what they are on aboot, then lmk
well, in either case it helps to try out the scenarios and see what make sense. the nebulous areas where you're unsure, review. for example: what does/can the eigenvector represent (rather than how it's calculated)?
what's a euclidean n -space ?
R^n endowed with the euclidean inner product.
When proving a set is a vector space must you prove every condition holds?
Yes
when proving that a set is a vector subspace however, the laundry list of conditions you need to prove decreases
Yeah I saw
solve (A-lambda I)x =0 for the given lambda's
right so lambda*I as in the identity
Ah that makes sense
[ -2, 1,0]
[0, -2, 1] * x = 0?
[2,-1,0]
is that it @torn hornet
for the lambda=2 yes
ok is there a quick way to find the inverse of a 3x3 matrix
wolframalpha
well this matrix wont be invertible right
thats the point, we want a non-trivial element in the nullspace
oh ok, but how do I get V from this
since A - lambda * I is rank deficient, you can find infinitely many vectors v such that (A - lambda*I) = 0
you could introduce a dummy variable t, for example, and find v in terms of that
you can do this by rref-ing the matrix A - lambda*I
you're guaranteed to get a free variable
rrefing?
ah ok
okay so how do I solve this
put the columns into a three by three matrix, call it A, and find A^-1
then A^-1 [2 0 -1]^t will give you the right answer
either that or make a 3 x 4 augmented matrix and do gauss jordan
seemed complicated by hand so
the inverse
the final
im guessing the top result is b1 in C
@lavish jewel @teal grotto
is this a completely separate problem from the other one?
same question i used coycoy's method
ah with the inverse
sure, if that's the inverse, that should be right
we can double check
,w rref {{-1, -1, 1, 2},{-2i, 2i, 2, 0},{4,4,4,-1}}
gauss jordan avoids finding the inverse matrix explicitly. it should behave more nicely, especially when you have really large systems
sounds about right
ok
edd i was just going to ask in the computing software channel something about implementing a row reduction algorithm in c++. question was kind of ill formed tho, was just asking if there were any tweaks/tips i could make to make the gauss jordan method more accurate or if there are any numerical issues i might run into if i don't look out for something
you seem like you know a lot about this stuff, so
hmm i know there are several issues you can run into if you try to do it "naively"
there are certain reorderings of columns and rows that make it more stable and faster
and tbh i think doing QR decomp might be faster than directly doing gauss jordan
hmm. i would probably have to implement a gram-schmidt type of process for that right?
but i think angetenar and anticipation might have more tips for you. try asking in applied computational maths
yeah, one flavor of QR is with gram schmidt
alr. ill try there later probably when i have more of a plan laid out. thanks
aight
a quick question.
what does "and the first component" part mean. I see the similarities but why are the signs +,-,-
A^(n-1)B is a column matrix?
So,Like first component is the Element in the first row
ah of the V vectors
1, -1, -1
hence the signs
right?
anyways i think it's right. Thanks alot for your help guys gonna go submit is like 2:40 am @native rampart @lavish jewel @teal grotto
Quick question about left multiplication maps:
My proof goes along the lines of $$"Let C = [T]$$, the matrix representation of T. Then $$C = [L_{C}]$$. Then since $$[L_C] = [T]$, we get $$L_C = T$$.
nice
WOOPS
lol
uhh hold up, lemme fix this
My proof goes along the lines of "Let $C = [T]$, the matrix representation of $T$ with respect to $\beta$ and $\gamma$. Then $$C = [L_C]$$. Then since $$[L_C] = [T]$$, we get $$L_C = T$$.
kirafa
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uhh yeah, i think that's as good as i can get it
coycoy
that good?
cool. so im not sure im really following this one.
The first line follows from a result from before - a matrix is the matrix representation of its associated left multiplication map
The second line follows from our assumption and line 1
okay wait nvm i misread
And the last line follows from another result - if two maps have the same matrix representation, then they are the same map
did you show uniqueness?
uniqueness follows from part (b) of the same question - that A = B iff $$L_A = L_B$$
kirafa
ok cool. ur good then
i mean, how does the proof in the book go?
typically you get an isomorphism between L(F^n,F^m) and Mat_{m x n}(F) and it would be done in a couple lines.
the proof in the book goes like this
here is theorem 2.14
i guess yea both are fine then
alright sweet, i appreciate your help (:
To find (v)b, would you just do k1(cos^2(x)) + k2(sin^2(x)) + k3(cosx) + k4sin(x) = 4 +3cos(x)?
and wouldnt that be (4,4,3,0) = (v)b?
looks ok
is that the correct thinking?
yeah
thank you
yes cause you need to somehow get a constant from the basis
What is the approach to solving this problem?
my thought was to do k1(x^4+x^2) + k2(x^4 - 1) + k3(x^2 + 1) + k4(2x^4 + 3x^2 + 1) = a + bx + cx^2 + dx^3 + ex^4
and put that into a matrix
but im not sure if im doing it correctly
this is the matrix i have in mind
yea u just need to find out which vectors from this set are linearly independent. upon inspection, the first one is just the second and third added together, so you can toss that one out
second and third are linearly independent
the fourth one is twice the second plus three times the third so you can toss the fourth
we notice that the x^4 + x^2 = x^4 - 1 + x^2 + 1
so one of those 3 can be thrown out?
yea
vector 4 = vector 3 + 2 * vector 1
so that means vector 4 can be thrown out as well
you kind of need to find a maximally linearly independent set, but this is a pretty small set, so everything works out nicely
i believe the method you were going for is more general and will get you a maximally linearly independent family, this set was just so small you could do it by inspection
so the definition of a basis
ye
so the new subspace would just be 2 vectors
it’s the same subspace
u just got rid of superfluous vectors from the spanning set to make it a basis
oh
so how do you go about finding the basis for a vector space?
i mean, you just did for this one
but if you mean, like, in general, that’s a different question
general question
there is a theorem that says every vector space has a hamel basis (as opposed to a shcauder basis) and some may not be computable i believe
cause the definition of a basis for a vector space V, is if the basis Spans V and is Linear independent
right. there are some vector spaces, like the space C([0,1]), the vector space of continuous functions on the interval [0,1] that do have a basis but no one has ever seen it/it’s not useful anyway/there’s really no good choice of a basis for that space
people are still exploring the world to this day trying to find a basis for C([0, 1])
much like a proof of the riemann hypothesis its existence eludes all
side note is finding basis for this based on stone weiestrass, if it was not periodic
wdym
for example polynomial basis, etc.
oh wait they are dense in C([0,1]) but are they considered a basis
Just use Zorn's Lemma
i can't think of a sense in which they do form a basis
many lives spent wasted in the homes of parents basements while mathematicians search for a basis for the space of continuous functions on the unit interval
but zorn's lemma is false
function basis just means convergence of infinite sum of basis functions right?
lmao
i actually have no clue, i was just trolling
i think the statement that every vector space has a basis is equivalent to axiom of choice/zorns lemma. no idea about independence tho

ok nvm, ez question: if U is skinny matrix and contains orthonormal column anything can be said about UU^T?
it can be non diagonal though its symmetric pos semi def but apart from that?
what is a skinny matrix?
like mxn but n < m
contains just one orthornormal column?
or multiple?
can be multiple but just less the total number of rows
like i guess my question is very broad but looking for perhaps special structure in UU^T or ways to compute it faster
maybe there isnt anything more to say about it 
i mean, each of the entries where you multiply an o.n. row vector by an o.n. column vector you’re going to get a 1
op said U has a o.n. column tho so that won't necessarily ever happen
it’s transpose will have an o.n. row
yea but were multiplying U by U^T not the other way
bruh. *multiply an o.n. column vector by an o.n. row vector
?

for example if U was
1 2
0 2
first column is o.n.
but when multiply on the right by transpose nothing interesting seems to happen
wait wut
you mean orthogonal to each other?
oh. i seem to have messed up there
M_22 is the space of real 2 by 2 matrices?
i know that a dimension of 2 means that the basis has 2 matrices
yeah
do you know a basis for M_22?
the standard matrices of M_22
the 4 matrcies that only have a single 1 in them for a basis for M_22
but that has a dimension of 4
so just pick two of them and say look a the space spanned by the two u picked
i believe
bam
oh
so pick 2 of the standard matrcies
and then the subspace is just the matrices that can be formed from those two standard matrices
is that the thinking?
right on!
👍
This means that c1 *(v1)_B + c2 * (v2)_B = 0 has non trivial solutions
not sure where to proceed from here
yes. are (v1)_B and (v2)_B the representations of v1 and v2 in terms of basis vectors from B?
yes
Do you know c_1(v)_B=(c_1v)_B
wait huh?
Ok you need to show c_1(v_1)_B+(v_2)_B=(c_1v_1+v_2)_B
wait why? the claim is false
(v_1)_B is writing v_1 in terms of elements of B and then taking the coordinates right?
Like {b_1=(1,-1),b_2=(0,1)} (1,0)=(1,-1)+(0,1)=b_1+b_2
So (1,0)_{b_1,b_2} will be (1,1)
just disregard me dude i gtg to sleep fr
yes the coordinate relative to the basis
So yea this is true
Say $v_1=a_{11} b_1+a_{12} b_2 ,v_2=a_{21} b_1 +a_{22} b_2$
Buncho Dragons
So $(v_1)B=(a{11},a_{12}),\newline (v_2)B=(a{21},a_{22})$
Buncho Dragons
Notice that $cv_1+v_2=(c a_{11}+a_{21}) b_1 + (c a_{21}+a_{22}) b_2$
Change of basis
oh
If v_1 and v_2 are in span (b_1,b_2) they can be written in that form
By definition of span
Buncho Dragons
So $(cv_1+v_2)B=( ca{11}+a_{21}, ca_{21}+a_{22})=c(a_{11},a_{21})+(a_{12},a_{22})$
Buncho Dragons
$=c(v_1)_B+(v_2)_B$
Buncho Dragons
the set can span to 0 non-trivially
Their intersection is not 0
That is you can find a nonzero vector v which is in both spaces
im kinda confused about what happens after this showing "c_1(v_1)_B+(v_2)_B=(c_1v_1+v_2)_B"
Then just do your normal linear independence shenanigans
Wait what, don't we have (v_1)_B = (v_2)_B if v_1 and v_2 are linearly dependent ?
You then use the fact $c_1(v_1)_B+c_2(v_2)B=(c_1v_1+c_2v_2)_B$
Suppose $(v_1)_B$ and $(v_2)_B$ are linearly dependent. Then there is non zero $c_1 ,c_2$ such that
$(c_1v_1+c_2v_2)_B=0$
And that $(v)_B=0$ implies v=0
Buncho Dragons
coordinate relative to basis notation
.
ohhh
how does (v)b = 0 implies v = 0?
You should prove that yourseld
my brain is too small
if you have non-zero coordinates for zero it's not a basis
Feels like you didn't understand this (v)_B thing
More like 0 co ordinates imply v is 0
v_b gives you a bunch of coordinates
And when I say v_b=0 I mean all the co ordinates are 0
if v1 and v2 are linear independent then (v)_b = a1 * v1 + a2 * v2, and (a1,a2) = (0,0)?
is that the reasoning
that being said, i don't understand the point of this question ; vector <-> coordinates is linear
Yes if b={v_1,v_2}
I wanted to use this
So one zero implies other is 0 immediately
could you explain this?
Ok, unless I'm greatly misunderstanding, wouldn't the following work as proof?
Suppose $\lambda_1(v_1)_B+\lambda_2(v_2)_B=0$ with $(\lambda_1,\lambda_2)\ne (0,0)$. Then $0=\lambda_1(v_1)_B+\lambda_2(v_2)_B=(\lambda_1 v_1+\lambda_2 v_2)_B=0$.
Since $x \mapsto (x)_B$ is an isomorphism, $\lambda_1v_1+\lambda_2v_2=0$ \blacksquare
Syst3ms
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that does work
if you already know that a change of basis is an isomorphism, yeah
but you can build this one up with just a rock and a stick
let's say v1 and v2 are independent
That really a change of basis?
then a v1 + b v2 = 0 has only solution a = b = 0
now let's express these two vectors in a basis B containing vectors b1 and b2
then v1 = c b1 + d b2, and v2 = e b1 + f b2
and their sum is something of the form g b1 + h b2
we are given B is a basis, so b1 and b2 are lin indep
this means g = h = 0 is the only solution to g b1 + h b2 = 0
and yes. if you make a matrix M that has as columns the basis elements in B, then x to (x)_B is done via M^-1 x, a change of basis
oh right, it's ℝ², not any vector space
odd question honestly, seemed obvious that talking about coordinates and a vector was basically the same thing
i just dont think my prof connected how everything is related to each other
it's more to establish that dimensionality is independent of the basis tbh
Well,you think of Matrices as Linear transforms
But doing that rigorously is a PITA
You have to show matrix multiplication behaves nicely via matrix computations
PITA ?
pain in the abutt
unrelated, but our prof calls this the "important trivial lemma"
matrix algebra > linear algebra 
you can also just straight up show it's a subspace
but turns many, many proofs into checking if something equals 0
rather than doing anything else
well
yeah
considering L(v) = w means w is in the image of L, L(v) - w has nice properties
I looked back at our material to see how we justify that dimension doesn't depend on the choice of basis
We used the Steinitz lemma, or some version thereof : if some vector space E has a set of n vectors that spans it, then every set of n+1 vectors is linearly dependent.
yeah, extremal properties of bases
Although that's an easy corollary, the proof of the lemma is rather annoying
Thank you everyone for the help
Okay I feel confused about projection more than ever so can someone clarify this to me?
If a vector x belongs to a subspace S, then when we proj_S(x), what is the output?
Isn't it just proj_S(x) = x?
Yes
sounds ok
If you slap a fly onto a wall, then slap it again
It's still going to be on the wall
Yeah, projectors are just flattening things in one direction
(except identity which doesn't flatten much of anything but shush)
Could someone check this for me?
looks good
Statement 1 : if you stretch a vector it doesn't change its orientation
Statement 2 : any orthogonal set of the right size is a basis
every orthogonalsystem is linear independant. The cardinality of W basis is 3. So dimension is 3, and we have 3 orthogonal vectors which are l.i., so its dimension is also 3, so it must also be a basis of W.
okay thank you
What's special about an orthogonal basis?
vectors have a nice clean representation and the dual basis is simple as well
You can easily orthogonal project every vector to determine its linear combination with the orthogonal basis.
Does the usual notation for the dot product carry over to vector spaces with potentially different definitions of dot products?
Im not sure what you mean.
the definition of dot product on R^n doesn't change. do you mean inner product?
depends ig
if so we use $\ip{x}{y}$
RokabeJintaro
for example, there is a dot product of matrices that is related to the trace of a matrix. might be confusing if you used the same notation as u did with the dot product in R^n, since we already multiply matrices together
We use the same dot product notation for L2-Product
The usual one is denoted the same
But in the case of inner products and associated spaces, (x|y), <x,y> or the one you showed are common notations
lots of tingz. makes computing projections really easy, for one
<x|y> is used more in physics but i like it bc i'm lazy
simply write xy
prefer the <•,•> notation
the functional analysis book on my shelf uses (x|y)
booo
If its a orthonormalsystem then its even more easier to project the vectors to the basis.
normalizing an orthogonal set makes it orthonormal. if $\brc{e_i}$ is orthonormal we can show the projection of $x$ onto $\Span\brc{e_i}$ is nicely given by $\sum_i\ip{x}{e_i}e_i$
I actually wanted to write this, but I gave up cus I suck at latex.
RokabeJintaro
orthonormal bases suck because you can't use einstein notation when representing a vector
based
if you have the concept of dual basis you can work as though your basis is normalized, since your vector $v=v^i e_i$ has components that are just your vector dotted with the dual basis $v \cdot e^i = v^i$
Merosity
if your basis vectors are already orthogonal but not normalized, the dual basis is just the inverse matrix of that matrix of basis vectors, which is just its transpose scaled, so technically you're just putting the normalization step into there lol
that's all to say that people who normalize basis vectors when dealing with tensors are chumps
you got me good
xD Will I ever deal with tensors in astro physics 1 ,2 and experimental physics 2?
Sounds like sth one wants to escape from.
is an even number modulo an even number always an even number
Yes
^
when doing a "two column proof" that cv=cw->c=0 or v=w, i have trouble with what exactly i should write for the justifications. if someone could verify that my proof is good too thatd be great.
Suppose that $v,w\in V$, $c\in F$, and $cv=cw$.
\begin{align}
cv=cw&&\text{Given}\
cv-cw=0&&\text{?}\
c(v-w)=0&&\text{Distributivity}\
\implies c=0 \lor v-w=0&&\text{Some theorem?}\
c=0\lor v=w&&\text{?}
\end{align}
taxminion
you could just write cancellation property
for which ones? 2 and 5?
Yes
alright sure that makes sense
still not sure about line 4. i mean i dont think that property has a specific name, and whatever theorem its a part of is text specific
also would "algebra" work for lines 2 and 5?
5 requires proof
suppose c is nonzero, then it has an inverse (F a field), so applying it to both sides gives v-w=0
so c=0 and v=w necessary
and sufficiency is p obvious
(im assuming the point is to work from axioms)
if T(a+b) = T(a)+ T(b)
then cant we prove that T(λa)= λT(a) ? (Context: Linear Transformation)
Why create another axiom for that?
Shouldt it be a lemma or a theorem?
You can't quite prove it
Look up Cauchy functional equation
There are non-linear solutions to T(a+b) = T(a) + T(b) over the reals. Though they are weird, they exist
Okay, but whats exactly wrong in this "proof"
a+a+a= 3a
then T(3a)= T(a+a+a)= T(a)+T(a)+T(a)
then T(3a)=3 T(a), right?
Yeah that's fine
lambda is a general scalar in ur field
But you only proved it for lambda = 3
You will be able to do it for rational lambda if you do some work
But not for all real lambda
So,when considering rational nos, can the abovementioned axiom be considered as theorem?
can u pls explain srry
If your field is Q, sure. But usually your field is R or C.
You can prove that if T(a + b) = T(a) + T(b) then T(lambda * a) = lambda * T(a) for any rational lambda yes. Here T is a function R -> R. What you did with lambda = 3 was a start in the right direction towards proving this
Well I guess R -> R is not necessary in what I said. It seems like it is a theorem over any Q-vector space
Okay,
Lets take 3.5 a= a+a+a+0.5a
Then T(a+a+a+0.5a)= 3.5T(a) right?
Is it "incomplete" bcuz I cant define 0.5a in a linear combination of "a"s
Right that doesn't work

