#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 213 of 1
yes
but you must have rank(A) ≤ n too
no matter what
a matrix cannot have higher rank than its number of rows or its number of columns.
that's it
thats it
youre done
rank(A) = m
and rank(A) ≤ n
thats it
youre done, you got your m ≤ n, that's it
If there is linear transformation T: V -> V I can include immediately that's it is isomorphism?
a zero matrix is V -> V
still no
oof
it would have to be invertible
hmmm invertible in a loose sense, to be fair
why do you ask this
I had a question
Let T: V->V be linear transformation, dim(V)=2.
T≠0, T²=T, T≠id.
So I thought I could use this
oh now it turns out dim(V) = 2
you cannot just leave out important details like this
what are you asked for? to determine whether or not T is invertible?
well ok, i guess dim(V)=2 is not very important in this case
By contradiction assume T is invertible
Let T(x)=y
Then T(T(x))=y (based on given)
Which also means T(y)=y
which is contradiction to T≠id
Yea
so that's good
The second part was where I struggled
Prove: there exists a basis {v1, v2} to V, so that T(v2)=0, T(v1)=v1
I can conclude from the dim that there exists such basis that consists of v1 v2 but I don't know how to continue
hmm
@heavy crown, what are you trying to show again?
Prove: there exists a basis {v1, v2} to V, so that T(v2)=0, T(v1)=v1
And this is Given
given the vector space V generated by linear combinations of the elements {x,y,z}, consider C = {x,y,z} as the canonical basis of V
what does it means that C is a canonical basis opposed to a regular basis?
doesn't mean anything
people like to call something canonical when it is for them the most natural thing to consider out of all possibilities
it should be the case that if $T^2=T$ then $T$ is invertible if and only if $T=\text{Id}_V$. one direction is clear. now suppose that $T$ is invertible. Then $T=T\circ T\circ T^{-1}=T\circ T^{-1}=\text{Id}_V$.
so since $T$ is non-zero and $T$ is not the identity, then $\dim\ker(T)=\dim\text{im}(T)=1$. If you need more clarification on this part, please ask. but you should be able to finish it from here.
coycoy
when an object is called ‘cannonical’, it typically means that it it was the most natural choice that satisfied some property, or it is a natural object which satisfies some property, obtained without making choices. for example, there is a cannonical isomorphism from a vector space V into its double dual, meaning we did not have to choose a basis to obtain this isomorphism. conversely, there is not in general a cannonical isomorphism from V into its dual, because we need to choose a basis of V to obtain the isomorphism
thank you for detailed answer :)
You know maybe how to do the 2nd part of that question?
the second part is what i left for you to do. think about what it means for the kernel of T to have dimension 1. similarly for the image.
i can’t tell if that’s a good or bad reaction haha
hahaha let it be whatever you want it to be
i’m going to assume by the existence of the emojis T Y underneath the reaction that i have helped you figure out your basis
Your assumption is correct
a way to go is
T is not invertible means that null T is not just {0}
so there is nonzero vector v_1
also there is nonzero vector v_2 not in null T
v_1 and v_2 should be independent
hence T(v_1)=0, T(v_2) != 0
already a basis
you now just have to show that exist vector v_2 s.t T(v_2)=v_2
you have v_1 and v_2 swapped. and how are you concluding that T is not injective?
i mean T: V->V is given and T not inverible already proved
ok. i see now. it seems kind of like a lot of contradictions needed to argue your points about v_1 and v_2 being in the kernel and not in the kernel respectively
no
if T:V->V is not invertible it cannot be neither surjective
nor injective
since for operators these conditions are equivalent to invertibility
well for part T(v_2)=v_2 we prolly can make an argument to eigenvalue but it is not guaranteed that T would have eigenvalue except than zero in this field
actually
yea i was trying to figure out an argument for that
i found on mse that eigenvalues of idempotent are either 0 and 1
it seems to make sense intuitively, just thinking about matrix multiplication where this works out
nice
thus it is enough to take nonzero eigenvector not in null T
(if it exists and it should exist)
yea that was what i wanted username to conclude.
i mean prolly there is another way to prove this
prolly just by matrix multiplication
i mean, he would have to scale it by the inverse of the eval without the proof you have
i tried doing that earlier but it got kind of messy
i actually tried to find counter examples of this (matrices) when you have fields with different characteristics, but everything still seems to check out.
hey thank you for referencing and helping too. I understand this part
but this is quite problematic because they we don't know eigenvalues yet
so probably there is hm just the T(v_2)=v_2 is a problem
you may fuck with matrix multiplication ig
hmm
you could always just notice this fact without actually referring to or mentioning evals, like a lemma that you have.
yea youre right
Hey this should be a simple question but
Given: Let A be matrix of order nxn. A-I is invertible. A²=A
Prove: A=0
Here's what I tried:
A²-A = 0
|A(A-I)| = 0
|A| * |(A-I)| = 0
Then because A-I is invertible so |(A-I)|≠0. so |A| = 0
Is it enough to say A = 0?
(i don't think so)
no it's not enough
you've overcomplicated it
you don't need determinants here at all
A(A-I) = 0
multiply both sides by (A-I)^-1
that's it
Hi! I've got a question - I don't understand how to tackle this as it's in R4.
It goes "If P: R4 - > R4 the ortogonal projection in subspace H = Span{(1, 0, 1, 0)} of R4.
Present P(2, 0, 7, 9)" I'm not sure where to even start with this.
can you start by writing out the definition of P?
It's all that's in there. I suppose they put it there to represent a P of Polynomial
P is just a name they gave to the transformation
start with the definition of an orthogonal projection
and <•,•> is the standard dot product
coycoy
the notation P is literally just proj_H, meaning the orthogonal projection onto H
that looks right
Problem is I'm not sure where to go from there
well it asks you to compute the projection of y=(2,0,7,9) onto H. so just plug that into proj_H and calculate
alright I'm gonna try here, thank you
Suppose V and W are finite-dimensional and T in L(V,W). Prove that there exist bases of V and W such that with respect to these bases, all entries of M(T) are 0 except that the entries in row j, column j equal 1 for 1 ≤ j ≤ dim range T.
I can't solve this problem
How can I get started?
what is M?
The matrix of the linear map T
@wintry steppe think about $\ker(T)^{\perp}$ and $\ker(T)$ as sub spaces of V
coycoy
ah wait. that’s close but we don’t always have inner products. unless your ground field is the real or complex numbers?
I don't think so?
it's just some field
oof. if it’s an inner product space then that’s the right way to do it. back to the drawing board
I'm not sure what you mean by inner product space
We've not covered inner products yet lol in the book
think of it as just a more general term for dot products
No I know what it is
But I don't know how it affects the space etc
Have not learned that
oh. well it lets you say when two vectors are perpendicular/orthogonal and gives some notion of an angle
which would be very helpful for this problem
you could use the proof of the svd for this
Have not learned that either
do you know that hermitian matrices are diagonalizable?
wow that’s a powerful theorem that looks really cool
Don't even know what hermitian matrices are
me neither haha
yes
yes
yeah, self adjoint matrices
if you haven't see that either, i'm out of ideas. you could play change of basis shennanigans
u need an inner product space to even talk about those
we’re not given one sadly
all my homies hate change of basis
Haven't learned about change of basis either
oof
No
I've learnt about maps, and matrix operations
I know lots of things about maps
okay good. the idea i’m thinking of will involve lots of maps if it works
you can express a change of basis as a map without calling it change of basis 😛
we’re on the same page edd
take a basis of ker(T), extend it to a basis of the domain, choose a suitable basis for the codomain based on that
So u_1,...,u_k is a basis of ker(T)
Then u_1,...,u_k,v_1,...,v_l is a basis of V
Oh wait I think I see it now too
That is very clever
What about the remaining vectors? For example, say Tv1 is nonzero. So the first column should only have A1,1 in the top left, and other entries should be zero
But how do we make sure the other entries are zero?
what remaining vectors
the ones that make up the basis of the kernel of T?
no, the other ones
Tv_1 = A1,1 w_1 + ... + Am,1 w_m
the first l vectors in your basis of W will be Tv_1, Tv_2, ..., Tv_l
that's how you ensure the 1s along the diagonal
How do we make A2,1,...,Am,2 all zero
I know that ensures the 1's
But not the zeros elsewhere
hmm
@wintry steppe the standard basis vectors that died by getting mapped to the kernel of T will be the zero columns. just put those at the back of your ordered basis
Yes obviously
But what about the zeros elsewhere?
those are the zeros elsewhere lol
We want Tv_1 = A1,1 w_1, not Tv_1 = A1,1 w_1 + A2,1 w_2 + ...
Why is the rest of the column 0?
lets say i take in e_i and it gets mapped to some basis vector in the kernel of T, say v_i
then T(v_i) gets mapped to the zero vector in W
and that has to correspond to a zero column of the matrix of T
Okay you don't get it
Let me try to explain it again
Assume that Tv_1 is NOT in the kernel
That means Tv_1 is nonzero
But Tv_1 = A1,1w_1 + A2,1 w_2 + ... + A_m,1 w_m by definition
However we want A2,1, A3,1,...,Am,1 to all be zero
We just want A1,1 to be nonzero
But we didn't guarantee that A2,1 A3,1 and so on are all zero
what do your w_i's represent again?
w1,...,wm is a basis of W
but which part? one is from T and the other part is extended
ah my mistake. thanks for ur patience i was having a bruh moment
No problem
SK
Also, how can I determine the action of the operator on any given element?
V is finite dim?
Feels like this would require choice in the infinite dimensional case
Does dimension of a vector space depends on a field or not? For example if we look at V finite dimensional, is his dimension over C is equal to it's dimension over R?
nice thank you. C over R it's basis is {i,1} and C over C it's basis is {1}?
Yes
But is the reason for it is because we look at C over C as simply scalars without looking at a+ib decomposition?
for C over C
Yes
nice, thank you
We don't need to decompose it in C
But is there a theorem or something to calculate explicitely the dimension of a vector space over C?
I had an exercice in exam Schur's lemma but I didnt succeed it 😦
and my professor never mentione this kind of things
alright, thank you!
Infinite dimensional.
Not sure if it does in that case
It doesn't determine the operator?
Yes
But the notes I'm reading are telling me that it does.
Does the space have any more structure?
I guess they might be implicitly assuming choice
SK
isn't this immediate from non degeneracy
Sure, how do I get the operator then?
give me a second im on my phone
How can I determine how the operator will act on a given vector?
i can tell you that if A and B are both linear operators satisfying your condition, then A = B, but i can't give you a detailed description of how A looks
if $A, B$ are linear operators on $V$ such that $$\langle v, Aw \rangle = \langle v, Bw \rangle$$ for all $v, w \in V$, then, if $w$ is fixed, $$\langle v, Aw - Bw \rangle = 0, \quad \forall v \in V.$$ by non degeneracy, $Aw = Bw$
AKA <x,x>=0 implies x=0
R2T2
and since w was arbitrary, A = B
my internet went out
Not what I want.
okay then

what i wrote is what "uniquely determines the operator" means, but ok, what do you want?
What we know is
[\langle \psi, A \phi\rangle \forall \psi, \phi \in V]
SK
SK
in full generality, i don't know. if you were able to choose an orthonormal basis you'd be able to find it, but your space is infinite dimensional
It's separable; now?
Choice moment 
just do the same thing with a countable orthonormal basis xd
if C = {x,y,z} is a basis of V, how can I prove that B = {(x+z),(y+z),(x+y)} is also a basis?
you know ax + by + cz = 0 only has a trivial solution w.r.t. the combination parameters a,b,c
show that you can do something similar for B
i.e. a'(x+z) + b'(y+z) + c'(x+y) = 0 needs to only have trivial solutions
you can rewrite that as (a' + c')x + (b' + c')y + (a' + b')z = 0
yep I see now
can anyone help with some linear algebra terms?
just ask
Hey guys what's wrong with my logic in this proof (from Ex 19 Sec 5B of Axler's LADR)?
Exercise: Suppose $V$ is a finite-dimensional with dim $V > 1$ and $T \in \mathcal{L}(V)$. Prove that ${p(T) : p \in \mathcal{P}(F)} \neq \mathcal{L}(V)$.
My Solution: Can I just use the idea that there exists $p(z) = a_0 + 0z + 0z^2 + \dots + 0z^m$, then $p(T) = a_0$. If $a_0 \neq 0$, then $a_0 \not\in \mathcal{L}(V)$ since that implies $T(0) \neq 0$?
what is the big difference between rref and ref
im very confused on the differences
backslash your set brackets
thank you
HimmyHow
and gauss jordan is when its forward elimination and then backward elimination
quick question, what is P(F)?
i see some people do gauss elimination to bring a matrix into row echelon form, then they bring the matrix back into a systems of equations and back-substitute the equations to get the solutions, what would this process be called? Its not gauss jordan right? Cause gauss jordan is finding the solutions using only matrix form by making the REF into RREF by backward elimination
It's the set of all polynomials. In 2.13 of Axler he defines $\mathcal{P}_m(F)$ as the set of all polynomials with coefficients in $F$ and degree at most $m$ where $m$ is a nonnegative integer.
HimmyHow
And he defines $p(T)$ as follows. Suppose $T \in \mathcal{L}(V)$ and $p \in \mathcal{P}(F)$ is a polynomial given by $p(z) = a_0 + a_1z + a_2z^2 + \dots + a_mz^m$ for $z \in F$. Then $p(T)$ is the operator defined by $p(T) = a_0I + a_1T + a_2T^2 + \dots + a_mT^m$.
HimmyHow
thanks @teal grotto , it seems like my answer took a very different approach than some of the other ones I've seen so I wasn't sure if I was missing something.
what were the other approaches
why are their's so complicated?
If a whole column for a variable is 0, is it a free variable?
yeah that's what i'm wondering too... was worried that i was missing something.
is it because P(F) is infinite dimensional? there is no subscript here, unless its implied somewhere
It's possible, I interpreted P(F) without the subscript to mean it can be either finite or infinite (not necessarily infinite).
it cant be infinite dimensional in the first proof if F is a finite field...
p(T) will be a_0 times the identity operator, not the scalar a_0
ah. thats what it was
If it helps, in Axler's book he restricts F to mean either R or C.
ahh
that's dumb of me
it got me too 😦
nothing gets past @wintry steppe tho

quite a bit gets past me
the other day i mixed up the rows and columns in working with the basis rep of a linear map

considerable tteppa
god these emojis are so good haha
i once (wrongly, of course) proved that every riemannian manifold is flat
how did that go
it was stupid
lol i’m curious now
hey guys i'll ask another question here. I posted it on math exchange cause it seemed pretty involved but so far no response. No worries if you can't every question. https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4170069/the-linear-map-that-sends-p-in-mathcalp-n2-mathbbc-to-pt-in-ma
(if it's bad practice to post on both here and math exchange lmk).
What are the possible echelon forms of a nonzero 4x2 matrix?
this is in the teacher's notes, is this right?
why is it 0 to 180?
2d is 0 to 360 so why is it changed to 0 to 180 in 3D?
@atomic hound to answer your second point, yes, p(T) will be identically zero on V. this doesn't contradict "4.7" since p(T) isn't a polynomial, it's a linear operator
your suspicions are correct
Hw problem btw not exam for clarification
I think it’s A C D but idk
The examples r inconsistent
for the first point, i think the definition of S you gave is enough to tell us what it is. it's the linear map $P_{n^2}(\bC)$ that takes a polynomial $p(z)$ to the linear operator on $V$ given by $p(T)$. if i wrote $$S(a_0+a_1z\cdots+a_kz^k)v = a_0v + a_1Tv + \cdots + a_kT^kv,$$ would that tell you what it looks like?
R2T2
for the third, i think it's pretty clear that S is well-defined and linear. the only times you need to worry about a map being well-defined is if you're making some kind of choice to define what it is on each element
@wintry steppe do you have a math stackexchange?
yes
if you do, you should just answer it on there
does anyone know the q I posted above? I’m very confused
or at least i would haha
@R2T2 wow thank you that helps a lot. and yes you are right for the first point. don't know how i missed that. that makes it much clearer.
i might post an answer on mse
i'm not hungry for upvotes, and people on MSE will shred me alive if i make even a tiny error
only reason i say that is because it is a more permanent record than trying to scroll through discord threads
true true. but isn’t that what makes ppl better at writing proofs?

people on MSE are ultra-pedants
there's a difference between being nitpicked to the bone and making a small error
they can be really irritating sometimes
i’m on there quite frequently but i try not to act like that. they are really condescending at times.
On this point, if p(T) is identically zero on V, does the proof imply that every v in V is an eigenvector for T? Or am I misinterpreting what it means for p(T) = 0?
also, the proof you provided is wrong
p(T) will be zero, so c(T - lambda_1 I) ... (T - \lambda_m I) is the zero operator. this implies that one of the T - lambda_k I is not injective, i.e., lambda_k is an eigenvalue
it's not the case that one of the T - lambda_k I is zero (another error here, you didn't write the I)
it's only the case that one of them is not injective
Let $V=M_{n}(\mathbb{C})$ with the inner product $\left\langle A,B\right\rangle =tr\left(AB^{*}\right)$ Let $A\in V$ unitary diagonalizable. Show that $T:V\rightarrow V$ s.t $T\left(B\right)=AB$ is also unitary diagonalizable.
go
Help?
no, it just implies that c(T - lambda_1 I)...(T - lambda_n I)v = 0 for all v in V
the point is that injectivity of one of the T - lambda_k I fails (for, if they were all injective, their composition, the zero operator, would be injective)
i am going to make a post
So for all v in V, injectivity for at least one of the (T-lambda_k I)'s will fail, but not necessarily the same lambda_k?
hold on ignore this statement. let me think about it for a bit.
i guess what i'm confused about now is say one of the (T-lambda-k I)'s fail injectivity. So say it maps from dim n^2 to dim n^2-1. How does that eventually get you to the zero operator?
are you confused about why one of them will fail to be injective
i don't understand what you mean
anyways someone already sniped me and posted a very similar answer
lmao
haha
oh okay maybe i was thinking about it the wrong way. i was thinking that starting from the assumption that one of the (T-lambda-k I)'s fail injectivity, it follows that you get the zero operator. but actually it's the other way around: starting with the fact that you get the zero operator, it follows that one of the (T-lambda-k I)'s fail injectivity?
loool
right, since the composition $$(T - \lambda_1I)\cdots(T-\lambda_mI)$$ equals the zero operator, one of the $(T-\lambda_kI)$'s is not injective
R2T2
and if you write out what it means for T - lambda_k I to be non-injective, you'll see that it's equivalent to lambda_k being an eigenvalue
qed
no problem
<@&286206848099549185>
so i just finished a lin alg class but im still kinda struggling on linear transformations
does anyone have a good reference ?
OH and geometry of vector spaces
Try Sheldon Axler’s Linear Algebra Done Right. It’s a more theoretical approach but it is considered one of the best textbooks for undergrad LA
tysm 💗
it also has a backwards treatment of determinants
so you'd want a supplementary book in that regard
i see some people do gauss elimination to bring a matrix into row echelon form, then they bring the matrix back into a systems of equations and back-substitute the equations to get the solutions, what would this process be called? Its not gauss jordan right? Cause gauss jordan is finding the solutions using only matrix form by making the REF into RREF by backward elimination(my instructor says backward elimination is the equavelent of back-substitution but in matrix form)
why would you do that instead of just doing it through gauss jordan by keeping it in matrix form?
how can we use Vector Spaces and Linear Transformation in real life ?
can anyone give examples please?
by taking a linear algebra class you use vector spaces and linear transformations in real life
refer to class examples \s
I'M LOST 😢
one example is optimization (linear programming)
that's got quite a few "real world" applications
what do you mean ? i learned how to get null space, column space and all that but we didn't take how we use that in real life
Least Squares
you used it in real life when you took your linear algebra class 
The Schrodinger Equation is an eigenvalue problem
a very large amount of modern mathematics depends on linear algebra in one way or another, that's another real life application
you will be very hardpressed to find something where linear algebra doesnt atleast make it easier
I was wondering if someone can double check one of my proofs
im second guessing
it
the A is not necessarily the same for W_1 and W_2
I mean you have the right idea, but yeah what bacono said
sorry it's my first time taking linear algebra that's why i'm a bit lost 
try showing that they are subsets of each other or something like that
but anyway thanks guys 
this shows M_n \subset W1+ W2
and the other side is obvious (but making sure just bc)
so it would be sufficient
just make sure you understand everything thats going on
bet thanks, so ig i ll rewrite it to reflect the screenshot
i can only speak for myself, but one thing (of many) that inspired me to study linear algebra was coming across a recommender system that used singular value decomposition. i believe a lot of machine learning stuff relies heavily on linear algebra. computer graphics too.
Does anyone know if given any matrix A one can find an isometry S such that S^{-1}A is inferior triangular?
ohh i see, thank you so much i will do some research 
if a matrix A has gaussian integer entries and a nontrivial null space, does it follow that there exists a basis for the null space such that all the basis vectors have gaussian integer entries?
actually disregard that (deleted somethign i said that was wrong)
I believe so, what did you try @hollow finch
not sure how i would prove it rigorously, especially for gaussian integers, but when finding a basis for null space of an integer matrix you seem to always get expressions for the vector in terms of the entries (at least of the REF or RREF form). sometimes they end up rational instead of integer, but rationals can always be scaled to integers. i imagine that the logic isnt too much different for gaussian integers.
sorry thats a bit rambly, im not quite sure how to articulate it
yeah thats basically the though i have
you do some elementery operations to reduce the matrix (each time the solution staying in Q[i]) and then you scale it up in the end
right
not sure if id have to prove it stays in Q[i] for all the operations (or at least there is a set of operations such that it does) as a lemma
probably how id go about it, describe the reduction as a sequence of certain type of operations and then claim all of these modify the coefficients of the matrix to stay in Q[i] and etc etc
the common thread between both ideas seems to be that its always possible to find integers x1 and x2 such that ax1+bx2=0 (or instead of 2, going up to n). first in just finding a vector in the null space, and second for reducing the matrix (like getting zero entries in the right places with row operations). seems basically like homogeneous linear diophantine equations. maybe using that i can prove the null space thing without needing to consider reducing the matrix?
why does this have a unique solution when it has a row with full zeros? I can see theres no free variables but why does so many people say that if theres a row of full zeros then its infinite solutions?
am i misunderstanding the concept?
@wintry steppe in that case row of zero is fourth row
you had initially 4 equations in 3 variables
good
what if the third column in the picture was only zeros? What would that be consided as ?
@wintry steppe then assuming third row would be also zero row you would have free variable
Help pls
I have a linear map V->V f with that transformation, the vectors of the space are a linear combination of those elements, and C is the basis, how can I find the matrix Mcc(f)?
I guess I can take the transformation and reduce it to get the individual images, eg f(train), f(star)
and then take a vector with basis in C and apply that transformation?
sounds about right
use what is given to find the effect of f on the canonical basis vectors, and put those as columns of a matrix
Given vector space $\mathbb{V} $ What’s the group theory notation for this vector space: $\mathcal{L}(\mathbb{V} , \mathbb{V} )$
a rainbow powered ninny
$\mathcal{L}(\mathbb{V} , \mathbb{V} ) \stackrel{?}{=} End(\mathbb{V})$
a rainbow powered ninny
Or is it Endo?
Like how do I write T is in the endo-morphisms of V?
Or do I say endomorphism of V to itself?
ey it should be simple but I'm having trouble ah
Given: Let A, B be nxn matrices. AB=0, BA=A
Prove: (A+B)²=A+B²
can you expand (A+B)^2 ?
A=BA so A^2=ABA=(0)A=0
But the set of all linear transformations from V to itself is an Endomorphism?
it is subset of set of all endomorphisms
in what context? is V an arbitrary vector space here?
I guess your morphisms are linear transforms
This is very light group theory being introduced….for which my skill points are lacking.
Context is light group theory for a second pass at linear algebra.
I don’t even know what a morphism is
The most ive gathered is that it’s a generalization of a function.
And there are several prefixes one can affix to the word morphisms:
epi, endo, auto, iso, homo
Why did you delete it?
because nobody replied and i felt awkward haha
Just wait for someone. Lol.
someone will get to it
No need to delete.
i was actually messing with it myself.
oh I'm sorry
I'll get it back hm
can someone help me understand what I'm doing wrong? I tried to find the basis of U∩W
So you set the system to zero because youre trying to find a non-zero element of the null space
??
nope, because
Let v ∈ U∩W
v = M1(u1) + M2(u2) = M3(w1) + M4(w2)
0 = M1(u1) + M2(u2) + M3(-w1) + M4(-w2)
M1(x²+x) + M2(2x-1) + M3(-x²-1) + M4(-x-2) = 0
x²(M1 - M3) + x(M1 + 2M2 - M4) + 1(-M2 - M3 -2M4) = 0
My next step was to attack it with this
To show the dimension is >= 1, you just have to find any nonzero element of the space.
So just find any element in both W and U
after RREF:
yes my problem was telling the basis
what's the basis?
you could try something geometric. get normals using cross products, solve for the line of intersection
then take 2 points on the line
I’m going to try and add U and W next, using a subspace sum.
I don't think it's appliable in my exam
what's the next step after this?
do they specify which techniques to use?
aight
a(x^2+1)+b(x+2)=ax^2+bx+(a+2b)
and
c(x^2+x)+d(2x-1)=cx^2+(c+2d)x-d
a = c
c+2d=b
-d = a+2b
c+2d=b
-d=c+2b
c+2d=b
c+2b=-d
2d=b
2b=-d
d = b = 0
wtf
(-5,3,-5,1) is in the null space, yeah?
so that gives you the linear combination weights
yea (-5, 3, -5, 1) is the basis to null
@dire thunder wtf are you smoking? 😂
would mean (5,-3) in one basis is equal to (-5,1) in the other basis
vodka
the vector you get is the basis of the intersection
you mean (-5, 3) would equal to (-5, 1) yes
so you mean I need to do
i flipped the sign on purpose, cuz we want av1 bv2 = cu1 + du2
How did you go from c + 2d = b and c + 2b = -d to 2d = b and 2b = -d? Is c = 0? Then, yes, b and d have to be 0 too.

but you have v1 v2 u1 u2 times (a b -c -d) = 0
oh I see
(do double check, but i'm pretty sure this should work)
a=c
b=-d-2c gives parametrization for linear combination
oh wait you flipped the sign of the other 2 vectors
nvm, no sign change needed, then
so if we take the vectors that didn't flip (the first two) which are -5 and 3 and do
{ (-5t) * (x²+x)+(3t) * (2x-1)| t eR} = {t(-5x²-5x+6x-3)| t eR} = span(-5x²+x-3)
does it mean the basis is (-5x²+x-3) to U∩W?
looks ok
yea :] theres only one thing that confused me
they said we could get rid of the arbitrary vectors to find the basis so according to that logic it would be without the fourth vector,
But it is inequal to (-5x²+x-3)
I mean like there's another method when we do C(A) and get rid of arbitrary, I guess you can't use it here because it's not C(A)
when you do column space of a matrix you get the span of the matrix, but it isnt lineraly independant
So to make sure it's linearly independent you do RREF to C(A) and only those vectors that aren't arbitrary are together linearly independent
by C(A) do you mean column space?
yeah you could gram schmidt everything if you wanted
isn't it column space?
okay I guess I'll work by this method for safety
thankyou edd :]
Anyone ?
Given: span{v1, v2} ∩ span{v3, v4} ≠ {0} , v1 ∉ span{v2, v3, v4}
__Prove: __ {v1, v2} are linearly independent
I know that it means if v1 isn't a part of their span, so adding it to their span won't ruin its linear independancy, but I don't know that {v2, v3, v4} are linearly independent?
I'm not sure what this tells me span{v1, v2} ∩ span{v3, v4} ≠ {0}
that the dim of their intersection is >= 1?
yes
i think this may be best done by just applying the definition tho
take $c_1 v_1 + c_2 v_2 = 0$ and attempt to prove $c_1 = c_2 = 0$
Ann
i think you may not even need the first condition? just saying v1 not in span(v2, v3, v4) should suffice.
c_1v_1=-c_2v_2 soo...
-c_2v_2
but yes
what i was going to say is that assuming $c_1 \neq 0$ leads to a contradiction with $v_1 \notin \mathrm{span}{v_2, v_3, v_4}$
Ann
thus c1 = 0, thus c2v2 = 0, thus c2 = 0 or v2 = 0
okay so you DO need that first condition
to rule out the possibility of v2 = 0
the first condition tells me that v2 != 0?
you would have dim(span(v1) cap span(v3, v4)) = 1, putting v1 in span(v3, v4)
is it possible to determine number of solutions from just REF? or does it need to be in RREF?
it’s possible but i think in some cases it just might be more difficult to determine
Help?
I found that the determinant of AB is (2x-1)(x+1)
I'm not sure what to do next
do I need to do |AB| = 0? |A| |B| = 0 ?
like how I'm supposed to get to rank(B)
I know that rank(B) < 3 because not invertible
is A known? or only AB?
what values can x take
,w determinant {{1, 0, 5}, {6x-3, 2x-1, 30x-15}, {2x+2, 6x+6, 11x+11}}
2x^2 + x - 1
this needs to be zero in order for it to be possible that B is not invertible
it looks like 2x^2 + x - 1 factors as (2x-1)(x+1)
yes
so we know the x for B to be non invertible
so x = 1/2 or x = -1
what does it tell us about rank(B)
what's the rank of AB in both cases?
rank(AB) = 0 too
no
then to find rank(AB) i need to RREF based on specific x?
i'm saying you definitely went wrong in calculating rank(AB)
no way you could've gotten zero
I see what you mean, it can't be 0 because otherwise it'd be zero matrix
and it's not the zero matrix
so rank(AB) != 0
so let's say for example x = -1
,w rref {{1, 0, 5}, {6(-1)-3, 2(-1)-1, 30(-1)-15}, {2(-1)+2, 6(-1)+6, 11(-1)+11}}
it means rank(AB) = 2 in this case?
and rank(AB) <= rank(B) <= rank(Matrix of order 3x3)
so 2 <= rank(B) <= 3
how do I tell if its 2 or 3
B is non-invertible.
yes
I said it earlier but forgot
good point
and for x= 1/2
,w rref {{1, 0, 5}, {6(1/2)-3, 2(1/2)-1, 30(1/2)-15}, {2(1/2)+2, 6(1/2)+6, 11(1/2)+11}}
in $\mathbb{R}^3$ with usual cross product $\times$, is $$ (Tv)\times (Tw) = (\det T) T(v\times w)$$?
Carla_
don't think so?
what is v and w ? is T a matrix ?
T is linear transformation, v and w vectors
Let's say T has determinant 1 or -1 also
i have a feeling you will need T to be orthogonal
hmm sure, i don't really get why would this be true in that case tho
intuitively makes sense but how to prove it
let me ask again the previous question was wrong
Let $T$ be a orthogonal linear operator in $\mathbb{R}^3$. Does it follow that for any $v,w \in \mathbb{R}^3$ that $Tv \times Tw = (\det T)T(v\times w)$ where $\times$ is the usual cross product?
Carla_
i think it does now?
Ti × Tj = det(T) Tk
and likewise for the rest of the basis vector pairings
why does it follow that Tv x Tw = det(t) T(vxw) from that?
something something (bi)linearity
how do I show two linear transformations are equal?
I understand logically I need to show S(v)=T(v) for all vectors v∈V but I'm not sure if this is the right
yea, but there can be easier ways sometimes
it's not difficult to show that if S(w)=T(w) for all vectors w of some basis of V then S and T are equal
it depends how the linear transformations are presented tho
that's the question I had
and need to show T=S
i mean literally you can see the span vectors are in S and you can see theyre equal but
Since those are a basis, the value the linear trans takes on them uniquely defines the trans
it's not hard to prove it
am I supposed to do this?
(i never had a question of proving two equal linear transformations so thats why i'm clueless sorry)
wish that was actually true 
Try this. Write a generic element of V. Then compute S of it using linear properties. Maybe you'll get something cool
@heavy crown if two transformations agree on a basis of their domain then they agree everywhere
here's a generic element of V. how can I compute it into S if S only accepting two specific matrices ?
You mean because {first matrix in V, second matrix in V} form a basis to V then W = ImT = ImS = V ?
no
S accepts as input any matrix from V, not just the two for which the values are given explicitly
remember S is linear
oh right so because S(a(v1)+b(v2)) = a * S(v1) + b * S(v2)
which is exactly the general element of V
yea
and their sum is exactly T(v)
okay I got it 😄
thank you ann!
How many solutions does this have , anyone know?
That's a matrix
yea its in RREF
im confused cause im not sure if its no solution or infinite. The bottom row suggest its no solution but isnt column 2 and 4 free variables? Which would mean infinite
You mean the homogenuous system of linear equations associated with that matrix?
yes
so the system of linear equations is Av = 0 where A is your matrix
the bottom row does not suggest no solution then
it just says that the last coordinate of the vector is 0
over R or C this has indeed infinitely many solutions
so this is the augmented matrix
if its augmented matrix then it's not the homogenuous system of linear equations associated with that matrix
oh, why are they talking about number of solutions if they havent performed any row operations on it
but in any case, is it possible for a matrix in RREF to have free variables and only one solution? Or is that contradicting, cause free variables automatically mean there is infinite solutions right
the last row in the augmented matrix has a contradiction (0 cannot equal 1)
but what if a matrix in rref looks like this, then my book says its no solution cause the last row , but isnt column 2 and 4 free variables?
or is there something going on because its not a square matrix
if one of the rows has a contradiction then the entire system has no solution. for a linear system, the values of the variables has to simultaneously satisfy all the equations for it to be a solution.
maybe the positive definite propety of the inner product? that is, <x,x> = 0 if and only if x = 0 ?
@heavy crown
but it's not true for matrices to say that
Ax is a vector
hmm I guess it's fine then 😅 I'll just take it as is
that is how i see it, hopefully someone can step in if i am missing something
x^T x is equal to <x, x>
take x to be Ax, then (dot product properties) implies that Ax = 0
you're fine
alright thank you both 🙏
Hello, can anyone give me a real life example of vector spaces?
the space around you is a 3d vector space, just say "this point here is the origin"
bam you got a vector space
dats some real life real life example
if dim(Im(f)) = 2, how many cartesian equations the image has? (the space is in R^4)
prevalent in modern mathematics
write R^n on your paper
many sounds you hear can be described by vector spaces
is matrix dimension and rank the same?
Dyou have an example?
No ma man, matrix dimension is like 2*2 matrix but rank is the number of column with a leading entry in its ref
-
is the first equation the only way to rotate around some generic vector?
-
is the second equation used if a vector v is changing direction to a new vector since after I apply the equation below to rotate v, I can use the rotation matrices for the normal x, y and z axis since it is the same matrices as the ones to rotate along the new x, y, and z axises?
i guess i meant vector space dimensiomn
A matrix is a representation of a linear transformation. The rank of a matrix is the dimension of the image of the linear transformation corresponding to it (Equivalently, it is the dimension of the column space and row space (It can be proven that they always coincide)). In this case, if your matrix is say, m rows by n columns, then the column space would be a subspace of F^m (Where F is your base field)
In this sense the rank of a matrix is the dimension of some vector space if that's what you meant
Note that the row space lies in F^n, and even when m=n, the row and column space might be different, but they will always have the same dimension
a) has infinite solutions and b) has no solution
idk if thats what they meant @hoary flicker
b has no solution, a wants the (hyper)plane of solutions
alright thanks
this is definitely a #prealg-and-algebra problem, also wait 15 min before pinging helpers
Just cube it for the 2nd problem, you will see that it comes pretty easily
For the 3rd one just find 1/x,add it with x ,and square and subtract by 2
And yea,this isn't linear algebra
$\text{let span}(v_1+w, ..., v_m + w) = W\
\text{dim(V) = m; if dim(W)}\geq\text{dim(V), it is trivial, so assume not}\
\
\text{then w is not in W, as, if it were, }\
v_1+w, ..., v_m + w\text{ would be in W and an obvious contradiction}\
\text{w is in V, as:}\
v_1+w, ..., v_m + w\text{ is linearly dependent, as if not it would be a basis of W and W would have dimension m, contradiction}\
\text{but if it is linearly dependent, w is in span}(v_1+w, ..., v_m + w)\
\text{(by a previous result)\
\text{so W is a subspace of V}
\text{let X = span(w)}\
V=W\oplus X\text{, as:}\
\exists Y\leq Z\text{ such that }V = W \oplus Y\
\text{X is a subspace of Y, as w is in V but not W, so w is in Y, so span(W) is in Y, so X is a subspace of Y}\
\text{Y is a subspace of X, as V is a subspace of }W\oplus X\
\text{ie. }W\oplus Y\text{ is a subspace of }W\oplus X\text{ so Y is a subspace of X}\
\text{so by mutual inclusion X = Y, and so }V=W\oplus X\
\
\text{then dim(W) = dim(V) - dim(X) = m - 1, so we are done}$
bad tex! bad tex!!!!
yeah that's not worked
Ann
Kaisheng21
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
oh right
well that's a lot easier
i'll do that next time
anyway i'm fairly sure this works but can someone check it please and also it feels quite complicated, or at least it took me waaay too long so if there's an easier way can someone tell me it
nobody said dim(V) = m
V is not necessarily equal to span(v1, v2, ..., vm)
gimme a sec, i had...
a different version...
ok no
rename the entire vector space to idk Z
and let span(v1, ..., vm) be V
and the argument works, i think
let $v_1, ..., v_m$ be linearly independent in an arbitrary vector space Z, and let w be in Z\
let span($v_1, ..., v_m$) be V, and let span($v_1+w, ..., v_m+w$) = W\
we wish to prove that dim(W) $\geq$ m-1\
\
dim(V) = m; if dim(W) $\geq$ dim(V), it is trivial, so assume not\
\
then w is not in W, as, if it were:\
$v_1+w, ..., v_m+w$ would be in W and an obvious contradiction\
\
w is in V, as:\
$v_1+w, ..., v_m+w$ is linearly dependent, as if not it would be a basis of W and W would have dimension m, contradiction\
but if it is linearly dependent, w is in span($v_1+w, ..., v_m+w$)\
(by a previous result)\
and therefore W is a subspace of V\
\
let X = span(w)\
V=W$\oplus X$, as:\
$\exists Y\leq Z$ such that $V = W \oplus Y$\
X is a subspace of Y, as w is in V but not W, so w is in Y, so span(W) is in Y, so X is a subspace of Y\
Y is a subspace of X, as V is a subspace of $W\oplus X$\
ie. $W\oplus Y$ is a subspace of $W\oplus X$ so Y is a subspace of X\
so by mutual inclusion X = Y, and so $V=W\oplus X$\
\
then dim(W) = dim(V) - dim(X) = m-1, so we are done
Kaisheng21
alright final draft
i'm fairly sure this works but can someone check it please and also it feels quite complicated, or at least it took me waaay too long so if there's an easier way can someone tell me it
but i really really properly need sleep now so if anyone says anything i'll come back and look at it later
if I have a linear map R^3->R^4, with this transformation:
and I want to the find matrices of the canonicals basis associated to the linear map in each space, the obvious one would be the Mr4r3(f) which is composed from the vectors in the image in column form
then Mr3r4(f) would be the inverse of that matrix right?
and then how could I find Mr3r3(f)?
You can't invert a non-square matrix
I think he means the transformation matrix of f according to the standard bases for R4 and R3?
yeah I called that way cause I thought it was easier to read
Also you can't invert the bases and take the transformation matrix if your LT isn't an endomorphism
So Mr3r4(f) wouldn't even be defined
And even when it is, by laws of transformation matrices it would only give you the inverse if f is inverse to itself
Since you'd have
$[f]^B_C[f]_C^B = I \Rightarrow [f^2]_C=I \Rightarrow f^2=id_V$
ShiN
is a square one tho? 4x4
Your transformation is from R3 to R4
Your matrix will be 4 x 3
oh yeah
You can look at it composed eith the inclusion $\mathbb R^3 \hookrightarrow \mathbb R^4$ but since you're going from a lower dimension to a higher dimension, it won't be surjective
And therefore not invertible
ShiN
I'm trying to find the eigenvalues and eigenvectors of this matrix, I got lambda = a^4 as it unique eigenvalue, but when computing the eigen vectors, E(a) = (A-aId)x = 0, which basically gives a matriz full of 0s and the b, so the only eigevector I get is the (0,0,0,0)
but seeing the solution for this problem the eigenvectors are: (1,0,0,0), (0,1,0,0) and (0,0,0,1)
how that possible
What is E(a)?
the eigenspace of a
most of what you wrote was right, but you looked at (A - aI)x = 0 wrong
because it is 0 almost everywhere, you can almost free choose nonzero vectors and still get 0 as a result
(A - aI)x, with x = (x1,x2,x3,x4), is simply (0,0,x3b,0)
any values of x1 x2 and x4 will get multiplied by 0, so that already gives you 3 orthogonal vectors that are eigenvectors
and then if b is nonzero, then x3 must be 0
since x3 * b = 0
In the following we don't assume the axiom of choice.
Suppose 𝔽 is a field, V is an 𝔽-vector-space, 𝕂 is a field extension of 𝔽, A is a Hamel basis of V, 𝕂 as a vector space over 𝔽 has no Hamel basis.
Consider V ⊗_𝔽 𝕂 as a 𝕂-vector-space. (remark: this is the construction used to build the complexification of a real vector space, except here we do it for an arbitrary field and its field extension) Is {a⊗1 | a∈A} a Hamel basis of it?
I guess so lol
bruh
uhm hi, is the channel occupied?
no
Can someone give me an example of where random matrices describe a complex system?
what is a complex system?
Complex systems are networks made of a number of components that interact with each other, typically in a nonlinear fashion.
Can I get help on how to prove the converse of this? I really don't have an idea on how to start the proof for q->p.
what is adj(adj(A))?
are you asking or prompting chobu?
prompting
^true that is probably simpler
Why do we express costheta in this format?
it allows you to associate an angle to objects that don't natively have that notion
you are defining theta to be something that satisfies that. they should specified domain tho cuz cos is not invertible on every interval
let $p$ be a prime, and $\mathbb{F}p$ the field with $p$ elements. it's easy to show that the size of $\text{GL}n(\mathbb{F}p)$ is $\prod{i = 0}^{n-1} (p^n - 2p^i)$. now if I want to find the proportion of $n \times n$ matrices that are invertible, the expression would be $ p^{-n^2}\prod{i = 0}^{n-1} (p^n - p^i) = \prod{i = 0}^{n-1} (1 - p^{i-n})$. anyone know what these products evaluate to? (in particular, some computation `shows' that for each $p$, this product has a limit as $n \to \infty$. what is it?)
∧res
I had following question
and here is my solution:
First we observe that set of the form $x_0 + W$ satisfies the property of $A$. \
Now let $x_0 \in A$ be a nonzero vector. Then any vector in $A$ can be written as $x_0 + y$. Let $W={y \ | \ x_0+y \in A } $. If we prove that $W$ is a subspace then we are done. For $y\in W $, $cx_0 +cy+(1-c)x_0 \in A$ so $cy\in W$. For $y,z\in W$, $2(x_0+\frac{1}{2}y)-(x_0-y_2) \in A$ so $y+z\in W$. And thus we are done.
bert
Does it look okay?
does two block matrices have to be square matrices to be able to multiply them?
no
Block matrix A and block matrix B , i dont understand how these can be multiplied
i can only see how the A_11 and B_1 can be multiplied
but what happens to the rest?
A_21 ,A_22 cant be multiplied with either B_1 or B_2 correct?
why not
because A_21 is a 1x3 matrix and B_2 is a 2x2 matrix?
just multiply it like how u would multiply that
left multiplication by a row vector
is the same as right multiplication by a column
like soap has shown
Excuse me
The *Schwartz *inequality?
So we be taking credit not only from bunyaskovsky, but from cauchy aswell??
i have a question, as we know we can use linear algebra to get the colors of a picture using pixels so we can get a matrix from that and then we can calculate column space, row space and null space
but why do we actually calculate column space and null space in the first place? like what does it tell us about the colors
how do we elaborate our answer ?
it can reveal structure, e.g. being spanned by a low dimensional basis
umm can you explain more please
idk what exactly you want, this is very open ended
for example this is my column space for a matrix of white and black picture (0 totally white, 255 totally black and in between shades of grey)
so what does this explains about the black and white picture ? why do we have to calculate column space ?
maybe if you can check this, don't go through the steps just get the idea of what i'm saying hehe
i would have to know what you plan to do with the image to say more, really. all i could say is that the image is a 3 x 4 mat, and it happens to be rank 3. this means some of the image's content* (had a typo) is redundant in some sense
so basically i have an assignment that i have to use either vector spaces or linear transformation in real world application and elaborate on that
i don't actually know how to use vector spaces or linear transformation in real world applications i don't know what the use of that i only know how to calculate and get the values
i decided to talk about how we use linear algebra in pictures and all that
but i have to elaborate on why do we actually calculate it
this would make sense if you were trying to do something with the image
but if you just have it... there isn't really a point
what can i do with the image?
idk, compress, transform it somehow, express it in a different basis
combining two pictures will that work?
like this by using matrices and then calculate column space? or still no point of that
you could dry doing a naive fusion, sure
like taking a low rank approx of each image and adding them together
i did take rank of a matrix and nullity but i don't know what low rank approx is, i only took the basics i can say
this is my first time taking linear algebra
and it is killing me for now 🙂
@torpid venture Suppose your grayscale image is of size n times m. You represent it as a matrix and calculate its rank r. If it turns out that rm+rn<m*n, then you can losslessly compress the image by storing two matrices of size n by r and r by m instead of storing one matrix of size n by m.
help ?
yes
I ticked but I'm not sure
Do you know which of these alternatives might be?
Hello, does anyone know how I can relate rank of a matrix to control theory?
yes, since in the general case it's a hyperplane which goes through the origin
hyperplane of the co-ordinate space
y=x^2 is a subspace of R2 if you freshman's dream hard enough \s
this is really vague. im not sure what control theory is, but i know you need to expand on what you mean by 'rank of a matrix'. rank of what matrix? what is said matrix supposed to represent?
when determining linear independence is it sufficient to just see if the RREF of the vectors is a unique solution or infinite solutions to find out?
when it comes to notation, is there a way to differentiate dot product from normal vector multiplication?
since x is used for cross products, and can be used as a variable name
https://media.discordapp.net/attachments/853821798687703101/853822735247343636/unknown.png
https://media.discordapp.net/attachments/853821798687703101/853822536865415188/unknown.png
https://media.discordapp.net/attachments/853821798687703101/853822343612727316/image0.png?width=407&height=533 does anyone know this?
i don't know which ones correct
ive seen both done but idk where one of them is messing up
but dot can be used as a general multiplication sign in most contexts
think multiplying the corresponding entries of two vectors to produce a third vector
does that operation even have a name?
it's called the hadamard product
at least on wikipedia
not sure how it's used but it's a thing
you can also use $\langle v, w \rangle$ to mean the inner/dot product of the vectors $v$ and $w$
R2T2
I am confused about the use of the two equations in the picture:
https://share.icloud.com/photos/0-EgsFk-HItL_Qkl2j2WS4Qjg
My understanding is that
-
first equation (top one) is used to rotate a vector around some generic vector
-
the second equation is used if a vector v is changing direction to a new vector w and I want to rotate along w or vectors perpendicular to w. This works well since after I apply the second matrix to rotate v, I can use the rotation matrix transformations for the standard x, y and z axises since those are the same equations as the ones to rotate along the new w, u, and v axises
Is my understanding for both of these correct, I had to think to fill in some of the blanks, so I am unsure?
hey can someone tell me how to find a vector equation of a line given one point and the slope?
@wintry steppe R^2?
baby rudin is to analysis as ???? is to linear algebra? that is, which book is the gold standard for linear algebra?
Hah baby rudin is a very unique book, and linear algebra is not at all similar to analysis. I don't think an equivalent exists.
Still linear algebra done right is considered to be "very good"
@sand apex
Is there a quick way to find if A and B have has the same eigenvalues, and characteristic polynomial?
yeah there is @rose umbra notice that the matrices are off by labeling of the rows/columns, so they are similar
and hence same char poly
i.e if A has the rows/cols ordered like 1,2,3 then B rearranges that to be 3,2,1
easy to see A= PBP^{-1} for a permutation matrix
it works for this one because the reordering was the same for both rows and columns, leading to a similarity transformation
if the rows and columns had been shuffled differently from each other, a bit more care is needed
for completeness, P is an antidiagonal 3x3 matrix (like a left-right mirrored identity). this is, as johnDS said, a permutation matrix that reverses the order of rows when you put it to the left of another matrix, or reverses the order of columns if you put it to the right of another matrix. it is also an involution, i.e. P = P^-1
B can be obtained from A by flipping rows and columns, doesn't matter which one you do first. that means B = PAP
but P = P^-1
so B = PAP^-1, and the matrices are similar
i see thanks
If they're both invertible, then its RREF is I_n
In general, can we claim that the set L of all linear operators that act on some vector space V (by that I mean linear operators that take some element of V and give another element of same V), form a group themselves?
You also have maps which map something to 0
If you remove those you are done
This is assuming you are working in fin dim Vector spave
I don't know how it works for inf dimensional spaces in general
ain't that C2->C1 ?
Yes
Okay thank you, time to correct my work 
if you have a vector <1,2,3,4>, would parallel vectors just to k *<1,2,3,4>?
yes, and define k to be one of the scalars
A vector lives in $\mathbb{R}^n$. What is $\mathbb{R}^n$ called? The space that the vector lives in? Or the dimension that the vector lives in?
Shen
how do i find the projection matrix when i know the orthonomal basis?
is there an intuitive explanation to why the constant polynomial would lie in the left null space of A?
the space, yes
specifically vector space but 
actually Rn is inner product space cause dot product but yeah
dimension means the "size" of the space, so dim(Rn)=n
this is my orthonomal basis
how would i use this to find the projection matrix ?
i guess this ? $P=A(A^tA)^{−1}A^t$?
zeffs
that's true in general, but overkill here
if your basis is orthonormal, notice that A^T A is an identity
A A^T
zeffs
the middle term, inverse included, is just I
alright, but since theres only one column does that make a difference?
no, doesn't matter
you just get the 1x1 identity mat
so, a scalar 1
whose inverse is 1/1 = 1
so you still get A A^T
you would've gotten the same result by doing vector projections and grouping everything nicely
i doubt you've seen projections onto the row space if you're asking this, so idk where you even got that expression
the one above indeed
the one above is from someone elses answer, i just dont know how he got that
yeah, you don't need that
isnt that the projection matrix though?


