#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 210 of 1
becomes I
wait so i just multiply $(U^*A^*U)(U^*AU) = I$ and say that that's simply $D^*D$?
!superficialsicko
i overthought that.
ofc it's I only because A is unitary
so D*D = I
essentially meaning D* = D^-1
Yep
meaning the complex conjugate of each entry of D, i.e. every eigenvalue of A, is equal to its mult. inverse
Ok you kinda overcomplicated things, DD*=I is good enough, no need to move back and forth
right
let $\lambda = a+bi\in\C$ be an eigenvalue of $A$. then $$\overline{\lambda} = a-bi = \lambda ^{-1} = \frac{a-bi}{a^2+b^2}$$
!superficialsicko
yeah, it's enough to make D D* = I, which is pretty straightforward for diagonal mats
im not sure how this proves it but i think u can use inner product, its really fast that way
<Av, Av> = <A*Av, v> = <v,v> = 1
What does S to F here mean? how does a function go from a set to field?
a field is also a set
^
with fancy properties sprinkled here and there
I mean this just says that if <Av,Av>=1, then <v,v>=1 right?
"a function from S to F" just means "a function with domain S and codomain F"
it'S what every function does
co domain?
take in elements from one set and spit out elements from another set
the input set is the domain, the codomain is the output set
no space between co and domain
thanks, i wasn't aware of that
Okay, won't the output set be called range?
yea, I guess I didn't elaborate but v is a normalized eigenvector of A
so like ull get |lambda| = 1
codomain is part of the specification of a function, i.e. what outputs it's allowed to produce
image is the set of all outputs it actually produces
Oh, nice that is way better
Like I heard you don't need more than HS algebra to learn this
because the book assumes basic set theory as prereq i guess?
yes
Take a set S,let f do something,get a subset of F, which may be F itself
I've never heard about codomains even in apostol calculus
How they're different from image
ann explained it just above
Yeah
.
for example, you can have a linear function from R^3 to R^2
R^3 is the domain, R^2 is the codomain
but the image may very well be just a line in R^2, not all of it
or just 0
imagine a matrix of all 0s
the image is the 0 vector
Oh
Okayy
specifying the domain and codomain is like giving the bare minimum info about a function. it doesn't tell you much about what it actually does
Okayy
Is the sum of two invertible matrices necessarily invertible?
Answer is no:
Let A = I (Identity Matrix) and B = - I.
Both are invertible.
but the sum of them not.
so far so good. How can I prove it?
formally?
that suffices as a disproof
the way you prove such a statement false is by providing a counterexample
and showing it doesnt work
if you want to be really complete, i guess show the 0 matrix is not invertible
Could I find a general way to this?
I mean
for example I proved that AB is invertible.
the way you prove statements will be different from how you disprove them
hmm.
to prove a statement about a type of object, you do what you did - show that the statement follows from the definition/some manipulation/etc
to DISPROVE such a statement, you just give an example of it failing
okay.
sometimes there will be many many counterexamples, sometimes therell only be 1
but it doesnt matter
you just need to give 1
(and show why it fails)
in linear algebra, how does one interpret the search for a vector v so that Av = Bv' <-> v = A^-1 Bv' and wht does it mean to if a couple of vectors is a base of (R,R³,+,.)
is it just transformations using matrices? or how does one get their head around this
the main issue i'm having is to see what would happen if B in this case isn't an I3 matrix but a different one, or is that not possible?
The 1st thing you did just relies on the invertibility of A
$Ax=b$ iff $x=A^{-1}b$, assuming A is invertible
Mosh
well it was
maybe phrase the question better if it wasnt why Av=Bu iff v=A^(-1)Bu
the "search for v" is just solving the corresponding system
but
how does one visualize the "base"
is it like a distorted version of the x,y,z axis?
basis is just a set of vectors which every vector can be written as a unique combination of them
in R2/R3 it's just a set of vectors which define the concept of the axes, as well as 1 "unit" in that direction
so a bit like the parallellogram rule for vectors but with added properties? Like the sum of three vectors form one final one
ah
gotcha
B is a basis of V if B is indep. and spans V
that's all it is from the vector space perspective
dimention over what field?
ye
Am I right?
yes
if $A\in\C^{n\times n}$ is normal and unitary, \is it true that any eigenvalue of A is nonzero?
!superficialsicko
!superficialsicko
but $\det(A^A) = \det(A^)\det(A) = \overline{\det(A)}\det(A)$
!superficialsicko
yeah, but something more precise than this
|det(A)|^2 = 1 is what you showed
so det(A) = e^{i theta}
I think you had this as a problem the other day too, but yeah
at least good to see again, if it had a 0 eigenvalue the determinant would be 0, so that answers your question
interesting
yeah
Can anyone please help with where to start on this? I tried putting T in the functional but couldn't do it, do I substitute the v1, v2, v3, v4 into the integrals?
Can anyone help me with this concept. the answer is -5 17 -52 but how did it get there
Can anyone please help with where to start on this? I tried putting T in the functional but couldn't do it, do I substitute the v1, v2, v3, v4 into the integrals?
Hello, is it true that if det(A)=1 and 1 isn't in the spectrum of A then there always is a solution for (A-Id)x=b?
The condition det(A) = 1 is useless here
<@&286206848099549185>
$v_C = P_{C\to B} v_B$
Boomer
I don't follow the lingo though I need to see it written out to understand what goes where
In fact, when you have a vector x written with the column matrix X in basis B and the column X' in the basis C and if P is the matrix for the change of basis from B to C you have : X = PX'
Here you have to compute P^-1 X to get the coordinates X' in the basis C
so $1 \notin \sigma(A) \implies det(A-Id)!=0$?
FeverDream
mhm, think back to what it means to be an eigenvalue and it will be obv why this is true
ohh I see it now, thank you
I just don't get it I need a problem to work and see the steps step by step. I'm sorry @scenic fulcrum
Chet are you sure of the direction of the arrow in your matrix? Its weird
I believe what you do is, find the inverse of the 3 x 3 matrix then do matrix multiplication with the 3 x 1 matrix
Yes but the inverse of the matrix is a burden to compute
Ok thank you I shall try that and see
@scenic fulcrum yeah it's all from zybooks and they throw in some odd stuff
I think it is a terrible teaching tool
Scarlet you have to find the projection P(2x^3) of 2x^3 over the subsace and make the distance between both vectors
There is an important formula for the projection
do you mean proj(2x^3,1) +proj(2x^3,x) +proj(2x^3,x^2) ?
No
If I note <,> the inner product
And e1 e2 e3 the orthonormal basis you found
<u,e1>e1 + <u,e2>e2 + <u,e3>e3
u=2x^3
thanks
@scenic fulcrum that didn't work it gave me a different answer
What is the right answer?
-5. 17. 52
Ok
I don't get how it go there though
Because there is a mistake in the statement, the direction of the arrow
I think it should be C -> B and not B -> C
In the case "C -> B" you just have to write PX, the product between P and v in basis B
which gives your answer
Yeah that was the correct way for the next problem
In fact, when you have P(B->C) to obtain v(B) from v(C) it's easy, you write v(B) = P(B->C)v(C)
On the opposite side, compute v(C) from v(B) is hard, you have to compute P(C->B) which the inverse of P(B->C) beforehand
and write v(C) = P(C->B)v(B)
is the formula for finding the nullity of a transpose matrix the same as the original matrix, where nullity(A^T)+rank(A) = # of columns, or do we switch to # of rows?
A^T is a regular matrix
so if
nullity(A) + rank(A) = # cols
nullity(A^T) + rank(A^T) = # cols in A^T = # rows in A
also rank(A^T) = rank(A) is a common result in linear algebra
so yes nullity(A^T) + rank(A) = # rows in A
yes
ok thx
dam, u guys are smart
perhaps they dont want the x=, y= part?
just at a glance, havent checked your math
but thats weird notation
Guys, wanna ask, what is the geometric depiction of it?
or what would be the way of thinking of it?
im not sure trying to visualize this is a great approach
show the original in german
ah they want you to describe what it does to the space by looking at the image of the basis vectors
hmm yeah, describe the transformation geometrically
yeah.
Since it's 3D, it's not so clear to me.
you can view e_1, e_2, e_3 as representing the three "axes" of space
it looks like a rotation of the xy plane to me
well, this might help:
x_3 is mapped to x_3
and not otherwise used or changed
so the third axis is held constant
ie you dont need to think about it
you can just look at x_1 and x_2 and imagine its distorting a 2d plane
it's a 45° rotation, not sure in which direction off the top of my head
ccw
so try taking the inputs (1,0,0), (1,1,0), (0,1,0), and their negatives
and see what happens
(1 0 0) is mapped into the first quadrant
mhm, seems so
i did.
let's visualize it by GeoGebra.
:D
well he just described what its doing
It'll play with x and y axes right?
mhm
well, i keep saying xy plane, i mean x1x2 plane according to the problem's notation
It's a linear transformation right.
We could also expect scaling of the vector itself.
Am I right?
this one seems to preserve length
Yeah, it preserves I think according to the calculations with bases.
How about z?
Could I say these rotations are around the z axis?
That's a gift from god himself.
my drawing is at its best.
why do we ever learn cramer's rule if it's O(n*n!)?
its not computationally useful but its handy for some proofs
see the second and third example here https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cramer's_rule#Applications
i agree that its typically given too much weight in linear algebra courses, though.
should just be stated as a lemma/trick and otherwise not really focused on
but i think lecturers see it as a way to make students practice determinants AND solving systems at the same time
i heard its also used for over finite fields
and gives a simple formula for inverse of 2x2 matrix
I'd also argue it's geometrically meaningful
i'm stuck on understanding the last inequality, how it goes from "less than or equal" to "less than". I think it has something to do with choice of z but i can't see it. any help would be appreciated
$|a_m|z = |a_0|+...+|a_{m-1}|+|a_m|> |a_0|+...+|a_{m-1}|$
Boomer
And then you multiply the inequality by z^(m-1)
ah that's perfect, i see it now. thank you so much!
👍
Does anyone have notes on linear algebra?
Yes I do, cause I took notes
Can you share them with me?
No
- They're physical
- Using someone else's notes is bad practice, as they are less effective than making your own
I haven't even started my uni... i just wanted to look at it on surface to have an idea what am I dealing with
Look at 3b1b's essence series then
you can also watch some of https://ocw.mit.edu/courses/mathematics/18-06-linear-algebra-spring-2010/video-lectures/ after 3b1b's series
it's axler's linear algebra done right with all the proofs and exercises removed
good for skimming
axler is more advanced than most university's linear algebra courses though
even more advanced than the honors linear algebra course that my university teaches
^ its very abstract though, if you're doing a computational/applied class then it isn't that good to read
determinants are good
i can agree sort of
we wasted almost an entire month of my linear algebra course painstakingly proving every single determinant result
didn't even get to cover inner product spaces as a result
we spent literally two weeks learning that linear functions exist
in linear algebra 
but luckily i got to do gaussian elimination a billion times 
lol sounds like you should blame your professor for that one, not determinants
umm how do you spend two weeks learning linear functions exist
actually , dont answer that
:^)
Thanks
Thanks
it was bad
we also lost about a week or so because of the texas electrical infrastructure failing in february, but somehow (according to the syllabus) we didn't end up actually losing any time
well i guess we lost time, it's just if it hadn't failed we would have covered extra material
i am slowly learning how difficult axler actually is: linear algebra done right =/= linear algebra done easy.
yeah it was the first textbook i used after spending like a month or two learning how to write proofs. it was very challenging
same!

like 6 months after going through the first 3 chapters i returned and it was much easier. math gets easier the more you do 
it's just suffering 
LMAO. I don't like the sentiment, but I am forced to agree.
it's not all suffering to be fair
it's very cool at the same time
when a proof comes out clean, and i totally get what's going on, it's a rush.
those moments are fleeting, lol.
yeah and just the learning more concepts is fun 
im banging my head against chapter 3 right now. i get like 10% of it.
yeah that one was rough the first time i encountered it. very rough i think
the later half about the dual space was probably the hardest part 
🙏
youre banging your head now, but, you'll get used to it (:
do friedberg linear algebra
As opposed to axler?
Ah yes, his linear algebra series is a visual treat 
I have a small QQ about $\mathcal{L}(\mathbb{R}^2, \mathbb{R}^2 )$: do the linear transformations in here have their own structure? Like they form a group??
Videlicet
Surely that group is not Abelian cuz like a rotation composed with a flip, is not the same as a flip composed with a rotation.....
and the group is finite, no? There are only so many families of linear transformations from the plane to the plane...
Scaling
Flipping
Rotation
Sheering
You can take any L(V,W) and the linear transformations will form a vector space wrt addition and scalar multiplication
But if the action is function composition ? Do we get a group structure?
No,you never will(if you consider L(V,W))
Because consider T(1,0)=(0,0) and T(0,1)=(1,0)
That's why GL_n(R) is a thinh
what is that? I don’t have many skill points invested in proper abstract Algebra
Set of matrices with nonzero determinant
They form a group wrt matrix multiplication
You can fix a basis,and take their linear transform analogues
Okay. Tyty
anyone has any idea how to approach?
seems like they want the matrix in the canonical basis for R3 and R2, so you can try converting the outputs of A, which are given as coordinates in the basis T, to the canonical basis of R2
@lavish jewel Is the A is given to us in base-T? I should convert it so standart bases?
it's given with the domain coords in the basis S and codomain coords in the basis T
if i'm not mistaken, it should be as simple as multiplying A by a matrix whose columns are the vectors in T
someone can correct me if i misunderstood
i'm not sure what else to do tbh
yeah same idea
just like that
you don't need what they call here B_T, only the B_w
aside from that, they start in the standard basis
yours starts with the standard basis for R3, but the other basis T for R2
in other words, it's like one already multiplied that B_w^-1
so to "undo the effect" of B_w^-1, you multiply B_w (i.e. make a matrix whose columns are the vectors of T, and multiply it from the left)
so i do think what i proposed was correct
so i have a question. usually, to get the linear application u set on the colums the images of ur input, right?
so for my case, i have to get the linear application that transforms e_2n into e_2n-1 and e_2n-1 into e_2n
basically $(1, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{3}, \frac{1}{4}, ...) -> (\frac{1}{2}, 1, \frac{1}{4}, \frac{1}{3}, ...)$
equis de
basically $(1, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{3}, \frac{1}{4}, ...) -> (\frac{1}{2}, 1, \frac{1}{4}, \frac{1}{3}, ...)$
whats the matrix of this application?
how to make a matrix with this bot?
1 && 2\\
2 && 3\end{pmatrix}```
$\begin{pmatrix}
0 && 1 && 0 && 0\
1 && 0 && 0 && 0\
0 && 0 && 0 && 1\
0 && 0 && 1 && 0\end{pmatrix}$
🙂
Double \ not single
equis de
ye okey
but it is a patron
basically it is
e2, e1, e4, e3, e6, e5
and how do i prove this is isometry?
i mean, it is obvious, only the position is changing
not the values
maybe... the sum of isometries is an insometry?
so i can do 2 for even and odd numbers
: $
Show UU^T=I
what?
isometry isnt ||Tx|| = ||x|| ?
wait, i can actually rearrange the elements on x
Isn't isometry (Tx).(Ty)=x.y?
i dont think so (?)
i mean, idk if that is the same
In mathematics, an isometry (or congruence, or congruent transformation) is a distance-preserving transformation between metric spaces
So makes sense if it is defined as
mb,so it should be ||Tx-Ty||^2=||x-y||^2
yeah, norms are preserved
so for x =
sqrt(1+1/4+1/9+1/16+...)
yeah, i can rearrange elements, cant i?
i mean, for general case, not particular
to prove it is injective is made by proving T(0,0,0,0,0,0,...) = (0,0,0,0,0,0,...) only?
and to prove it is surjective, matrix has to have inverse?
Well injective actually means surjective wrt matrices
what is wrt
With respect to
oh, rlly?
i don't think that's right?
you can have matrices be rank deficient for only the rows or only the columns
you'll have to check the notation in the book or article you're reading
can be anything from product, to convolution, to complex conjugate, to complex conjugate transpose
or more
from those options only the product fits xD
ye
So if A belong to L2
the product is implicit
it just the transpose?
what's L2
just post the problem
aight
o.O
you just need A* = A^-1
well, okey
but in this case A = A* = A^-1
any unitary matrix is costant number on the diagonal, and conjutes of top half on the bot half, right?
tfw no \langle \rangle
Can sm help
this might be a better fit for either #prealg-and-algebra or one of the questions channels
see pins
Okay srry
no problem 👍
Hi,
is this the place to ask about linear/affine/projective Transformations?
yes, linear transformations are linear algebra
How do you denote the set of lines through the origin in R^3 in set notation?
ok thanks,
are some linear transformations in 3d, projective Transformations in 2d ?
for example a rotation around the z-axis x-axis
something like that
sort of?
if you do the final step of setting z back to 1
you represent the xy plane as [x,y,1], transform it in 3d, and renormalize the resulting vector's z coord to project it back
i would say it's more a matter of choosing to represent it as such
ok thanks!
each such line is the span of a nonzero vector, so the set can be written as
$\brc{\Span\brc x:x\in\bR^3\sm\brc0}$
RokabeJintaro
Why?
I don't think this makes it clear that is the set of lines through the origin
Wouldn't this also be planes through the origin?
why planes
Why wouldn't it be?
because you can't span a (nondegenerate) plane with a single vector?
do you know what span{x} (x!=0) is?
Okay
But it's not necessarily through the origin
For example, (6,6,6) is in your set?
Oh never mind it is through the origin
Hmmm, I need help here
I tried to get the 2 new matrices subtracted by 1 and 2, then reduced echelon form, but it doesn't work
The answer is completely different
Hi, is this enough to say T is injective?
because in my notebook it says:
If T is injective and {u1,u2,...uk}⊆U linearly independant then {T(u1), T(u2),...,T(uk)}⊆W linearly independant too
so I wondered if I could use it the opposite way like I said
no, counterexample: define a linear map T:R^2->R, T(x,y)=x. then {e_1} & {Te_1} are linearly independent but ker(T) is nontrivial ie T isn't injective
Oh I see, this makes things harder
I was trying to rely on to solve what I needed to prove
sorry for not adding it in the question
I thought saying if T is injective so KerT is 0 and then can prove it
but your counterexample proved me wrong hmm means I can't say it
also generally the converse of a true statement need not be true, so you can't go about assuming the converse of stuff you learned in class to be true
Yes I definitely agree 😅
@heavy crown for this exercise just use the given info
How do I find a basis for U = {p in P_4(F) : p(2) = p(5) = p(6)}? One basis that I think I found is 1, (x-6)(x-5)(x-2), (x-6)(x-5)(x-2)x, but I think there isn't an easy way to verify this
Yes I figured out later thank you for your help:)
why not?
How do I verify it?
I have to show that it span of that list is a subset of U and U is a subset of that list
Showing that it's linearly independent is not as difficult
mmm, maybe i'm missing something since I'm looking at this superficially, but it's clear that, since U is a subset of P4, and U is not equal to P4 (for example, the polynomial x is not in U), then the dimension of U must be less than 5, now, the three vectors you listed are linearly independent, because they are of different degrees, the condition p(2) = p(5) = p(6), cannot be met by any polynomial with degree less than 3 (excluding the constant polynomial of course), so, the only options left are third degree polynomials and fourth degree polynomials, if you were to add another polynomial to the list, then it must fall on one of those three classifications, but you already have those spaces covered
I agree with all of that, but that's not very concrete
We need more algebra than words
I think if we can prove that
deg U ≠ 4, then we are done.
Since as you said, deg U ≥ 3, and deg U < 5.
yeah, you're right, maybe you could suppose that there exist some polynomial q in U such that it's li to the others three, and arriving at a contradiction?
or you could try taking any vector of U, and showing that it descomposes in terms of the three vectors that you have chosen
maybe there's a easier way that I'm not seeing lol
well, is the fact that any polynomial of the form ax+b, or ax² +bx +c is not in U, enough for you to conclude that U is of dimension 3?
you could say that U, has at least, three basis vectors, but with showing that ax+b and ax² +bx +c are not in U, you are excluding 2 vectors from the whole 5 basis vectors of P4 ?
<@&286206848099549185> please tag me if you answer 🙏
MX = 0 <=> the columns of X are in Ker(M). There are n-r independant possibilities for each column. Then dim Ker T = n(n-r)
@heavy crown
Hi thanks for replying !
I agree there are n-r independant possibilities for each column, which is dimN(M)
but why dim Ker T = n(n-r)?
Let e1,...en-r a basis of Ker M.
Each column of X in Ker T is written in the following form Xi = ai1.e1 + .... + ain-r en-r
So you have to choose n-r coefficients by column
And n(n-r) coefficients for the entire matrix
@heavy crown
that's good explanation thank you ! @scenic fulcrum
how do i get the first element in a vector? i was asked to get $x_1+y_1$ as a result from a series of vector operations where $\vec x = \langle x_1, x_2\rangle$ and likewise $\vec y = \langle y_1, y_2\rangle$, i got to the point where $\vec z := \vec x + \vec y = \langle x_1+y_1, x_2+y_2\rangle$ but now i am stuck on getting the first element from $\vec z$.
Edward.
Ping me if you have any ideas.
is <_, _> meant to represent the contents of the vector here?
or an inner product?
contents, yes
they are components not inner products (which i use \cdot for)
this is actually a multivariable question but there's no channel here for that class
well, then consider that x_1 + y_1 is a content of a vector whereas \vec{x}, \vec{y} are vectors
so you need an operator that takes in vectors but spits out contents
dot product comes to mind
||take the dot product of \vec z with <1, 0>||
So, uh I have a Fibonacci sequence defined by :
$F_0 = 0, F_1 = 1$ and $F_{n+2} = F_{n+1} + F_n$ for $n \in\mathbb{N}$
They asked me to prove that $Fn^2 + F{n+1}^2 = F_{2n+1}$
Any Ideas ?
Herels
induction
hmm
that's easy to say induction when we are working with natural numbers, but for real I don't know how to do the second part of the induction here
well, lets say youre doing your inductive step, and assuming your statement is true for all naturals $< k$ and you wish to prove it for $k$
Namingtong
$F_{2k + 1} = F_{2k} + F_{2k - 1} = F_{2k} + F_{2(k-1) + 1}$
Namingtong
do you see how I did that?
and now looking at $F_{2(k-1) + 1}$, since $k - 1$ is less than $k$, we can apply the inductive hypothesis
Namingtong
try to go from there.
you switched all the n into 2k - 1 ?
if you mean the ns here, yes
and then 2k - 1 = 2(k-1) + 1 from basic algebra
if you dont understand how I knew to do that, I knew $F_{2(k-1) + 1}$ was a \textit{goal}, so to speak, since thats our induction hypothesis; and $2(k-1) + 1 = 2k - 1$ so I was looking for that
Namingtong
and i found it when i applied the definition of F_n
I'm just not sure about this line
apply this fact
for n = k-1
this is what we assumed when we started the inductive step
i.e. that the statement is true for n < k
and k - 1 is < k
yes
(in hindsight, i believe you only needed to assume it for k-1)
(not for all n < k)
(but whatever, doesnt make a difference)
now we want to prove it for n = k and more
so what does this become when you replace F_(2(k-1) + 1) using the inductive hypothesis?
no... you shoul have some squares
youre using this (with n = k-1) to replace F_{2(k-1) + 1}
oh my bad
anyway sorry, i have to go but hopefully you get this finished
someone else may be able to step in
😦
(although you may have better luck in #proofs-and-logic )
technical question: if a set S forms a basis for the space V
then it can be said that "S spans the space V"?
yes, that's one of the conditions for S to be a basis of a space
what is naive gaussian elimination?
if S is a basis for V, it must span V
however not every spanning set is a basis, since you can have a dependent set which spans
I'd believe so.. but I'm not 100% sure
since $(x^3-x^2-3x-1)$ mod 2 has a solution of x=1
Mosh
isn't it -1? Not 1?
I guess I should reword this, my question is why are we taking mod 2 here? Isn't finding eigenvalues mean that we are finding zeroes in the characteristic polynomial?
cuz the field is F2
Okay, I'm still stuck on this.
Just got back from helping grandma and passing out for an hour.
Okay, so I get two new matrices from subtracting 1, and 2 from the rows.
Then, I try reducing to echelon form.
But the answer I get is completely different from the key
Anyone here good with convex hulls? If so, please ping me (@)anyone knows how to calculate the effiency gap of elections?
is the adjoint of a transpose of a matrix the same as the adjoint of the same matrix without the transpose?
Suppose that U and W are subspaces of R^8 such that dim U = 3, dim W = 5, U + W = R^8. Prove that U directsum W = R^8
Can I just say that dim(U + W) = dim U + dim W - dim(U cap W), and so dim(U + W) = dim(R^8) = 8 = 3 + 5 - dim(U cap W)
So dim(U cap W) = 0 and therefore they only share the zero vector
Why is the span of a vector v denoted as span{v} with curly brackets instead of parentheses?
I'd imagine it's because the span of a vector is a set
@wicked palm That's not really relevant, because the output is a set
The input is a list
that's the one
Anybody have any idea how to do this?
couple of things I've noticed: the null space is defined by the basis [1, 1] so the null space is just the span of that vector, and since the basis of the null space is of dimension 1 you know that the dimension of the solution set must also be 1 be the rank nullity theorem
how do you graph it?
it's dimension 1 so it would just be a line
For vectors, what is the difference between the following:
-
The span of 2 vectors, u and v
-
The linear combination of the same 2 vectors, u and v
the span is the set of all possible linear combinations
its like asking whats the difference between "ℤ" and "an integer"
a linear combination of $u$ and $v$ is a vector of the form[ au + bv]
where $a, b$ are fixed scalars
Namington
the span of $u$ and $v$ is the set of ALL linear combinations; that is, ALL possible values of $au + bv$ given by picking ANY scalars $a, b$
Namington
Oh okay
Thank you
Linear combination -> vector
Span -> set
Rather, the set of all linear combinations, as you mentioned above
Appreciate that, @limber sierra
👍
If two vectors are not multiples of each other, then their span creates a 2D plane
Does that mean all vectors with a nonzero magnitude are IN said span?
What about a vector that has components that are only 0s?
no; it might be a 2d plane in 3 (or more) dimensional space
that said, the 0 vector is in any span
set your scalars to 0
oh ok
0u + 0v = 0 the 0 vector
👍
Thank you
So a vector can intersect a plane in a 3d space at only one point
and if this is the case, then the vector is not "in" the plane?
Assuming this plane is created by the span of 2 3-dimensional vectors?
im not sure what it means for a vector to intersect a plane.
given that an arrow can represent a vector, can't a vector penetrate a plane at some point?
if the vector isn't in the span of a plane then it "sticks up" out of the plane is how I visualise it
yeah yeah
except the vector's tail and tip are on opposite sides of the plane
do you not center your vectors at the origin? (or at least at some common point)
Oh this is just arbitrary
if so, then the plane visualization doesnt necessarily make sense
in linear transforms your vectors are always centred at the origin, what you're describing is an affine transformation
but I still don't think it would be in the span
A plane can be created by 2 3-dimensional vectors that isn't the x-y, y-z, or x-z plane
Oh alright
correct
so a vector with its tail at the origin can still intersect said plane
but isn't in the span of the vectors which creates the plane
the span is the plane in this case, i believe
ok maybe a more algebraic approach would help here
possibly
[x, y] is in the span {[a, b], [c, d]} iff there are scalers j k such that [x, y] = j*[a, b]+k*[c, d]
👍
also don't think of vectors intersecting the plane like it's a short line
vectors aren't lines they're directions
np
I don't know if this is the right channel but I'm not getting answers in the questions so. I'm trying to solve an overdetermined system (4 equations, 3 unknowns). afaik, there are 3 ways to solve: matrices, lesser squares, and newton's method. (correct me if I'm wrong). I was wondering how these methods would be ranked in terms of "complexity" of the math involved.
newtons method isnt used for linear sytems
it can be used but theres no reason to
least squares (along with newtons method) only approximates a solution, gaussian elimination produces an exact one
so one usually wouldnt say least squares "solves" a system either
anyway, gaussian elimination is very simple - its just a way of representing the "high school" method of elimination with matrices
least squares TECHNICALLY involves solving a very simple differential equation
so it technically requires more background
but its not much harder in practice - you dont actually use techniques of diff eqs
(its faster for computers, but again, only approximates)
newtons method is very very simple and also easy to visualize if you know what a derivative is
i guess if you want them:
ranked in terms of "complexity" of the math involved
itd be gaussian elim < newton < least squares? but really none are particularly difficult with a bit of practice
gaussian elim is literally just the high school method of elimination
its just that you write matrices instead of equations
@wintry steppe
okay. I should've been more clear bc now I have no idea. I'm doing trilateration with four spheres (satellites) to determine a point on another sphere (earth). The radii (distance from the satellites to the unknown point) is known for each sphere, now I just have to find the intersection point. So I have 4 equations (distance formula) and 3 unknown variables (x,y,z of the unknown point). Which method would be best to use?
gaussian elimination if you want an exact solution
although you can just plug this into any CAS
and it should do it for you
like type the equations into wolframalpha or whatever
er wait hold on
these equations are nonlinear
that makes life... harder
and means you probably wanna use least squares or newtons method
id wager the former would be better but im not really intimately familiar with the pros and cons of each
you can still try plugging the equations into wolframalpha though, it might be able to figure em out
or excel
so Axler here is defining addition of two linear maps......
i'm actually not understanding what i shouldn't know and what i shouldn't be assuming.......
so things i know:
- S and T are linear maps individually.
- S+T is linear by definition.
- \lamba T is linear by definition....
why does he then say "you should verify that S+T and \lambda T as defined above are indeed linear maps"?
don't want you to assume 2 and 3
he says they're linear maps
but he wants you to prove they're linear maps
it's not by definition, it's just that when you work it out they are in fact linear
well, i guess he does two things there:
a. he defines what it means to add T + S
b. he makes a claim that it's linear....?
yes
okay, okay. gotcha.
i have another question:
L(V,W) is claimed (without proof) to be a vector space.
i need to show that it is closed under this definition of addition.
isn't that just the notation representing a vector space?
which to me means:
S,T \in L(V,W) \implies S + T \in L(V,W)
no, i don't think so. it's the set of all linear maps from V to W, V is the domain, and W is the codomain.
yes ok
yep
okay, so this proof is saying something slightly different from S,T \in L(V,W) \implies S + T \in L(V,W)
it's saying in need u,v in V......
well S and T are functionals, so they need to take something in? just completely arbitrarily
so when you're manipulating them the arguments have to be in there somewhere?
wait, no
i was confused
so they skip through closed under addition and scalar multiplication in the first paragraph
the rest looks like just showing distributivity and associativity and whatnot
oh.....that makes more sense......i dont know why they didnt say that out right.
so it goes
Okay, I am having a very hard time understanding.
This has an algebraic multiplicity of 2. How did I end up with two separate vectors?
I am so lost when it comes tot rying to solve this.
Why is it the vector gives x2+2x3 = 0????
algebraic multiplicity is not the same as geometric multiplicity
as a simple example, take an identity matrix of size nxn. it has eigenvalue 1 with algebraic multiplicity n, but it has n different eigenvectors
x1 is free because the equation says x2 + 2x3 = 0
it doesn't matter what x1 is, because it is multiplied by 0
I must be lacking some sort of concept.
Oh, I think I get it now.
But how is the second vector x1 = 1?
well, what are the eigenvalues of the matrix?
2 (algebraic multiplicity of 2) and 3.
that sounds wrong
,w eigenvalues of {{0,1,2},{0,1,2},{0,0,0}}
This is where I got it.
These are both vectors from subtracting the values from the original one.
I know my understanding is really bad when I can't even understand the key.
i think you're missing too many concepts for this task. you will want to review how to compute eigenvalues again, and when it is that you get eigenvalues that are 0
because just by looking at that matrix, you should immediately see that it is rank 1
you should take a step back and review linear (in)dependence
I really should...
I have no idea how I have a B in this class. I literally know and remember nothing.
I am so lost...
I don't understand linear independence
A set of vectors is linearly indepdent if you cannot write any of the vectors as a linear combination of the other vectors.
Hello. I have a simple question, I think.
A solution states that the first two vectors in this matrix (in rref) are not proportional.
Isn't it wrong, since they have one free variable?
Thank you..
what do you mean?
if you rref that, you will get something where the first vector is of the form [1,0,x,x,x]
the second will stay as it is
[0,1,2,0,0]
there is no way to multiply the first one by a scalar and get the second one
I guess my question is, are they proportional?
what exactly do you mean by proportional
if it is in the sense i just explained, then no
Don't really know exactly. My solution says that it's not linearly independent, because they have 1 free variable, but it also says that the first two vectors are not proportional (don't really know what that means)
can you show exactly what the text says?
I have to translate
what's the original language
norwegian
oof
at most 3
This is the matrix from S
what are the v_i?
That's right, how did you come to that conclusion?
we have 2 linearly independent vectors
v1 and v2
linear combinations of these vectors will at most yield another 2 lin indep vectors
i.e. any 2 lin indep vectors on a plane can span the plane
Oh, okay, got it, thank you
Does anyone know why linear independence defined in terms of finite sums? As in, why shouldn't infinite linear sums imply dependence?
Well, for starters we don’t even really have an infinite sum of vectors. We have a sum of finitely many vectors only because addition is associative so the sum for two can be extended
if you talk about infinite sums at all you will have to talk topology
which in linear algebra is something you do not want to mess with
and also like, convergence bullshit
problem asked about set of all functions from $(0 ... 1)$ to $\mathbb{R}$ ${g=1/(1-x),, f_0=1,, f_1=x,, f_2=x^2,, \dots}$ where g is the sum of all other functions by geometric sum, yet it's independent
Orangus
yeah
because if all you have is the vector space structure, you do not know what it means to add up infinitely many vectors
I see, thanks!
hi can someone help me with this? thanks in advance
- check independence
- check they span uniquely
independence is obvious since the basis vectors are all of different degrees
u_1 and u_2 are subspaces of V
I found this as a way to get a basis for u_1 first https://www.slader.com/discussion/question/find-a-basis-for-the-solution-space-of-the-homogeneous-linear-system-and-find-the-dimension-of-tha-4/
would it be the same as getting the row-basis which my friend claims to be?
is this right??
If I have 2 basis B, C for same vector space with same number of vectors, how can I show that there must exist at least be one non-zero vector x, from that vector space such that [x]_B = c * [x]_C?, where c is some complex scalar. And the vector space is C^n so complex numbers. And [x]_B here means coordinate of vector x relative to basis B and same idea for [x]_C
so what I had discussed with some people before is that we can write [x]_C = P [x]_B for some matrix P. P in this case would be the change of basis matrix
But I don't really know how to find P and what I can do after this step...
so... change of base formula?
change of base formula is [x]_C = P [x]_B where P is the matrix from base B to C
but since B and C are arbritary basis, how do I represent P?
Do I just introduce new variables to it?
I know that P is n by n matrix
okay so what I was thinking that matrix P should be the same as matrix MN where M is the change of base matrix from B to standard basis S, and N is the change of base matrix from S to C.
which means N = [w_1 w_2 ... w_n] and M = [v_1 v_2 ... v_n]^(-1)
but what do i do next.......
any ideas <@&286206848099549185> ?
are you trying to say that each coordinate of x in base C, is the corresponding coordinate of x in Base B multiplied by this complex number c?
yes, but it's enough for only one coordinate of x to hold that property?, or should it hold for all coordinates?
here for the question image of L is there another way rather than checking suitable options?
, okay I got confused lol, by coordinates I mean the numbers that accompany each vector of the basis in the representation of some other vector, let's say that the vectors $v_1, v_2, v_3$ form a basis of a space S, and let $x \in S$, since $v_1, v_2, v_3$ forms a basis, we can write $x = a_1 v_1 + a_2 v_2 + a_3 v_3$, in this case each $a_1, a_2, a_3$ would be the coordinates of x with respect to the basis $v_1, v_2, v_3$, if the choice of basis is clear, one may write x = $(a_1, a_2, a_3)$
b2unit
is this an exam?
exam analysis, exam is over.
ooh, so, if [x]_C = (b1,b2,b3) (the representation of X in term of the basis C), you're asking if there exist a vector such that each b equals each a multiplied by some complex number right?
$\lambda b_i = a_i, \lambda \in \mathbb{C}$?
b2unit
yeah so [x]_B = c[x]_C which means if [x]_B = (a1, a2 ... an) and [x]_C = (d1, d2 ... dn) then [x]_B = c[x]_C means (a1, a2, ... an) = (cd1, cd2 ... cdn)
oh okay, I get understand, let me think a little
a really quick thought, maybe you are looking for eigenvalues of the change of basis matrix
yeah I think so as well
So i want to find its characteristic polynomial
but what is the change of basis matrix though?
a matrix in which you can multiply a co-ordinate vector to get the co-ordinate vector in the other basis
like I was trying to do this
you want to compute the matrix?
I mean I know what change of basis matrix is, how do I find it is my question
In order to find the characteristic polynomial, I need to know what the change of basis matrix is
Using a change of basis matrix to get us from one coordinate system to another.
Watch the next lesson: https://www.khanacademy.org/math/linear-algebra/alternate_bases/change_of_basis/v/lin-alg-invertible-change-of-basis-matrix?utm_source=YT&utm_medium=Desc&utm_campaign=LinearAlgebra
Missed the previous lesson?
https://www.khanacademy.org/math...
Just google "how to determine change of basis matrix"
but we want to find change of basis matrix from basis B to basis C which are both arbritary?
all that video is showing is [x]_B = M * c where c is the coordinates
yeah but then how can I find characteristic polynomial for arbritary matrix?
who said anything about char poly?
well we want to show that [x]_B = c * [x]_C
so I was thinking c is an eigenvalue here
maybe there's no need to go to such lengths as computing the poly char, showing that an eigenvalue exists may be enough for what you are looking for
how else would we find the eigenvalues?
Can you post the question you're trying to solve? This feels like an XY problem...
sure
isnt it a well known proof that every linear operator from C^n to itself has an eigenvalue? so in this case one would just cite that statement for an eigenvalue
oops, sorry , meant to reply to @verbal pivot
Let $B = {v_1, v_2 \cdots v_n}$ and $C = {w_1, w_2 \cdots w_n}$ be bases for $\mathbb{C}^n$. Show that there must exist $\lambda \in \mathbb{C}$ and non zero complex vector $x \in \mathbb{C}^n$ such that $[x]_B = \lambda [x]_C$
meguuuuu
Yes, I'm aware of that, but I wasn't sure if meguu knew so I didn't want to instantly bring it up lol, and midway the conversation I realized that I have a messed up in my head the differences between eigenvalues and generalized eigenvalues lol, so I was a bit uneager to keep talking
oh, sorry about that... i shouldve thought about that earlier , whoops
ill be more careful
but yea, if they can use that result, then I think that they are finished?
$\exists P\in\mathbb{C}^{n\times n}$ such that $[x]_B=P[x]_C$ by change of basis
Mosh
yes
since P is in C^(nxn), then there must be at least 1 eigenvalue (I dont remember the proof for it)
then rest is trivial
Yeah I was thinking about characteristic polynomial as well but then I would need to find P first right?
I don't know the 1 eigenvalue proof
Let A be a in C^(n×n), n>0 Then its char polynomial has roots cuz FTA
Ok so think about the char poly of P. it will be a n degree polynomial with complex co-efficients
so has eigen
the hint tells me that "Let S be the standard basis for C^n. Try applying the fundamental theorem of algebra to the characteristic polynomial of S_P_B * C_P_S"
$det(P-xI)=\sum_{j=0}^nc_jx^j \ c_j\in\mathbb{C}\forall 0\leq j\leq n$
Mosh
then that has a root by Fundamental Theorem of Algebra, so there will be x such that det(P-xI)=0
okay I think I sorta get it, but I am stuck in this idea that we need to find P first before we show that it must have roots. Am I correct or incorrect to think this?
P is just the change of basis matrix b/w B and C, so the columns are the basis vectors of B (or C, one of them lol)
Aren't the columns , basis vectors of B if we are changing coordinates from B to standard basis S?
which is why earlier I said this
should I go with that?
what is E(z) here? I am lost in how to start d
E(z) is the set of vectors z+h where z is in V and h is in H (which of course is also in V)
and Q is a set of such sets for every v in V?
guys, what are the principal components of a matrix?
real or complex coefficients
So, how can i get principal components?
I dont understand your question
how can i get the principal components of a matrix
This was a question on my last exam that I got really confused on. I got 1 and I know c/d are impossible. And E=B^T but I don’t know how to get B or F?
For clarification this is an old exam that’s already been graded
b should be impossible, since v in nul(B) means Bv = 0, so it cannot be in col(B) unless v = 0
f is possible for a symmetric matrix
No not true
just make a matrix with all rows orthogonal to v, and take M^T M = F
do correct me if i made a mistake
For example if we make the collums {1,2,3}, {-1/2,-1,-3/2} and {0,0,0} that is a matrix for b right?
heyy guys so I'm currently taking linear algebra at uni and am sort of struggling xD anyone have any good literature or website/yt channel recommendations to help reach a good understanding and get through the topics fairly quickly?
absolutely, good catch
Also you can take F to be the 0 matrix
I was so close! darn. Well thank you!
the 0 matrix is the simplest case of a symmetric matrix with all rows ortho. to v, indeed
Ah yes, that is true
whats the context for the notation?
ive seen it mentioned in MSE, but ive not encountered it before in texts
the only answer.
oh so it seems it is literally just the underlying set of the space
it only contains elements 0 and V
v*
so basically 1d vector space over F_2 it seems
what does that mean, underlying set?
so like
a vector space is like a set with additional structure right
this one is just two elements
oh, so this just lists them out explicitly.
mhm
tyvm
having eigenvalues and vectores, how can i get the principal components of a matrix?
Ohhh






