#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 207 of 1
btw I don't know how to write that fancy L that is used to denote spaces of linear transformations
found it
yeah
so what i was worried about in the formulation was like
if U and W were just any old subspaces of V
as opposed to the ones where U oplus W = V
hm i can prove that ker T^k is eventually constant, but i haven't got the specific statement you posted
feels like it'll use cayley hamilton

the sequence \dim \ker T^k is non-decreasing and bounded above by n so it must be eventually constant, and therefore ker T^{k} = ker T^{k+1} = ... for some large k
Maybe there is a way to prove it using cayley-hamilton (although I can't really see it right now lol)
There's a proof in Axler's book (I learned it there), that I find pretty nice
what page?
thank you so much, I wrote that when the eigenvalues are negative the origin is stable and when the eigenvalues are postive the origin is unstable. Then i provided some examples of slope fields to prove that claim
i might take a peek if i get lazy on the problem
i hate how my school went about post calculus topics in highschool
we did multivariable calculus first semester then did linear algebra second semester
so annoying
The start of the chapter 8
linear algebra after MVC 
right?
idk it was so tough
im surprised i have a B in this class
ugh of course it's a contradiction proof 
makes sense
neat result and neat proof
thanks
giving some examples \neq a proof

one way to see it is to try and put A into diagonal form or jordan normal form
is this where you ask linear algebra questions?
yes
I have subspace for {W as x(3,2,1) where x is in R} C R3
could anyone please tell me how to find the orthogonal complement of W?
I tried and am getting
(-1/3,0,1) and (-2/3,1,0)
could anyone please confirm if it is correct
and the dimension of W is 1
dimension of Wt is 2
do we have usual inner product?
Commander Vimes
so
3ax+2ay+az=0
yeah that's what I did
put 3 2 1=0 and solved for it
a(3x+2y+z)=0
so yes
x y z is in orthogonal compelment if 3x+2y+z=0
this should be 2d space
find its basis
sorry dimension*
check if any vector which is linear combination of those two is solution to 3x+2y+z=0
if it is then you are pretty much done
as in if I plug back the stuff in W I'm getting 0 so it is true
right
okay, thank you!
$$ y=mx+b$$
beautyiskeytosuccess
hopefully this helps you
Oh okay
This is how i had to do it
why would i use gauss-jordan elimination over just gauss elimination?
$A =
\left[
\begin{matrix}
2 & 3 \
5 & 2 \
\end{matrix}
\left|
,
\begin{matrix}
7 \
1 \
\end{matrix}
\right.
\right]$
zeffs
for this matrix, why would would i use gauss elimination vs gauss jordan?
You get a solution directly
Although Gaussian elimination is just one step longer
my unis teaching is fuciing awful
As far as I am aware,just Gaussian is for computing determinants and checking if a matrix is invertible
Explain with reasons whether the set S = {(x, y)|x = y} is a subspace of the vector
space or not?
literally first lecture the instructor just starts doing row echelon operations without telling us wtf gaussian elimination is, it was first in second lecture that term was introduced
Gauss Jordan is for solving equations
Please help with above question
but i need to learn gauss elimination to also do gauss jordan?
Gauss jordan is an extension of gaussian
So yes
Thanks to all of you who support me on Patreon. You da real mvps! $1 per month helps!! :) https://www.patreon.com/patrickjmt !! Thanks to all of you who support me on Patreon. You da real mvps! $1 per month helps!! :) https://www.patreon.com/patrickjmt !!
Gaussian Elimination. Here we solve a system of 3 linear equations with 3 unknowns u...
This might be helpful
After you get the upper triangular form
is that only used when finding gauss jordan?
Also this is the difference between gauss and gauss jordan
In gauss you do back substitution or you could stop with the upper triangular form if you want to compute determinant or smt
In gauss jordan,you do row eliminations from bottom to top which is kinda the same thing to get a diagonal matrix
i though back substituon and back elimination was the same
Yea,Back elimination is just a way of doing back substitution but with matrices
The part of the algorithm upto the triangular form is gaussian
If you do anything further,it is gauss jordan
Hello, any ideas on how to do this, given that definition 1.7 is the definition of the dot product ($cos\theta(u, v) = \frac{u \cdot v}{|u| |v|}$)? I've been stuck on this for several hours now
Liria ^(;,;)^
This was my attempt at it
But at this point a horrific amount of algebra begins appearing so I would think that this is not the solution
Ah yea, I went and assumed that u, v, w are unit vectors in their respective directions, to make the math nicer
Any suggestions for a different method or any flaws in what I've gotten would be greatly appreciated
Like trying to expand that using the fact that w = su + tv (Assuming all unit vectors) just gives me this monstrosity
(where a = u dot v)
divide both sides by -xy, then square, maybe?
Wait, why by -xy?
I could see trying to go and do this
but Id ont' think that helps very much
This is the actual question text, definition 1.7 is the dot product
Oh, try to assume the equality is true, then derive another equality that is obviously true like 0=0
no
say $z=\frac{\vec{u}\cdot\vec{v}}{|u||v|}$
then $z = xy - (\sqrt{1-x^2})(\sqrt{1-y^2})$
maybe from there somehow
Orangus
0(u,w)+0(w,v)=(0u, w)+(0w, u)=(0, w)+(0, u)=(0, w+u)=0

and 0(u,v)=(0u, v)=(0,v)=0
🤔
Pardon, how-to-get-help?
i saw it as 0
understandable
ok so you have field as R
then you have $(-\frac{z}{xy})^2 = (1-x^2)(1-y^2)$, try to cancel out everything
Orangus

Commander Vimes
wait that does not look quite right? Also I have to use the dot product to do this 
that too
I dont' thinkt hat we have that assumption
since i thought theta is scalar and () is product
i am idiot ye
you expand z, x, y to what they are in terms of u, v, w
In the scaling approximation part, is there any particular reason why you, in the first step, scale by the max absolute value of the vector, and in the next step you use the min value? Its because thats a convenient way to get the same vector?
aren't they just making the smallest abs element into 1 at every iter?
there is no real reason to scale one way or another
yeah, at any rate, it's all made up. just try and keep the result from exploding after many iters
so its like a conscious decision? nothing to do with the algorithm?
indeed
for a matrix with a dominant eigenvalue of multiplicity 1, repeated multiplication of a vector will yield vectors that are closer and closer (in their direction) to the dominant eigenvector corresponding to the dominant eigenvalue
be consistent about how you scale basically
i think as long as you keep track of what the vector was at the previous iteration, not even the scaling matters (i.e. you don't actually need to rescale at all if this could be done on paper)
but it isn't uncommon for the vector to blow up quickly, making your computer unable to handle it. if you have to rescale at every iter, you need to at least know the rescaled vector from the previous iter
at a glance, i'm pretty sure they choose the min abs element (or max abs or w/e) because this is less expensive than computing the actual norm. those square roots will pile up
Hi, if I have a 3 by 2 matrix how do I find whether it is linearly independent or dependent?
Because I cant find it's determinant
you don't because those concepts make no sense for matrices
did you mean finding whether or not its columns are linearly dependent?
No I want to do QR factorization
And wanted to know if the matrix is linearly independent or not
By checking its determinant
Oh okay
So for it to be linearly independent or dependent number of col should be greater than or equal to number of rows
Right?
The row vectors are linearly dependent
QR factorization only makes sense for square matrices, does it not?
You have 3 elements of R^2
Oh yeah right
Why are orthogonal transformations defined as <u, v> = <Tu, Tv> and not as <u, v> = <y,w> for every u in T^-1 y and v in T^-1 w ?
the latter seems make more sense to me in analogy to how continuous and measurable functions are defined for example
you mean (∀y,w)(∀u,v)(Tu = y, Tv = w => <u,v> = <y,w>)?
i believe this reduces to <u,v> = <Tu,Tv> anyway...
hopefully it does, but would be nice to have a consistent way to define structure maps...
structure-preserving*
what you said is just a longer way of saying <u,v> = <T[u],T[v]>
yea its kinda confusing imo to teach it like that cuz then when you learn about continuous and measurable maps you dont understand why use preimage
when if im not mistaken what always matters is the preimage for structure preserving maps
I appreciate what you're trying to figure out, but I think there's no analogous property for orthogonal transformations that we have for continuous and measurable functions
when I think of continuous or measurable functions there's some sense of thinking about refining it to smaller sets within, but I don't see any analogous thing for an orthogonal transformation going on
no, this map really is not linear.
if it was, then f([0,0,0]) would have to be [0,0], which it is not.
well orthogonal maps are injective so in a sense could maybe think of it as the trivial refinement.
in row echelon form there is no need for every leading entry to be 1 right?
so this video is wrong ? https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2GKESu5atVQ&t=109s
A system of linear equations represented as an augmented matrix can be simplified through the process of Gaussian elimination to row echelon form. At that point the matrix can be converted back into equations which are simpler and easy to solve through back substitution.
already the thumbnail shows gauss jordan RREF
yeah thats what i was thinking,
is it possbile for the rank nulllity theorem to not hold?
if so does that mean there is no isomorphism between two maps?
why are you talking of two maps
the rank nullity theorem talks about the properties of one map
i meant 1 map
still, no
we speak of morphisms between vector spaces, not between maps
for a dependent system of three linear equations of three variables , identify infinite number of solutions
Anyone suggest please
Project work on it
@lavish jewel hey. do you remember this question ?
Okay, here it is:
The zero vector maps every element to zero.
So this zero vector must be in the set of T.
But we're just saying that z(pi) = 0.
then yes it's in T.
but how do we know for z(2) , z(4), ....
wtf
that doesn't matter?
read the problem again
if z(pi) = 0, it's in the vector space
nothing else is needed
okay, that's the condition.
okay. let me rephrase that.
I already know what you mean, but I think I misunderstood the concept.
you're confusing yourself
sure
i have no idea what that image is
idk what you mean by above
I know. but Vielen Dank. :)
you're gonna have to learn how to 😛 or you'll have a hard time with linalg
what did you mean?
defining subspaces is kinda the whole point of linalg
you'll keep seeing this all course long
this makes no sense
why are you assuming {v_1, ..., v_n} is linearly dependent? you need to prove {f(v_1), ..., f(v_n)} is linearly independent
it's not clear what your steps after that are
you need to redo this
start by carefully writing out in full what it would mean for {f(v_1), ..., f(v_n)} to be linearly independent. then, prove it.
if you want to do a proof by contradiction you should add at the start that at least one of the scalars c_i is nonzero
but this is good
in fact if you get rid of the very first line it becomes a solid direct proof
very good
I agree with you. The proof is ok but is not by contradiction
so my intro to linear algebra class didnt talk a whole lot about skew symmetric matrices other than their definition, but theyre pretty cool. what course(s) would go into more detail about them?
unironically a lie theory course, they are the lie algebra of the matrix lie group O(n)
a pretty important example in that area
quite interesting although slightly disappointing that it won't likely be for a while. i dont think my college offers that. might study it on my own though; it sounds cool.
How do i solve a gaussian elimination when the systems of equations have an unknown coefficient a ?
Like this
Write that as a matrix and do
R_2->R_2+aR_1 and then R_3->R_3+2aR_1
So,You do it the same way as you usually do it
is this correctly set up?
but in the assignment they want me to do the following operations $ar_1+r_2 \rightarrow r_2$ and $2ar_1+r_3 \rightarrow r_3$
zeffs
Yea, That's the usual one
not sure if i should completely reduce then
You can reduce up to that step,I think
Help me understand this solution https://math.stackexchange.com/a/438762
Please
What elementary operations are applied?
is $R_2=R_2+aR_1$ the same as $R_2 + aR_1 \rightarrow R_2$ the same?
zeffs
*R_2 becomes R_2+aR_1
yea so they mean the same right?
Ys
Ye
okay thank u,
The next question is that i have to do this
i guess i could switch out a with the fraction but im not sure
what is meant by there isnt any solutions for it
What's the matrix you end up with if you only do R_2->R_2+aR_1 and R_3->R_3+2aR_1?
$\begin{bmatrix}
1& 2 & 1\
0&0&1+a\
0&-1+4a&4+2a\end{bmatrix}$
Buncho Dragons
So,you move R_3 and R_2
Now you when you are doing R_2->1/4a-1 R_2 you are assuming 4a-1 is nonzero
Because if it were zero,you can't divide by 4a-1
what do u mean exactly? After doing only $R_2->R_2+aR_1 and R_3->R_3+2aR_1?$
zeffs
i swap row 2 and 3
What is your next step after swapping?
R_2->1/4a-1 R_2 doesnt make sense to me, since a is now 1/4 why is there still an a?
i see, but why does that mean there isnt any solution if a = 1/4?
because nonzero?
Suppose a were 1/4,this becomes
$\begin{bmatrix}
1&2&1&| & 1\
0&0&\frac{5}{4} & | & 0\
0&0&\frac{9}{2}& | & \frac{1}{4}\end{bmatrix}
Buncho Dragons
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Which clearly has no solution
Since you could need 5/4z=0 and 9/2z=1/4 simultaneously
is this channel free?
I'm guessing yes
I have to find the coordinate vector without using linear combination method and I'm not sure what the other method is
If anyone is aware of the other methods name could they please share it?
<@&286206848099549185>
I have a basis set
and wanted to find coordinate of the vector that was given to me
somebody just told me about the other method: finding inverse of basis set and multiplying it with the vector given.
I got it, thank you!
<@&286206848099549185>
the circle-looking thing denotes composition
for matrices, this is the same as multiplying
but idk if its a type from the guy who made the answer but why is there an u ?
find a matrix A that has the same effect as applying T to x twice
shouldnt it just be T◦T(x) = T(T(x))
sure
typo*
Hi, anyone knows what this representation for matrix M means? P and Q are matrices too
this is a block matrix
@sterile plank
the zeros are zero matrices sized appropriately to fit with P, Q and their transposes
oh, thanks. So I can expand it and take M as a normal matrix?
is it a matrix of matrix?
???
no, it's a matrix of numbers, only its structure is described as being assembled out of nine smaller matrices
got it, thanks
So I am having a really, really hard time showing that the characteristic polynomial of this matrix is indeed p(t). I tried just evaluating the determinant of C(p)-I\lambda, but I was struggling to make any progress. Can anyone help shed some light on this problem? Thanks!
feels susceptible to induction
on n
So by using leibniz' formula (with respect to the last column), I was able to deduce that the only possibilities for c_i that are not 0 is exactly c_i\lambda^i.
However, I am having a hard time figuring out the signs of each term. They should be positive, but I am struggling a little bit on that part
You can just do it brute force by evaluating the determinant like you tried. Basically evaluating using the top row, if we start at the lambda term any non zero selection will have to choose one of the ci’s after choosing i lambdas
wait, I think I got it
Oh nevermind, you already did it
Yeah, I took the transpose and it helped a lot
Well you could do lambda - the matrix and then you don’t have to worry about the sign
I am referring to leibniz' formula here
I see
when they say u is an elemnt of ker(p) do they just manipulate it because u = u- p(u) is just p(u) = 0
and how comes u is suddenly an element of im(id_v-p)
Yeah, since p(u) = 0 and u = u - 0
You have this type of result, u = (Id_v - P)u
hmm can you actually do that because P is a linear map which confuses me
do what exactly?
if u is a fixed vector, then p(u) represents the image of u through the transformation p, this is the same as saying that p(u) is another vector
of course, you should be careful to not confuse when they refer to the image of a certain vector or the whole transformation
this feels so new to me like i've never been taught this
my exam is in like 3 weeks and i had no idea i could do this
@verbal pivot also when we get the result u = (Id_v - P)u, how comes we know it's an element of the image?
Recall the definition of the image set, if $x \in Im(T)$, where $T \in \mathcal{L}(V,W)$, then there exists some vector $u \in V$ such that $Tu = x$
in short, if you arrive at a result of a form $Tu = v$, then $v \in Im(T)$
b2unit
If you look at the example above, you have $u = (Id_{V} - P)(u)$
fixed a typo*
by range() you mean Im()?
yeah
I don't think that's right, keep in mind that u is a vector, while Im() is a set, maybe you meant to say $u \in range(Id_V - P)$
b2unit
Can someone help me out? I'm asked to find the wronskian for f(x) = sin(ax) and g(x) = cos(bx) where a and b are reals. Now I've worked it out and it is -bsin(bx)sin(ax) - acos(ax)cos(bx). I'm stuck when asked if these func are lin independent when a =/= 0
In my head there are a lot of possibilities one can consider
At x=0 sin(ax) is zero but cos(bx) is not, so they are linearly independant as if a/=0 then the dependance relation has to have non zero coefficients for both functions
how did you conclude on them being dependent?
They are independent because if you look at csin(ax)+dcos(bx)=0 where c and d are non zero, and substitute x=0 you get a contradiction
you said they're dependent and independent at the same time
No they are independant
"has to have non zero coefficients"
"they are independent"
are contradicting statements
It is a proof by contradiction
well you didnt say that
Assuming they are dependent we get a contradiction
$\alpha\sin(ax)+\beta\cos(bx)=0 \ x=0\implies\beta =0 \ x=\frac{\pi}{2b}\implies\alpha = 0$
Mosh
The second line is not necessarily true, if a=2b for example
Yeah I've figured it you take x = pi then they are linearly independent
Using the wronskian test
Also for those who are around, how can I show that this is not equal to the eigenspace
I get that it's not, in a practical setting
But here I'm only given a 3x3 matrix A with a thrice-repeated eigenvalue having only 2 linearly independent eigenvectors
I think this will work
how do i simplify (-2 x 10^7 i) X ( - 0.01i + 0.01j )
Wow thanks nice proof
Welcome
thank
help on these two would be much appreicated
for #3 also please let me know how you got to your answer
map 1 to (1,0,0), x to (0,1,0) and x^2 to (0,0,1)
can you show that in terms of T(p) = {...}?
T(a+bx+cx^2)=(a,b,c)
wouldn't you need to define a,b,c as a function in terms of the Original Polynomial?
I don't think I'm able to just show it as (a,b,c)
for #4 would [1 2 3 4, 5 6 7 8, 9 10 11 12, 1 2 3 4] be a good answer?
oh word
still need help getting a proper transformation for #3 if anyone is around
something like
t(p(t)) = [ p(something1) , p(something2), p(something3)], as an equivalent of the identity matrix probably
the matrix would have to be something like the operations that yield a taylor approx around 0
like the nth partial derivative of p(t) divided by n! and evaluated at x=0
(this should also be the basis of the dual space)
are there any transformations that I can show in the matrix that can be simpler when onetoone and onto?
purely injective would require the image to have a dimension >= than the preimage
could be any full column rank matrix
what i would do i just say what the basis is and just do it as matrices
unless they explicitly require to do it otherwise
integration should also work for the one to one
for onto, you can do differentiation without the 0th order derivative
Do you know generalised elementary transformations?
Yes. But I didn't get which transformations are being applied
Can you list down the ones you know? I am not familiar with what counts as a generalised elementary transform
First step is R_2->R_2+AR_1, which can be broken down into a bunch of elementary transforms
Swapping 2 rows or columns and putting a negative sign at front
Adding two rows or columns
Multiplying a row or column with a non zero number
So,Like regular elementary transforms?
Yes
I think if you show R_2->R_2+AR_1 is a generalised transform for all matrices A,this becomes easy
Prove same for columns too
I got how the third and fourth part. They swapped first and second column and put a negative sign
I didn't get how the second part changes to third part
Rank of the matrix at the extreme right will be n + rank(A), isn't it?
when finding the image of this map i did row reduction and found out the basis for the image is the first row, so would the image be x(1,2,3), where the 1st , 2nd and 3rd column respond to x,y,z respectively
what do you mean the image would be x(1,2,3)?
like the column 123
yep, but what's x there?
idk wouldn't x be there for the image
i mean
because the first column is basically all the x terms
the image is rather (x-y+2z)*[1,2,3]
where did you get x-y+2z from?
o
oh
but wouldn't the basis of the image correspond to the image itself
bit confused by (x-y+2z) is getting multipled by 1,2,3
the image is what the input gets mapped to
the basis of the image is a set of vectors that spans every possible image
yeah
the origonal question was "Determine the image ofgand find a basis for the image ofg."
well, the image is (x-z+2z)[1,2,3]
so im just a bit confused by it's [x,2x,3x]
a basis is [1,2,3]
tbh the second line there looks wrong to me
you're saying the image of the rref matrix is the same as the image of the original matrix
which is not true
you can test this yourself
,w {{1,-1,2},{2,-2,4},{3,-3,6}}*{{1},{1},{1}}
,w {{1,-1,2},{0,0,0},{0,0,0}}*{{1},{1},{1}}
all those things are different, don't mix them up
you look at the matrix and notice that all the columns are scaled versions of the first one
and recall that matrix multiplication of the form A[x,y,z] is a linear combination of the columns A_i of A, of the form A_1 * x + A_2 * y + A_3 * z
then notice that A_2 = -1 * A_1, and that A_3 = 2 * A_1
substitute back into the above linear combination
you get A_1 * x + A_1 * -y + A_1 * 2z
factor out the column A_1
I am learning game development and I have a vector used to describe camera direction. Why is the the x direction in the vector the cos(yaw) * cos(pitch), and not just cos(yaw)? If it helps I am using this tutorial https://learnopengl.com/Getting-started/Camera.
Learn OpenGL . com provides good and clear modern 3.3+ OpenGL tutorials with clear examples. A great resource to learn modern OpenGL aimed at beginners.
you can split the general image vector into av1+bv2+cv3, then just define the basis for Im(L) to be {v1,v2,v3}
@nocturne jewel This is how I did it, is it readable for u? But I still cant seem to determine how I must write Range L. Thanks so much for ur time
it's [1,-3,0] for the 2nd basis vector
if you fix the basis vector then yes, that's a basis for Im(L)
Im(L)=span{[1,0,1],[1,-3,0],[-1,6,1]}
❤️❤️❤️❤️
Although on chegg some expert said dimension of range L is 2
Hmmm, I need a bit of help with linear algebra.
This is cheggs answer but they didnt get the image
that's a different thing.. and also that'c chegg
Oh, is this still taken?
Okayy thxx
I just meant that for me the dimension of range L is 3
So thats why I mentioned chegg
yeah the dimension of Im(L) is 2, since the span I wrote is a dependent set
[1,0,1]=2[1,-3,0]+[-1,6,1]
so you do have to remove a vector from the spanning set I gave to make it a basis
My god, our teacher never mentioned this
This is a previous of his test
Thanks so much but my head is gonna explode now, I am going to reread everything u said like 5x so I can get the idea in my head. Thx ❤️
Hey dude.
any set that includes zero vector is linearly dependent.
we could get rid of that.
In this case lambda sub 4 is 0.
The image vector given a quadratic ax^2+bx+c is given. You can write that vector as a linear combination of 3 vectors [1,0,1];[1,-3,0];[-1,6,1]. For that to be a basis, it needs to span, which it does by definition, and be independent. It isnt independent since [1,0,1]=2[1,-3,0]+[-1,6,1], so I remove one vector and get a basis for Im(L)
Then we have the equation -20 lambda sub one + lambda 3 = 0.
According to that we can get rid of one of these matrices, right
?
what are you trying to do?
I'll just reduce this form to its basis.
ok so yes, remove the 0 vector
because it already makes the set linearly dependent.
and clearly [-20,-20]=-20[1,1], so remove one of those vectors too
yeah, yeah.
but wanna get the information from the coefficients.
that's what I asked.
you dont need to though
$\begin{bmatrix} -20&1&0&0\-20&1&1&0\end{bmatrix}$
Mosh
Hey, I've got a question, is it possible to present this subspace in the form of a linear span, if it's presented in a form of a linear equation system? And if possible, how do I do it?
like I've got 2 linear subspaces, one of them is presented in the form of a linear span of this set of vectors, and I'd like for the first one to be in the same form if possible
Mo1729
oh okay, thank you very much! turns out I actually only needed to find the basis of the subspace, and I thought I needed to find a linear span first 😅
But thank you, good to keep it in mind
In the case of this one, is the intersection of 2 planes. You just need the director of that line
Corrected version: So the above is the kernel of the linear map: $R^3 \to R^2 : (x_1,x_2,x_3) \to (9x_1-6x_2+3x_3, 6x_1-4x_2+2x_3)$. Now comes the question of finding a basis for the kernel. We know the matrix representing the linear map has rows: $r_1,r_2,$. So any vector $v$ in the kernel must have $v . r_1=v . r_2=0$. So the kernel is orthogonal to the space spanned by the rows. We then find the basis of the rows $r_1,r_2$ and then orthogonally extend using gram schmitt.
This is wrong. See above for the correct version
Mo1729
Hi, sorry the answer i gave was wrong. But i have corrected it now. see the correct answer
This is wrong.
how to show that |a| x |b| x cosX = a1b1 + a2b2 + a3b3 where a and b are two vectors and X is angle between them
that follows from geometry you have probably last seen in middle school :)
pythagorean theorem and the law of cosines
can you give a reference or show it to me pls
you just have to draw a triangle
and apply the law of cosines
you have to start out with defining the norm of course
the formula for euclidean distance follows from pythagoras
but once you have that, its just plugging into the law of cosines
|b-a|² = |a|² + |b|² - 2|a| |b| cos(alpha)
now use the bilinearity of the inner product
|b-a|² = <b-a, b-a> = |b²| - 2<a,b> + |a|²
cancel |a|² + |b|² on both sides
and divide by 2
<a,b> = |a| |b| cos(alpha)
i want to show this
i just gave you the proof no?
that is 2d so remove a3b3
the dimension is irrelevant, you are always in the plane with two vectors
and you already know the formula for <a,b>
this was derived from pythagoras
it applies in all dimensions
i havent learned this...
thats the law of cosines
its elementary geometry
what country are you from, i didnt learn this stuff in elementary school
not in elementary school but definitely before college
its a standard trigonometric theorem
like 7th grade math or something idk
i learned trigonometry in 11th grade
fine then 11th grade
you should have seen this before
and if not, then read up on it, you cant prove it without
if you want a geometric proof then this is the way
yes i want geometric proof
then read up on the law of cosines :)
Does someone know an elementary but rigorous proof of "Row-Reduced Echelon Form of any matrix is unique"? We were given the following proof in my math methods class but it makes no sense to me
@ebon river if you're comfortable with induction, this article's proof is not too hard to follow:
https://www.maa.org/sites/default/files/Yuster19807.pdf
Thanks!
Quick QQ: what’s the canonical set builder notation for a line in R^3, and also a plane in R^3?
I’m making it up on the spot and Im thinking:
$$\text{line: } \left {\sigma \mathbf{v} \mid \sigma \in \mathbb{F} ,, \mathbf{v}\in \mathbb{R}^3, , \mathbf{v}\neq \mathbf{0} \right }$$
Videlicet
$$\text{plane: } \left {\sigma \mathbf{v} + \alpha\mathbf{u} \mid \sigma,\alpha \in \mathbb{F} ,, \mathbf{v}, , \mathbf{u} \in \mathbb{R}^3, , \mathbf{v},, \mathbf{u}\neq \mathbf{0} \right }$$
Videlicet
It seems long winded, but i think that’s right
these are ok, but you need to specify that v is lin indep from u
furthermore, these planes and lines you describe pass through the origin
for something more general, you need to consider an offset as well
can an eigenvalue have multiple eigenspaces with differents eigenvectors? or it always has an unique eigenspace with its unique associated eigenvectors?
an eigenvalue only has a single eigenspace, but that eigenspace may not be one-dimensional (i.e. may necessarily be the span of multiple vectors)
the eigenspace will, by definition, contain all eigenvectors associated with that eigenvalue
Oh! I need them to be subspaces off R^3. So Im okay with that.
How do throw in linearly independent in the set builder notation?
since you want a plane in R^3, it suffices to say u =/= beta v
i mean... do you really want to overload your notation this much
this also excludes either of them being the 0 vector
i think itd be better to just say in words that you want {u,v} to be LI...
that's probably more sensible indeed
Oh! Nice. Tyvm
looks like $A \phi_\beta(v) = T(v)$ to me
Eρρa
i thought its phi_betaT(v) not just T(v)
yeah mb
so would A(v) = T(v)
no
Aphi_beta(v) is a column vector
A can only be applied to vectors in the basis beta
T(v) is an element of V
T(v) = phi_beta^(-1)(A(phi_beta(v))
$Tv = \phi_\beta^{-1}(A\phi_\beta(v))$
ryc
yep, there'S the phi beta i missed
the two are related via phi beta. they're not the same thing tho
so how would i prov that if phi_beta(v) is an eigenvector of A with eigenvalue lambda then v is an eigenvector of T corresponding to lambda?
Use this identity to help you show that Tv = lambda v.
I had Aphi_beta(v) = lambdaphi_beta(v) from the given
We have that $A\phi_\beta(v) = \lambda \phi_\beta(v)$
ryc
We also have that $Tv = \phi_\beta^{-1}(A\phi_\beta(v))$, and using the eigenvector identity, this is $\phi_\beta^{-1}(\lambda \phi_\beta(v))$
Yes
ryc
phi_beta is an isomorphism, not something you multiply btw
Well, you apply it on both sides I guess.
oh
That's not really the same as multiplying
It's not a matrix
it's a linear transformation
for this one can we move the inverse inside the parentheses since lambda is only a constant
but otherwise we can't shift the inverse phi_beta around right?
Because $\phi_\beta^{-1}$ is linear
ryc
ryc
this is just lambda v
f^(-1)(f(x)) = x
for any invertible function
ok, so we started with Tv and simplified it to lambda v
does phi_beta*T(phi_beta^-1(v)) = A then
that looks wrong
say im trying to prove the forward direction here but what does it really mean to be an eigenvector in this case
that's exactly what it is
they're telling you Ay = lambda y iff T( phi_beta^-1(y)) = lambda phi_beta^-1(y)
so to prove the forward direction i would have T( phi_beta^-1(y)) = lambda phi_beta^-1(y)
then multiply both sides by phi_beta
"multiply"
so it becomes phi_beta*T( phi_beta^-1(y)) = lambda(y)
sorry not multiply
apply it to both sides i guess
mhm
how would i simplify the lhs?
hmm i think this is the same direction as before tho
since we're starting with y being an eigvec of A
thats what im trying to prove
you should start with phi_beta^-1(v) being an eig vec of T
i started here
aight
then applied phi_beta to both sides
then got to this point
this here
so let v = phi_beta^-1(y)
then we get T (phi_beta^-1(y)) = phi_beta^-1 (A phi_beta( phi_beta^-1(y) ) )
apply phi_beta to both sides, and we get that phi_beta( T (phi_beta^-1(y)) ) = A y
ah ok
can someone help me with this? I can't figure out what happens when 1 is an eigenvector of A
the condition that adding up all the elements of A yields 0 is the same as 1 A 1 = 0, where 1 are vectors of 1s
you can use the symmetry of A and associativity of the products to show the last part... presumably
yes but if 1 is an eigenvector of A then after diagonalising, we can't be sure that all the eigenvalues are 0
if you decompose A into $UDU^T$ and let $w = U^T\mathbf{1}$, you are left with $w^TDw = 0$. Some entries of w maybe 0
Schrödinger's cat
if 1 is an eigvec of A, it would have to have eigenvalue 0. that's about all it says, as far as i can tell
okay
Guys.
I've found the general solution.
But the particular solution is different.
the answer is:
the thing is she picked other values that are fit for the constraints for the vector b.
I picked another b.
Therefore my particular solution is different.
Is it true what I said?
she picked b = (1,-1,3)
I picked b = (1,1,3)
still satisfies. would that cause problems @loud halo
this is how A is defined, no?
look back at what the matrix for a linear transformation is
the general solution to what?
I need serious help I don't get this and it is due sunday
Please help me understand it
Or at least how to make the equation
Wellultiple equations
the matrix is rank defficient, so the general solution would be the projection of x onto the row space plus any scaled version of a vector in the null space
I don't know what projection means yet.
but:
so according to b, our particular solution also will change?
yeah
guys, i have a diagonal infinite matrix. How can i prove that if the diagonal is bounded, then the linear application is continous?
Hi guys, can anyone point me in the right direction here? I want to get the two vectors in red and blue in world space, how do I get those if I know v1 (in the pic)
The green raster thing is all vectors perpendicular to v1
oh thanks! so my solutions are also not wrong.
hello, can someone tell me if my proof is correct ? thank you !
thank you very much 😋
How do I find the orthogonal projection of a subspace?
find an orthonormal basis for the subspace and then do a vector projection onto those basis vectors
I did that, but I'm not getting the correct answer. To be more specific, I want to find the matrix representation of the orthogonal projection of the subspace of R2 that has components that sum to 0 (so its basis is (x,-x).
The answer has a 1/2 factor, but I don't know where it's coming from
Ah shit I got it, I just wasn't using normalized vectors
Woops lol

to be fair, the vectors in the basis need only be orthogonal. when you compute the vector projection, one needs to normalize the vectors anyway. the result is the same if this is done correctly, since the vector projection is "in the direction of" the vectors you project onto.
Yeah but I missed the last part of the question, that it has to be represented in an orthonormal basis
is there some kind of result for that ABA^T is full rank
if B is square and invertible
and A is nonsquare but full row rank
you can use the last two results and substitutions to show it
on second thought those are not enough
yeah this is false in general
if B has no property other than being invertible, it's not true
you can build trivial examples using B = identity with permuted rows
then just using a few vectors from the canonical basis as A^T can give rows with only 0s as a result
trivially in R^2, let a = [1,0] and B = [0,1 ; 1,0]. the result is [0], since B was constructed to take A^T and map it into its own orthogonal complement
you can do something similar in higher dims following the same procedure
Anyone want to help me translate the Jacobi elliptic functions into a markup language. 😅
yes
A|B is just the augmented matrix , | is not Identity matrix but a vertical line
i think i saw it on stack overflow where rank A is = rank( A|B)
the name for it is Rouche-Capelli theorem
i think i can discard that and just put Rank A < n
for b in the span of the columns, the rank thing holds
Ah I see
May I ask, what is the difference between a norm, a magnitude, and an absolute value?
And how did you get that rank(A | B) < n?
so i believe that rank(A|B) is not relevant now that I think about it
I would have tried to prove the contrapositive here btw, that is pretty easy
they all refer to some sort of length
so my answer is correct then? or my logic to the question
and for the 2-norm case (euclidean distance), they're all the same
Not sure what the proof is
Well, I already know that. But, isn't there any difference between them, if at all?
just to prove that a nxn matrix of ax=b that has more than one solution is not invertible
Absolute value usually is the absolute value function on the reals or complex numbers, magnitude usually is the standard norm, and norm can mean any norm
Yeah but which proof are you referring to when you ask "so my answer is correct then?"
not really a proof but just my explanation towards why the matrix is not invertible
if you conclude rank A < n from more than 1 solutions and infer det(A)=0 from this , it is correct
Yeah
but I don't get how you inferred those 2 things
Well, given something like a metric, on $\bR$, the length output by the distance function would be of an absolute value, but it still represents length (or distance, as the name of the function suggests). If we put a norm/magnitude, they would be the same thing, so why invent all these terms? Unless, there is a difference, is there? If so, what is it?
tryme
Here's a much simpler approach,left multiply both sides with the inverse
Assuming A is invertible
rank A < n in mxn means the det(A)=0. thats what I found on stack overflow that helped me with the asnwer
Norm is on a vector space, it is not just a metric distance
And usually the metric distance is just called distance I think, not abs value or magnitude
Like, isn't $|y - x| = \sqrt{(y-x)^{2}}$?
tryme
if you're referring to rank A < n the proof for it involves linear combination but it is an established theorem , if you're talking about det(a)=0 you can prove this since 1 row will be of the form [0 0 0] in the matrix so determinant has to be 0
The other thing is what I'm not sure about. How did you get rank A < n
Sure, so you're saying it depends on the object?
A metric on R is an abs value, on R^n it would not be, for obvious reasons.
No, just that norm is a specific kind of metric that is compatible with vector space structure
But magnitude means the standard norm on R^n
Sorry, maybe I'm stupid. Can you rephrase?
One of the rows won't be 0, you'll have to work with the reduced row echelon for that I think. Also the established theorem part is what I'm asking about, if he's appealing to some theorem it's fine but I just saw a direct inference in the proof
Do you know the definition of a normed vector space?
reduced row echelon and row echelon has the same rank so how is that relevant here?
Yes.
A may not be in row echelon right? Like A could be
1 1
1 1
i think this is what i used
And then Ax = b won't have a unique solution even tho A has no 0 row
Right so there are multiple norms on R^n
One is the Euclidean norm that you mentioned
Another is "add the absolute value of each coordinate"
I think you are misunderstanding what I am trying to say , A does not necassarily have to have [0 0 0] but if rank(A) < n then it can be transformed such that one row is of the form [0 0 0] at least
I mean you didn't say transformed lol
Only one of these 2 norms is called the magnitude
The Euclidean one
my bad
Any other norm is just called a norm
How do I prove this?
take a parallelogram with vertices 0, a, a+b and b
so then should i just use the example and leave out the rank A< n stuff. It seems that the example is sufficient enough
its center, and also the intersection point of its diagonals, will be (a+b)/2
Example only checks one case
You need to prove that whenever there are multiple solutions, A is not invertible (or at least that's the statement you seem to have written?)
you're good with the rank A < n stuff as long you give the appropriate statements
it shows that whenever there is a row with all 0's, it has infinite solutions with a free variable, then the determinant will be 0 , showing that it is invertible
As in: [d(x,y) = \Bigg(\sum^n_{i=1} (x_i - y_i)^2 \Bigg)^{\frac{1}{2}}] ?
as he said this is just 1 case
Yes
tryme
but wouldn't it work for all cases since whenever there is a free variable and a row with all 0's it will always be infinite amount of solutions plus a determinant thats 0?
What about the absolute value then? (Sorry, last question.)
you have to show that there is a free variable , and you literally get det(A)=0 while showing that which you did
I think that just means absolute value in ℝ and ℂ
I assume, it is equal to the metrised norm/induced metric?
like adding an example to that is just more work
Yes, so for those fields in R^1 and C^1 respectively?
Oh well, I saw it used in my Topology book (Conway's book), so I thought I would ask, he used an absolute value and the one I gave you above interchangeably.
I was not sure about the definitions that I know in my head, nor the categorizations of them, so I thought I would ask.
oh I see, I guess it's also used as another word for standard norm then

I don't have access to professors nor people who study the same things I do, because my grade in school is not expected to study such things, and so I can't ask anyone about these things, and my only place to refer to such questions is the internet.
But yeah, thanks again. 😄
Isn't that what they're asking to prove? How can I just claim that?
Wait
well if you wish
one of the diagonals is {t(a+b) | 0 ≤ t ≤ 1}, the other is {sa + (1-s)b | 0 ≤ s ≤ 1}
you can prove that they intersect at (a+b)/2, with t = s = 1/2
Okay thanks
im not understanding this statement in the answer, how do we show that this annihilates A? (i.e. substituting A into the polynomial, we get the zero matrix)
Do you know Primary decomposition theorem?
Every vector v can be written as v_1+v_2+...v_k where each v_k is in generalized eigenspace with eigen value \lambda_k
the post i linked to is trying to prove this statement, so we cant use that lol
Ok,That answer doesn't work then
what book is this from?
Hoffman Kunze
hmm okay, ill have a look at that sometime, but im trying to understand this as it is
Do you know Cayley Hamilton?
yup
Maybe show the char polynomial of the restricted operator is (x-\lambda_i)^m_\lambda
And the minimal polynomial is (x-\lambda)^d_\lambda
hmm ok
okay, its obvious that the minimal polynomial is what you stated
but theres no reason why we should raise it to the m\lambda-th power for the characteristic polynomial (since we've already restricted the operator to the generalized eigenspace)
wait, are you taking m_lambda to be multiplicity of lambda in the characteristic polynomial, or the minimal polynomial?
im getting that $\lambda$ appears $d_{\lambda}$ times along the diagonal of $A|{E\lambda}$
xy
okay, so $dim E_\lambda = d_\lambda$
so $\lambda$ appears $d_\lambda$ times on the diagonal of $A|{E\lambda}$
xy
by this paragraph:
Consider Identity,(x-1)=0 is the minimal polynomial so d_\lambda=1
1 appears n times along diagonal
xy
i was misreading $d$ in your link to be $d_\lambda$ and stuff
xy
so combining these two facts we immediately get $d_\lambda \leq m_\lambda$
xy
wait, so its also not true in general that $dim E_\lambda = d_\lambda$
xy
Yes
i see, thanks man
If the linear transformation T:R3→R2is defined as
T(x1,x2,x3)=(x1−x2,2x3), then the nullity of T will be what?
??
at a glance, any multiple of (x1, x1, 0)
heyo
is there a nonlinear RREF method?
not sure how to approach, my current idea is just to take ln of everything but then that messes up the a & c terms
you can pairwise subtract one equation from another
then do some substitutions for the exponentials, and take ln
is there any matrix method to do this?
not off the top of my head
the idea is to do these operations to first turn it into a linear problem, so i wouldn't think so
I don't really see how subtracting would help
I would be left with ln(a) + ln (e^something - e^something)
oh
full on manual
fair enough
I was just curious if there was a more elegant/matrix method to do this
but makes sense, thank you!
Still trying to finish my project anyone available?

I could use help on figuring out this.
I want to know if it is right but mostly need help on question 6
I believ the others are correct
@zinc wasp To find x1 using Cramer's rule, you would form a new matrix from U, let's call it U_1, by replacing the 1st column of U with the given y. Then compute det U_1 / det U = x1
Here's a bunch of examples:
https://youtu.be/qmjapjGxf2s
This algebra video tutorial shows you how to solve systems of linear equations with 2 or 3 variables using cramer's rule. This video contains plenty of examples and practice problems for you to work on.
Use Excel To Solve Systems of Linear Equations:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=NhClXOI0ieo
Here is a list of topics:
- Cramer's Rule - For...
TY I finally figured it out
coomer's rule
cramer's rule was the first thing i learned about matrices when i first saw them on the bus ride to a competition in like the 10th grade and man was i not impressed by it
so disgusting to do by hand
no way was i gonna be able to do that fast enough

its p aesthetic though when u write it out
yeah it sucks by hand
wish someone told me what matrices were back then i might have gotten interested sooner
but noooo they had to motivate nothing
pane
What does Linear space V over a field F mean?
Like, I recently learnt about fields
What's a space?
And what's "over a field" mean here?
Are you using linear space as a synonim for vector space?
I'm not sure if I get your question about space (or maybe I'm not able to answer), but for the other question, if you have a vector space V over a field F, it means that the elements that you use for scalar multiplications of the vectors are in the field F, this means that if you have a vector $v \in V$, then by definition of vector space $\lambda v \in V$ where $\lambda \in F$
b2unit
Examples of F can be the reals or the complex numbers, I think that you can also use finite fields (?) but I don't know about that
I understood what a field meant. But what's a space here?
I don't think I can answer that :(, If you were to ask what's a vector space then I could answer you, but if you ask what an space is then I'm not really sure, but I don't have that much math knowledge, maybe someone else knows?
Like field has a very different meaning in maths than physics and english. I'm assuming space might as well be having a different meaning. So I can't just intuit something whose meaning that I don't know of
mmm, I think that if you want to build up intuition about vector spaces, then the best thing you can do is to start working with them, like seeing examples, doing exercises, etc
"space" has no meaning by itself
linear spaces (also known as vector spaces) do, however
a linear/vector space is a set of vectors paired with a field
your scalars come from the underlying field
for example, R^2 as a linear space over Q would be like standard R^2, but you only have rational scalar multiples
so you cant multiply a vector by sqrt(2) for example
note that R^2 over Q is infinite-dimensional
even though standard R^2 (which is a vector space over R) is 2-dimensional
anyway, "space" as a word means nothing a priori, but if working in a linear algebra context, 99% of the time itll mean "vector space" (AKA linear space)
its used to name a bunch of things in math though
like topological spaces, which generally arent vector spaces
Ohh
What does infinite dimensional mean?
there does not exist a finite basis.
Basis? like no minimum value or something?
Okay
the point is that changing your underlying field changes many properties of the structure of the vector space
Ohh
So a vector space is defined as set of vectors which are scalar multiples of a given field, changing the field changes the properities of the vector space?
er, not quite

a vector space consists of the following 4 pieces of data:
- A field (the elements of this field are called "scalars")
- A set (the elements of this set are called "vectors")
- A way to add 2 vectors together
- A way to multiply a scalar by a vector
the addition and multiplication need to follow various axioms
but thats the idea
Got it
you can change the scalar field at will as long as scalar multiplication still makes sense
Ohh
for example, you can regard ℝ[x] as a vector space over the field ℝ
where x is an arbitrary vector multiplied by scalar belonging to R?
er
What is it that I'm missing?
ℝ[x] means the set of polynomials in x with real coefficients
