#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 206 of 1
if $E$, a $2 \times 2$ matrix, is neither invertible nor 0 then it can be written in the form $E = uv^T$ where $u, v$ are column vectors of size 2
Ann
aha I see. I think it's because in that case |E| = 0, so E has one row or column with 0 so the dim would be less than 4
"E has one row or column with 0"
i mean, it is possible for all entries of E to be nonzero and det(E)=0 nonetheless
yes like 0 0 as row ?
the matrix $\bmqty{1&2\2&4}$ is singular
Ann
haha, true
can i use this fact in my explanation?
yes
okay let $E = uv^T$ and consider the defn of $U_E$
Ann
we will have $U_E = { (Xu)v^T \mid X \in M_2(\bR)}$
Ann
i claim this is equal to ${ wv^T \mid w \in \bR^2}$
Ann
yes that's true
yeah, and that in turn has dimension 2
it's spanned by $\bmqty{v_1 & v_2 \ 0 & 0}$ and $\bmqty{0 & 0 \ v_1 & v_2}$
Ann
but those were vectors of size 2?
Ann
U_E is a subspace of M_2(R), its elements are 2x2 matrices
okay so bringing this all back
we now know that if E is invertible then U_E = M_2(R) and if E is singular then U_E is a proper subspace of M_2(R)
does this make sense?
yes
okay
because of the span
so you had your problem say that {AE, BE, CE, DE} is linearly independent
and AE, BE, CE, and DE are all members of U_E by construction - as i hope is obvious
fuck. messages not sending
there we go
so we have that U_E contains a linearly independent set of four points, meaning that dim(U_E) = 4 [as this is all happening in a vector space of dimension 4 !]
yes
yes that's it
thank you very much ❤️
Cam anyone help me with a question
(x/y)+(y/z)+(z/x) = 1
Does this equation have any integer solution?
wrong channel
the space of real 2x2 matrices under matrix addition is isomorphic to R^4, yes
vector spaces do not encode vector-vector multiplication
so the fact that you can multiply matrices is irrelevant
erm
eigenvectors are from linear transformations, not vector spaces
Eigenvectors are just the vectors in the domain space which just get scaled when the transformation is applied
the correspondence between linear transformations and matrices does not work well in a vector space of matrices.
Av = Iv is nonsense
$A:\mathbb{R}^{2\times 2} \to V$ for whatever V you want
Mosh
if you mean A is the transformation
You can have the matrix representation of A
you wouldnt happen to have a specific question would you?
$I^2=I$, yes
Mosh
If A represents a linear transformation from a 2-dim space to another 2-dim space
then yes, that's the definition of eigenvalue/vector
what?
as an example, A=[1,0;0,2] has eigenvector [1;0] with eigevalue 1, and A is not the identity
if A is identity, then you have the identity map, in which any vector is an eigenvector with value 1
Av=lv for v being a matrix just means A is identity
what if v isnt invertible?
for example, Av = Iv is certainly true for all (linear) A if v is the 0 matrix
okay, so pick a slightly less degenerate example then
let v = (1, 0; 0, 0)
note that there are multiple linear A such that Av = v
for example, (w, x; y, z) mapsto (w, 0; 0, 0) works, but so does (w, x; y, z) mapsto (w, w; 0, 0) or (w, x; y,z) mapsto (w, x; x+y, 2x+z)
the problem isnt the "single element" part
its that v is noninvertible
perhaps you should be looking at GL(R, 2)
you could write it as a block matrix like [A,0;0,A] [u;v] = [Au; Av]
a basis for the eigenvectors are then just the eigenvectors of A concatenated with 0 on top and bottom
so the matrix v eigenvectors for a specific eigenspace are multiples of a single eigenvector of A in both columns.
v = [3e_1, -7e_1] for instance, given e_1 is an eigenvector of A
as matrices these clearly are never invertible since they're linearly dependent
try vector space of functions
like continuous functions on [0,1]
or finite fields maybe, just any random field you can get your hands on
Or just polynomial spaces
there's a game you can play where you turn on and off lights in a pattern by pressing a square
you can solve it by thinking of it as a vector space over F_2
(finite field with 2 elements)
I think it's easy to get the misconception that group theory is just mindless, abstract jerking off
I havent done Group so I cant answer this 
but there's a purpose to the stuff it does and it's for stuff
like just abstracting for the sake of abstraction isn't really group theory or abstract algebra
I'm not the end all be all either lol, I don't know what you're actually doing past just trying to find more examples of vector spaces to play with to get a better understanding
so I don't know what automorphisms and maps you're talking about
You need that matrix multiplication is linear of course.
And once you have shown it's an isomorphism of M_2(R), you know there is an inverse on M_2(R) but you don't a priori know that the inverse is also given by right-multiplication by a matrix. For that part you need to use the property of matrices that if a square matrix has no null space, it is invertible. Depending on how you prove that property, it could involve determinants at least.
Oh I thought you were asking about the question about Z = {AE, BE, CE, DE}. Ignore what I just typed then.
What are, in your opinion, the necessary prerequisites to start studying linear algebra by oneself?
@night gazelle experience in proof writing/reading & matrix computation
patience
if i have a set of commuting operators on a complex vector space V(dim n) and one element T with n distinct eigenvalues and a basis consisting of the eigenvectors of T, how do i show that every other element of the set can represented with a diagonal matrix
@next vapor it's not true as is
take operators $\m{0&1\0&0}$ and $I$ on $\bC^2$. they commute but the former isn't diagonalizable
RokabeJintaro
but it DOES hold if we also require the operators be hermitian, in fact in that case they're simultaneously diagonalizable iff they pairwise commute
but they both have just 1 eigenvalue dont they?
in the counterexample i mean
or am i missing something
yeah i think youre missing that @gray dust
my bad i missed 'n distinct eigenvalues'
@next vapor then it's actually true, try proving it for a pair of commuting operators and extend it to any set of pairwise-commuting operators
i think i need to show that 2 commuting operators share eigenvectors right
so if A and B commute, and v is an eigenvector of A with eigenvalue λ, then A(Bv)=B(Av)=B(λv)=λBv
so Bv is also an eigenvector of A
hm not sure where to go from here
@next vapor since A has n distinct eigenvalues, each eigenspace of A is 1-dim
you showed Bv is in the λ-eigenspace so it's a scalar multiple of v, thus v is an eigenvector of B
I believe this holds whenever there is a complete set of orthogonal eigenvectors
even if eigenvalues aren't district or are complex
oh yes thank you
that should be it right, since i can do the same thing with any 2 operators in the set
thank you, ill have a shot at proving it
you can't do this, no inner product is given
yea i was just gonna take the standard hermitian
yes extend to any set of pairwise-commuting operators
alright, thanks alot
Does A(Bx) = (AB)x ?
Oh forgot about that. Also, if nul(A)=nul(B) then can you say nul(A-C)=nul(B-C)?
let A and B be your favorite distinct invertible operators and let C = A.
eg Ax = x and Bx = 2x as operators R -> R. both have null space {0}. if we take C = A, then A - C has null space R, but B - C has null space {0}
Oh that's interesting, thank you
can i get a hint on this problem
i have a finite dimensional inner product space V with basis v1,...v_n and orthogonal basis w_1,...w_n obtained through the original basis
how do i show that |v_1|^2+...+|v_n|^2>=|w_1|^2+....+|w_n|^2
any hint? <@&286206848099549185>
I want to prove that if $T : \mathbb{R}^2 \to \mathbb{R}^2$ is a linear transformation that preserves the magnitude of angles, i.e.,
$$
\frac{\langle x, y \rangle}{|x||y|} = \frac{\langle Tx, Ty \rangle}{|Tx||Ty|} \quad \text{for all $x, y \in \mathbb{R}^2$},
$$
then $|Tx| = \lambda|x|$ for all $x \in \mathbb{R}^2$ and a constant $\lambda$.
I haven't done linear algebra in a while, so I'm not super sure where to start. Any hints are appreciated 🙂
Frank
Intuitively, T is a rotation + reflection + scaling, so it's clear, but I'm not sure how to prove that
@spare crystal Still stuck on this?
yep
Ok
I can guide you through what I did
It's not the cleanest proof
I'm just gonna work with |<x,y>|^2 |Tx|^2 |Ty|^2 = |<Tx,Ty>|^2 instead for |x| = |y| = 1
Since this identity holds for unit vectors iff your original identity holds for all vectors
And makes it so we don't have to worry about |Tx| = 0
Anyway step 1: if you evaluate T at x = (1,0) and y = (0,1) you should find that ab + cd = 0
This will help simplify the next calculation (and it also says that the columns of T are orthogonal)
Step 2: more generally, evaluate T at x = (cos t, sin t) and y = (1, 0)
You should find that the identity reduces to (a^2 + c^2)*((a^2+c^2)cos^2(t) + (b^2+d^2)sin^2(t))*cos^2(t) = (a^2 + c^2)^2 * cos^2(t)
To get to this you need to use the fact that ab + cd = 0 to deal with some cross terms
Anyway just choose a t so that cos(t) \neq 0 and divide by cos(t)
And also divide by a^2 + c^2, which you can do as long as T \neq 0 (since you can check that a = c = 0 implies b = d = 0 by evaluating at x = (1/sqrt(2), 1/sqrt(2)) and y = (0, 1))
This gives you (a^2+c^2) * cos^2(t) + (b^2+d^2) * sin^2(t) = a^2 + c^2
Which you can manipulate to get b^2 + d^2 = a^2 + c^2 by choosing a t with sin(t) \neq 0
So to summarize you have ab + cd = 0 and b^2 + d^2 = a^2 + c^2
i.e. the columns of T are orthogonal and have the same length
So you can write T = lambda * S where S is an orthogonal matrix
This is what you wanted
oh hmm, i will try to work that out, thanks so much!!
No problem lol
Like I said it's not the cleanest proof
I would hate to do that for n > 2
But I think it all works
yeah lol
SCENARIO 1:
Given a vector space V, with basis a,b,c,d; I can prove that
a+b, b+c, c+d, d is also a basis for V.
I proved the above claim.
I have not proved the following::
SCENARIO 2:
Consider a basis,
a,b,...., z.
a+b, b, ..... , z is also a basis.
Is the second scenario like a special case of the first scenario.
it's not
in scenario 2 you presumably have 26 basis vectors for a 26-dimensional space
which is not at all a special case of scenario 1, which deals only with 4-dimensional spaces
lol, just say n, not 26
if you want n then use proper notation
like $v_1, v_2, \dots, v_n$ and $v_1+v_2, v_2, \dots, v_n$
Ann
those are the lists you are considering
thanks!
of which the former you are requiring to be a basis
Yup
anyway no, these are not special cases of each other
There’s a pattern here, seemingly:
$v_1, v_2 \text{ is a basis} \iff v_1 + v_2, v_2 \text{ is a basis} $
$$v_1, v_2 \text{ is a basis} \iff v_1 + v_2, v_2 \text{ is a basis} $$
ninnymonger is a Physics main.
$v_1, v_2$ is a basis iff $v_1+v_2, v_2$ is a basis
Ann
in this case however these bases differ by three vectors, not one.
you can use the definition of linear independence and see what happens
and....
$$v_1, v_2, v_3 \text{ is a basis} \iff v_1 + v_2, v_2+v_3, v_3 \text{ is a basis} $$
ninnymonger is a Physics main.
okay so
Is there a name for this pattern?
and I also think that the following is true
$$v_1, v_2, v_3, , \ldots, ,v_n \text{ is a basis} \iff v_1 + v_2, v_2 +v_3, , \ldots, v_{n-1} + v_n ,v_n\text{ is a basis} $$
ninnymonger is a Physics main.
hmm I have two formulas for obtaining the iterative solution in Jacobi Method
the first one is the wikpedia one, the second is the one I've been taught, they are the same except in the second one you add the L+U matrix
are they equivalent?
no, the second one seems wrong
the method is based on letting A = L + D + U, and then subtracting (L + U)x from both sides
in your second image, this would mean that L and U have a different definition, i.e. they are the strictly upper and lower triangular parts of negative A, instead of A
oh true, they are using -A
Assuming the system given by Ax = b is consistent, then it has a unique solution only if A has full column rank. Is that correct?
sounds ok
Yup, assuming the general (non-square) case
Hi #linear-algebra .
I need to find ALL the vector spaces with only one basis.
Step 1: I can prove that if my basis is the empty set, then my vector space is the singleton set containing the zero vector {0}.
Step 2: If can prove that if my vector space is {0}, then my basis is the empty set of vectors.
does this prove that {0} is the only vector space with one basis?
Step 1: is by definitions of span of the empty set and linear independence of the empty set.
Also by set theory, I know that the empty set is in unique.
This proves that {0} is the unique vector space with the empty set as a basis
You would still have to show that a vector space has exactly one basis iff that basis is the empty set.
Which BTW I think is false in one case: a one-dimensional vector space over the field with two elements
Curious you mention that: MSE says something along those lines. https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1258364/what-kind-of-vector-spaces-have-exactly-one-basis
{0} and span{v} for any vector v under F_2
Lol. I don’t know how to work with F_2. I guess I can make the multiplication table.....
Also this mentions that finite field. https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/468339/necessary-condition-of-a-vector-space-having-only-one-basis
F_2 is nice in that span{v}={v,0}
Can you be more explicit. I dont see that
F_2 is just field of remainders modulo 2
Yes
$$v+v = v (1+1) = v* 0 = 0$$
ninnymonger is a Physics main.
F_2 = {0,1} and +, * defined as usual operations but taken modulo 2
Your field has to be over F_2
Otherwise,you can just pick {-v_1} instead of {v_1} to span the space
Okay, so my only scalars in F2 are Zero and One:
$$ span(v) = { 0v , 1 v }$$
Okay, i think I follow.
ninnymonger is a Physics main.
Yes
I don’t understand this.
obviously -v is in V over F_2......?
How would I go about doing this?
In F_2,v=-v
could still use help with this if possible
i tried it with a basis of just 2 vectors but things got really messy and led to a dead end
- If basis is empty, it's the only basis.
- If basis is non-empty, there's another basis.
As has been mentioned, 2. is wrong in general, but you can show it if you assume that it's not a basis of size 1 over F_2.
Was it obtained by the Gram-Schmidt algorithm?
If so, prove that || |w_i|^2 <= |v_i|^2 for every i, (and in fact equality iff w_i = v_i)||.
Hint: ||w_i is defined as v_i - a for some expression. Prove that |v_i|^2 = |w|^2 + |a|^2.||
idk if im messing up but i get that |w_i|^2=|v_i|^2+|a|^2-2<v_i,a>
which doesnt seem right
this is just calculating <v_n-a,v_n-a> right?
Any easy proof for Sylvester rank inequality?
Hello. Can you give me an example of an operator which has no adjoint?
Thanks. I have already seen that thread. However, it is too hard for me to understand; also, I did not see any specific example there. There is no simple example of such an operator?
well you can pick a particular sequence xi and construct the operator as the first answer writes
sorry for the ping but i cant seem to get the equality |v_i|^2=|w|^2+|a|^2@viral flint
its just computing the inner product of v_i-a with itself right?
Yes. Why can't you get the equation?
so <v_i-a,v_i-a> = <v_i , v_i-a>+ <-a, v_i-a>= <v_i , v_i>+ <-a , v_i>+ <v_i , -a>+ <-a,-a>
which simplifies to |v_i|^2+|a|^2+2<v_i,-a>
so |w_i|^2=|v_i|^2+|a|^2+2<v_i,-a>
but how do you go from this to that equation
or am i going wrong somewhere?
right? @viral flint
Right so far
So if you want to get from here to the desired equation, what do you need to show?
i would need to have |a|^2-2<v_i,a> equal to -|a|^2 right
so |a|^2 would have to be equal to <v_i,a>
Yes
You have a formula for a presumably
Use that to calculate |a|^2 = <a, a> and <v_i, a> and check that their difference is 0.
so a is <v_i,w_1>/|w_1|^2w_1+...<v_1,w_i-1>/|w_i-1|^2* w_i-1
wait cant i just say that <v_i, a> -<a,a> =<v_i, a-a>=<v_i, 0> which is just 0?
wait no thats wrong
hm im not seeing any cancellations its just a jumbled mess
im not seeing this ill come back to it later
i just wanna double check a solution
I have an inner product space and i want to find all vectors v and w such that proj_v(proj_w(v))=proj_w((proj_v(w)
but when i apply the formula for projections i get that v=w
but that seems too simple
anyone mind confirming or denying this? 😅 <@&286206848099549185>
Oh sorry forgot about this
Wouldn't it be <v_i - a, a> i.e. <w_i, a>?
Anyway
Yes now substitute it into <a, a> and <v_i, a> and try to calculate both
yea i expanded the inner products using that formula but i dont see any cancelllations, am i missing something?
Yes
Did you use that w_1, …, w_(i-1) are orthogonal?
oh right i completely forgot about that
so when i expand <w_i,a> i get inner products in terms of the orthogonal basis
and it equals 0 so that show the equality
and just to confirm that equality happens iff v_i=w_i for all i
if they are equal then equality follows trivially because its already an orthogonal basis
the other direction we have |v_i|^2=|w_i|^2 --> so |a|^2 is 0 meaning all the inner products <v_i,w_i> are 0 meaning theyre orthogonal
so our original basis is already orthogonal
does this look right? @viral flint
hey guys, why do we need gram-schmidt to obtain orthonormal bases. Why can't we just take basic projections and then obtain them
No it doesn't show <v_i, w_i> = 0. It shows that v_i = w_i.
Otherwise correct
What is your construction exactly?
Suppose e_1, ...., e_n is a basis for the vector space.
How exactly would you obtain an orthogonal basis w_1, ..., w_n from it?
wait why doesnt it show <v_i,w_i>=0?
a is <v_i,w_1>/|w_1|^2w_1+...<v_1,w_i-1>/|w_i-1|^2* w_i-1 and we want everything to be 0 right
and since w_i is a non zero vector that means each <v_i,w_i> has to be 0 for the whol thing to be 0 no?
Yes (although you need that w_i are linearly independent, not just non-zero)
So <v_i, w_1> = <v_i, w_2> = ... = <v_i, w_(i-1)>
Doing this for all i,
<v_i, w_j> = 0 whenever i > j
which is extremely different from saying <v_i, w_i> = 0 for all i (notice the same i in both subscripts)
but w_i are linearly independent arent they, since theyre an orthogonal basis
Yes, I was just pointing out that you need to use that to conclude that the coefficients are 0.
More importantly, did you understand the difference between
<v_i, w_j> = 0 (all i,j such that i > j)
and
<v_i, w_i> = 0 (all i)
?
In any case, this is getting unnecessarily complicated.
If |w_i|^2 = |v_i|^2 = |w_i|^2 + |a_i|^2, then |a_i| = 0 so a_i = 0 so w_i = v_i - a_i = v_i.
Here a_i is the a you used for finding w_i from v_i, labelled with an extra i for clarity.
If A is an nxn matrix and i wanted to show that A and A+I have different characteristic polynomials
is there an easier way than calculating the determinant explicitly
char poly of A = det(A - tI)
char poly of A + I = det(A + I - tI) = det(A - (t - 1)I)
Idk, seems complicated
Hello chat. I would like to confirm if it's possible to exist more than one t which would make phi a linear Transformation with this given vectors? I have found it to be t != 1. thanks in advance!
almost forgot this if this matters at all
Can someone help me with this? I saw something like this in a classical mechanics book and I'm bent
I'm looking to understand the steps
Is this true?
How are you defining derivative wrt B?
May I get assistance for this question. Thank you so much
what have you tried
I do not know where to start. I've scoured the textbook but no clue where the professor got it from.
a matrix that when multiplied with one matrix gives out the a desired output matrix... something like that
so if u multiply the transition matrix by B, itll become C
not quite
it's the matrix that lets you change basis
we have two bases, the set B and set C
oh right
so if you have a vector represented with coefficients on the basis B, the transition matrix will take those and give you what the coefficients on C basis should be
fortunately this isn't too bad, let's just build it up one step at a time
what polynomial does the column vector (1,0,0) represent in the B basis?
yeah, write it out
2+x+x^2
perfect
so now what's this polynomial look like in the C basis as a column vector?
2, 1, 1?
yeah exactly
so we just transformed the first basis vector from B to the C basis
and we could write that in a matrix like:
$$\begin{bmatrix} 2 & - & - \ 1 & - & - \ 1 & - & - \end{bmatrix}$$
Merosity
ahh
yes i have that great
ok so if i follow that pattern, ill get something like (2,1,1),(1,2,1),(2,0,1)
what do u mean by why?
well it's your idea
uh
why would this work
well following the pattern from the first polynomial
the other two polynomials have similar degrees
how does it work
u map each coefficient from B in a column of a matrix
following the 'formula' given by C
why do we do columns and not rows
now that... uh...
i am not so sure why
is it just a rule? i remember glossing over the definition in my textbook
well I just figured it out, it isn't like random
we were trying to construct a matrix that transforms from one basis to the other
Right
let's see, where does the column vector (0,1,0) in the B basis get transformed to in the C basis?
if you take any matrix and multiply it by this vector, what's the output?
(0,1,0)?
$$\begin{bmatrix} a & b & c \ d & e & f \ g & h & i \end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix} 0 \ 1 \ 0\end{bmatrix} = ?$$
Merosity
what do I get from this matrix multiplication
uhhhhh (b+e+h)
wait.
fuck
god i feel so stupid
(b, e, h)? surely im going crazy or i cannot do matrix multiplication
well the result is a 3x1, so that is why it must be a column
yeah good
so we got the middle column
we know the transition matrix needs to take the column vector (0, 1, 0) and output (1, 2, 1)
oh
and you just showed that the output of that is the middle column so
that's why that's there
knowing where the basis vectors go tells you where all vectors go
that's one way to think about what linearity means
oh wow
ok cool, so now you have P, maybe the rest is easier now
for part b) do i do the same but going in the other direction from C to B
that would be hard wouldn't it
..yeah
luckily you don't have to
yeah that's what you'll do, really quickly think of it this way:
let's say you have the vector v in the B basis then you transform it to the C basis by doing Pv
then if you want to transform from the other way, there's some matrix Q that goes from C to B so you could do QPv
but now you're back in the B basis, so it should be like nothing happened
v = QPv
you could write Iv = QPv
this has to hold for all vectors v, so you can say I = QP and so Q is the matrix inverse of P
okay i think i understand
cool
lastly for part C, I feel like i get the gist of it but would u be able to offer a brief outline
try to explain it to me first and I'll correct you
basically i have to find 'u' relative to C, and use whatever i got for part B and apply it?
yeah what is u relative to C
(3, 1,1)?
yeah easy
so fairly simple steps over all, getting P is easy, writing u in C is easy, since C to B is P^-1 is also easy to get, not much more to say
well, you multiply P^-1 on the left
and (3,1,1)^T you should probably write it that way to be clearer
oh ok
I am always making sure to say 'column vector' because I don't want to write the transpose
thank you so much
you're welcome 👍
thanks, glad to help, you're welcome
I have an inner product space and i want to find all vectors v and w such that proj_v(proj_w(v))=proj_w((proj_v(w))
I believe this is only satisfied when v=w and the algebra checks out but im unsure, can anyone confirm or deny?
ah yes
thats the bit i missed in my working
that means <v,w> is 0 and i cant cancel it, thank you
but just to confirm those are the only 2 scenarios right
yeah that's all
show that the square of an average of n numbers is less than or equal to the average of the squares
i know that <v,w> <= |v||w|
so if i take the dot product as my inner product and v=(x_n) and w=(1) this should work
nvm i could just square both sides
Hi #linear-algebra.
Im once again trying to find all the vector spaces with only one basis, but considering only the fields R and C.
Specifically, I’m trying to prove point 1.
That’s what I got...
it doesn’t feel right
any nonzero real vector space necessarily has more than one basis
just take any basis and take any vector in it and scale it by 2, now you have a different basis.
your proof feels empty
I add remarks
this feels bureaucratic
I don’t understand.
Im not doing the finite field portion cuz I don’t have to (and frankly I don’t understand finite fields well enough just yet.)
this proof feels bureaucratically bloated
claim: in a nonzero real vector space, there exists more than one basis.
proof: take any basis of your nonzero vector space. take any vector in the basis. replace this vector with twice itself. now you have a different basis.
that's it
This is true if the field is not of characteristic 2.
i said real vector space.
unless you meant to generalize my thing
If a basis is empty, then it’s the only basis.?
in the zero vector space, the only basis is the empty basis, because the only other set of vectors you could have is {0}, which is linearly dependent.
Is that the proof?
you can also think of the empty sum as being equal to 0
That’s much simpler than what I have.
yes
sometimes things really are simple, ninnymonger
not every proof deserves a seven-page paper
Axler was kind was kind enough to define it outright
Have patience with me
Lol, I thought Ann just came up with ninnymonger on the spot, but it is your name
😂

Lmao
is the fact that a vector space is a direct sum of a subspace and its orthogonal compliment also true in the infinite dimensional case
ive been told it is but all proofs im finding are for the finite dimension case
Commander Vimes
Commander Vimes
then fix point c in [a,b] and take U to be set of all functions in that vector space s.t f(t)=0
@next vapor see that U and its orthogonal complement do not span space
i see
hmm then how would one go about finding an orthogonal compliment for the subspace of odd functions on V=C[-1,1] given the inner product integral from -1 to 1 of f(x)g(x)
i know that even functions are in the compliment, but how do i show there arent any others
prolly by ibp spamming
hmm
i do not remember but it sounds like antiderivative of odd is even and of even is odd
I think you can do it by showing every function can be written as the sum of an even and odd function, $$f(x)=\frac{f(x)+f(-x)}{2} +\frac{f(x)-f(-x)}{2}$$
Merosity
yea i tried that, doesnt it need to be a direct sum tho?
why do you think it isn't a direct sum
sorry i mean it is a direct sum yea
but the dimension is infinite right
and i can only conclude using the direct sum argument if the dimension was finite no?
as in the vector space is a direct sum of a subspace and its orthogonal compliment is only true in the finite dimensional case
or am i missing something
what's 'the direct sum argument'?
I'm just writing a continuous function in a way that makes it the sum of an even and odd function
how would you go from that sum to the orthogonal complement being exactly the set of even functions tho?
the even functions are the orthogonal complement of the odd ones
yea thats what im trying to show
the product of an odd and an even function is odd
then use the properties of odd functions?
hm ig i could just say that if we inner with an odd function we get an even function so the integral is not 0 unless one of the functions is 0
sorry i mean taking an element of the odd function subspace
and inner it with another odd function
you wanna show that evens are orthogonal to odds, yeah?
nah i know they are, now i just have to show that the orthogonal compliment is exactly the set of even functions
Hey uhhh isn't this example of finding out B' incorrect?
I was taught that the change of basis matrix from B' TO the standard basis
is actually easy
but here it's the other way around?
prolly due to transparent background
God these stupid change of basis matrices just confuse me more and more, I've been trying to fully understand them for months now and whenever I think that I get them something contradictory comes up
youre not alone
i personally keep getting confused which way they go even after years of this shit
I also hate how there are so many ways of writing them in different parts of the world
I also get confused even after drawing the commutative diagram
you mean a diagram like this one? or something else?
Oh something like this
ohhh
Hello. Can you give me a simple example of an operator which has no adjoint?
take V = the space of all polynomials with real coefficients with inner product given by <f, g> = sum f_k g_k [where f_k and g_k are the coefficients on x^k in f and g respectively]
define a map T: V -> V by Tp = p(1)*x^5
then T will not have an adjoint
When we talk about two vector spaces being isomorphic, in what category are we talking about? The category of vector spaces?
Furthermore, what linear algebra books talk about things like the question I just asked? Mine doesn't ever use the word 'category'
Do you know what book talks about it, Buncho Dragons?
not very familiar with the category theory approach
But I guess it's similar to how groups or sets work
Are you an undergraduate?
Kinda but I don't study math
I see, CS or something then
Aluffi is good,ig
if we are talking about two vector spaces being isomorphic then we are talking about them being isomorphic as vector spaces unless explicitly stated otherwise
Also,Category Theory isn't necessary to do intro algebra
what are you talking about it obviously is
didnt you take a year of cat theory before you saw 2+2? /j
What's worse is that in my school different abstract Lin alg classes use different notations for which way the direction goes

What would be a quick way to check if two sets of vectors are basis for the same space?
if the space is finite-dimensional and you have your vectors in coordinates you can put them together into a square matrix and compute its determinant (i.e., check linear independence)
I don't understand how you would do that
Say I have two sets, each having 2 vectors that are in R5
Yeah not the entire R5 space
But yeah I'm struggling to think of a way to see if the first set of two vectors span the same space as the other set of two vectors
it'd be enough to check that each of your two sets is linearly independent, and to write the vectors in one set as a linear combination of the vectors in the other one, i believe
I'm reading this paper on optimising the "Normalised Cut" for a similarity graph
Just confused by what they've written as the "Eigenvalue problem":
orm
I'm confused by the RHS
Is it saying that $\lambda \mathbf{D}$ are the eigenvalues of $(\mathbf{D - W})$?
orm
no
what's lambda D?
if D is a linear transformation, no. linear transformations cannot be eigenvalues
looks more like a generalized eigenvalue problem
So D-W is a "Laplacian", i thought it would be like:
$L y = \lambda y$
orm
Edd
ok awesome thank you!
I was spooked by it and thought i'd misunderstood previous parts of the paper
Thank you for cleaning this up for me ^^

HI ALL. is there a name for this change of basis?
I've seen a discussion of something similar a few days ago.
I’ll do anyone’s homework for money dm me
done with a, my characterstic eqation is 0 = x'' + (a+d)x' + (bc-da)x
my question is how do I get x(t) and y(t)
for part B
well you can get x(t) as the solutions of your 2nd order DE
what substitution did you make to arrive at it btw?
i differentiated the first equation and substituted the second one
and then i solved for y and substituted again
so you solved for y in terms of x and x'?
yeah sure i could send a picture
@dusky epoch how would I go about solving the second order differential equation
isnt it literally just a linear differential equation with constant coefficients...
it's second order
Ann
right
where $\lambda_1, \lambda_2$ are the roots of your characteristic equation, and also the eigenvalues of $\bmqty{a&b\c&d}$
Ann
yes so I differentiate x twice and plug in to the characterstic equation
and solve for lambda
?
oops
i couldve sworn my teacher drew them that way lol
how do I do the last part goddammit, it hurty my brain
whomst?
pickleman68 posted an exam, and as soon as i asked about it, they left the server
ah

in the second paragraph, when they refer to lambda as dominant eigenvector, that is a typo and they refer to an eigenvalue lambda right?
same with the last paragraph
yeah
actually it's the lambda that should be changed instead
Is there a proper infinite dimensional subspace F of a inner product space V where every vector in V has a orthogonal projection in F?
if i row reduce a matrix do i still get the same cofactors from co factor expansion
oh okay ty
<@&286206848099549185>
maybe i should rephrase
Is there a pair (V, F) where F is an infinite dimensional subspace of a vector space V such that for every v in V, the orthogonal projection of v in F exists?
if F was finite dim, this projection always exists. and its easy to construct a infinite dim F for which some v dont have
maybe a really basic question, but here goes: if you allow column operations from the right to left (i.e. adding a column to a more rightward column) and row operations from the top to bottom, then every matrix can be turned into a permutation matrix (well, a permutation matrix with some columns all zeroes)
what can we say if you only allow row operations from bottom to top, and only allow scaling of columns by some nonzero (real or complex ) number
?
hi
If A² = - I, Identity matrix
How to know that the eigenvalue is not a real number?
A row operation corresponds to multiplication on the left by the appropriate matrix. You can find out which matrix by applying the row operation to the identity matrix.
As for scaling of columns:
A column operation corresponds to multiplication on the right by the appropriate matrix. Scaling a column would be multiplying on the right by the diagonal matrix with all 1's except for the scaling column. Again, you can find out which matrix corresponds to the column operation by performing the operation on the identity matrix.
consider an eigenvector v, $Av=\lambda v$ then $A^2v = \lambda^2 v$ so we have $-v = \lambda^2 v$ that means $-1 = \lambda^2$
Merosity
Sure, I guess I’m just asking about if there is a nice representative for each class (note that we can’t do any row operations, only upward ones)
For example if we allow all row and column operations then every class is represented by a partial permutation matrix
Maybe find matrices representing these allowable operations, and look at the set of those
How can A* lambda be lambda squared?
Yeah, the matrices are the set of upper triangular matrices B, and the algebraic torus T
I was just trying to phrase is in linear algebra terms, but that’s essentially the problem I’m working on
remember the definition of eigenvectors and eigenvalues
A^2 v = A (Av) = A lambda v = lambda A v = lambda^2 v
B^+ M B^-1 gives you the permutations a where the B’s are upper and lower triangular
I’m thinking about B M T, where T is like you described
right, thanks
It might not have an obvious answer but just making sure I haven’t missed something obvious
Why does T have not any adjoint?
You could think of it as orbits of left/right action
Ha, that’s exactly what I’m working on 😛
why don't you try finding out yourself?
If I could, I would not have asked you.
So "from bottom to top" meaning upper triangular?
Right
Also, "why don't you try finding out yourself" can be an answer to any question asked here.
it's worth knowing what the question-asker has tried, if anything.
anyway, try considering where T* would have to send monomials (1, x, x^2, ...)
And you're looking for representatives of equivalence classes given by orbit under (b,t).m = bm(t^-1)? Does this sound like appropriate phrasing?
if i am not mistaken, you will find that T*(x^5) would have to be a non-polynomial
Yes, something to guarantee left action even though you're multiplying on the right
(also I think of it as pre-composition, so you're moving the coordinates of the system rather than the body, if you're thinking of the maps acting on a vector space)
T* would have to send those monomials to where?
How could - I v = λ² v imply -1 = λ²
Can we remove v on both side, even though it's vectors? And how could identity matrix I, be 1?
Right l think the T is doing the re scaling
do you want me to do the algebra for you
pre-composition by an inverse, it's like translations in hs algebra. f(x-a) shifts to the positive direction
I do not think that algebra is as straightforward as basic algebra.
Iv = v is a vector so it simplifies to just -v = lambda^2 v
Yep ok, I should have remembered this!
you can't "cancel" the vectors that's a good point, but what we do know is that eigenvectors are nonzero and that the 0 vector is unique so we could add v to both sides to get 0 = (lambda^2 + 1) v. Since v is nonzero, we know lambda^2+1 = 0
I’ve played about with it, and I think it’s like a permutation matrix, but you can have repeated 1s in a row
As well as all zero columns
People may not be as smart as you expect.
Does that sound believable?
Well you're not allowing column additions, so you wouldn't be able to "get rid" of the repeated ones if you were doing column ops
Thank you very much 🙂
you're welcome
let $T^(x^5) = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} a_k x^k$, where the right-hand side has to have finitely many terms (else it is not a polynomial). consider $\ang{x^m, T^(x^5)}$, then you have:
$$a_m = \ang{x^m, T^*(x^5)} = \ang{T(x^m), x^5} = \ang{x^5, x^5} = 1$$
for \textbf{all} $m$, which would imply $T^*(x^5) = 1 + x + x^2 + x^3 + \dots$
Ann
@broken sun here
I think you got a clear picture, just a matter of explicitly writing the eq classes by this point
I think I do yeah thanks for the chat anyway!
The basis is orthonormal?
yes, with my choice of inner product the monomial basis is orthogonal
Thanks. But, why did such a simple example not come into my mind? Because I am not smart enough to study math?
i will not indulge your self-deprecating remarks
i do not know how much experience you have with linear algebra (and higher math in general), though now i think it's too little
so it's not that you're not smart enough, if anything it must be that you're not experienced enough
I usually do not solve math problems; I usually read only main texts.
reading about math is to math like going to an art museum or watching a sports game are to painting and playing the sport
ngl this is no way to learn math.
What is "ngl"?
math isnt a spectator sport; if all you do is passively read texts without sitting down and doing some exercises / solving problems / proving results then your retention will be almost nil
ngl stands for "not gonna lie"
yeah, you gotta go through the exercises
you really really gotta actually rederive the proved results and then apply them to the problems, it's the onyl way
good morning guys
if anyone can explain this that would be nice :)
i dont know what trA means
I understand that detA means the determinant of A
trace
sum of the elements on the main diagonal
hello can anyone explain how to find an orthogonal basis that contains a set?
given an inner product, I found that the set is orthogonal. Not sure if that's part of the solution
well, they should be orthogonal to be part of the basis
what i would do is applying vectorial product to v1,v2
so you obtain a third vector v3, that will be orthogonal to v1 and v2 at the same time
that can be a solution
I technically found said v3 in a previous subproblem
so those 3 vectors would form the basis, then?
another solution would be proposing a generic vector v3=(v3x, v3y, v3z). Then it should be orthogonal to v1 and v2, so it has to satisfy <v1,v3>=<v2,v3>=0
yup, an orthogonal basis of R3
well more formally what you have found with those solutions is a group of 3 orthogonal vectors in R3
if you want to go further, you should prove that those vectors generate R3
I see, thanks. I wasn't sure if I just had to do that since some of my notes regarding this was just Gram-Schmidt
i didn't put it beacuse is easy to see that they will generate R3
well i can't remember well, but i think that G-S is a more general way of finding a base from a group of vectors
in this particular case you know that v1 and v2 are orthogonal
if they weren't you can use GS
ah I see, thanks!
by checking that it sends π to 0
It's already the feature of the set.
what?
I mean that it's already f(pi) = 0.
that's the condition for a function from R to R to be in the set
you check that to show that something is in it
Jeez.
?
ok
It's the FUCKING CONDITION.

not the feature.
it says V is a vector space of real functions. check if the functions for which f(pi) = 0 are a subspace of V.
calm down lol, sorry if i offended you
Are you German? 
no, but i know some german
Ergo God is Engineer
tteppa is a considerable tteppa
considerable is tteppa a tteppa
I checked the closed under multiplication and addition.
they're all good.
kinda stuck at the first point.
showing that zero function is an element of T.
well, i would sure hope that z(x) = 0 is 0 if you evaluate it at z(x=pi)
f(pi) yields surely 0.
but the zero vector must map every element of the domain onto zero in the co-domain.
Am I right?
that's what i wrote up there
let z(x) = 0, the zero function
this satisfies that z(pi) = 0, so it's in T
Jeez.
When you can't finance your studies, you have to go to DEUTSCHLAND.
It's cheap you know.
somewhere in thüringen
from the States?
somewhere in latinamerica
did masters, now doing phd
viel Glück dude.
gleichfalls
(afd appears)
oof
have you ever encountered one of them?
Jeez, they're so fucking dumb.
one of them just said to me: verpiss dich Amerikaner. Hahaha.
i assume that does not mean anything good
classic. yeah, not the nicest encounters... this is a better convo for the discussion/chill channels tho
yes, exactly.
sheesh
can you guys help me with my linear algebra final haha
i need a sense of direction
most cellphones nowadays should have a compass built in
they also usually have some type of map
lol
🙂
could anyone please help me
I have
W1= {x(1,2,3) where x is in R} C R3
I have to find dimension of W and Wt(orthogonal complement)
I found it as W= 1 and Wt=3-1=2
I'm not sure how to find Wt
Please help me understand this explanation
I didn't get which elementary operations were applied
hey guys i need help with linear equations, who can help me? dm
or you can just post your question here
,rotate
the point of intersection needs to be a solution to both, because that point is on the red line, as well as also being on the blue line.
also, with those empty boxes.....plug in your value for y and x
you'll see that the equalities agree. it's like a sanity check.
.
from Axler page 42.
my question: an immediate corollary of this is that dim U + dim W = dim (U ⊕ W )?
we have a span of W, and the w_i's are all linearly independent
so its a basis for W, of length n. hence dim W = 5.
also $$v = a_1u_1 +\, \ldots \,+ a_m u_m + b_1w_1 +\, \ldots \,+ b_nw_n$$ demonstrates a basis for V, so dim V is m+n ?
Videlicet
basically i need a justification for $$dim(U \oplus W) = dim V = dim U + dim W$$
Videlicet
uh
idk if you guys are busy
but im wondering what it means for the origin to be stable/unstable
just using Matrix A with a system of equations
its wrong. are you doing it by eye?
this belongs in #prealg-and-algebra, see the pinned message here
to say the origin is stable is to say that any solution to the ODE starting close enough to the origin stays close to the origin.
you can check stability at the origin by looking at the (real parts of the) eigenvalues of A
if they are nonpositive, then the origin is stable, and conversely
i wish i had terra 2 help me on my la final 🥺
@wintry steppe help pls exam due in 10 minites
@wintry steppe be considerable
Doubt
what are the conditions on U and W
U is a subspace of V, and so is W.
and $$U \oplus W = V$$
Videlicet
zero vector?
no it isnt necessarily
this is what i was getting at
it needs to be backwards
we need intersection to be zero vector first
then it follow
U sum W could be V sure
but that isn't enough i think
@wintry steppe wat u think
my enlgihs
i am brain worm
i guess what i want is : $$ U \oplus W = V \implies dim U + dim W = dim V$$
Videlicet
is that true?
ye no that is false pretty sure
this is the internal direct sum right
dim V = dim(U + W) = dim U + dim W - dim(U cap W), and this last term vanishes
internal? what's that?
ok nvm, ignore that comment
so its a corollary?
if you want to call it that ye
linear algebra 
i do too, lol
i never knew that the oplus had that condition tho
i thought it was just take linear combo of everything
cool
that's how it's defined in friedberg
axler calls it that.
my class didn't do oplus in my linear algebra class 🐲 no wonder
makes sens now tho
excelent
the only thing i know from oplus was from the group theory
same thing
vector space is group wrt addition
well
i guess you have to account for scalar mult
die
math is math motel
hsct
sorry, just one last clarification, my intuition about this is correct, right?
.


ok, quick, everyone give me a cool linear algebra fact
🚶
the prize is my recognition
Fredholm alternative
ok ultra
what
ooga

was that the class that blackboxed differential forms
no that was the first diffeq class
this is the "intermediate" one
but uh
this is how it should always have been
with linear algebra
first diffeq class had none
anyways time to read friedberg because i never learned direct sum

in group theory class we learned about internal and external product
which was cool
but
now i can return to linear algebra
i find the fact that null spaces stop growing pretty cool to be honest
Consider an operator $T \in L(V)$ where $dim(V) = n$, for all $k > n$ we have that $null T^{k} = null T^{n}$
b2unit



