#linear-algebra
2 messages Β· Page 200 of 1
Because to apply zorn's lemma
You first have to show the set you are working with is non empty
i just didnt want my message to be too long and get ignored cuz of that π
so didnt write all detail
thanks anyway tho
its like in some sense the module has smaller characteristic than the ring it is over
Hey guys, yesterday here you said something is wrong with the c. I still didnt get it
Should the c in 2 and 3 not been written down?
its based on this question
do you know what it means for two vectors to be orthogonal
yeah so do the calculations
use the linearity of the dot product
and your knowledge of what an orthonormal set is
if you are willing to wait about 20 minutes i can write out a possible way for you to begin
sure!
im just curious so like
(a.b)c
where a,b,c are vectors
dot product is not associative right
yeah
the output of a dot product is a number not a vector
yeppp
yeep
@dusky epoch π whenever ur free it would be really helpful if you could guide me for that question
i feel like small properties i have taken for granted has come back to bite me haha
ill go revise that then
$(\bd{u} - \bd{b}) \cdot \bd{b} = \bd{u} \cdot \bd{b} - \bd{b} \cdot \bd{b}$
Ann
you can also show that $$\bd{b} \cdot \bd{b} = (\bd{u} \cdot \bd{a}_1)^2 + (\bd{u} \cdot \bd{a}_2)^2$$
Ann
oooo
second ones interesting
how did u see the second one btw
like what was ur intuition etc
like ofc given their info we need to use their orthonormality etc
cause what i did
was multiplied the two given equations
Meliodas
What is 1?@coral geyser
oh
crap
u cant so sorry
thats wrong
i just broke the dot product up which u cant do there LOL
urrhh
what you're asked to do is an orthogonal projection
you can look up how to do vector projections with dot products
How did u know it was a vector projection
@lavish jewel
alsooo
can someone check why i am wrong
need to find the shortest distance
answer is sqrt 6
so they tell you v = c + d, ye? with c parallel to a, and d perpendicular to a
yep
this is the same as saying $v = g \cdot a_{\text{parallel}} + h \cdot a_{\text{perpendicular}} $, for scalars $g,h$
Edd
which you should recognize as a linear combination of a_parallel and a_perp
furthermore, a_parallel and a_perp are linearly independent
or rather, orthogonal by definition
sure
so v = g . a + d . a ?
no
but doesnt that imply that v = c?
you completely ignored what i said
so sorry
i won't give you the full explanation cuz i'm lazy rn. just notice that the vector c is equal to g a_parallel, going by the notation i wrote above
in some sense, what you're doing here is a change of basis
from the canonical basis to this new one that has a as one of its basis vectors
how do you know how much of v goes in the direction of a? you take a scalar projection
yeah
so you can do v - g a_parallel
if you remove the component of v that is parallel to a, the remainder is naturally orthogonal to a
this is trivial to see if you let h a_perp = - v + g a_parallel
cuz you get v = g a_parallel + h a_perp = g a_parallel -- v - g a_parallel = v
and you can check that a_perp = -v + g a_parallel is perpendicular to a_parallel with some manipulations
should be something like a_perp dot a_parallel = a_parallel^T(- v + g a_parallel) = -g + g a_parallel^T a_parallel, and since a_parallel and a_perp will have to be unit-norm for the projections to work, that is equal to -g + g = 0
making them perpendicular, as desired
smth like that
can someone explain the first answer on here
specifically how they got the equalities for E(w1) and E(w2) im just not seeing it
Not quite sure what the conjugate of a vector should be (taking entry-wise conjugates of a vector is not independent of the basis), but if you insert v1+v2 into E, drag out the addition, and use the fact that they are eigenvectors, you get the first equation.
oh theyre just working backwards from E(v+v_bar) is lambda v + lambda bar v bar
i think
I don't see how that is backwards, but yes
yea that makes sense thank you
what matrix for 3x3 swaps R1 with R3?
yeah that checks out
i just gotta do polar decomposition for 3x3 matrix
and realized if i swap r1 with r3 i can use it
A = OB, where O is ortogonal and B is positively semidefinite matrix
guessing I is orthogonal
basically do this:
Im not sure why i was told this requyires a lot of matrix calculations
since my initial matrix is
and i can just swap r1 and r3 to get positively semidefinite matrix
and get polar decomposition
or am i missing something?
Hello. Let $C$ be the vector space of all continuous real functions on $[-1,1]$ and $\phi$ be the linear functional on $C$ defined by $\phi (f)=f(0)$. Is there a $g \in C$ such that $\phi (f)= \int _{-1}^1f(x)g(x)dx$ for every $f \in C$?
MathPhysics
Yes
Because given a functional phi on an inner product space V
There is a unique vector g such that
phi(f)=<f|g> for all f
For proof, consider f and g in an orthonormal basis
Set g=phi(e_1)e_1+phi(e_2)e_2...
Where {e_1,e_2...} Is the orthonormal basis
@broken sun
And then?
That integral is an inner product
Ok. But why $\phi (f) = < f , g >$?
MathPhysics
Because we chose g that way
Try evaluating <f|g> with this g
And then try evaluating phi(f)

Ok,This might not be correct since we don't know an orthonormal basis always exists in an infinite dimensional space
i was thinking a dirac delta works, but it's not in C lol
Could anybody explain me this?
In mathematics, Gaussian elimination, also known as row reduction, is an algorithm for solving systems of linear equations. It consists of a sequence of operations performed on the corresponding matrix of coefficients. This method can also be used to compute the rank of a matrix, the determinant of a square matrix, and the inverse of an invertib...
what part are you struggling to understand?
Reduced Row Echelon
Wiki also have a page on that btw
I mean, I'm seeing these type of notations for the first time.
we took the matrix A and attached an identity matrix
are you being taught matrix inversion before knowing what an identity matrix is? that seems bizarre
as in like, how do you even know what youre trying to find if you dont know the identity
I know what Identity matrix is.
Ah! Then, it's fine.
How do we get this?
after all ur EROs
a reduced row echelon form of a matrix is one satisfying the following properties:
- It is in row echelon form, meaning:
-- All rows consisting of only zeroes are at the bottom
-- The first nonzero entry ("pivot") of each row is to the right of all pivots above it - All of its pivot variables are 1
- Every entry above a pivot variable (in the same column) is 0
ERO? What does that mean?
elementary row operations.
the goal is to apply gaussian elimination to the matrix [A | I]
by the definition of reduced row echelon form, if A is invertible, youll eventually get a matrix [I | B]
B is the inverse of A.
(if A isnt invertible, youll necessarily end up with a zero row when row reducing it)
(so youll never be able to get an identity on the left)
Probably start with solving some system of linear equations if you aren't comfortable with that. E.g. solve
3x_1+4x_2=7
2x_1+3x_2=9
using Matrix
its probably easiest to explain this with examples
fortunately there are very very many in textbooks and on the internet
google "matrix inverses gaussian elimination" or similar
Oh wait! Did we just write B (the inverse of A) followed by Identity matrix?
not sure what you mean exactly
like if i asked you, "put this matrix into reduced row echelon form"
would you be able to do that? (if given pen + paper and a few minutes)
since thats all thats really going on here
I mean, is the B here the inverse matrix of A?
yes.
it's what we got when we put the matrix i posted into reduced row echelon form
Okay, so we're doing an operation on [ A | I ] and it finally yields us with inverse, am I right?
assuming A is invertible in the first place, yea
if A isnt invertible, theres no way youre gonna get the left part into an identity matrix
so you wont be able to find an inverse
(which makes sense, as its, you know... not invertible)
basically every linear algebra textbook and course will come with extensive material on gaussian elimination/row reduction/RREF
and more stuff isnt hard to find via googling
Okay, thank you very much!
Does axiom of choice imply the existence of a orthonormal basis?
learning how to do equations like these should be first step before learning how to find inverses
yes; this is a good exercise in zorns lemma
(if your vspace is f.d. you dont need it though)
Yeah, I know these and have solved couple of problems.
Actually, I'm looking for a quick trick for finding matrix inverses (as you know, finding co-factors, determinants take up a lot of time)
Then its exatcly the same steps you do to put on A on RREF form
assuming you did those equations using Matrices
Okay, thank you very much!
Guys Im still stuck at this
Whats wrong on my paper? I mean did I showed that the set is a subspace of R3?
That makes sense
Your presentation is bad tbh
It's hard to follow
It is a subspace for c = 0 and not for any other c
But from your proof, it's very hard to tell when c is 0 and when it's not
yeah i just tried to do the same thing like I saw on a youtube video on this
Split your proof into two parts
One for c = 0 and show it satisfies all the subspace conditions
And one for c β 0 and show it doesn't satisfy all the conditions
one investigates for which ... the amount:
is a subspace of R3
but why proving it twice? i can only prove that c=0 because x=0
so 0+0+0=c
Idk what you mean
I think you mean a subspace must contain the zero vector, so from that we see that c must be 0 to satisfy that condition
Then you are right
But you didn't say any of that
You just said 0 = c with no explanation of why other values don't work
if I have 2 basis for 2 subspaces, and the vectors of those 2 basis combined are linearly dependant, does that means that the two subspaces are the same?
is it now clear?
@crude falcon no
@wintry steppe no, you are not explaining what you are doing. Use words.
Give an example of a nonempty subset U of R^2 such that U is closed under addition and under taking additive inverses, but U is not a subspace of R^2.
I think U = {(x + 1, y + 1) in R^2 : x,y nonzero} works
How is that closed under inverses?
Maybe it doesn't work
"A subspace must contain a zero vector. To prove that we are using the X and give it the value 0. When the value 0 is given, c is 0. Any other value for X makes c not 0"
Is that ok?
Do I even need that to show that R3 is a subspace of the given equation for which c should be the element of R
I don't understand
I mean do I need to make clear why making X to 0 to get c=0 is not the only way to turn c=0 for this question:
what is V?
Thats the right one sry
there is no V. i placed the wrong thing in there
Do you know what it means for something to be a subspace?
yeah but i didnt quite understood it. I just know that Ive to follow the 3 rules
one of the rules is the it is closed for scalar multiplication
yeah thats what i did in 3.
here.
yea if its subspace then (0,0,0) has to belong to it
so need to have 0+0+0=c
so only possible value for which it can be subspace is c=0
so you just need to verify whether for c=0 that is subspace
but thats what I did. I used 0+0+0=c as a verification that c=0
oh I think you mean that in order that c=0 it needs to follow the rules and agree with those to be a subspace
how are you defining conical coordinates
spherical coordinates is close to what I'd consider conical coordinates already
just link the wikipedia page @normal gulch
are these not what you're looking for?
I think he wants to invert this for r, mu, nu
ah ok
well for starters r= sqrt(x^2+y^2+z^2) just solving for r from that
I suppose similarly using the surfaces of constant mu and nu we can do something similar
take the dervatives and stick it in a jacobian is probably the first thing I'd do
I was just telling you how you could solve for it
probably because this coordinate system is kinda ugly
although it does look like it seems to have some uses for some stuff
see these?
you can use these to solve for r, mu, nu in terms of x,y,z,b,c
first one is easiest, just square root
second and third are the same equation effectively so that's convenient
AB is b-a
yes probs because what you entered isnt a matrix
they want one digit answer
I was referring to this
these are formulas for x,y,z in terms of r, mu, nu
b, c are just fixed constant parameters
if you want to invert them then you need to solve for r, mu, nu in terms of x,y,z
if this is confusing you, you should probably practice on other simpler coordinate system transformations first
like for instance going between rectangular and polar coordinates
let's try it now
$x= r \cos \theta$ and $y=r \sin \theta$
Merosity
now show me how you solve for $r$ and $\theta$ in terms of x and y
Merosity
we can mimic what they do in the conical coordinates article
start by writing an equation for a curve of constant r and curve of constant theta
start with those two equations
how can you eliminate r or how can you eliminate theta?
@normal gulch alright take a break from what you're doing, let's discuss what does a curve of constant r or curve of constant theta look like intuitively?
think of what we're doing this way,
we're looking at coordinate lines
so x=1 is a curve a constant x
y=7 is a curve of constant y
and these look like straight lines
yeah you're a programmer/3D artist of some kind right?
oh, pixels? what makes you interested in weird 3D coordinate systems
yeah I'm familiar with them, much more intuitive than using RGB
ok so let's go back to thinking about changing between rectangular and polar coordinates, describe in words what the coordinate lines look like for both these coordinate systems
sort of
there are a bunch of lines, one for every value of x and value of y
I guess maybe we should back up a bit further
what is a coordinate system?
if I just give you a 2D plane there's no way of determining where points are on it until you start drawing lines on it
so you have to draw a bunch of lines all over it, and it's nice if we have a unique way to refer to a point as well
yeah
yeah that's one kind of line
yeah and that's the other kind
so in this grid, what does x=4 look like?
in this picture
it's not a point, it's a line
it's all the (x,y) points with x=4
so is it a horiztonal or vertical line?
it won't
it'll be vertical
(4,y) is all the points so that means you can test like
(4,0) is the point on the x-axis
but it contains (4,1), (4,2), (4, -11), etc
infinitely many points lie on this line
that's what x=4 means as a line
a way you can decide if a point is satisfied by an equation is take a point like (3,2) and see if it satisfies x=4, well we plug in 3=4 and since it's false it doesn't lie on the line.
we can try another point like (4,7) and see that 4=4 is true, so it's satisfied
we're completely ignoring the y component of our point
but that's ok
understanding this at this easy level is the same way you need to understand it to understand the change of coordinates for conical coordinates
the x-axis is horizontal
the equation x=4 is all points that have their x component equal to 4
which is a vertical line
the x-axis is the line y=0
the y-axis is the line x=0
seems backwards but it makes sense if you start graphing points
draw the lines x=-3 and y=2 and draw the point they intersect at
well I wanted to see a picture
of the lines x=-3 and y=2
cause next we're going to go to polar coordinates and so the same kind of thing
I guess that works, but kind of cheating
so now what does polar coordinates look like, now we no longer use an xy grid
we use r and theta to locate points
so start by drawing the curves r=2 and theta = pi/4
I'm using radians
take your time I've gotta go for a bit
here's desmos in polar coordinates which might be helpful https://www.desmos.com/calculator/mehynksjhn
we'll hide it then lol
still a good exercise to go through it by hand!
I am currently in HS and preparing for entrance exams like JEE
So, tje linear algebra ,though included in the syllabus, have very limited theorems
For e.g. to find A^-1 , we are taught to use A^T/det(A), which makes the computations much harder if one doest know the Gaussian Elimination
So, what I am asking is are there any other theorems that could make the compuations easier
A^-1 isnt equal to that iirc
Mostly, the harder questions are about finding the value of a matrix with a huge ass exponent
$A^{-1}=\frac{1}{det(A)}adj(A)$
moshill1
where adj() denotes the adjoint matrix
@nocturne jewel oh okay, I just got kinda confused. Thanks
finding the value of a matrix with a huge ass exponent
these are usually susceptible to diagonalization/JNF in my experience
if you (are allowed to) know that
@TTerra well the exams are basically mcqs, so it doesnt matter what method one is using as long as the answers are correct
If it helps would like to see some questions tropes used in the exam?
you could post them
@wintry steppe just a sec

,rotate
srry for being late, the net is just freaking slow
I just need to know the theorems and methods to make the computations faster and easier
Thank you for your time
can anyone pls solve this??
pls post on the correct channel
for this matrix are there any values of k that there are infinitely many solutions
infinitely many sols for which problem
going only by this, if you call the above matrix A
and you mean solutions to Ax = b
if you're sure it can be written as you did before, any value of k makes the matrix rank 3
omitting values for which the expressions are undefined
all ks give infinitely many sols
since all the col are linearly independent
there is no way the 4th column in what you gave is independent of the first 3
that would mean you have a basis with 4 lin indep vectors for R3
hmm im not so sure about that because when k=0 and k=+-sqrt0.5 it gives me inconsistent soolution
then your simplification was wrong
What's wrong with this proof that the set of periodic functions from R to R with period p form a subspace of functions from R to R? If we let V = {f | f : R -> R, and for all real x there is exists some real p such that f(x + p) = f(x)}.
Now we let f in V. Then f(x + p) = f(x), and clearly if we define 0(x) = 0, then 0(x + p) = 0(x) = 0, so 0 in V.
Then let f, g in V. Then f(x) + g(x) = f(x + p) + g(x + p) = (f + g)(x + p) (by definition) and (f + g)(x + p) = (f + g)(x), so f + g in V.
Then let a in R. Then by definition, (af)(x) = af(x). It follows that since f in V, af(x + p) = af(x), so (af)(x + p) = (af)(x), which implies that af in V.
Thus, it is a subspace.
However, looking at some solutions online, it seems to not be a subspace.
Where did I go wrong?
this one
are you sure this is correct?
cuz this one says "k can be anything"
The calculator will find the row echelon form (simple or reduced - RREF) of the given (augmented) matrix (with variables if needed), with steps shown.
at least that's what i think at a glance
in that matrix that has an identity onthe left side, the column with ks in it is always dependent on the other 3
so one of the two things you're doing is wrong
ah i see
so if i assume k != 0 it can be rref
and if k=0 it has infinitely many solutions am i right?
because it cant be GJE
this is not do your homework channel pls rephrase ur qn
@brazen venture ?
@brazen venture How do you expect me to rephrase my question?
I gave my proof, I am asking why it's incorrect
wait so is it k=0 becos i dont get it
it seems correct to me @wintry steppe , maybe what you found online is that the set of all periodic functions is not subspace? if period is fixed, i believe its correct.
@wintry steppe The supposed counter example is (f + g)(x) = sin sqrt(2)x + cos(x)
if the period isnt necessarily the same then its not a vector space
Oh
if you consider only rational periods it'll be a subspace tho
So basically
My proof works if p is the same for f and g
yeah
well
Or if one of the periods is contained within the other
But other than that, it doesn't
depends what you exactly mean by a function having period p
exists real p such that for all real x, f(x + p) = f(x)
no
that means that it is periodic
Yes?
it's not same thing to be periodic
and to be periodic with period p
but
p non-zero
else every function satisfies that
How do I prove that | |AB| | =< |A| |B|
Double || strikes again
Ffs
Where |β| is matrix operator norm
Aβ¬R^NXM, Bβ¬R^NXK
I have always troubles to work with scalars.
Nvm I got it.
with distributiv rule of scalars I can do that step.
Ok so you know $|Av| \leq |A| |v|$ for all v where $|v| = 1 $ because $|A| = \sup_{|v| = 1}|Av|$
yeah that is logical
my bad let me rewrite
small googling leads me to math stackexchange and with this kind of proof
but then the comments speak of some really unfamiliar products so im not sure if this is applicable
Ok so first $|A| = \sup_{v \in \mathbb{R}^n} \frac{|Av|}{|v|}$ which means $|A||v| \geq |Av|$
Anticipation
then $|AB| = \sup_{|v| = 1}|ABv| \leq \sup_{|v| =1} |A| |Bv| = |A|\sup_{|v|=1}|Bv| = |A| |B|$
Anticipation
basically what the google did and u can pull out the A because you treat Bv as a vector
and apply $|A||v| \geq |Av|$ on it
Anticipation
replace sup with max
ah that seems much more familiar
I got one more question for polar decomposition A = OB
is the only requirement for B to be positively semidefinite?
or is this unique decomposition
leme check my notes i kind of forgot
kinda not trusting wikipedia
since the calculation had warning that it requires heavy calculations
I believe that is true since we have $B = V\Sigma V^\star$
Anticipation
so lets say $x^\star B x = x^\star V \Sigma V^\star x$, now i think $x^\star VV^\star x$ is always positive
lol, HW assingment: warning this requires a lot of calculation
me: an educated quess and 2 minutes later = done
I was just really sceptical about this solution
Anticipation
and sigma only has nonnegative singular values so it scales positively
Does this contradiction argument work? If U_1 U U_2 is a subspace of V, then one of U_1 or U_2 are contained within one another
We assume that U_1 not subset U_2 and U_2 not subset U_1, yet assume U_1 U U_2 is a subspace of V. Since U_1 not subset U_2 and U_2 not subset U_1 there exists x such that x in U_1 but not in U_2 and there exists y such y in U_2 but not in U_1. Then this implies that x,y in U_1 U U_2 and since U_1 U U_2 is a subspace, x + y in U_1 U U_2. And so x + y in U_1 and x + y in U_2
But this means that x in U_1 and y in U_1, as U_1 is a subspace of V. But we said that one of those can't be in U_1 so we have reached a contradiction.
<@&286206848099549185>
@wintry steppe looks good but idk why you are so vague in your contradiction
You specifically said y is not in U1 and that x is. So you don't need to say 'this means that x is in U1' because we already know that. Instead you can give a little more detail to explain why y is in U1, and that that is the contradiction
Oh sure. Because U_1 U U_2 is a subspace, and we know that x, y is in the union. A subspace is closed under addition, and therefore x + y must be in the union as well. This also means that x + y must be in each of U_1 and U_2
And because x + y in U_1 and in U_2, and they're subspaces means that x, y in both U_1 and U_2, which is our contradiction as we assumed that to not be the case
Why does that mean x and y are in U1 and U2?
Because U_1 and U_2 are subspaces, and each are closed under addition of vectors.
Okay, seems like you understand
I hope so π
Specifically, I wanted you to say x = (x+y) -y, and x+y and y are in U2 so x must be too
Ah yeah, that makes it more obvious.
Since (x + y) are in the unions so it must be in each subspace, and they're closed under scalar multiplication so -y and y are in U_2, and by closure of addition (x + y) - y = x is in U_2
dont have much time to explain but a form of rotation is givens rotation
in R^3 its just rotation a plane while fixing an axis
so in n = 2m dimensions something can rotate in m directions simultaneously
for example in 4 dimensions you could rotate in two perpendicular-ish planes simultaneously
pls
ah there we go
Look at em go
but yeah there's always two invariant planes
in 4 dimensions
and in 2m+1 dimensions, there's m invariant planes + 1 invariant axis
so i was hoping it was nice but my reasoning was flawed and really it looks quite ugly
but probably the special cases are quite neat
anyway here's some links
For 3D a good way to derive the matrices is to fix a single axis and then rotate in each plane and then combine the matrices to rotate in any plane
Or use quarterions like a hero
is a 6 week linear algebra class a good idea? provided i read up on it beforehand
depends what's covered / how quick it is
what would you even cover in 6 weeks 
this a vector
week 1: definition of vector space, basis, replacement theorem
week 2: linear maps, rank-nullity, correspondence of fdvs/linear maps with R^n/matrix mult
week 3: determinants
week 4: diagonalization
week 5: JNF
week 6: inner products

easy
jordan normal form
that is really fast tterra sob
week 1: gaussian elimination
week 2: gaussian elimination
...
week 6: eigenvalues
any fast way to define if matrix is positive semidefinite?
computationally fast or human fast?
eihter, i have matrix with SVD done by hand and i need to convert to Polar decomposition
Well, assuming it's hermitian I suppose, you can just throw numpy or something at it to get the eigenvalues for a matrix that small
idk what is hermitian
if you're trying to avoid a computer, which is fair, I admit I don't know a great method for fast semi-definiteness
(has real eigenvalues)
well i gotta show my work for prof
my initial idea was good but i failed to realize that the matrix is not positively semidefinite
ah, in that case, it's probably easiest by hand to compute the eigenvalues, since I think you'll need those anyway
oh wait wrong
i tried to do this way
but this is not positively semi definite
altough the eigenvalues are positive
hmm? positive semi-definite just means the eigenvalues are non-negative I thought (though I could be forgetting definitions)
positive semidefinite means x^T A x >= 0 for all x
yeah that is what i tought too
such a condition is defined for symmetric matrices
since you can factor them as B^T B
i see, guess that is where i made the mistake
i forgot it is for symmetric only
plan B is to figure out how to take sqrt from
somehow quessing it is
right, sorry, I was thinking of an implication, mb
i'll admit i'm too lazy to doublecheck, the last eig vec looks correct tho
actually no, its not symmetric either
the matrix above looks symmetric to me
that is not what square root of a matrix is
yeah guessed so much
one definition, using the diagonalization is that
if A = Q D Q^-1, then sqrt(A) = Q sqrt_elementwise(D) Q^-1
M is a square root of A iff MM = A
then sqrt(A) * sqrt(A) = A, since Q^-1 Q = I and the diagonal elements of sqrt(D) get squared
indeed, as carla says
oh, maybe that IS a sqrt
that's a weird one
but just go ahead and test it
its usually not unique
so it isn't π
wolfram being wolfram
use octave
whats that?
free matlab
two notes that are 13 semitones apart, iirc
I tried it im horrible with it
and i only got 2 hours to figure this out
or since they are peer reviewdi could just try to slide on it
you mean 12?
free typo for you and everything
that's one way of taking a square root: by diagonalizing
okay so that is my B on polar decomp
since sqrtA = Q sqrt(D) Q^T, sqrtA * sqrtA = Q sqrt(D) Q^T Q sqrt(D) Q^T = Q sqrt(D) sqrt(D) Q^T = Q D Q^T = A
note that since A is symmetric, Q is orthonormal
and so Q^-1 = Q^T
could i have used my SVD i have done to get this?
yes, since the SVD of a symmetric matrix equals the EVD of that matrix
U and V in A = U S V^-T are equal due to the symmetry
so U = Q , S = D, V^T = Q^T
you can show it by noting that the SVD is gotten precisely from the EVD of a matrix of the form B^T B or B B^T
if symmetric, these two are the same, and so U and V are the same
i got confused
i wave my hands wildly and leave the proof to the reader
matrix symmetric, evd = svd
so that my SVD there is same as QDQ^t?
yes
gimme a sec to show you
just beware of the computer precision
one thing in the matrix D from the EVD is like x10^-16, that's just a 0
another says 1.2 e+0.1, thats 1.2 x 10 = 12
also the SVD is conventionally ordered from largest to smallest singular value
you'll have to shuffle the columns of U around to match Q
and the rows of V to match Q^T
SVD is U S V^T
but in this case yes
what are O and B supposed to be
what properties
O is orthogonal matrix and B is positively semidefinite
U is orthonormal, so that's done
if A is pos semi def, then so is S
idk how to handle V^T off the top of my head
then already saying SVD is QDQ^T was wrong
the matrix A you have right now IS symmetric
or do you wanna do this in general?
i'm just gonna wikipedia this
it says you start with A = U S V^T
the polar decomp is A = (U V^T) (V S V^T)
that is some gourmet shit
i'm getting too sleepy to check
you can test yourself if your ((A^T A)^0.5)^2 = A^T A
wich should lead to this monstrosity?
RIP
math
if im not wrong should go like this?
Eiki Shiki AKA Yamaxanadu from Touhou
I see you are a man of culture as well
Not sure how to do this
First I want to show that UU* is self-adjoint
idk how to do that though
wait nvm I know how to show it's self adjoint
it's the part of showing the inner prodiuct <T(x), x> is greater than 0 for all non-zero x that trips me up
proof I have in mind is similar to showing it's self adjoint
maybe show your proof real fast that it's self adjoint
good in that middle step there <U*(x), U*(x)>
that only shows it's >= 0 tho
not > 0
cause U, and therefore U*, are arbitrary
so what if x is non-zero but U*(x) = 0
that's where I'm stuck
oh, well then maybe it's false, if it's an arbitrary linear transformation what's stopping you from just picking U=0
Hm
it does seem false in general, unless V is explicitly said to be the image of U
I figured this is part d of a larger problem where they say more context about it
That's what I was thinking but I thought i had missed something
post the whole thing
yeah that doesn't look right
maybe they meant to say invertible instead of arbitrary
it seems like the best result you can get is positive semi-definite
ugh I guess I'm emailing my teacher
ok I guess for part e
is T the same T as in part d?
or just arbitary T?
Same would make sense
it would have to be the same T as before
I have this exercise in my book
Otherwise you won't get phi(x,x) non negative
otherwise its also false
that problem seems kinda poorly written
Yeah you need same because you need the positive semi definiteness
unwelcome me please
Also e part implies that d part should have invertible U
Because if U has non trivial kernel then norm of things in kernel wrt phi would be 0
it must just be impossible
when we do row operations and add scalars of one row to another determinant doesnt change.
But if its the same Row, isnt it equivalent to R_6 = 4R_6
doesnt that mean that det (B) = 4 (det(A))
I agree with you
yeah the answering thing on that is kinda scuffed i had to keep changing answers to see which is right haha
yea you're right @coral geyser
Seems like the question is automatically generated
what is the difference between N(A) and basis of N(A) in this example?
for column space and basis as well
If A is nxn matrix,then det(cA)=c^n det(A)
parallelepipeds in between two parallel planes and with same base would have equal volumes. This can be proved with basic geometry; idk why you'd linear algebra to do it.
btw
I've read recently that " A simple eigenvalue is regular" and I want to know what is a regular eigenvalue. I did search on google and other places but no luck. Some mention regular graph or something but not "regular eigenvalue".
I'm trying to show that for a vector v and line given by A+tD that v-proj of v on the line is orthogonal to D.
isnt the projection going to be parallel to D by definition?
oh, you mean for a particular problem setup, not in general
just take the definition you have up there
The projection always give v-proj to be orthogonal to what it's being projected on?
I mean that makes sense if I understand this right
Also, is this definition of the projection just shift our origin to A?
parallel, not orthogonal
though this line projection is not like that, on second inspection
I'm asked to prove that the set of functions from R to R is the direct sum of the set of even real valued functions and the set of odd real valued functions
But how can that be, since there are real valued functions that are neither odd nor even?
you can still make those functions by taking a sum of an odd and even function
How would you make e^x?
direct sums allow, well, sums of the elements
well if i tell you that it'd kinda be giving the answer away π
here's a hint
suppose f(x) = g(x) + h(x) for g even, h odd
then we should have f(-x) = g(x) - h(x)
and so f(x) + f(-x) = 2g(x)
rearranging, we get $g(x) = \frac{f(x) + f(-x)}{2}$
Namington
this tells us what the even part should be
can you do the same sort of thing to figure out what the odd part, h(x), should be?
(hint: solve for h(x) and then substitute in what we got for g(x))
verify that the g(x) and h(x) we found are in fact even and odd, respectively, and that f(x) = g(x) + h(x)
and you're done
aside: this is just ||cosh(x) + sinh(x)||
and that'll match with the construction i just suggested you do above
@limber sierra But when I have to show that {f : R to R} subset set of even fns + set of odd fns
Then I can't do that, because I have to write that g(x) = (f(x) + f(-x))/2 and h(x) = (f(x)) - f(-x))/2
But what if f is not even or odd like that
write f(x) = g(x) + h(x)
maybe youre misunderstanding the definition of direct sum? direct sums allow you to take sums of elements from each space
g(x) is an even function and h(x) is an odd function
so g(x) + h(x) is in the direct sum of {even functions} and {odd functions}
I know that
But to show that it is a direct sum
I need to do three things
$U_e + U_o \subseteq { f : R \to R}$
n/c
${ f : R \to R} \subseteq U_e + U_o$
n/c
$U_e \cap U_o = { 0 }$
n/c
Correct?
So the justification for the first one would be that it is obvious, as the sum of any two functions with domain R and codomain R will have domain R and codomain R
The second one, I am not so sure about. We can say that f = g + h, where g = f/2 + f(-x)/2 and h = f/2 - f(-x)/2
But this seems strange.
even functions should be orthogonal to odd functions, it shouldn't be too hard to show that these are orthogonal complements
I can't do that @lavish jewel
I think smt to do with $\int_a^{-a} f(x) dx$=0 if f is odd
Buncho Drunk
and product of odd and even functions is odd
I can show that the integral is true, but why does that help us here?
If U and V are orthogonal subspaces,their intersection is 0
Let 0=u+v where u in U and v in V
Then (0,v)=(u,v)+(v,v)
(v,v)=0
v=0
What is (0,v) supposed to mean?
I mean the inner product <0|v>
Oh the dot product?
Yes
That's a interesting way but I need to do it without using the inner product unfortunately
It hasn't been introduced yet
Let f be both even and odd
Then f(-x)=-f(x) since f is odd
f(-x)=f(x) since f is even
For all x
But they could be different functions?
Which implies f(x)=-f(x) implying f(x)=0
No,We are taking f to be both odd and evn
What?
i.e.,f is in the intersection
Ohh
Okay
Yeah that is nice
Thanks
How do I show that the list 1,x,...,x^n is linearly independent in the set of polynomials with coefficients in some field?
We can write that a_1 + a_2 x + ... + a_n x^n = 0
And it's clearly true, but I don't know how to show that a_i must all be 0
That is part of the definition of formal polynomials
If a_0+a_1x+...a_nx^n=0 then a_0=a_1=a_2=...=0
But that wasn't written in the textbook
I think I've found a way
I can let a_0 + a_1 x + ... + a_n x^n = 0
Then we differentiate n times to get n! a_n = 0
Since n is nonzero
Otherwise it's trivial
We get that a_n = 0
So we're left with a_0 + a_1 + x ... + a_n-1 x^n-1 = 0
Then we differentiate n - 1 times to find a_n-1 = 0
And so on
lmao I think this works?
Prove or give a counterexample: if $U_1, U_2, W$ are subspaces of $V$ such that $V = U_1 \oplus W$ and $V = U_2 \oplus W$ then $U_1 = U_2$. Here is my proof: Assume $V = U_1 \oplus W$ and $V = U_2 \oplus W$, but that $U_1 \neq U_2$. As $U_1 \neq U_2$, there exists $u \in U_1$ such that $u \notin U_2$. It follows that $u \in V$ as $U_1$ is a subspace of $V$. This also implies that $u \notin W$, as otherwise we could write the zero vector $0_v = u + (-1) \cdot_s u$, where $-1$ is the additive inverse of the multiplicative identity in $V$, as well as linear combinations of this equation. In other words, the zero vector would not be unique, and so $V \neq U_1 \oplus W$. Therefore, $u \notin W$.
Thus, $u \in U_1 \oplus W$ but $u \notin U_2 \oplus W$, as $u \notin U_2$ and $u \notin W$.
Thus, it cannot be the case that $U_1 \oplus W = U_2 \oplus W$, which is a contradiction.
n/c
Does that work?
Well that statement is false
Take V=span{e_1,e_2}
U_1=span{e_1},U_2=span{e_1+e_2} ,W=span{e_2}
@wintry steppe
That's interesting but then where does my proof go wrong?
at the end, (u\not\in U_2) and (u \not\in W) doesn't imply (u \not\in U_2\oplus W)
Muf
How?
Let u be in A and v be in B and x not be in A or B
for example here, eβ+eβ is in UββW, but not in either of them
5x_1 - 4x_2, x_2 is linearly independent right, given that x_1 and x_2 are linearly independent
Since we have 5a_1 x_1 + (a_2 - 4) x_2 = 0
And c_1 x_1 + c_2 x_2 = 0 implies c_1 = c_2 = 0
So we can just let c_1 = 5a_1 and a_2 - 4 = c_2
Just a sanity check
cβ should be aβ-4aβ
oops but yeah
Isn't this wrong?
the "other value" is 0
"u" is this closest vector
v_1 has to be an orthonormal vector
so we take (3, 0, -4)
normalize it
and get (3/5, 0, -4/5)
then <y, v_1> = 10*3/5 + 0 - 5*4/5 = 2
so we get u = 2*(3/5, 0, -4/5)
but the correct answer is 2 * (3, 0, -4)
why?
hey ! can i have a bit of help figuring what's Z_2 ?
sure
have you heard of either groups, rings, modular arithmetic or integer division?
mmmh i know a little about groups and rings but that's it !
Z_2 is {0,1} with 1+1=0 and 1*1=1 and im lazy to type the other relations
is it a ring ?
well its a field so yes
ooh yes my bad
you dont know integer division?
like we see it when we're like 10yo ?
yeah i did it with polynomials, same thing actually
yup
can prove that
r(aβ‘b) = r(a) β‘ r(b) where β‘ = +, Γ
so u can have a ring this way
uh this maybe confusing for you
mmmh a bit to be honest
its like a clock
like modulos ?
i get that
yea so uh
ok Z_n is {0,..., n-1} with
the operstions this way
compute in Z
then remainder modulo n
its gonna be a ring, sometimes a field
yes you do
thank you so much !
i find 2^n vectors, it seems all right
Is there a easy way to show that all basis of a (infinite dimensional) vector space have same cardinality? (if it is true)
<@&286206848099549185>
2 possibilities for each scalar, n times because of u1...un and they have different representation. idk if it's enough
Something being a basis means that theres unique way to write every vector of the space as a linear combination of that basis
so number of elements of space is the number of linear combinations of the basis yea
how does the development you're familiar with depend on real or complex numbers?
something something anti-symmetric n-linear functional that maps identity to 1
anti-symmetric?
swap two rows/columns and you get -
never heard that called anti symmetric, but alternating
according to wikipedia yea
yea ik i saw it on wiki once
and did convince myself it's true
can't find it again though :/
In mathematics, a bilinear form on a vector space V is a bilinear map V Γ V β K, where K is the field of scalars. In other words, a bilinear form is a function B : V Γ V β K that is linear in each argument separately:
B(u + v, w) = B(u, w) + B(v, w) and B(Ξ»u, v) = Ξ»B(u, v)
B(u, v + w) = B(u, v) + B(u, w) and B(u, Ξ»v) = Ξ»B(u, v)...
they call antisymmetric skew symmetric
aaaa right
Guys am I right when I say that the l2 norm of a matrix A is the largest eigenvalue of A*A, where * indicates that A is transposed??
square root of that
ok thank you
can u diagonalize this?
i get lambda^2 + 1 = 0 when trying to obtain the eigenvalues of A but that doesnt yield two eigenvalues
what's A^2?
[-1 0; 0 -1]
right, which is diagonal
so raising A^2 to an integer power is easy
and 32=2*16
so diagonalize A^2 and then raise to the power of 16?
so you have $A^{2n}=(-1)^nI$
moshill1
since $A^2=-I$
moshill1
alright
so when n=16, you get A^32
how would i go about doing this
i did the inner product for each quantity in the span and they all equal 0 meaning theyre orthogonal but idk how thatd help
i think thats true by definition anyway, i just dont know how to find a basis
how do you know which direction a cross product vector will go
because it can have either positive or negative direction
because they're both orthogonal
it states to use the right hand thumb rule
but that doesn't really justify anything
do you want reason for why the rhr is used
thank u, ended up doing the gram schmidt process anyway
what
why
was that asked of you?
if it wasnt asked then you made this exercise 10 times more annoying then it had to be
you can read off the answers without any computation
its like a 1 minute exercise
i mean thats what the example did in my lin algebra textbook for the same problem lol
:dan:
isnt the whole point of the gram schmidt process to form an orthogonal basis
yes
so why wouldnt that work then
of course it works
but gram schmidt doesnt pay off at all here
computing the orthogonal basis takes more work than just reading off the answers here
when you have the orthogonal basis you still havent shown anything about the given vector sets
but you already computed a bunch of inner products
i only had to check it for (E)
because for the other ones it was obvious without any computation
so in total it just required 3 inner products and they are easily computed from the linearity of integrals
Hello,
can someone give me some tips & tricks for finding eigenvalues and eigenvectors?
Tips for characterize polynomial and diagonalize will help as well.
Thanks!
I have this linear map: f(x,y) = f(x+y,x), if I want to calculate f(x+y) what it would be?
nvm
it wouldn't be
@tropic turret you'd want to watch 3blue1brown videos on that and search up some visualizations
3blue1brown doesnt show much computation
Trick question: Let M be the space of nΓn K-matrices and T: M->K given by T(m) = determinant(m). Is T linear?
How do I justify that no list of four polynomials spans the set of all polynomials with degree 4 or less?
get a basis for that space. it will have 5 elements. it is well known that all spanning sets have cardinality >= that of any basis.
Oh duh
Length of linearly independent list β€ Length of spanning list
How do I show that the set of functions with domain positive integers and codomain some field F is infinite dimensional?
span(F^β) = (a_1f_1 + a_2f_2 + ... | a_i in F} but I think this is hand wavy
Suppose there is a finite list that spans it see if you can get a contradiction
@wintry steppe
I know that's what I tried but I don't know how to go about it without hand waving. I did something like: let n in N be the smallest list of vectors such that a_1f_1 + ... + a_nf_n spans F^β
