#linear-algebra
2 messages Β· Page 199 of 1
I mean, if the input vectors form a basis, then you're done, as you can represent any other vector as a linear combination of the basis vectors (since basis spans V)
so finding the representation of the vector under the input basis will tell you how it transforms
literally right before the timestamp you gave me
no numbers lol
yeah.. he animated it, cause Grant animates everything
1:50
I watched the one you linked
1:50 is the animation of $T[v]=\begin{bmatrix} 1&0&-1\1&1&0\1&0&1\end{bmatrix}^Tv$
oh
moshill1
too lazy to retype the matrix, so just transposing it
i feel like
im stupid man
whats wrong with my brain
god
why do i just, lack math comprehension
lol
i still cant see it
it takes me so damn long to understand stuff
much longer than the average human i think
what do you mean by vector under the input basis
so if I have a basis for $\mathbb{R}^3, B={v_1,v_2,v_3}$, which need not be the canonical basis, then I can write any vector $w\in\mathbb{R}^3$ as $w\in span(B)\implies w=c_1v_1+c_2v_2+c_3v_3, c_i\in\mathbb{R}$
moshill1
so the co-ordinate vector of w under B is $(w)_B=[c_1,c_2,c_3]$
moshill1
right
so then applying the matrix of the transformation to (w)B, you get the transformed vector of w in the other basis, which we assumed to be canonical
also how to swap between bases
(I will be honest, I suck ass at change of basis so I can't properly explain it lol)
change of basis is very important
whats the formula for it
It's the theorem I posted from my prof's notes
How can I calculate the initial velocity needed to fire a projectile such that it will fly in a straight line towards a given target?
squirtlespoof
sounds right
just carefully write it out using the definition of the transpose of a map
how would you carefully prove that $f\circ i = f|_{W}$
Terra
both as functions defined on W
you'd show that they agree on all elements of W, right?
which is basically what you've done
so the transpose of i takes any function on V to its restriction to W
squirtlespoof
.
right
your explanation feels like you're not confident in the result
but you're not wrong anywhere
in fact you're completely correct lol
it could just be shortened quite a bit, you could probably get away with just writing something like
given $f\in V^*$, $i^t(f)=f\circ i = f|_W$, so $i^t$ takes functionals on $V$ to their restrictions to $W$
Terra
always be confident in your writing, especially if it's being graded
the former
in the latter, "restriction to W*" makes it sound like you're talking about functionals defined on the dual spaces
but they're really elements of those dual spaces
Hi! i have a question. How would i form the diagnoal matrix of eigenvalues if the eigenvalue has a multiplicity greater than one?
So lets say i have a 3x3 matrix A with eigenvectors 2 and 3 and the characteristic polynomial is P(L) = (L - 2)^2(L-3) and the eigenspace for L1 has dimension 2 and eigenspace for L2 has dimension 1. How would i construct the diagonal matrix in this case?
well the diagonal would contain 2 2's
Question regarding taking a Cross product. If I have a vector V1 that is in a space defined by an orthonormal set of basis vectors in R^3. If I take a V1 (cross) with some other Vector V2 I get some orthogonal vector V3. Now with V3 is there a way calculate where this vector lands for any orientation? Meaning if I want to get the projection of V3 on any of the basis vectors I don't want to have to take a dot product with every combination after the fact.
What about the other vector that's constructed with the bases of the eigenspaces though?
wdym
*matrix i mean
do you mean finding Q such that Q D Q^-1 = the original matrix?
pick an order for your basis
and just write the columns
it's just like how you would write the matrix representation for any linear transformation wrt any basis
yea
so like that?
great
so then when i go to calculate A
it would just be PDP-1
and then if i wanted A^K , i'd just do PD^KP^-1
exactly
and that last result is one of the upsides of diagonalization
cause powers of diagonal matrices are super super easy to calculate
yea, this isnt too bad
i like linear algebra, its a cool class now that i kind of understand it but the calculations make my head hurt sometimes
exactly!
like i read up on eigenstuff a few days ago cause i was still confused
and now they make sense
I will say it can get much worse
π
this is only an introductory lin alg course
ok you probably won't touch it then
thankfully i get a break from linear algebra for a semester
then im back to it in the winter
it's basically the generalization of diagonalization
for when the polynomial splits
but the algebraic multiplicity isn't nessessarily equal to the geometric
and the calculations 
yea that scares me
I do not recommend
I did not do well on that quiz
Ok now I got a question of my own
for 2b
i havent been doing bad in this class at all, im doing pretty well its just the professor has ruined it for me π, shitty textbook and incomprehensible lectures
shouldn't the answer be (1, -2)

not (1, 2) like my book suggests
oof, i finished a sloppy proof for a linear algebra problem
alr im gonna do some homework, my exam is tommrow π
i just finished writing up basically every i have to know
thanks so much @faint lintel
yw
If a normal operator P has eigenvalues of either 0 or 1, show that P^2=P. Do you need P to be normal for this..?
I dont see how P being normal is relevant
cause P[v]=0 -> P[P[v]]=P[0]=0 so P^2=P
P[v]=v -> P[P[v]]=P[v] P^2=P
fellers, what does this mean?
The written portion reads "why the usual operations of..."
wait yoooooooooooooooooooooooooooooo
is matrix multiplication defined in terms of inner products?
like matrix multiplication of complex matricies
is each entry in the resulting matrix
an inner product of a row and column
no
damn
but
how do I do matrix multiplication for complex numbers
what?
Every inner product, if you choose a basis right
then you can write that inner product as a SPD matrix multiplying the coordinate w.r.t that basis
and similarly every SPD matrix induces an inner product, and u can easily check that
but be carefule i dont think they are 1-1 correspondence, since say B = {u1,...un} is orthonormal w.r.t some inner product, then u could also choose for instance B = {sigma(u1),...,sigma(un)} the permutation of the original ordered basis to again get the same matrix, which is the identity
Hm ok
I was just thinking because like
Dot product is the inner product for real vectors
But you can also do matrix multiplication as dot products
So I was wondering if that generalized
oh shoot
i think I misunderstood what you meant
XD
yes then each entry is dot product of rows and columns
of the 1st and 2nd matrix, and yea dot product is a specific inner product
So if I have a matrix of complex numbers
I would do inner product of complex vectors?
yea matrix multiplication just happened to have this somewhat neat way of representing
there is just so many ways you can think about it
Yea
i mean the simplest nontrivial example right would be [i i] [i i]^T and u get -2 but <x,x> > 0
W is the set of even functions from R to R, with typical operations of + and *
thx
Ok so
This is clearly a linear transformation of complex vector spaces right?
Oh
Lmao
ok so
Can I tell my idea anyway?
Lmao
Just prove that if Ο(v) = 0, that would mean that for every w in V
Then the inner product of v and w
Would be 0
You would have to prove
That if this was the case
Then v=0
And since Ο is clearly a linear transformation of complex vector spaces
Then it would be an injection
Was this your idea?
Haha nice
:)
Remember the following thing
If you have an inner product space
This induces a metric
So like
In particular
<v,v>^2 = 0
But this implies that v=0
Because of the metric induced by the inner product
I mean
I just used that
Given an inner product space
Over the complex numbers
You can put a norm on it
In particular a metric
But whatever
Given by |v|=β<v,v>
And by the axioms of a norm
If this is 0
Then v=0
You could use this
hello
Anyway
yea all NVS are metric spaces
Good luck with the other problems
I mean
Knowing that inner product => induced norm => induced metric
Is really nice
You should keep this in mind
Because you can use this whenever you wnt
am i being dumb or is there a way to show this without plugging in the lin comb of basis vectors for x and y $\langle {x|y} \rangle$ = $\sum_{i = 1}^{n} \langle {x|x_i} \rangle\overline{\langle {y|x_i} \rangle}$
gokugamer69
id rather not spend like half a page just working it out
Does make sense tho? With x_i I suppose you mean the i-th component of x in a basis B.
But you can't take the inner product of a scalar like x_i with x
But yeah
There's something similar to this
oh yes sorry
That is called the hermitian form or hermitian inner product
Suppose that we are in C^n
A C-vector space that is has complex dimension n
And I choose a random
Orthonormal basis
Then
Given an inner product $\langle \cdot , \cdot \rangle : \mathbb{C}^{c} \times \mathbb{C}^{n} \rightarrow \mathbb{C}$ in the following way.
\
\
For any given $u,v \in \mathbb{C}^{n}$, we have that $\langle u, v \rangle = \sum\limits_{i=1}^{n} u_{i} \overline{v}_{i}$
Try to prove this
Btw I am sorry
MisterSystem
Ok
Notice how you are just summing the inner product
Of each component
If your basis is orthonormal
You can always do this
And represent any given inner product this way
You could also do this
For any general C-vector space that has finite dimension
And you choose an orthonormal basis
Same thing
But yeah
oh wait, because they are orthonorm, the norm of \langle {x_i|x_i} \rangle is just 1, and the rest of the parts go to 0. i forgot
i forgot i was working w an orthonorm basis
Yeah
Exactly
This is the reason why this works for even general finite dimensional C-vector spaces
If you fix an orthonormal basis
Same argument
Any inner product can be expressed in this way
And btw
(This is pretty much the reason why working with orthonormal basis is so useful when we deal with inner product spaces)
Idk idk π³
I guess I am used to saying thanks lmao
I am so used to not knowing how to properly respond to stuff
Being shy is a bitch
Ok anyway
Lmao
π₯Ίππ
@crisp cloud what do you mean

hey everyone, I just came up with this result while trying an ex: kerf = imf
is that possible?
sure, consider {0} -> {0}
Consider T:$R^2->R^2$ whose matrix is given by:
$\begin{pmatrix}
0 & 1\
0 & 0\end{pmatrix}$
Buncho Drunk
T(1,0)=(0,0) and range(T)=span{(1,0)}
nevermind, I figured it out, thank you though!
for this question it is sus
what does $(S_i)^V = [(S_V)i]{S_V}$ even mean, isnt that just the ith standard basis vector
Anticipation
find an orthonormal basis for the plane first
could I say something like {( 1,2,3) (4, 5, 6) (3,-2,1)}?
3,-2,0 is definitely not on the plane
woops i meant 1 not 0
are you just making it up?
ok they are just std basis vectors
how should I go about doing that?
they're not wrong in that the plane has infinitely many bases, and infinitely many orthonormal bases
is polar decomposition useful for anything
i've never seen it used directly
everything is SVD π but idk about any nice case where it would be faster and more efficient to use the polar decomp directly
ye true just corollary
was wondering if it showed up anywhere in analysis of convergence or whatever
cuz it seems pretty general
wait @lavish jewel so when I make a basis, would {( 2,3,0) (0, 4, 8) (3,-2,1)} be right?
your basis will only have 2 vectors
ooo.... wait that changes everything lol
i suggest you first read the definition of a plane
I know by definition of matrix multiplication u can prove that
(AB)* = B* A*
but i was wondering is it also ok to prove it like this:
Assuming I proved that for orthonormal basis B,C if $A = [T]{B,C}$ then $A^\star = [T^\star]{C,B}$. This means that $[(TU)^\star]_{B} = [TU]B^\star$ and also $[(TU)^\star]{B} = [U]_B^\star[T]_B^\star$
Anticipation
where this is only true if B is orthonormal, but thats enough because for any basis u can represent any matrix as a linear transformation
because the thing is (TU)* = U* T* is easy to prove using inner products
That works
nice, thanks!
I want to prove that the set of differentiable real-valued functions f on the interval (0,3) such that f'(2) = b is a subspace of R^(0,3) if and only if b = 0.
Here is my attempt: Let U = { f | f : (0,3) -> R, f' exists, f'(2) = b}
First assume that b = 0. Then define f(x) = 0, so f'(x) = 0 and f'(2) = 0, so 0 in U.
Now let f, g in U. We f(x) + g(x) = (f + g)(x) by definition, and that (f(x) + g(x))' = f'(x) + g'(x) = (f' + g')(x), and also f'(2) + g'(2) = 0. So f' + g' exists and (f + g) in U.
Then let a in R. So (af)(x) = af(x) by definition, and (af(x))' = af'(x). Then af'(2) = 0, and so U is a subspace if b = 0.
Now we go the other way and assume that U is a subspace. This means that 0 in U. So let f(x) = 0, and f'(x) = 0. This means that f'(2) = 0 and f'(2) = b, which implies that b = 0. And we're done both ways.
feels wordy
Okay, first can you tell me if it works?
seems like it does
Thanks, now how would you make it less wordy?
i probably wouldn't bother giving an explicit name to the zero functino
function*
idk
im a little too tired to come up with a less wordy prof
proof*
But you need the zero function?
Just do it in one step instead of doing f+g and cf as 2 separate steps
Let f and g be in U,then f'(2)=0,g'(2)=0 implying (cf+g)'(2)=0 for all c in F,f in U,g in U
Put c=-1 and g=f to get that 0 is in in U
The other direction doesn't need any changes
I have a question
How do I prove that f(x) = 0 is the "0 in U"?
That it couldn't be something else
Should I proceed by contradiction or something?
Pick a function g in U
Note that (g+f)(x)=g(x) for all x if you take f(x)=0
Implying f is the identity wrt that operation
Yes
I want to show that if U = {(x,0,0) in F^3 : x in F} and W = {(0,y,0) in F^3 : y in F} then U + W = {(x,y,0) : x,y in F}
Here's my attempt: First we show that U + W is a subset of {(x,y,0) : x,y in F}
Let u in U, w in W and then u = (u_1,0,0), w = (0,w_1,0). Then by definition, U + W = {u + w} = {(u_1,w_1,0) : u_1,w_1 in F}
This is clearly a subset of {(x,y,0) : x,y in F}
Next we will show that {(x,y,0) : x,y in F} is a subset of U + W, and that will give us equality
We observe that if we pick x = u_1, y = w_1, then we are done.
Works
Thanks
Does anyone know how I am supposed to predict the velocity of a bullet moving from one starting vector to an ending vector, given a static speed value and a gravity value?
Kinematics?
If I'm starting at v(0,0) and I want to end at another vector, but I can only move at a certain rate of time, with gravity integrated into it
Well I'm not takinginto account fluid or air resistance lol
This is just a simple parabola, but with vectors and gravity integration
well the horizontal velocity remains constant and all that changes is vertical velocity which you can model as just how much it gains from falling, which is just gt
$\vec{v}(t)=\begin{bmatrix}v_{ix}\v_{iy}+gt\end{bmatrix}$
moshill1
Can anyone help me with proving this equation?
$sqrt(1-norm(u)^2)sqrt(1-norm(v)^2)<=1-inner_product(u,v)$
Alireza
$\sqrt{1 - \norm{u}^2}\sqrt{1 - \norm{v}^2} \leq 1 - \langle u, v \rangle$
Namington
$\sqrt{1 - \norm{u}^2}\sqrt{1 - \norm{v}^2} \leq 1 - \langle u, v \rangle$
is this what you wanted?
maybe im missing something
the left hand side will sometimes be imaginary
how are you defining β€?
Ah I missed some information, norm(u) and norm(v) are <= 1
ah
That looks similar to $\sqrt{\norm{u}^2\norm{v}^2} \leq \langle u, v \rangle$
Meow0thing
yeah my immediate temptation is to rewrite the RHS using one-argument-linearity
I think something like that is one of the more standard proofs
and try something like that
ah oops but yeah that shape was pretty familiar to me
Maybe you can somehow formulate it into that?
If yes then you'd have solved it
eh
that might actually not be the best approach looking back
cauchy schwarz should work here with some massaging
via inner product properties
but i dont think its very clean
Hmm... is it ok for me to post my question now, or is the previous question here still somewhat active
Alireza is not replying, he's probably trying out that way as we write
Yeah, but I haven't gotten to the answer yet, it seems difficult
You can ask if you want, you might get the answer quickly :)
Ok I'll formulate the question then
Might take a while too
Topic: intrinsic rotations and extrinsic rotations (euler angles)
Question: Why is it that intrinsic rotations are basically extrinsic rotations, just in reversed order?
Details: In one of my courses, we were tasked with showing that rotations are not commutative, by performing intrinsic rotation. This task is solved, but has only sprung forth questions, like "how does intrinsic / extrinsic rotation work" "why doesn't it work like what we thought it should work like" and more. We thought that since the y axis got rotated away, you would have to determine the new y axis, and then change the matrix to the changed bases, such that the rotation now rotates around the y axis. Instead, they just changed the order of rotations, and somehow that works. We tried googling and wikipediaing it but none of the answers really explained it.
Like, the difference between intrinsic and extrinsic rotations is that intrinsic rotations basically rotate the coordinate axis with them and all further rotations are done on the rotated axises
While with extrinsic rotations you keep rotating on that "global" axis, like, the one that would be if they were "unaffected" by the rotations
Like, why does simply changing the order of rotations already achieve that
I'm not too sure how to get across my confusion or my question. I can draw some pictures to illustrate what is happening in each case I just don't know why or where to look
I'm not even sure if it's linear algebra, but it certainly is matrices
Ima do some pictures
Intrinsic rotation in order of black red blue
extrinsic rotation in order of black red blue
Note how the red turn thingy that signifies the second rotation is at different places
Why does simply changing the order of matrices change whether it's intrinsic or extrinsic? That is the question
And how are they even correlated
Ah wait in the last pic I think y' also needs to change
Yee
... Ping me when you reply, I'll take a break for now and listen to some music
(Thanks in advance)
Mm doesn't look like it's working. Whatever, I'll just try asking the prof that then or whoever else I can contact. Or maybe the solution will explain it.
the first thing comes from looking at the diagonal of the matrix having all the lambda terms on it, the second thing comes from plugging in lambda=0
@quartz compass Could you explain aa little more please im really dumb
what equation do you use to plug lambda=0?
does anyone have any ideas for how to prove that involutions are diagonalizable without using stuff involving minimal polynomials or cayley-hamilton
I managed to do it for 2x2 using stuff with adjugates, but I think it'd get really messy and undoable if I tried the same method for nxn
nvm I got it
Hello. I am trying to understand why is the multiplicity of an eigenvalue in a minimal polynom corresponds to the size of the largest Jordan block. Particularly I did not get this argument.
Don't they mean that if I multiply a matrix by an inversible matrix the minimal polynomial does not change? but that's not true...
why y'all deleting msgs @last mist @snow jetty
not to block "open" questions π
^^^
it's not necessarily blocking, and feel free to ping helpers if you've not received a response
ok π in summary: R^n can be a vector subspace of R^m if n β€ m as it is not empty (zero vector) and stable to linear combinations; very formally it would rather be a subset of R^m isomorph to R^n)
Can you explain me why?
I mean
Ok, it is due to the Dunford decomposition, but...
mors
Ok I will try this
I will check that out π
Say V is a finite dimensional vector space over R, let T : V β V be a linear operator,
W a non-trivial T-invariant subspace of V such that W itself has no proper non-trivial T-invariant subspaces. Show that dim(W) is 1 or 2
been stuck on this for a while now could i get a hint
let me check that out
I know the only subspaces of 1 dimensional vector spaces is the trivial one
so thats a possibility out
but how do u tackle the dimension 2 case
... and the subspace itself?
yea
delirium i think itd be better to show instead that dim(W) > 3 is impossible
but thats also trivial
consider a T-invariant subspace W such that dim(W) > 3, find a smaller T-invariant subspace W' strictly contained in W
showing dim(W) > 3 is impossible directly gives you dim(W) β€ 2
you can make examples for which dim(W) = 2 such as a rotation in R^2
okay, lemme give it a go
I think I have it, but there is one nuance I am not sure about
Could I apply the geometric series (with all the limit things) to the matrices? Like I did here
If N is nilpotent why do you need an infinite sum?
I want to understand this assumption
But if I want to say that this polynomial is actually an inverse, I have to make sure that it's the same thing as (I + tN)^-1
That's why I use the geometric series thing
expand $(I+tN)(I - tN + t^2N^2 - \dots + (-1)^{n-1} (tN)^{n-1})$
Ann
i assume n is the nilpotence index of N
^ there is no series here, and you plug in t = 1/lambda
indeed
that second matrix is just (1/Ξ»)I 
Yes, that's stupid
It's wrong in fact
This makes more sense
okay so if i have a W with dim>3 or >=4 then it has a basis {v1,...v_n} with n at least 4, so i can just take that basis with 1 fewer vector and get another T non invariant vector space of dimen at least 3 which contradicts the assumption
this seems too simple tho
you cant just take a random basis no
you need to consider the characteristic polynomial of T restricted to W
hmm alright
So the proof would be just this?
hm...
There should be only one generalised eigenvalue for the restriction of T to the subspace W
If I have dimension 1 then the algebraic multiplicity in the characteristic polynomial will be 1, so 1 eigenvalue and 1 linearly independent eigenvector for this eigenvalue
If I have dimension 2 then I can take just one vector and it still stays invariant
Strange, no idea (i'm no way an expert, just studying π )
so this question is actual
You must show that the vectors are linearly independent and span R^2
That means, that you can express any vector (x, y) as a(1,1) + b(2, 3) where a and b are scalars
Which means to solve a system of equations a + 2b = x; a + 3b = y
Then you will have a solution like a = "a formula with x and y's" and same for b
If you manage to do it you prove it's the base; to prove they are linearly independent take x, y = 0, plug into the obtained formulas and if it implies a = 0 and b = 0 you show they are linearly independent.
In fact in R^2 it works if and only if the vectors are not colinear, so for {(1,1), (2,3)} it's ok but for {(1,1), (2,2)} it won't work (you can't express for example (2,3) as their linear combination)
check out some youtube for this
if you want to do a matrix thing solving the system is same as finding the solution for a matrix equation ([1,2] [1, 3])*(a,b) = (x,y)
Hello guys, Ive to prove that this is a subspace from R3
Thats what Ive. Should I just replace the Uc with R3?
are you sure you're asked to prove it's a subspace or work out the values of c for which it's a subspace?
You wrote that $x_1 + x_2 + x_3 = c$ and $y_1 + y_2 + y_3 = c$ implies $x_1 + x_2 + x_3 + y_1 + y_2 + y_3 = c$, which does not make a lot of sense, right?
edelopo
Well it says I have to look if it is a subspace from R3
I looked at a youtube video. It did not had the c, thats why I just added the c
so is it maybe c^2?
It says "Find out for which values of c the following set is a subspace of R^3"
Why do you think it is c^2?
You are adding both equations, right?
so it is c+c right?
Yep
oh but do i have to replace the Uc with R3 because it wants the subspace of R3
No, what they want you to find out is whether U_c, which is a subset of R^3, is actually a linear subspace
Do you know the definition of linear subspace?
no unfortunately not
Well, then you should definitely look that up hahaha
But are my answers right?
No, they are not
You didn't give one answer, though
You gave three arguments which form a proof that U_c is a subspace of R^3 for all c
But the arguments are wrong
And so is the conclusion
You are asked for which c does it work
with arguments you mean the calculation i used right
Yeah
It is obvious, you add two of such (x1, x2, x3) and (y1, y2, y3) and the result should satisfy as well the relation
The addition is defined term by term
ok
Suppose (x1, x2, x3) and (y1, y2, y3) satisfy the relation x1 + x2 + x3 = c and y1 + y2 + y3 = c. Then (x1 + y1, x2 + y2, x3 + y3) must satisfy (x1 + y1) + (x2 + y2) + (x3 + y3) = c, otherwise it's not a subspace. That means "the law of internal composition a.k.a sum is well defined
you also have to prove that the subset is not empty, and the 0-vector must be in the subspace
I think now the value of "c" is more than obvious
but thats what i also did in 2.
.
you said c+c=c, which is not true
c + c = c if and only if c = 0
the question is "for which "c" is it a subspace"
"fΓΌr welche" = "for which" si jamais
yes that matrix will help determine independence and span, however independence should be obvious
since (2,3) != k(1,1)
if you manage to get it in the REF it's done, the range is 2 so finished for today
It depends on how it was presented in your course
In fact the assertion is way too obvious
Another argument is that "two linearly independent vectors in a 2-d space are for sure a base, by definition of dimension"
I think the resolution was bad and i made it better
there is no c+c=c
Ok, why do you have 0,0,0 are in U_c?
when you dont know if the zero vector is in U_c
in all that working, you have not said what c needs to be for it to be a subspace
in any subspace the null vector is present
Im aware.
otherwise it's not an abelian group so not a vector space by definition
but i thought if x is 0 then c is zero then Uc has a zero vetore
right, so write out that c=0
ok
if you keep c then you are asserting that U_c is always a subspace
which it clearly isnt since 0 isnt in U_1
since 0+0+0 != 1
suppose c = 0 it works otherwise it doesn't
Yes, that;s what I just said
so if c=0 i dont have to write it down anymoreright?
yes, or if the question is determine which c makes U_c a subspace, at the end explain why U_0 is the only subspace
So i have to remove the c's from 2. and 3. because c=0
yes, assuming the question is to also then show it's a subspace
the question is to show that c element of R is a subspace from R^3
c is a scalar, not a vector space, let alone a vector
If I want to find a subspace W with dimension2 such that dim(W intersection V) = 1, and dim(V) = 2
if I make the vectors of span of W the same of V, then the intersection would be 1 right?
If you take have W = span{v1, v2} and V = span{v1} then the intersection will be of 1 dimension
okay so if i consider the characteristic polynomial of T_w here its gonna have degree of at least 4, and if a lambda is a root of that poly i can get out an eigenvector in W and i know the span of that eigenvector will a T invariant space, but this might not work for even degree right cuz it might not have any roots in R
could anyone explain why we care about knowing the row/column spaces of a matrix? i don't really understand what they tell us about the matrix
they tell you which types of matrix products can be inverted exactly
wait i dont see the relation between those two
if , in Ax = b, b is in the column space of A, then you can find at least 1 exact solution
the exact solution would be a vector x in the row space of A, plus any arbitrary linear comb. of vectors in the nullspace of A
similarly with A^T, but now using the column, row, and left null spaces
this means you can actually invert matrices that are not square in some cases
ohhh alright
are there any connections between the column/row spaces of a matrix and the fact that every matrix can be interpreted as a linear transformation? im not sure how those two concepts are related and it's what im most curious about
column space of a matrix is the image of its associated linear transformation
ohh nice
and the row space is its domain, so to speak
what is not in the row space, is in the null space
and gets mapped to 0
since the row space and the null space are orthogonal complements of each other
is there a name for that part of the domain (that is not mapped to null space)
coimage or something
coimage is a quotient tho
let me look it up
also, just to clarify, the column space is the image of the entire domain of the linear transformation?
yea
cool
is it preimage?
preimage of codomain except {0} lol
mhm
is there a way to figure out the image of any subset of the domain using the fact that the column space is the image of the whole domain?
since it's easy to determine the column space of a matrix
the image of a subset could be almost anything
i'm not sure there is
idk much tho
if you can express that subset of the domain in terms of the right singular values of the matrix, yes
the right singular values are a basis for the row space and the null space
or in other words, the SVD of a matrix reveals all this stuff directly. what gets mapped where and how
looked up right singular values and they seem to be related to eigenvectors? im a bit far from that but maybe in a few weeks i can really learn what all this means
not directly
since ill have learned eigen stuff by then
the singular vectors are related to the eigenvectors of A^T A and A A^T
yea, that's what came up when i googled, are singular values different?
ohhh ok
could someone double check this if possible? idk if im on the right track here <@&286206848099549185>
this is the problem
Over R every irreducible polynomial is of degree 1 or 2
yea but that doesnt guarantee me real roots for degree=4 for instance so the argument fails there
like i can have 2 complex conjugate eigenvalues right
so it works for the odd degree case but not sure how to tackle the even degree
in even degree it might just have subspaces of degree 2, i don't remember how to prove tho
yea dimension
so if the characterstic polynomial is of even degree then all non trivial subspaces are of degree 2?
not necesarily, there could be some of degree 1
You know that every real polynomial can be factored into factors of degrees either 1 or 2 right?
yea
i think you can do this
Let v be a non zero vector of V
then if V has dimension n, (v, Tv, ..., T^n v) is linearly dependent
so there are coefficients not all 0 such that a0v + a1Tv + ... + anT^n v = 0
since not all coefficients are 0, there is an ai that is non-zero such that no higher term coefficient is 0 (for example an if an is not 0)
So aiT^i v + ... + a0v = 0
and this i is greater than 0 cuz since v is non-zero then if i=0 then would have a0v=0 which would mean a0 =0 which would contradict linear dependence
So we can factor this
You get 0 = c(T-y1I)...(T-ykI)(TΒ²+j1T+h1I)...(TΒ²+jmT+hmI) v
since v is nonzero that means one of the factors is not injective..
this was calculating determinate of A
can someone tell me where i went wrong
answer is detA = 20
i got det A = -20
WAI
WATI
IM STUPID
WAIT I THINK I SEE IT
okay you kinda lost me carla lol
i dont see how to use this to find the dimensions of the subspaces of the invariant subspace
also could someone explain where this falls apart? Ann said I cant just take a random bases but i dont understand why
i gotta go but im still kinda stuck, if anyone can offer a hint please ping me
if you have W = span{v_k | k = 1,2,...,n} a T invariant subspace, where the v_k are just whatever that makes a basis, then in no way can you claim W' = span{v_k | k = 1,2,...,n-1} is also T-invariant
i mean, you can't say that $Tv_1$ necessarily has a zero coefficient on $v_n$ in its decomposition!
Ann
concrete example: R^6, standard basis, Te_2 = e_2 + 8e_4, Te_k = e_k for k = 1,3,4,5,6
W = span{e1, e2, e3, e4} is T invariant
but span{e1, e2, e3} is not
@next vapor
i see
am i on the right track here?
yea
but im unsure how to tackle a charc polynomial of the form, say (x^2+1)(x^2+3)
how do i go about finding the dimensions of the subspaces of something like that
you can pass to the complexification of your space
and show that if v is an eigenvector of a real matrix A with eigenvalue lambda then conj(v) is also an eigenvector but with eigenvalue conj(lambda)
and so span{real(v), imag(v)} is A-invariant
or T invariant whatever
Hi everyone.. could anyone answer me why linear algebra is useful in group theory?
hm im probably being dumb but i cant figure out why that implies span{real(v), imag(v)} is T invariant
Let V vector space. Let G_0 be empty list then its lin indep. For every ordinal w, if G_w is linearly indep. and not basis, then can choose a v_{w+1} not in span of G_w and define G_{w+1} as G_w union {v_{w+1}} which is linearly independent then. For a limit ordinal w, we define G_w as union of all previous G's. If all G's before it are linearly independent so must be G_w clearly i think. Let {G_a} be the well ordered set of all of these (linearly independent) G's up to at most the cardinality of 2^V. Then the union B of all of them must still be in this set. So this B should be a maximal linearly independent subset of V, because a subset with higher cardinality is linearly dependent, so B is a basis.
Is this correct?
this is a determinant
i can not
get my brain to understand
why it's ad-bc
it's slanted, so if i unslant it, it would just be a * d
as the area of the parallelogram or rectangle
the length of the base is A and the height is d
so why do we subtract bc?
the long side might be d but you want the perpendicular height
it probably works out, but i don't think tilting it is the nicest way
draw some triangles
and that changes the height
i have and
i can't get my mind
ive tried multiplying unit vectors
with linear transformatons
and it doesn't add up
i had the unit square as 1 and then a linear transformaton of 1,2 and 3,1
and i got -3
after you set the short side down and compensate for that, you can unslant it or slant it all you want and you're right the area won't change, but you have to compensate for the tilt first
which i know is cause of orientation but i dont understand it
i can't get my head to understand but can someone point out what bc is
it just is
my brain wants to keep subtracting d by b
oh
i think i get it
lol
sorry
but to be clear
is it because the origin height to (c,d) is different than the height to (a,b)
i don't understand, sorry
no, they're good questions
i don't understand what you're doing but ok
like
im unslanting it
if i unslant it
b would be 0
so if i do that, then the area would just be a*d
but then i don't understand why if i have some vaue at b
it becomes ad-bc
because the height would still be the same on both sides
well you seem to be using height to mean one of the sides
but you don't want that, you want the perpendicular height
i have a bad foundation on geometry lol sorry
the bottom left corner stays at the origin
but why is it that we cant use the value of y
and instead need the perpendicular height
well it's like
if you have a triangle with two sides that are both 1, it can have any area from 0 to 0.5, but if you have a triangle with one side that's length 1 and then a height perpendicular to that side that's length 1, you know the area has to be 0.5
and increasing b increases the perpendicular height here? i think?
is it a viable idea to find the distance
of (c,d)
and multiply that by a
or the distance of (a,b)
there's no particular reason why that should do the thing you want it to do, i think
that i can see
but that's perpendicular
covers an area of 6
that's for perpendicular things
and you're not using anything that's definitely perpendicular that i can see
oh
i think ill just think of bc
as like
accountability for the slantness
i guess
my ape brain can't comprehend it
i don't know what you're doing at all in any way
so i can't say whether that's a good idea or not
yeah
and not subtract bc
but like
but you said it's cause of slantness
and i was wondering why the slanted height isn't hte same as a normal height cause
i don't think that's what i said exactly
if you go like x length, isn't the area the same regardless
no you don't
wdym
if you set the side that's just a so it's flat on the x-axis, the perpendicular height won't necessarily be d
why should it be
why should the height be d
because that's the length from the origin
no it's not
wait, even if you untilt it so the short side is on the x-axis the side won't even be a
the length of the short side is sqrt(a^2 + b^2), by pythagoras
and the length of the long side is sqrt(c^2 + d^2)
if it was a rectangle
ok let's try this i think i have a simple but long proof
hear me out?
yea
ok so imagine you go from the top-right corner and you drop a vertical line down to the x-axis, and a horizontal line left to the y-axis
you have a rectangle, right?
so what if we just cut out the rest of the bits
so the big rectangle has area (a+c)(b+d)
because the vertical line hits the x-axis at (a+c, 0)
and the left side of the rectangle is at (0, 0)
why isn't it
b+d,0
wouldn't the tew new formed vertices be
(a+c,0)
and
oops
(0,b+d)
yes
so (0, b+d) is the top left corner
so (a+c) is the width and (b+d) is the height, right?
yes
ok
so now we want to take pieces away so we have the parallelogram
so let's drop a vertical line from the bottom right corner, now
more or less, but there's a bit more to it
ok just follow pls
so dropping a vertical line from bottom right corner
you have a triangle underneath the parallelogram, with a right angle at (a, 0)
yes?
yea
same thing
and then if we take a horizontal line rightwards from the bottom right corner also, then we get a triangle to the right of the parallelogram that hits the right side of the big rectangle
with a right angle at (a+c, b)
so the height will be (b+d) - b = d
and the width will be (a+c) - a = c
so the area of this right triangle will be 0.5cd
ok
so we've cut out two triangles like that, but if you visualise clearly there's still a bit below the right triangle and to the right of the bottom triangle that we still need to cut out
it will be a small rectangle in the bottom right corner of the big rectangle
yea
ok so the area of this small rectangle will be base * height: ((a+c) - a)((b+d) - b) = (c)(d) = cd
yes
yes?
ok
so now we've done all the stuff that's to the bottom right of the parallelogram
so we just need to do the same thing on the top left
so the triangle to the left of the parallelogram will have area 0.5cd
the triangle above the parallelogram will have base (a+c) - c = a and height (b+d) - d = b, so area 0.5ab
and the small rectangle in the top left corner of the big rectangle will have area ((a+c) - c)((b+d) - d) = (a)(b) = ab
so now we've cut out six pieces from the big rectangle, and that just leaves the parallelogram
so the area of the parallelogram = big rectangle - bottom triangle - bottom right rectangle - right triangle - left triangle - top triangle - top left rectangle
= (a+c)(b+d) - 0.5ab - 0.5cd - cd - 0.5cd - 0.5 ab - ab = (ab + ad + bc + cd) - 2ab - 2cd = ad - ab - cd + bc which is completely wrong, what have i done
lol
i think i get your steps tho
i want to do this on my notebook because
i kind of lost you when you were doing the
coordinates lol
yeah it'll be easier with pictures and actually drawing the lines and things
tyty
(a+c)(b+d) - 0.5ab - 0.5cd - bc - 0.5cd - 0.5ab - bc = (ab + ad + bc + cd) - ab - 2bc - cd = ad - bc
the bottom right triangle is .5ab
basically
i got the rectangles wrong
and the left triangle is cb+cd
so both the small rectangles are bc
which i just got completely wrong for some reason
i am very tired
the area of the parallelogram:
= big rectangle - bottom triangle - bottom right rectangle - right triangle - left triangle - top triangle - top left rectangle
= (a+c)(b+d) - 0.5ab - 0.5cd - bc - 0.5cd - 0.5ab - bc
= (ab + ad + bc + cd) - ab - 2bc - cd
= ad - bc
so
the area of the big rectangle that you're cutting bits away from is (a+c)(b+d)
well drop a vertical line from the top right corner and you have (a+c, 0), right?
oooh
as the bottom right corner of the rectangle?
yeah
i mean if i could just get the parallelogram that way there'd be no point lol
but anyway i just realised that this was all entirely pointless and you probably didn't need to be convinced that this worked, you wanted to see where it all came from
which this doesn't really help with
because it's not exactly transparently insightful
it is in fact opaque as cardboard
i need to see the proof yea
then i'll be good
also thanks whoever changed my name
cross star
but anyway yeah they change your name if it's too hard to type, because then ppl can't ping you
but yeah if you find that this doesn't actually explain anything, because it doesn't, come back later and ask someone else and they'll probably give you a better answer
Let V a vector space, P the set of linearly independent subsets of V partially ordered by inclusion. Let C be a chain of P. Then its union must also be linearly independent i believe. That means every chain of P has an upper bound in P, so by Zorns lemma there is a maximal element B. If B was not basis then let v not in span of B then B u {v} linearly independent contradicts that B is maximal. So B is a basis.
Is this correct?
That seems correct to me, but i'm not exactly an expert with this subject
i think it's good??
im sus cuz my teacher said proving this for infinite dimensional is hard but this is such a simple proof lol
well that doesn't exactly say it works for infinite dimensions
oh cause i skipped a word while reading, ignore me lmao
Lecture 8: Zorn's lemma
Claudio Landim
Previous lectures: http://bit.ly/2Z3qzIM
These lectures are mainly based on the book
"Functional Analysis" by Peter Lax. Lessons 33 to 37 follow
Chapter 4 of the book "Applied Functional Analysis"
by Eberhard Zeidler, volume 108 of Springer's collection Applied
Mathematical Sciences.
There are many other ...
Maybe this should be helpful
But yeah
You are pretty much correct
yay
Just notice the following
You are implicitly using the fact
That the set of linearly independent subsets of V
Is non empty
This is true ofc
yea it clearly is
I mean
It uses the fact that V is defined over a field
There's a fun thing
When you study modules
That there are some modules that don't have linearly independent subsets
For a general ring
free modules do tho right
So you have to think a little bit more
Yeah
Yeah so, try to think why it should be non empty
Using the fact that you are working with a vector space
So it is a module over a field
module over field is same as vector space tho?
Yeah
i thought about it just didnt write

