#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 197 of 1
mmm
but look the dot product here
it is z^n * conj(z^m)
so it reminds the same way, right? it ends in z^(n+m)
no
F
it ends in z^n * conj(z)^m
and whats the conj of z?
if z=a+bi then conj(z) = a-bi
yeah but i think im working on R
on R conj(x)=x
yeah so
am i right?
tbh i feel just like your discord name
i don't know what's happening either
It's a bit weird if you don't know what T is and whether you are working on a real or complex space
i said T is a L2 Hilbert space
but i supposed u have read me xD
i'm not very familiar with these notation, but if my search is correct
L²(T) means the space of square integrable L2 operators on T
ye
but yes, on R
we havent worked on C yet
from T to R?
No, that this is for real number, not for complex
okay, in that case conjugate would be just identity function
you only need to conjugate when its on C
so z^n+m, 🙂
z^(n+m) yea
So i end with 1/2*Pi * (z^n+m+1)/n+m+1
what can i do now to say if n=m then the dot product is 1, else 0
?
now this depends on what T is
Does it not tell you more information about T?
Consider the Hilbert Space L^2(T)
bla bla bla
L2 are all the successions with dot product the one above
from my internet search, seems like $\mathbb{T}$ usually means the unit circle
Carla_
no, i got it, but i dont know how to translate
i speak a bit spanish
these one are L2
that's $\ell^2$ i think, not $L^2$
Carla_
well, yeah, but i cant type that L :c
sorry
in your question seems like you're working on L² not l² since dot product is an integral
well, the next question is proof that the function 1/z cant be aproximated by polynomios like a0 + a1 * z + a2 * z^2 + ... + an * z^n in this space. Teacher gives us a hint which sais: proving that for any polynomio https://gyazo.com/353cc7348e560f2c39356aa1fcf1e18d
ok you are almost surely working with complex functions
wouldn't need to put absolute value inside square if it was real
i know this extends to complexs, but we arent working with them
And i'm pretty sure that T is the unit circle on complex numbers
i think she just copy pastes the integral, but rlly, on classes we havent touched complex
she mentions this works for complexs as well, but we havent worked with them
so i think she just uses the general notation, valid for complexs too
i don't see how this makes sense if not complex. maybe someone else can give more insight.
mmmm, okey, lets say it is Complex. Still, how can i proof that set is orthonormal?
if you're on the unit circle, there's something special that happens
do you see what z^n conj(z^n) is in that case?
0
?
nno
yes
1+i * 1-i
those are not in unit circle
Do you know how absolute value is defined for complex?
oh true
yeah it is 1
yeah is the distance to the origin
right?
yea, and |z|² = z * conj(z)
okey
but z^n * conj(z^m)
does it say something?
uh
oops
consider 2?
i mean |z|² = z*conj(z)
that sounds better
but here |z|=1
ok
so conj(z)=1/z
what
ah yes
by multiplicativity of ^n
conj(z)^n = z^-n
okey, right
so i end with
z^n-m
yea
so basically i have almost the same but witha minus
1/2*Pi * (z^n-m+1)/n-m+1
no
F
there's a case when that's not true
if n=m then the exp is 1
sry im being stupid
is ok, dont worry
yeah, it is 1
z^n z^(-n) = z^0 = 1
but i have z^n * conj(z^m)
you are integrating over a circle tho, not an interval
so you have to parametrize it
if n=m then can already see that is gonna be 1
cuz arc length of circle is 2pi
okey and i have to see that if n!=m it is gona be 0, right?
yes
thanks
@wintry steppe hi again. Sorry for bothering, but i am stuck XD
you're not bothering, just ask
the parametrization of the circle is r(t) = (cos t, sin t). So r'(t) = (-sin t, cos t). So | r'(t) | = 1
But now i need f(r(t))
my f is z^n-m
idk what is f(r(t))
you need to work with complex numbers.
R² is same thing as C except C has a multiplication, so in C it makes sense
yes but i dont know what to substitute
(x,y) in R² corresponds to x+iy in C
yes
oh
z is a+bi?
adasdasd
looks like it
parameterization of circle is therefore cos t + i sin t
so it would be (cos t)^n-m + i(sin t)^n-m???
ofc not
F
it would be
(cos t + isin t)^n-m
aaaaaaaaaa
ye ye, totally my bad
F for newton
I killed him
you can also use that cos t + i sin t = e^(ti)
to write less
and if you're like me and don't know trig identities, this is a way to remember them lol
okey so i have to integrate
e^it*(n-m)
this is embarrasing
so i did something wrong.
where did i fucked up?
nvm, i forgot an i
but still
😢
so i end with 1/2*Pi * (0/m-n)
🙂
AAAAAAH because if n=m i cant integrate this way
lajsdhlasf
okey yeah, it is orthonormal 🙂
sry i was afk lol, maybe it would be better to ask questions about integration in #calculus tho
ye ye, i know
but i derped again
i was getting a 0/0
and then i realised ot was because if n=m then i cant integrate like that
but yes, for n != m i get the dot product is 0
and for n=m it is 1
Gucci
Hey guys I could use some help with these two questions from my study guide. I honestly don't understand them and would appreciate a walk-through. Feel free to @ me Thanks 😄
what have you tried?
I'm working on a different one rn Im not sure tbh though im really bad at linear algebra. I'd appreciate even a place to start
I understand the concept of similar matricies
and I'm assuming the first one will utilize A = PDPinverse with a NS matrix somehow
ok good,
what's it mean for a matrix to be nonsingular?
in particular, what do you know about its determinant?
I think, there is a more rigiourous definition , but when its determinant is 0?
nonsingular means its determinant is NOT 0
Its homogenous when 0 right
uh, homogenous doesnt apply to individual matrices, its a statement about matrix equations
or systems of equations
ah nvm then
0 determinant means singular
Im not sure , I only see determinants for similar matricies related to eigienvalues in my notes
det( B - lambdaIn)
But I feel like A is similar to B based on P
so im trying to make the connection between the det and P
okay im not sure exactly what material your course has presented
have you seen how you can write row operations as matrix multiplication?
Yeah
actually thats probably not the best way to phrase this
let me revise
first off, we have A = PBP^-1 where A is invertible
can you justify B being invertible?
If A and B are similar, they have the same determinant
If A is non-singular, the fact that A and B are similar implies that B is non-singular too
So B^-1 exists
Could make it be PAP-1 = B
ik you can Im looking in my notes for it
That makes sense, this really cleared it up
Once you've justified B^-1 exists, you just have to take the inverse of this
Look up the proof if you're not satisfied with taking this fact for granted 😉
A^-1 = ( PDP ^-1) ^-1 you mean
Yup
Wait
Where does D come from?
It should be B
oops good catch
sorry i write D sometimes for diagnolized
lol
Cause i just learned about the diagnolized matrix
Ok now I know i have to just manipulate this to get B-1 = (PAP^-1)^-1
right
and that was like the point of the whole problem to show that it was possible
No need
im close now: I got to ( P A ^-1 ) ^-1 = ( PB ) ^ -1 stuck here
oh
From this
Just expand the expression
$A^{-1} = (PDP^{-1})^{-1}$
Laïka
I think you could also just multiply the equality by inverses and things from the right and left
Yeah I ended up with A ^-1 and B^-1 tho
ah ok
I mean wouldn't that be enough to show that these matrices are similar?
Oh no I mean for this B-1 = (PAP^-1)^-1 I had A ^-1 still
I feel like I forgot to multiply by a identity PP^1 or something
Ohh
I think you can also multiply both sides by P from the same side, then P and P^-1 will cancell
Yeah thats what i got
thank you though
its close enough
LOL
I think I at least understand it better
Ok so for the 2nd one this is what I tried doing
it seemed very abstract but I feel like I was on the right track maybe
A=[] 
Shhh I was going to fill it in but got lazy
$A=[a_{ij}]$
moshill1
Oh I wouldv'e written something way to compilicated lol
a1.... an
dots everywhere
im trash
that's equivalent, but what i put is the notation ive seen some people use
I like your notation better
less dots
also the Identity matrix same thing but , yeah I moved on lol
yeah just write I_n is the nxn identity matrix
noted
I was confused tho
how you would get lambda + r = 0 does the question mean to not solve for lambda
Or did it mean lambda = lambda + r
Cause to me it looks like they mean lambda = lambda + r but im not sure how they got rid of the values of A... or accounted for an
sounds like you're thinking about it wrong
take A+rI and multiply by v on the right
the goal is to show it simplifies to (lambda+r)v
$Av=\lambda v$ by definition, then consider $(A+rI)v$
moshill1
OHHHHHHHHHH
im dumb
rup
rip
Tbh not like I know what I'm doing at this point , def need to retake the class
For some reason the Gram Shmidt process seemed easy tho
I mean algorithms are ideally easy 
True , its just near the end of the class so its "supposedly hard". I guess its like learning Taylor series at the end of basic calc and realizing its not that hard
$det(xI-A)=det(-(A-xI))=(-1)^ndet(A-xI)$
moshill1
so the polynomials are the same up to a +/- 1, which means they have the same roots and thus same spectrum of A
Construct an example of a 2×2 matrix, with one of its eigenvalues equal to −1, that is not diagonal or diagonalizable, but is invertible.
Pick an invertible matrix st the char poly is (x+1)^2 I think
since x = -1 will be an eigenvalue of algebraic multiplicity 2, and geometric multiplicity of 1 (doing this mentally, that might be wrong)
it fails the characterization of diagonalizability
geometric multiplicity ?
dimension of the corresponding eigenspace is the geometric multiplicity of the eigenvalue
"how much linearly independent eigenvectors you get for a given eigenvalue"
equivalent since it's the cardinality of the basis for the eigenspace
Suppose this is homogeneous, will it ever be determined?
I think for a=b=c=0 the W would cancel out, and it would be a determined, but my answer sheet likes to think otherwise
is this an augmented matrix, or a matrix A in the system Ax = 0?
also what do you mean by "determined"; just "neither over nor underdetermined"?
If {u,v} are linearly independent eigenvectors, then they must correspond to distinct eigenvalues.
this statement is false, right?
because of the geometric multiplicity?
one eigen value can have multiple linearly independent vectors?
Yes,it is false
they just have the same roots; in general the actual polynomials themselves might differ in sign
show the determinant of this matrix is not congruent to zero modulo something, maybe
,w det {{5,6,2},{6,7,8},{2,8,3}}
wasn't sure how what
show its not congruent
i evaluated det(your matrix) mod 10 just there
and got something that is very clearly not a multiple of ten
thanks a bunch!
the idea is that, if the matrix you gave has 0 determinant, then its determinant modulo 10 should be 0 (mod 10) as well
so ann computed the determiannt modulo 10
but its not 0
uh oh
so your matrix cant possibly have 0 determinant
do you mean positive-semidefinite and positive-definite?
we say that a symmetric matrix A is positive-definite if <Ax, x> is positive for all nonzero x.
positive-semidefinite is the same except replace positive with >=0.
does this answer your question? @novel hamlet
Yes that thingy
Got some homework on it due tuesday but cant understand what im supposed to do
Gona be back later to ask how to deal with this, i think I trymyself first
Is that <ax,x> same as cross product or dot product
I assume that $a \in \bR$ and $x \in V$, where $V$ is your vector space. $\langle ax,x \rangle$ is the usual notation for a 'dot' product on $V$, though we usually call it a scalar product
Abhijeet
@novel hamlet
But obviously, you can say <x,y>, where x and y are arbitrary vectors. Just look at the definition you've been given and work with that
This is also called an inner product, in case your book or whatever calls it that
Idk the books are not in english
Which language is it in?
Finish
Finland is a Fine land
Ah, the books says to see eilen values if eigenvalues > 0 positively definite and If >=0 semidefinite
Eigenvalues
Ffs autocorrect
Not sure how to determine this for complex numbers, is 1-i positive or negative?
hey, I'm trying to prove that a set V is a vector space, for that I'm trying to prove that the + operation is a conmutative group, and I'm trying to see if the identity element exits, can I do this?
$(x1,y1) + e = (x1,y1) => e = (x1,y1) - (x1,y1) => e = 0$
Jackieto
Neither
this doesnt make sense; you introduce e before you prove that an identity element exists
its circular
i mean I'm just using the definition of identity
if the result of that doesnt belong to V, then I can conclude that e doenst exists
What is your original question? Like, what is V exactly?
uh, this would be a way to prove e doesnt exist, sure
that would be a proof by contradiction that V is not a vector space
- operation is (x1,y2) + (x2,y2) = (x1+x2, y1+y2)
but that doesnt help you prove that V is a vector space
in R^2
what do you think the additive identity should be?
dont give me abstract symbols like e or 0
give me an ordered pair (a, b)
(0,0)
alright, so lets test it:
(x, y) + (0, 0) = (x+0, y+0) = (x, y)
and similarly (0, 0) + (x, y) = (0 + x, 0 + y) = (x, y)
so (0, 0) is indeed an additive identity
that suffices.
99% of the time, the best way to prove an "exists" statement (such as "there exists an additive identity") is to come up with an example and prove it satisfies the desired properties
in this case, there only exists ONE example, but thankfully its pretty easy to find
(0, 0) should be your first guess
alright that cleared it, what I'm not sure either is what I did to solve the ecuation is right algebraic wise, like is okay to pass the (x1,y1) as negative to the other side?
if youve proven an additive inverse exists, then sure
but proving additive inverses exist generally requires you to know what your identity is
so
does it matter which set the scalar used in a vector space is in? like in the example of R^2 is it required that the scalar belong to R or can it be anything
it depends on which field the vector space is over
in R^2 for example?
then it's a real number
you could have R² over Q too for example, but its a different vector space
R^2 but you only allow yourself to scale by rational numbers
this makes {(1,0), (sqrt(2),0)} LI
yea

its a very messy space though, not super useful
R over Q sees some use in like, irrationality proofs i think? something like that
its also a good source of examples
R² is same thing as C, not sure if that makes it useful tho
i dont think C over Q is particularly useful either
but perhaps im unenlightened
i could see some random algebraic number theory using it, but nothing comes to mind
not polynomial-ey enough
Hi, I know that $\dfrac{x^TA x}{x^Tx}$ is the Rayleigh coefficient, but what is $\dfrac{x^TA^{-1 }x}{x^Tx}$? Is it somehow related to the rayleigh coefficient? Is there some sort of inequality like $\lambda_{min} \leq \dfrac{x^TA x}{x^Tx} \leq \lambda_{max}$ where the two lambdas are the minimal and maximal eigenvalues respectivly?
ch3ss
I have a question. Suppose $A$ and $B$ are m*n matrices in R, show that if $N(A)=N(B)$ then there exists an invertible C such that $A=CB$
Alireza
No, that is a matrix, and it is homogeneous
Like it has only one solution
is N() the kernel?
Yes
I know that from rank-nullity theorem, rank(A) = rank(B), because both of them are m*n
So both of them have k vectors as their base,
base of A = {v1,...,vk}
base of B = {w1,...,wk}
But I don't know how to continue
What if A=CB is the same as A=D^-1 B D
then A and B are similar matrices
What are some properties of similar matrices
Why is this true?
5 vectors in 3D forms a regular pentagon.
How do I find the center point vector?
First you need to define what the center of a regular pentagon is
you could probably write a function that consists of the sum of squared distances from one point in space to those 5 points, and then minimize it
I have a feeling that this will work. just need a reassurance:
Define a function that finds the midpoint of 2 vectors,
use it to find the midpoint of the bottom 2 vectors,
and use the func again to find the midpoint between the new vector and the top vector
or am I tripping?
doing what i said, you get that the midpoint is the average of the 5 position vectors
and the function i proposed is convex, so there's a unique solution
so just add up the 5 points and divide by 5
give it a shot and lemme know
#10, i cant figure out what Im doing wrong, i got two different angles of rotation
if sin(theta) = 1/sqrt2 and 0 =< theta =< 360, theta = 45 or 135
Of course, dang im stupid, thank you very much
Awesome! This looks like a perfect midpoint. Thanks a lot, Edd 😄
nicely, the result i gave you there has the name "convex combination"
you can read up on that, or use multivar calc as i did
Cool cool, I appreciate it
Thank you very much! Helps a lot!
It seems to me the thing I'm being asked to prove is not true. Am I wrong?
Let z_k = x_k for an even k, k = 2n. Then
z_k(a + v) = cos(pi * k * ((a + v)/v))
= cos(2pi * n * ((a + v)/v))
= cos(2pi * ((na + nv)/v))
= cos(2pi * (((na)/v) + ((nv)/v)) )
= cos(2pi * ((na)/v + n) )
= cos(2pi * ((na)/v) + 2pin)
= cos(2pi * ((na)/v))
= cos(pi * 2n * (a/v))
= cos(pi * k * (a/v))
= z_k(a).
When k is even don't all the vectors in the eigenspace have the property z_k(a) = z_k(a+v)? Since the argument works for x_k and y_k, and therefore any linear combination of them.
I forgot to ask, is there any justification needed for this reasoning? like a theorem maybe?
maybe that addition and multiplication "behave nicely" with modulo
true
as in, congruence mod m preserves both addition and multiplication
and since dets are just a bunch of additions and multiplications in a trenchcoat the same is true for them
so if you take det(A) mod 10 then you can first take each entry of A mod 10 then do the det
and then take mod 10 again
If S is a set, what is the meaning of [S]?
Context?
A definition for graphs
E for edges is a subset of [S^2]
Ah I think it means that {1, 2} = {2, 1}
Hi. I was trying to help someone with Linear algebra but the way the linear transformations are written confuses me:
To me the dimensionality doesn't make sense because if T(f) is the f(1) f(2) column vector that means f(1) and f(2) belong to R^1 and it looks like a p^1 to R^2 transformation
I am completely confused
f is an arbitrary element of P^2 here
check how the student's class is defining P^2
it probably means real polys of degree at most 2 or similar
both basically. If I can understand one of them, I think I will be good with both.
Oh ok. I never thought that P^2 could have been a polynomial of degree 2. That makes a lot more sense in that case. Thank you very much
It all makes sense now. His class was defining P as a polynomial
well, im not sure on that, which is why im asking you to check the notation
It did plug in a polynomial of degree 2 for f in the P^2 example, when I asked the student.
Is there an equivalent formulation for finite dimensional vector spaces?
like "All finite dimensional vector spaces are isomorphic to F^n, for some finite integer n" ???
also,
I know that every matrix transformation is a linear transformation, but the converse is false.
Is it possible to say that every linear transformation across finite dimensional domains and codomains is a matrix transformation?
MSE says yes: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2170576/v-finite-dimensional-vector-space-and-isomorphic-to-mathbbrn
Assume part (a) is true, I'm working on part (b)
i may come a bit out of context but yes, every finite dimensional vecstor space is isomorphic to K^{n} for some n
In fact, that n is exactly the dimension of the vector space
does this show then that B must be either positive definite or -B positive definite?
actually it doesn't really show anything
does it o-o
Hmm i think youre using the variable z for two different elements of V
got kinda confused with that tbh
you should first fix an element z in your space with the property you want, and then you can fix the subspace defined by it's span
ok ok thanks, sorry for the confusing work guys
\cap btw not \bigcap
after doing a good amount of precalc and calc, I am thinking of starting introductory Linear Algebra through self study and I would greatly appreciate any book recommendation on introductory LA
ofc I will be using the typical online video and practice resources like Khan Academy, brilliant, etc
<@&286206848099549185>
what are you learning LA for? i.e. is your focus computational? algorithmic? proof-based?
sure, thanks a lot 👍
yeah that would be correct
I'm assuming (r,g,b) is a column vector multiplying on the right
sure I guess
Why are you specifically addressing the honorables? Lol
Could someone help me with this?
Im not sure if i started it off right, I took v1, ..., vn to be the standard basis and then it would mean that V = [T]s and which would mean T is one-to-one and on-to since rank([T]s) = n meaking it invertable
what does "V = [T]s" mean ?
The matrix representation of the linear transformation T with the standard basis
so the coefficients of T
oh right
so yeah, that works
another way of proving it is to show that T^-1 will be the application that associates v_i to T(v_i) and extend it linearly (you can do it since the T(v_i)s are a basis of R^n
)
You cannot take v_1,......,v_n to be the standard basis
They told you to work with any linearly independent list
However, you can use the fact that v_1,.....,v_n forms a basis for R^n and T(v_1),......,T(v_n) is another basis for R^n. Now, just check that T is surjective and injective. That will prove bijectivity.
I'm also not sure it's such a good idea to use matrix representations of a linear map for such a problem. It's not like it's necessarily wrong. It's just pointless because there's a direct argument that you can make.
@broken oxide
We actually didnt cover surjectivity and injectivity, so im not sure if i can use this method
What do you mean? You're doing linear algebra and you haven't learnt about surjectivity/injectivity of a map?
Yes
we didnt learn it by those names
Those are the weird words used for the same notions
Wait, why cant we assume U is the standard basis if vi can be any vectors in Rn. And if we have a lemma saying T is one-to-one and onto if rank([T]s = n
So if we prove it with the standard basis, would that prove thet T is basicially invertable no matter the basis
It doesn't say that v_1,.....,v_n is any linearly independent set in R^n
It says that v_1,.....,v_n is a linearly independent set in R^n
So would my method work if the question said it were any n vectors what were linearly independent?
Sure, then you could just use the standard matrix of T
but this is rather pointless; there's no need to use the matrix representation when you can just work with the map directly
sorry if this question has already been answered, but are there any good intro to linear algebra books? i want to start from the beginning because i have no experience with linear algebra.
i saw the books in the #books-old section, are those ones good for complete beginners?
also, what would i need to learn before doing linear algebra?
to start an introductory course in linear algebra, I'd say basic geometry and trigonometry would be useful, understanding the physical meaning of a vector if you want some intuition to start, and the basics of vector geometry in 2 dimensions wouldn't hurt
alright, i'd say i know a good amount of geo and some basic trig. i also have some physics/kinematics knowledge, does the gilbert strang book/course cover what vectors are and basic vector operations?
oh ok, any other good books/courses then? ive tried a couple but they all seem too rushed or dont explain the foundations
oh ok
ill check it out!
do you have the link to the youtube series btw?
thank you!
ok, thanks ill probably do strang's book or another course after i finish this course
I don't really know any good books that could give you a good introduction to linear algebra, I could look for some though.
But what I absolutely recommend is 3Blue1Brown's series in linear algebra
it gives you a ton of the basic ideas and much of the very needed intuition
you can find it in youtube
ah ok, ill look at that as well. i tried watching those videos a few months ago, but found them a little confusing, but i can definitely try again.
thx for all the help
yeah you should watch them while you study the topic, otherwise the new concepts may seem a little alien
are you trying to convert one color into another?
in rgb space?
if you're just transforming points, it's a matrix vector product
just answer this: you give an rgb color and it is transformed into another color
?
the thing is what you call "input" is weird
you're trying to show how a 3x3 matrix transforms 3d space, yes?
i would say the image is wrong
$\begin{bmatrix} R' \\ G' \\ B' \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} C_R & C_G & C_B \\ D_R & D_G & D_B \\ E_R & E_G & E_B \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} R \\ G \\ B \end{bmatrix}$
Edd
this is what you want
i just changed the letters so that there was no confusion
it doesn't, you just mix xzy with rgb in a way that might be confusing
i just wrote it in a way that makes it clear which elements of the matrix multiply which elements of the vector
*-*
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
$\begin{bmatrix} R' \\ G' \\ B' \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} C_R & C_G & C_B \\ D_R & D_G & D_B \\ E_R & E_G & E_B \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} R \\ G \\ B \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} C_R \cdot R + C_G \cdot G + C_B \cdot B \\ D_R \cdot R + D_G \cdot G + D_B \cdot B \\ E_R \cdot R + E_G \cdot G + E_B \cdot B \end{bmatrix}$
Edd
as star person said, if the matrix is an identity, it's easy to show the sum is equal to the original vector
so that the delta is 0, as you wanted
what exactly are you calling an srgb derivative
the wording makes no sense
regardless of that, do you mean derivative as in calculus or something else?
that's a variable
the rate of change of what
you want the pointwise gradient of the vector field w.r.t. time?
the prime just means "new value"
or anything you want, really. it depends on the context
in this context, it looks like "it's an RGB triple, but the values are in general different"
so like, "new value after transforming"
is that the direct sum of M and N?
i think it should be true as long as M is the complement of N and the sum of subsets is a direct sum
but not in general
bunkermush
since wedge product of itself is 0
I suppose the point of the exercise it work that out to see for yourself
the fact that you asked means you were in doubt enough about it that you really should carry that out
@calm yoke what's each letter mean?
Whats the point of gram Schmidt orthogonalization. Whats the point of converting the basis in a matrix to orthogonal basis
donde means where
Does someone know what the line above the x,y,z,w is?
Orthogonal vectors are nicer typically, and they're normalized so their norm is 1
But gram schmidt is used in matrix factorizations like QR
:z
What does a line over a symbol usually mean? Does it have any actions or meanings
ah
forgot about conjugation
thanks!
Whats the definition of global min/max?
When speaking of 2 functions
more calc than LinAl, but global max is the highest point on a function, min the lowest
👍🏿
@calm yoke my best interpretation: E is a basis of some vector space and P is presumably an invertible operator on that space (guaranteeing H is a basis too), as a result P has the identity matrix as its matrix representation wrt E & H
Could anyone help me with this problem? I've tried setting up as a sum of two vectors equal to a and b. Although I came to no concrete conclusion.
Let B={b1,b2} be a basis for R2 and let T be the linear transformation R2→R2 such that T(b1) = 2b1+b2 and T(b2) =b2. Find the matrix of T relative to the basis B.
hi guys, does anyone know how to solve this?
Put all vectors in the same origin
what does that mean ?
so tell me, what does squaring a vector mean
Dot product'ing itself
that's wrong though, that's magnitude squared
There's a vector squared and magnitude squared
remember the dot product of V and W is | V | | W | cos(theta)
if you square that, you get a cosine squared too
so no
Oh yahh
And || P x Q|| = ||P|| ||Q|| sin theta
Bleh the absolute value sign gets messed up
I get the left side is |V|^2 |W|^2
But it says it should equal V^2 W^2
Maybe that's a typo?
Or maybe the italics implies that it is a scalar magnitude on the right side
those letters on the right are in italics, not bold
presumably they stand for the length of the vectors V and W
which should match what you got
squaring a vector is pretty cursed
Didn't know italics to indicate magnitude was common practice
me neither, but it's not bold, so it's a scalar
the book must have some section where it explains its own notation
you should revise it
Can someone explain to me what linear independence is? I dont really get it when i read it in my book
What do you understand about it?
Something with the constants x and y
So let's say we have a set of vectors ${v_1,v_2,...,v_n}$
moshill1
we say the set of vectors is linearly dependent if there are scalars $c_1,...,c_n\in\mathbb{K}$ where at least one is non-zero, $c_i\neq 0$, such that $0=c_1v_1+...+c_nv_n$ is true
moshill1
the set is linearly independent if the only way $0=c_1v_1+...+c_nv_n$ is true is when $c_1=...=c_n=0$
moshill1
what do you mean?
So what happens if its 0 or 1, whats the meaning behind it
i dont grasp the concept
Then the linear combination of the vectors in the set can only reach the 0 vector if all the scalars are 0
dependent vectors can reach the 0 vector non-trivially
Okay thanks!
simple example ${v_1,2v_1}$
moshill1
so one vector is a scalar multiple of the other
$0=c_1v_1+c_2(2v_1)$ let $c_1=-2,c_2=1$
moshill1
the vectors dont have to be scalar multiples of each other
consider $\left{\begin{pmatrix}1\0\end{pmatrix}, \begin{pmatrix}0\1\end{pmatrix}, \begin{pmatrix}1\1\end{pmatrix}\right}$
Namington
this is obviously linearly dependent but no vector is a scalar multiple of another
perhaps you mean a LINEAR COMBINATION of the others?
but if they are scalar multiples, then they are dependent?
yes; suppose we have a set {v, sv}
so sv is a scalar multiple of v
(by the scalar s)
then setting a = 1, b = -1/s gives av + b(sv) = v + (-s/s)v = v - v = 0
and hence we have linear dependence whenever one vector is a scalar multiple of another
moreover, if we have a linearly dependent set, then we can express a vector as a linear COMBINATION of the others
The general idea is that if the set contains a vector which can be expressed as a linear combination of a subset of the other vectors, then the set is dependent, since you just take the subset that forms the linear combination and use those scalars, take -1 of the vector that gets made with that combination, 0 else.
for example, let's say au + bv + cw = 0 for a, b, c nonzero
then we can do algebra to rewrite this as au = -bv - cw
and therefore (since a is nonzero) u = -(b/a)v - (c/a)w
and hence u is a linear combination of v and w
this can be done for any vector in any linearly dependent set as long as its associated scalar coefficient is nonzero
linear (in)dependence seems like a weird construction but it behaves pretty nicely once you get used to working with it
span of a set of vectors is just the set of linear combinations of the vectors
$span{v_1,v_2}=c_1v_1+c_2v_2$
moshill1
in fact, this gives us another way to think about linear independence
a set is linearly independent if its "minimal", in that removing any of the vectors would change its span
in a linearly dependent set, its possible to remove one of the vectors without changing the span
(since its just a linear combination of the others, as i showed above)
so it has "extra information" in a way
this is a very important concept: as it turns out, if span(S) = span(T) for two linearly independent sets S, T, then S and T must have the same number of vectors
we call S, T "bases" and their number of vectors the "dimension" of the space they span
the term "dimension" here should match how youre used to thinking of dimension; for example, one basis of 3-dimensional space is the three standard basis vectors
$\left{\begin{pmatrix}1\0\0\end{pmatrix}, \begin{pmatrix}0\1\0\end{pmatrix}, \begin{pmatrix}0\0\1\end{pmatrix}\right}$
Namington
these correspond to the "x", "y", and "z" coordinates of the space
indeed, if you take any other vector in R^3 and write it as a linear combination of these vectors
How many solutions can there be for a linear equation system?
the scalar coefficients ARE the x, y, z coordinates of our vector
infinitely many, 1, or 0
(respectively)
nitpick: "infinitely many" is only possible if your space has infinitely many vectors
I was answering flush
👍🏿
if youre solving systems over (Z/3Z)^7, then this space only has finitely many vectors
3^7 in fact
so it certainly cant have infinitely many solutions
no clue what Z/3Z is
right
different notation for the same thing
the finite fields have like 5000 different notations
you also see F_3 or GF_3
the former standing for "field", the latter for "galois field"
its... annoying
(this notation is unambiguous because finite fields of the same order are isomorphic)
anyway, i digress
my nitpick doesnt really apply if the student is only solving systems over, say, R or Q or whatever
but its worth mentioning just in case
Nah my course spent 2 lessons on Z_p stuff and that was around midway through last term
so I forgot it existed 
well there honestly isnt much theory to it tbh (at least vector spaces over Z_p)
it just comes up sometimes in constructions used in various places in mathematics and computer science
linear algebra is so well-behaved that we turn to infinite spaces almost immediately if we want to say anything interesting
the main utility to introducing them is as a convenient "simple" example of nonstandard fields we can define vector spaces over lmao
also matrices over Z_p tend to be faster to row reduce than matrices over Q or R in an exam setting
since you can sidestep screwing around with fractions
so that can be convenient as well
Namington
thats the symbol for rank i assume?
i havent seen it before personally, but maybe?
👍🏿
is normal matrices that are not hermitian "rare"?
seems hard to think of a large set of them
nvm i guess ther are alot
like unitary ones
Normal matrices are much more "general" than hermitian and unitary matrices which are considered special
Given a unitary /hermitian matrix, one can say a lot about their eigenvalues and even eigenvectors
whereas for normal matrices, any complex number can be an eigenvalue!
Indeed, any diagonal matrix is normal but a diagonal matrix is (usually) neither hermitian nor unitary
Actually,For normal operators eigenvalues are real
And the basis in which it is diagonal is orthonormal
normal matrices are unitarily diagonalisable*
So their eigenvectors form an ON basis of C^n
yes
hm isnt that only for hermitian that eigenvalues are real
when is a system of equations linear and non linear?
mb
ah
linear is just when u have any variable x,y, e.g. in R^n and any constant a so that f(ax+y) = af(x)+f(y)
so a system is linear when u have say m of those f's
and u want f1(x) = k1, f2(x) = k2,..., fm(x) = km where k1,...,km are again constants
then its linear, if it cannot be written in this form its not linear
I have this subset: $U = {(x,y,t,z) exists in R^4 / ax+by+cz+dt = 0, a,b,c,d belongs to R}$ and I'm checking U is closed under addition
Jackieto
but I'm not sure how to set up the vectors for doing so
like if I want to add two vectors, u + v, how would it work?
Looks like ro
please don't use latex if you're gonna produce such a cursed thing
let u be an arbitrary vector in U, use the definition of U
there exist $u_1,u_2,u_3,u_4\in\bR$ where $u=(u_1,u_2,u_3,u_4)$ and $$au_1+bu_2+cu_3+du_4=0$$
RokabeJintaro
alright
let v be another arbitrary vector in U and do a similar thing
and the addition is just component by component like normal vectors right?
the usual rule of adding in R^4 is entrywise
there is no "the basis", there are infinitely many bases for such a space
but yeah, if you take the cross product of two vectors, the result is orthogonal to both
hey so if i got f(x) = 1/2 x^T A x , then I computed grad(F) = A^T x
and then grad(grad(f)) = A
but if I do J(grad(f)) don't I get A^T
you missed a 2 in the gradient
right yea
but the point is that is true right
(i edited)
because then theres a confusion
if its true
it really depends on what notation you are using, to be honest
there is no unique definition for them
yea, so here i think we define grad(f) = [grad(f1)...grad(fm)]
ok so lets assume grad(f) where f is sclar valued is just column vector
and then grad(F) = [grad(F1) ... grad(Fm)] where F is from n to m
what is F
F is vector valued function from R^n to R^m
mhm
then say f(x) = 1/2 x^T A x
yea sort of
I computed this and got grad(f) = A^ T x
then grad(grad(f)) = A
but heres where we learned that hessian is symmetric
and this is not symmetric?
A is not symmetric?
yea
o then you gotta be careful
wait i mean if A is not symmetric its still a smooth function
and grad(f) = A^Tx still holds
yeah but it's not a quadratic form
but i think in class the prof said hessian of any smooth function is symmetric
i don't know if that's the gradient anymore
ah
i don't think it is
or is it?
you'd have to express it as sums and check for yourself
yea i think i did but let me send something
hm i prob did it wrong
missed some middle terms
i mean in this problem A is symmetric but im just wondering in general
nabla^2 is just nabla applied to nabla again if the functions smooth
sufficiently cont diff
like C^2 here
usually smooth just means smooth enough for the problem XD
but i think the official def is C^infinity
ah yea i was suppose to add it in the beginning
error
also i see my mistake, missed terms and added wrong terms
would be correct if A was symmetric
yea
well there's an entire 2D plane of vectors to choose from that's got all vectors orthogonal to your single vector
let's say that vector is v, you can now just pick some arbitrary vector, say u, and compute u cross v and this resulting vector is perpendicular to v, and so is in your plane
so that means w = u cross v is a vector in your plane, to make another basis vector that's orthogonal to that you can do w cross v to get a new vector
and now you're done
there are other ways of getting a basis though too
haha yeah
depends on what your starting vector is you're trying to make things orthogonal to
if your starting vector is just (0,0,1) then you can just pick (1, 0, 0) and (0, 1, 0) directly
you don't wanna waste time computing cross products unless it's some really crazy vector like (1/2, 3/7, -9/sqrt(2)) or something where it's not obvious
also you can do it by computing dot products too, you could have instead taken the random vector you picked and instead of taking the cross product, do a dot product
then you find the projection onto v, and subtract out that
so w = u - (projection of u onto v) is another way to pick it
well, do whatever is easiest and fastest for you
if I have a question about hyperboloids would this be the right place to ask?
I have to solve this problem
and I don't know how to prove that the tanget plane cuts the surface after two lines
we aren't using derivatives
so 2d is the way, I think:D
Thank you
why does the transpose of an orthonormal matrice equal its inverse?
define "orthonormal matrix"
square matrix where every column can be represented as a unit vector that is orthogonal to every other column
orthogonal matrices don't change vector length so let's say you take some arbitrary vector v and transform it by A to make u=Av
then since lengths are equal, $u^Tu = v^Tv$
Merosity
Merosity
$v^T A^T Av = v^Tv$
Merosity
Merosity
Merosity
Merosity
that's pretty much it
the alternative is that the matrix has columns a_i, and since they are orthogonal and unit norm, a_i^T a_i = 1, but a_i^T a_j, with i =/= j, is 0
yeah that's way better
if T is invertible linear transformation, does it means that T^-1 is also linear transformation?
yeah
@lavish jewel does it also mean T = T ^-1 or nah?
no
i mean T(x) = T^-1(x ) ?
also no
kk thanks
you can find an orthonormal basis for the plane using u1 and u2 and gram schmidt
then you can do an orthogonal projection of y onto the plane using that basis
y - y_p is the component of y orthogonal to the plane
the length of that component should be the distance from the plane to y, if my last 2 neurons are working
Im a bit confused, is cholensky decomposition A = TT^t plausible only for positively definite matrices or does it work for positiveluy semidefinite?
actually now that i think of this
I have following block matrix and i need to show it is positive definite if and only if A1 and a2 are positive definite
I know that Det(a) = det(a1)*det(a2)
and that det(a)=product of its eigenvalues
but im having trouble here since if det(a1) and det(a2) are both negative det(a) is positive
nvm was just stupid since det(A)=det(a1)*det(a2) = product of eigen values of a1 x egenvalues of a2 => eigenvalue of a1 is eigenvalue of A
you dont even have to use the determinant
yeah, i was just being stupid with my initial aproach
but not sure on how to do it without determinant
well for one direction, suppose A1 and A2 are positive definite, write x = (x1, x2) and then x^T A x = x1^T A1 x1 + x2^T A2 x2 > 0 whenever x != 0
and for the other direction, you just need to use the eigenvalues
A is symmetric and all its eigenvalues are strictly positive, so you can diagonalize A
but you have two invariant subspaces, one for A1 and one for A2
so you diagonalize A1 with positive eigenvalues and same for A2
which makes them also positive definite
well yeah that is more straight forward way of doing this
said me after wriiting A4 full on my way the hard way
:)
im kiinda stuck on this one I have
and i want to do QR decompose and show that
i was wise guy and went to wolfram
and the R does not looks like it wants to multiply by itself
how so
Given this dot product, https://gyazo.com/d7985836b10a11aa9ac976abbb196f15 , with coeficients on C, how can i prove z^n is orthonormal?
Is it true that the adjugate of an n-tuple is the vector with the conjugate of each term
u asking me?
No 😦 im just tryna learn
what are the a_ns and b_ns? (also don't post the same question in multiple channels)
nvm
i think i found the answer. Like, it is so simple but idk how to formalize it
well, you're already being helped with it in another channel, so
a_n and b_n are the coeficients
so if n=m, then the inner product will be 1
cuz <z, z> = 1
cuz it is 1*1 + ...
and the ... is a product with at least one of them 0
and if n != m then it is 0
for the thing above
what is m
mmm an arbitrary number (?)
like, i am asked to prove z^n is an orthonormal system
and why do we suddenly have a power series
then <z^n, z^m> should be 0 if n != m and 1 if n == m
no?
that means they are orthogonal
the inner product between anyone of them is 0
queres definir un producto interno sobre $\mathbb{C}^{N}$?
Edd

no, the inner product is already defined xD
i have to prove that with that inner product, z^n is an orthonormal system
pick a basis 1, z, z^2, ..., z^n

that's about all you need i guess
it's midnight and i'm hypoglycemic, i probably misunderstood
given n and m natural numbers, write out the taylor series expansion of z^n and z^m about 0, that is, find the taylor coefficients. then use them to compute the sum
wtf
granted
this is all i can gather since you haven't posted the full question
that's what i would've thought, the dual space of polys is fun stuff with factorials and lots of derivatives, but yea
asdflaghsdah my question is on spanish
explicame el problema en espanol
i am given a hardy space, https://gyazo.com/a184135b228f19d16f7ebdbffcb69505 , where D = z € C / |z| < 1
and then
teacher asks us to prove if this is an inner product
i did, and it is
and now, i have to prove that https://gyazo.com/25ff3fc0c950250ba2f7dbc97aae7423 forms and orthogonal system on this space
ok so then what i wrote is how you ought to proceed with showing that z^n forms an orthonormal set, just wanted to make sure
wanted to make sure the domain you were considering this inner product on wasn't something bad and terrible
so, why do i need taylor? i mean, isnt enough proving that if n == m then the inner is 1, else is 0?
<z, z^2> = 0 * 0 + 1 * 0 + 0 * 1 = 0
<z, z> = 0 * 0 + 1 * 1 = 1
i mean, if n != m, either a_n or b_n will be 0, so that term will be 0 cuz it is a product with 1 of each members 0
only when n == m, a_n and b_n will be != 0 for that n in particular, for the rest it is gonna be 0
yes, but you start with f and g which are polynomials
and these operations are over the coefficients
if i understood terra correctly, and i probably didn't, the taylor stuff is to get the coefficients of each term
yeah, but the inner product doesnt care about the polynomios. Only the coesficients
to be formal about it
sure, but that is the same as taking a bunch of derivatives and dividing by the corresponding factorials
the coeficients can be complex, sure, but on this case, p(z) = z^n
the coeficients are always Real
1
$$z^n = \sum_{k=0}^\infty a_kz^k$$ where $a_k$ is $1$ if $k = n$ and $0$ otherwise. use this to compute $$\langle z^n,z^m\rangle.$$
Terra
huh?
ah ye
only if n = m a_k and b_k will be 1 for the same n
sdfasdf isnt this what i said above? Q.Q
okey, ty
Doe someone have a proof for:
Given two spaces $V_\lambda_1$ and $V_\lambda_2$ where $\lambda_1 \neq \lambda_2$, the spaces are orthogonal
rcatalang
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
define V_lambda
